Various proofs of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality

Hui-Hua Wu and Shanhe Wu

Department of Mathematics and Computer Science, Longyan University, Longyan, Fujian 364012, P. R. China
E-mail: wushanhe@yahoo.com.cn

Corresponding Author

Abstract: In this paper twelve different proofs are given for the classical Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.
Keywords: Cauchy-Schwarz inequality; arithmetic-geometric means inequality; rearrangement inequality;
mathematical induction; scalar product
2000 Mathematics Subject Classification: 26D15

Introduction

The Cauchy-Schwarz inequality is an elementary inequality and at the same time a powerful inequality,
which can be stated as follows:
Theorem. Let (a1 , a2 , . . . , an ) and (b1 , b2 , . . . , bn ) be two sequences of real numbers, then
n
X

n
X

a2i

i=1

!
b2i

i=1

n
X

!2
ai bi

(1)

i=1

with equality if and only if the sequences (a1 , a2 , . . . , an ) and (b1 , b2 , . . . , bn ) are proportional, i.e., there is a
constant such that ak = bk for each k {1, 2, . . . , n}.
As is known to us, this classical inequality plays an important role in different branches of modern
mathematics including Hilbert spaces theory, probability and statistics, classical real and complex analysis,
numerical analysis, qualitative theory of differential equations and their applications (see [1-12]). In this
paper we show some different proofs of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.

Some different proofs of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality

Proof 1. Expanding out the brackets and collecting together identical terms we have
n X
n
X
i=1 j=1

(ai bj aj bi ) =

n
X

a2i

i=1

=2

n
X

b2j

j=1

n
X

!
a2i

i=1

n
X

b2i

i=1
n
X

n
X

a2j

j=1

!
b2i

i=1

n
X

ai bi

i=1
n
X

n
X

bj aj

j=1

!2
ai bi

i=1

Because the left-hand side of the equation is a sum of the squares of real numbers it is greater than or
equal to zero, thus
n
X
i=1

!
a2i

n
X

!
b2i

i=1

n
X
i=1

!2
ai bi

Proof 2. Consider the following quadratic polynomial

!
!
n
n
n
n
X
X
X
X
2
2
2
2
f (x) =
ai x 2
ai bi x +
bi =
(ai x bi ) .
i=1

i=1

i=1

i=1

Since f (x) 0 for any x R, it follows that the discriminant of f (x) is negative, i.e.,
!2

n
X

n
X

ai bi

i=1

n
X

a2i

i=1

!
b2i

0.

i=1

The inequality (1) is proved.

Proof 3. When

n
P
i=1

a2i = 0 or

n
P
i=1

b2i =0, (1) is an identity.

We can now assume that

An =

n
X

a2i 6= 0,

Bn =

i=1

n
X

b2i 6= 0,

i=1

bi
yi =
Bn

ai
xi = ,
An

(i = 1, 2, . . . , n),

then
n
X

n
X

x2i =

i=1

yi2 = 1.

i=1

The inequality (1) is equivalent to

x1 y1 + x2 y2 + xn yn 1,
that is
2(x1 y1 + x2 y2 + xn yn ) x21 + x22 + + x2n + y12 + y22 + + yn2 ,
or equivalently
2

(x1 y1 ) + (x2 y2 ) + + (xn yn ) 0,

which is evidently true. The desired conclusion follows.
p
p
Proof 4. Let A = a21 + a22 + + a2n , B = b21 + b22 + + b2n .
By the arithmetic-geometric means inequality, we have
n
X
ai bi
i=1

AB


n
X
1 a2
i=1

i
A2

b2
+ i2
B


= 1,

so that
n
X

ai bi AB =

q
q
a21 + a22 + + a2n b21 + b22 + + b2n .

i=1

Thus
n
X

!2
ai bi

i=1

n
X

!
a2i

i=1

n
X

!
b2i

i=1

Proof 5. Let An = a21 + a22 + + a2n , Bn = a1 b1 + a2 b2 + + an bn , Cn = b21 + b22 + + b2n .

It follows from the arithmetic-geometric means inequality that
n

X a2 Cn X b2
X
An Cn
i
i
+
1
=
+
=
Bn2
Bn2
Cn
i=1
i=1
i=1
2

a2i Cn
b2i
+
Bn2
Cn


2

n
X
ai bi
i=1

Bn

= 2,

therefore
An Cn Bn2 ,
that is
(a21 + a22 + + a2n )(b21 + b22 + + b2n ) (a1 b1 + a2 b2 + + an bn )2 .
Proof 6. Below, we prove the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality by mathematical induction.
Beginning the induction at 1, the n = 1 case is trivial.
Note that
2

(a1 b1 + a2 b2 ) = a21 b21 + 2a1 b1 a2 b2 + a22 b22 a21 b21 + a21 b22 + a22 b21 + a22 b22 = (a21 + a22 )(b21 + b22 ),
which implies that the inequality (1) holds for n = 2.
Assume that the inequality (1) holds for an arbitrary integer k, i.e.,
k
X

!2

ai bi

i=1

k
X

k
X

a2i

i=1

!
b2i

i=1

Using the induction hypothesis, one has

v
v
v
v
uk+1
u k
u k
uk+1
uX
uX
uX
uX
t
t
t
2
2
2
2
ai
bi =
ai + ak+1 t
b2i + b2k+1
i=1

i=1

i=1

i=1

v
v
u k
u k
uX
uX
t
2
a t
b2 + |a

i=1

k
X

k+1 bk+1 |

i=1

|ai bi | + |ak+1 bk+1 | =

i=1

k+1
X

|ai bi |.

i=1

It means that the inequality (1) holds for n = k + 1, we thus conclude that the inequality (1) holds for
all natural numbers n. This completes the proof of inequality (1).
Proof 7. Let
A = {a1 b1 , a1 bn , a2 b1 , , a2 bn , , an b1 , an bn }
B = {a1 b1 , a1 bn , a2 b1 , , a2 bn , , an b1 , an bn }
C = {a1 b1 , a1 bn , a2 b1 , , a2 bn , , an b1 , an bn }
D = {a1 b1 , an b1 , a1 b2 , , an b2 , , a1 bn , an bn }
It is easy to observe that the set A and B are similarly sorted, while the set C and D are mixed sorted.
Applying the rearrangement inequality, we have
(a1 b1 )(a1 b1 ) + + (a1 bn )(a1 bn ) + (a2 b1 )(a2 b1 ) + + (a2 bn )(a2 bn ) + + (an b1 )(an b1 ) + + (an bn )(an bn )
(a1 b1 )(a1 b1 )+ +(a1 bn )(an b1 )+(a2 b1 )(a1 b2 )+ +(a2 bn )(an b2 )+ +(an b1 )(a1 bn )+ +(an bn )(an bn ),
which can be simplified to the inequality
(a21 + a22 + + a2n )(b21 + b22 + + b2n ) (a1 b1 + a2 b2 + + an bn )2
as desired.
Proof 8. By the arithmetic-geometric means inequality, one has for > 0,
3

1
|ai bi |
2
s
Choosing =

n
P

i=1

b2i

n
P
i=1

a2i

b2
+ i


.

a2i in the above inequality gives

v
v

uP
uP
u n b2
u n a2
u
u

i
u i=1 i 2
u
2
u
|ai bi | u i=1
a
+
b
.
i
i
n
n
tP
t P

a2i
b2i
i=1

i=1

Hence
v
v

uP
uP
u n b2
u n a2
n
n
n
u
u

i X
X
1
u i=1 i X 2
u
2
u
|ai bi | u i=1
a
+
b
i
i,
n
n
tP
2 t P

i=1
a2i i=1
b2i i=1
i=1

i=1

or equivalently
v
v
v
v
u n
u n
u n
u n
n
n
X
X
X
X
X
u
u
u
uX
1
|ai bi | t
b2i
a2i + t
a2i
b2i = t
a2i t
b2i .
2
i=1
i=1
i=1
i=1
i=1
i=1
i=1

n
X

The desired conclusion follows.

Proof 9.
Construct the vectors = (a1 , a2 , , an ) , = (b1 , b2 , , bn ). Then for arbitrary real
numbers t, one has the following identities for scalar product:
( + t) ( + t) = + 2 ( ) t + ( )t2
2

|| + 2 ( ) t + || t2 = | + t| 0.
Thus
2

( ) || || 0.
Using the expressions
= a1 b1 + a2 b2 + + an bn ,

|| =

n
X

a2i ,

|| =

i=1

n
X
i=1

we obtain
n
X
i=1

!2
ai bi

n
X

!
a2i

n
X

i=1

Proof 10. Construct the vectors = (a1 , a2 , , an ) ,

From the formula for scalar product:

!
b2i

= (b1 , b2 , , bn ).

= || || cos (, ) ,
we deduce that
|| || .
4

0.

i=1

b2i ,

Using the expressions

= a1 b1 + a2 b2 + + an bn ,

|| =

n
X

n
X

a2i ,

|| =

i=1

b2i ,

i=1

we get the desired inequality (1).

Proof 11. Since the function f (x) = x2 is convex on (, +), it follows from the Jensens inequality
that
(p1 x1 + p2 x2 + + pn xn )2 p1 x21 + p2 x22 + + pn x2n ,

(2)

where xi R, pi > 0 (i = 1, 2, . . . , n), p1 + p2 + + pn = 1.

Case I. If bi 6= 0 for i = 1, 2, . . . , n, we apply xi = ai /bi and pi = b2i /(b21 + b22 + + b2n ) to the
inequality (2) to obtain that


a1 b1 + a2 b2 + + an bn
b21 + b22 + + b2n

2

a21 + a22 + + a2n

,
b21 + b22 + + b2n

that is
(a1 b1 + a2 b2 + + an bn )2 (a21 + a22 + + a2n )(b21 + b22 + + b2n ).
Case II. If there exists bi1 = bi2 = = bik = 0, one has
n
X

ai bi

i=1

!2

ai bi

i6=i1 ,...,ik ,1in

a2i

i6=i1 ,...,ik ,1in

b2i

i6=i1 ,...,ik ,1in

n
X
i=1

!
a2i

n
X

!
b2i

i=1

This completes the proof of inequality (1).

Proof 12. Define a sequence {Sn } by
2

Sn = (a1 b1 + a2 b2 + + an bn ) a21 + a22 + + a2n

b21 + b22 + + b2n .

Then




2
Sn+1 Sn = (a1 b1 + a2 b2 + + an+1 bn+1 ) a21 + a22 + + a2n+1 b21 + b22 + + b2n+1




2
(a1 b1 + a2 b2 + + an bn ) + a21 + a22 + + a2n b21 + b22 + + b2n ,
which can be simplified to
h
i
2
2
2
Sn+1 Sn = (a1 bn+1 b1 an+1 ) + (a2 bn+1 b2 an+1 ) + + (an bn+1 bn an+1 ) ,
so
Sn+1 Sn

(n N).

We thus have
Sn Sn1 S1 = 0,
which implies the inequality (1).
Acknowledgements. The present investigation was supported, in part, by the innovative experiment
project for university students from Fujian Province Education Department of China under Grant No.214,
and, in part, by the innovative experiment project for university students from Longyan University of China.

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