1. What are the ABCD assessments of the BLS Primary Survey?

a. airway, blood pressure, circulation, defibrillation

b. 2airway, breathing, circulation, defibrillation
c. air, breathing, cardiac arrest, defibrillation
d. airway, breathing, circulation, differential diagnosis
2. What are the ABCD assessments of the ACLS Secondary Survey?
a. airway, blood pressure, circulation, defibrillation
b.

airway, breathing, circulation, defibrillation

c. air, breathing, cardiac arrest, defibrillation
d. airway, breathing, circulation, differential diagnosis

3. How often should a patient be ventilated if they are experiencing respiratory arrest?
a. Once every 7 to 8 seconds or 10 to 12 times per minute
b. Once every 8 to 9 seconds or 8 to 10 times per minute
c. Once every 5 to 6 seconds or 10 to 12 times per minute
d. Once every 2 to 3 seconds or 15 to 17 times per minute
4. What are the risks associated with Hyperventilation?
a. Decreased venous return to the heart
b. Diminished cardiac outpu
c. Increases intrathoracic pressure
d. All of the above
5. The target oxygen saturation that should be maintained is ____________ .
a. 90%
b. 85%
c. 95%
d. 97%
6. Which basic airway skill is the most commonly used method for providing positivepressure ventilation?
a. Mouth-to-mouth
b. Mouth-to-barrier device

c. Bag-mask ventilation
d. Jaw thrust without head extension
7. A Rigid Catheter type is more effective than a Soft Catheter type for which of the following
uses:
a. More effective suctioning of the oropharynx
b. Aspiration of thin secretions from the oropharynx and nasopharynx
c. Performing intratracheal suctioning
d. Suctioning through an in-place airway to access the back of the pharynx in a patient
with clenched teeth
8. One cycle of CPR consists of ___________.
a. 30 compressions then 2 breaths
b. 20 compressions then 2 breaths
c. 30 compressions then 3 breaths
d. 20 compressions then 3 breath
9. When using a monophasic defibrillator, how many joules should be delivered for one
shock?
a. 270-J
b. 320-J
c. 360-J
d. 390-J
10. When using a monophasic defibrillator, how many joules should be delivered for one
shock?
a. 270-J
b. 320-J
c. 360-J
d. 390-J
10. Which one of the following is not a common cause of PEA?
a. Hypoxia
b. Thoracic damage
c. Toxins

d. Thrombosis
11. Which of the following are the two most easily reversible causes of PEA?
a. Hypovolemia and Trauma
b. Thrombosis and Trauma
c. Hypoglycemia and Hypoxia
d. Tension pneumothorax and Hypoxia
12. Cardiac arrest rhythm associated with no discernible electrical activity on the ECG is
a. Acute Coronary Syndrome
b. Bradycardia
c. Pulseless Electric Activity
d. Aystole
13. Which of the following is (are) an Acute Coronary Syndrome?
a. Plaque pupture
b. Microemboli
c. Unstable angina
d. All of the above
14. Which of the following is not a recommended agent to be administered to patients under
evaluation for ACS?
a. Morphine
b. Epinephrine
c. Aspirin
d. Nitroglycerin
15. Which of the following is a standard treatment procedure for patients with STEMI?
a. Reperfusion therapy
b. Use of a soft catheter
c. Defibrillation
d. Administration of morphin
16. A rhythm disorder with a heart rate of less than 60 bpm is ____________ .
a. Acute Coronary Syndrome

b. Bradycardia
c. Pulseless Electric Activity
d. Ventricular Fibrillation
17. What is an adverse sign of bradycardia?
a. Congestive heart failure
b. Hypertension
c. Chest pain
d. Impaired speech
18. TCP is not a recommended treatment for which of the following?
a. Standby pacing
b. Bracycardia with escape rhythms
c. Asystole
d. Hemodynamically significant bradyarrhythmia
19. A rhythm disorder with a heart rate of greater than 100 bpm is __________.
a. Acute Coronary Syndrome
b. Bradycardia
c. Ventricular Fibrillation
d. Tachyarrthythmia
20. Which of the following is a recommended agent to be administered to patients under
evaluation for unstable tachycardia?
a. No agents are recommended
b. Morphine
c. Oxygen
d. Aspirin
21. Which of the following is not a symptom of unstable tachycardia?
a. Shortness of breath
b. Blurred vision
c. Altered mental status
d. Fatigue

22. Which of the following is not one of the 7 Ds of Stroke Care?

a. Dispatch
b. Delivery
c. Dispense
d. Data
23. An Ischemic stroke
a. Accounts for 75% of all strokes and is usually caused by an occlusion of an artery to a
region of the brain.
b. Accounts for 85% of all strokes and is usually caused by an occlusion of vein to a
region of the brain.
c. Accounts for 85% of all strokes and is usually caused by an occlusion of an artery to a
region of the brain.
d. Accounts for 15% of all strokes and occurs when a blood vessel in the brain suddenly
ruptures in to the surrounding tissue.
24. Which of the following is not one of the 3 physical findings that the CPSS uses to
indentify strokes?
a. Facial drops
b. Vertigo
c. Arm drift
d. Abnormal speech
25. Warning signs and symptoms of a stroke include:
a. Trouble speaking, dizziness, sudden severe headache, sudden confusion
b. Sudden numbness, shortness of breath, sudden severe headache, sudden confusion
c. Trouble seeing in one eye, dizziness, vomiting, sudden confusion
d. Trouble speaking, dizziness, sudden severe headache, memory loss LS
26. What would you do first to restore oxygenation and ventilation to an unresponsive,
breathless, near-drowning victim with a pulse?
a. force water from the victim's lungs by performing the Heimlich maneuver
b. force water from the victim's lungs by starting chest compressions
c. check response,stabilize cervical spine with c-collar and spine board, check pulse
10sec, no pulse = start compressions
d. open the airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver, provide in-line cervical stabilization and
ventilation
27. You have just attempted to intubate your patient who is in respiratory arrest. When
checking for tube placement you auscultate a stomach gurgling over the epigastrium, and
oxygen saturation (per pulseoximetry) fails to rise. What would you think the most likely
answer would be for these findings?
a. intubation of the hypopharyngeal area
b. intubation of the left main bronchus

c. intubation of the right main bronchus

d. intubation of the stomach
28) Immediate intubation would be indicated for which of the following patients?
a. an elderly woman with severe chest pain and shallow respirations at 30 breaths/min
b. a 55-year-old insulin-dependent diabetic with ST-segment elevation and runs of VT
c. an apneic patient whose chest does not rise with bag-mask ventilations
d. a subdued, alcohol-intoxicated college student with a reduced gag reflex
29) What is the airway of choice for a trauma victim who is unresponsive and in shock?
a. a tracheal tube
b. the patient's own airway
c. a nasopharyngeal airway
d. an oropharyngeal airway
30) Please choose from the list below the proper sequence of events indicated for the
performance of CPR and the operation of an AED.
a. send someone to call 911, attach AED electrode pads, open the airway, turn on the
AED, provide 2 breaths, check for a pulse
b. wait for the AED and barrier device to arrive, open the airway, provide 2 breaths,
check for a pulse, if no pulse attach AED electrode pads, follow AED prompts
c. check scene safety, check the patient for responsiveness, send someone to call
911, check for a pulse, if no pulse start compressions until the AED arrives then attach
the AED, follow AED prompts
d. provide 2 breaths, check for a pulse, if no pulse perform chest compressions for 1
minute, call forthe AED, when the AED arrives attach electrode pads
31) Your AED has just arrived while you are doing CPR on a man who is unresponsive,
pulseless and apnec. The AED advises you to press the shock button and you give a shock.
What do you do next?
a. reanalyze the victim's rhythm
b. perform CPR until EMS personnel arrive
c. Start 30 chest compressions then give 2 breaths
d. leave the AED attached and start transport to the nearest ED, stopping every 3
minutes for the
AED to reanalyze
32) What drug is indicated next for a patient who remains in VF cardiac arrest after
defibrillation & epinephrine 1 mg IV?
a. amiodarone 150 mg IV given over 10 minutes
b. lidocaine 1 to 1.5 mg/kg IV push
c. procainamide 50 mg/min, up to a total dose of 17 mg/kg
d. magnesium 1 to 2 g, appropriately diluted, IV push
33) A patient in VF cardiac arrest has failed to respond to defibrillation & epinephrine 1 mg
IV. You give the nurse an order to administer epinephrine every 3 minutes during the code.
Which of the following dose regimens is recommended?
a. epinephrine 1 mg, 3 mg, 5 mg, and 7 mg (escalating regimen)
b. epinephrine 0.2 mg/kg per dose (high-dose regimen)
c. epinephrine 1 mg IV push, repeated every 3-5 minutes
d. epinephrine 1 mg IV push, followed in 3 minutes by vasopressin 40 U I
34) Your ambulance arrives at the scene of a 49-year-old woman in cardiac arrest. The first
AED analysis registers "shock indicated." But before the shock can be delivered, you learn

that the woman has gone 12 minutes without any bystander CPR. What actions should you
the EMTs take next?
a. resume CPR, supplement with 100% 02, continue until paramedics arrive
b. allow the AED to charge and shock
c. resume CPR, supplement with 100% 02 for 3 minutes, reanalyze, shock if indicated
d. resume CPR, contact medical control, request permission to stop resuscitative efforts
35) When using vasopressin on a patient who remains in persistent VF arrest.. Which
of the following guidelines for use of vasopressin is true?ue?
a. give vasopressin 40 U every 3 to 5 minutes
b. give vasopressin for better vasoconstriction and -adrenergic; stimulation than
provided by
epinephrine
c. give vasopressin as an alternative to epinephrine in shock-refractory VF
d. give vasopressin as the first-line pressor agent for clinical shock caused by
hypovolemia
36) A patient presents to your unit. CPR continues with ventilations provided through a
endotracheal tube inserted in the hallway. Chest compressions produce a femoral pulse that
disappears during a "stop compressions" pause. During the pause the cardiac monitor shows
narrow QRS complexes at a rateof 67 bpm. What is the next action you should take?
a. check for tracheal tube dislodgment and improper tube placement
b. start an IV, administer atropine 1 mg IV push
c. start an IV, send blood samples for measurement of serum electrolytes and a toxic drug
screen
d. analyze arterial blood gases to check for acidosis, hypoxia, and hypoventilation
37) Your patient presents with PEA. You auscultate excellent bilateral breath sounds, and you
see excellent bilateral chest rise. Two minutes after epinephrine 1 mg IV is given, PEA
continues at 30 bpm. What action would you take next?
a. administer atropine 1 mg IV
b. initiate transcutaneous pacing at a rate of 60 bpm
c. start a doparnine IV infusion at 15 to 20 pg/kg per minute
d. give epinephrine (1 mL of 1:10 000 solution) IV bolus
38) Your patient presents with PEA. When would sodium bicarbonate therapy (1 mEq/kg) be
most
effective?
a. a patient with hypercarbic acidosis due to a tension pneumothorax
b. a patient with a brief arrest interval
c. a patient with documented severe hyperkalemia
d. a patient with documented severe hypokalemia
39) An unresponsive, pulseless, apnec patient arrives in your unit in PEA at 30 bpm. CPR
continues, ET tube placement is confirmed, and IV access is secured. Which of the following
medications would you give next?
a. calcium chloride 5 mL of 10% solution IV
b. epinephrine 1 mg IV
c. synchronized cardioversion at 200 J
d. sodium bicarbonate 1 mEq/kg IV
40) What drug-dose combination is recommended as the first line medication to give to a
patient in asystole?
a. epinephrine 3 mg IV
b. atropine 3 mg IV

c. epinephrine 10 mL of a 1:10 000 solution IV

d. atropine 0.5 mg IV
41) When a monitor attached to a person in cardiac arrest displays a "flat line," you should
execute the"flat line protocol." Which of the following actions is included in this protocol?
a. check monitor display for sensitivity or "gain"
b. obtain a right-sided 12-lead ECG
c. change LEAD SELECT control from lead // to paddles and back
d. administer a lower energy (100 J) defibrillatory shock to "bring out" possible occult VF
42) A 76-year-old woman in cardiac arrest arrives in the ED after 15 minutes of continuous
asystole. The patiente is intubated, proper tube placement is confirmed, IV access
established, and epinephrine 1 mg IV x 3 and atropine 1 mg IV x 2 have been administered.
Which of the following actions is most likely to have the most advantageous effect and is
consistent with the recommendations in ECC Guidelines
2001?
a. ask the nurse to bring members of the immediate family to a private area, where you
discuss code
termination and family presence at the resuscitation
b. stop efforts at 10 minutes if there is no response to epinephrine 3 mg IV every 3
minutes
c. stop efforts at 10 minutes if there is no response to transcutaneous pacing given with
CPR
d. stop efforts if there is no response to 3 empiric defibrillatory shocks of 360 J given 3
minutes apart
43) A 60-year-old woman has a 4-mm ST-elevation in leads V2 to V4. The women has severe
chest pain despiteoxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin SL x 6, and morphine 10 mg IV. BP =
168/112 mm Hg; HR = 118 bpm.Which of the following treatment combinations is most
appropriate for this patient at this time(assume no contraindications to any medication)?
a. calcium channel blocker IV + heparin bolus IV
b. ACE inhibitor IV + lidocaine infusion
c. magnesium sulfate IV + enoxaparin (Lovenox) SQ
d. reteplase, recombinant (Retavase) + heparin bolus IV
44) Which of the following treatments is included in the definitive therapy for a 62-year-old
man
with >3mm ST-segment elevation within 30 minutes of the onset of symptoms of acute
myocardial infarction?
a. fibrinolytics or PCI, aspirin, -blockers, heparin
b. heparin, aspirin, glycoprotein Ilb/Illa inhibitors, IV -blockers, nitrates
c. serum cardiac markers, serial ECGs, perfusion scan or stress test
d. prophylactic lidocaine, fluid bolus, vasopressor infusion
45) Within 45 minutes of arrival in your ED, which of the following evaluation sequences
should be performed for a 56-year-old woman with facial droop, garbled speech, rapid onset
of headache,and right arm and leg weakness?
a. history, physical and neurologic exams, noncontrast head CT with radiologist
interpretation
b. history, physical and neurologic exams, noncontrast head CT, start of fibrinolytic
treatment if scan is positive for stroke
c. history, physical and neurologic exams, lumbar puncture, contrast head CT if LP is
negative for
blood
d. history, physical and neurologic exams, contrast head CT, start of fibrinolytic treatment

when
improvement in neurologic signs is noted

46) An acute stroke may exhibit signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions?
a. acute insulin-induced hypoglycemia
b. acute hypoxia
c. isotonic dehydration and hypovolemia
d. acute vasovagal or orthostatic hypotension
47) For which of the following rhythms would transcutaneous cardiac pacing be indicated?
a. sinus bradycardia with no symptoms
b. normal sinus rhythm with hypotension and shock
c. complete heart block with pulmonary edema
d. asystole that follows 6 or more defibrillation shocks
48) A man with a HR of 30 to 35 bpm complains of SOB, cool clammy extremities, and
dizziness
with minimal exercise. What drug would be indicated first to treat this patient?
a. atropine 0.5 to I mg
b. epinephrine 1 mg IV push
c. isoproterenol infusion 2 to 10 4min
d. adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push
49) Syncronized cardioversion is indicated for which of the following patients?
a. a 78-year-old woman with fever, pneumonia, chronic congestive heart failure, and sinus
tachycardia at 125 bpm
b. a 55-year-old man with multifocal atrial tachycardia at 125 bpm, respiratory rate of 12
breaths/minute, and BP of 134/86 mm Hg
c. a 69-year-old woman with a history of coronary artery disease, chest pain, a 2-mm ST
elevation, and sinus tachycardia at 130 bpm
d. a 62-year-old man with a history of rheumatic mitral valve disease, obvious shortness
of breath,
HR of 160 bpm, and BP of 80/50 mm Hg
50) In which of the senerio's below would you not cardiovert a patient with stable
tachycardia
a. a 25-year-old wheezing asthmatic woman who has pneumonia on chest x-ray, who is
taking
albuterol, and who has the following vital signs: temp = 101.2'F, HR = 140 bpm, resp =
20
breaths/min
b. a 55-year-old man with diaphoresis, bilateral rales, and the following vital signs: HR =
140 bpm,
BP = 90/55 mrn Hg, resp = 18 breaths/min, rhythm = rapid atrial flutter
c. a 62-year-old man with a wide-complex tachycardia at a rate of 140 bpm, chest pain,
shortness of breath, and palpitations
d. a 55-year-old woman with chest pain, shortness of breath, extreme weakness and
dizziness, BP of 88/54 mm Hg, and a narrow-complex tachycardia at a rate of 145 bpm
51) You prepare to cardiovert an unstable 44-year-old tachycardic man with the
monitor/defibrillator in"synchronization" mode. He suddenly becomes unresponsive and
pulseless as the rhythm changes to a VF-like pattern. You charge the defibrillator to 200 J
and press the SHOCK button,but the defibrillator fails to deliver a shock. Why?

a. the defibrillator/monitor battery failed

b. the "sync" switch failed
c. you cannot shock VF in "sync" mode
d. a monitor lead has lost contact, producing the "pseudo-VF" rhythm
52) A 60-year-old man complains of mild lightheadedness and palpitations, but the findings
of his
exam are unremarkable. The ECG shows a regular, narrow-complex tachycardia at 150
bpm. The Valsalva maneuver slows the ventricular rate to reveal atrial flutter, but it does
not convert the atrial flutter. Which of the following therapies should you try next?
a. IV adenosine to slow ventricular rate
b. IV diftiazem to slow ventricular rate
c. urgent DC cardioversion
d. IV dopamine to strengthen cardiac contractions
53) A healthy 49-year-old woman complains of tightness in her chest, dizziness, and
palpitations. HR is 165 bpm, BP is 88/58 mm Hg, and the ECG shows a narrow-complex
tachycardia. You decide thatthe rhythm is multifocal atrial tachycardia. He has failed to
respond to vagal maneuvers and 2 rounds of adenosine. Which of the following treatments is
inappropriate?
a. IV amiodarone
b. IV metoprolol
c. IV diltiazem
d. DC cardioversion
54) A 71-year-old woman presents with 6 days of lightheadedness, palpitations, and slight
exercise intolerance. The 12-lead reveals atrial fibrillation, which continues at a HR of 130 to
160 bpm and SP = 102/72 mm Hg. Which of the following treatments is the most
appropriate intervention?
a. sedation, analgesia, then immediate cardioversion
b. oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 to 6 Umin, normal saline at 60 to 120 mL/h
c. amiodarone 300 mg IV bolus
d. metoprolol 5 mg IV; repeat every 5 minutes to a total dose of 15 mg
57) A 56-year-old, malnourished, chronic alcoholic presents with polymorphic ventricular
tachycardia that resembles torsades de pointes. His HR is irregular at 120 to 160 bpm, and
his BP is 95/65 mm Hg. He has no related symptoms and no signs of impaired heart function.
Which of the followingtreatments is most appropriate at this time?
a. IV amiodarone
b. IV magnesium
c. IV lidocaine
d. IV procainamide
58) You are performing CPR on a uresponsive pulseless apnec woman in cardiac arrest when
a co-worker arrives and attaches an AED. With the first AED analysis a shock is "indicated"
and delivered, but the next rhythm analysis signals "no shock advised." What acton would
you take next?
a. check for a pulse
b. press the manual OVERRIDE button and operate the AED as a manual defibrillator
c. insert an oropharyngeal airway and start 100% oxygen at 6 Umin
d. support breathing and place the patient in the recovery position until the hospital code
team arrives

59) Which patient below is most likely to present with vague signs and symptoms of an
atypical AMI?
a. a 65-year-old woman with moderate coronary artery disease recently confirmed by
angiography
b. a 56-year-old man who smokes 3 packs per day but has no history of heart disease
c. a 45-year-old woman diagnosed with type I diabetes 22 years ago
d. a 48-year-old man in the ICU after coronary artery bypass surgery
60) A 50-year-old woman (weight = 60 kg) with recurrent VF has converted to a wide
complex
perfusing rhythm after epinephrine 1 mg IV and a 4th shock (HR = 70 bpm, BP = 92/62 mm
Hg). Which drug therapy is most appropriate to give next?
a. amiodarone 300 mg IV push
b. adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push

c. magnesium 3 g IV push, diluted in 10 mL of D5W

d. procainamide 20 to 50 mg/min, up to a maximum dose of 17 mg/k

61) If a patient receiving emergency synchronized cardioversion develops

ventricular fibrillation:
immediately begin 2-3 minutes of CPR
immediately turn off the synchronizer mode and defibrillate
increase the energy and deliver another synchronized shock
none of the above
answer is: immediately turn off the synchronizer mode and defibrillateIn the
event that a synchronized shock induces ventricular fibrillation, the patient
should be immediately shocked after turning off the synchronized mode. CPR
cannot terminate the ventricular fibrillation, and statistically, the faster the
patient receives defibrillation following the onset of the ventricular
fibrillation, the more likely successful conversion will be.
62) Which one of the following is not a usual cause of pulseless electrical
activity?
severe hypoxemia
hypovolemia (i.e. massive hemorrhage)
sudden pericardial tamponade

hyperthermia
Answer hyperthermia
The most recent ECC Guidelines list hypovolemia; hypoxia; hypothermia;
tension pneumothorax; cardiac tamponade; toxins; and, thrombosis as
potentially reversible causes of PEA. The clinical reality is that patient should
never die of an undetected/untreated tension pneumothorax. Treatment is
simple and straight-forward. The others on the list are often too massive to
treat fast enough to achieve return of spontaneous circulation.
63) All patients with bradycardia (adult with a heart rate < 60/minute) must
receive treatment to accelerate the heart rate.
true
false

Answer : falseThe textbook definition of bradycardia, a heart rate less than

60 per minute is a general statement that does not apply to every situation.
Each stable patient with bradycardia needs to be assessed to determine
whether the slow heart rate has an emergency significance. In many cases
such as the patient suffering an inferior-wall myocardial infarction the slower
heart may be protective in that it may be reducing myocardial oxygen
demand. Another example is the professional athlete whose heart is 48. The
athletes heart rate is a sign of physical conditioning, not disease. Generally,
patients with stable bradycardia should not receive drug intervention.
64) Which of the following may be acceptable treatment adjuncts when
treating patients with high-risk unstable angina/non-ST-elevation MI
(UA/NSTEMI)?
1. nitroglycerin
2. heparin
3. oral beta blocker therapy
4. clopidogrel or glycoprotein IIB/IIIA inhibitor
(all of the above)
(none of the above)
(2 only)
(1,2 only)

Answer (all of the above) Acceptable treatment considerations when treating

patients with high-risk unstable angina/non-ST-elevation MI include: (a)
nitroglycerin; (b) heparin (c) oral beta blocker therapy; and (d) clopidogrel or
glycoprotein IIB/IIIA therapy.
65) Common treatments for sinus tachycardia include:

IV fluid administration
fever reduction
pain relief
all of the above
Answer all of the above. Because sinus tachycardia is not an arrhythmia per
se, but a response to a physiologic stimulus, the treatment is reversing fever,
hypovolemia, severe anxiety and pain. Adenosine can be used to
differentiate ST from SVT when the history is unclear. If adenosine converts
the narrow QRS tachycardia, ST is ruled-out
66) While treating a patient in persistent ventricular fibrillation, you consider
using vasopressin. Which of the following guidelines for the use of
vasopressin is true?
a) Give vasopressin 40 U IV every 3 to 5 minutes.
b) Give vasopressin as an alternative to epinephrine.
c) Give vasopressin rather than epinephrine, because vasopressin is a better
vasoconstrictor.
d) Give vasopressin as an antiarrhythmic to attempt to convert the ventricular
waveform.
67) A man in his 20s, who was a spectator at a sporting event, has collapsed in the
restroom. He is unresponsive and has no pulse or respirations. As you enter the room,
someone reports having just called 911 and another person races out to obtain an AED just
down the hall. What is indicated next?
a) Give the man 2 rescue breaths and begin CPR.
b) Keep the man comfortable while waiting for the AED.
c) Ask if anyone knows the mans medical history.
d) Look for evidence of drug use.
68) What is the intrinsic pacemaker rate of ventricular cells?
a) Greater than 80 beats per minute.
b) 60 to 80 beats per minute.
c) 40 to 60 beats per minute.
d) Less than 40 beats per minute.
69) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia is characterized by a heart rate of.
a) Of 100 beats per minute.
b) Between 100 and 150 beats per minute.
c) Between 150 and 250 beats per minute.
d) Greater than 250 beats per minute.
70) First degree AV block is characterized by

a) A variable heart rate usually less than 60 beats per minute.

b) An irregular rhythm.
c) Delayed conduction, producing a prolonged PR interval.
d) P waves hidden within the QRS complex.
71) What is a wandering pacemaker?
a) An ectopic beat that originates in the atria.
b) There are changes in the p wave from one beat to the next.
c) There can be no change in the PRI interval.
d) Conduction through the ventricles is abnormal.
72) Which statement about Wenckebach is true?
a) The R to R interval is regular.
b) Progressively longer PRI with eventual blocked QRS.
c) The PRI is constant with an eventual blocked QRS.
d) There is not a discernable pattern to the rhythm.
73) Which of the following rhythms originate in the ventricles?
a) Atrial flutter.
b) Junctional tachycardia.
c) Torsades de pointes.
d) Wandering pacemaker.
74) The pain of angina pectoris is primarily produced by
a) Coronary vasoconstriction.
b) Movement of thromboemboli.
c) Myocardial ischemia.
d) The presence of atheromas.
75) To ensure proper delivery of the shock when performing synchronized
cardioversion you should do all of the following except.
a) Announce to the team members: Charging defibrillator, stand clear.
b) The electrical impulse should be discharged on the T wave.
c) You need to press the synch button and look for markers on the R wave.
d) You will need to reactivate the synch mode after delivery of each
synchronized shock if you intend to deliver another synchronized shock.
76) Cardiogenic shock is pump failure that primarily occurs as a result of
a) Coronary artery stenosis
b) Left ventricular failure.
c) Myocardial ischemia.
d) Right atrial fibrillation.
77) During CPR on an adult the chest is compressed.
a) 2 inches.
b) 2 to 2 1/2 inches.
c) 1 1/2 to 2 inches.
d) 1 1/2 to 2 1/2 inches.
78) What does 5 cycles of CPR consist of?
a) 15 compressions to two breaths.
b) 15 compressions to one breath.
c) 30 compressions to one breath.
d) 30 compressions to two breaths.

79) What is the sequence in the basic life support (BLS) primary survey?
a) Check pulse, start CPR, assess reparations, start rescue breathing and activate
EMS.
b) Open the airway, start rescue breathing, check heart rhythm, provideshocks as
indicated.
c) Open the airway, assess breathing, give rescue breaths, check pulse, start CPR.
d) Activate EMS, check breathing, give two rescue breaths, check pulse, start CPR.
80) To ensure the best possible chance for your patient to survive an arrest the resuscitation
team should ensure that:
a) Family members are not present during the resuscitation effort.
b) Every attempt is made to check for signs of life.
c) Interruptions in CPR are minimized.
d) The team follows the ACLS guidelines perfectly.
81) What is the ACLS secondary survey composed of?
a) Assess airway, assess oxygenation, confirm circulation, start an IV.
b) Assess airway, assess breathing, insert an advanced airway if needed,
confirm proper placement, assess rhythm, start IV, treat abnormal rhythm.
c) Assess airway, assess pulse, treat arrhythmia, confirm properplacement
of an advanced airway, start IV, give fluids if needed.
d) Assess airway, intubate, insert a central line, shock patient.
82) What is the rate of rescue breathing for an adult?
a) 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds or 10 to 12 breaths per minute.
b) 2 breaths to every 30 compressions.
c) 1 breath every 6 seconds or 14 breaths per minute.
d) 12 to 16 breaths per minute.
83) What is the most common cause of airway obstruction?
a) Food getting stuck in the esophagus.
b) The tongue.
c) People trying to swallow objects.
d) Eating to fast and talking at the same time.
84) How do you open the airway of a suspected neck injury patient?
a) Head tilt-chin lift.
b) Jaw thrust maneuver.
c) You do not open the airway because it will damage the spinal cord.
d) You ventilate the nose instead.
85) What is an OPA?
a) Oropharyngeal airway.
b) Oraesphageal airway.
c) Oral pharyngeal airway.
d) Oral patient airway.
86) Which statement about a nasopharyngeal airway is correct?
a) Provides an airway between the nares and the pharynx.
b) It is called a trumpet and it is used for frequent suctioning.
c) Cannot be used on a patient with an intact cough and gag reflex.
d) Will not cause laryngospasm and vomiting.
87) Immediately after delivering a shock you should have a team member.
a) Deliver another shock if the rhythm is still ventricular fibrillation.

b) Assess the pulse.

c) Resume CPR, beginning with chest compressions.
d) Give appropriate drug indicated in the ACLS guidelines.
88) What is the initial energy level for the treatment of ventricular
tachycardia when using a biphasic defibrillator?
a) 350 J.
b) 200 J.
c) 120 J.
d) 150 J.
89) What is the preferred route for drug administration?
a) Intravenous (IV) or intraosseous (IO).
b) Central line.
c) Peripheral line in the anticubital space.
d) IV or endotracheal (ET).
90) Which of the following statements is true?
a) Drugs given by the ET route need to be 2 to 2 1/2 times greater than
the IV dose.
b) The ET route is preferred over the IO route for drug administration.
c) Drugs do not need to be diluted when given during a cardiac arrest.
d) IO access is only recommended for pediatric patients.
91) Which of the following drugs cannot be given by the endotracheal route?
a) Narcan, epinephrine.
b) Atropine, lidocaine.
c) Amiodarone.
d) Vasopressin, epinephrine.
92) Which statement about vasopressin is not true?
a) Vasopressin is a nonadrenergic peripheral vasoconstrictor.
b) A single dose of vasopressin may replace either the first or second
dose of epinephrine.
c) Vasopressors like vasopressin optimize cardiac output and blood
pressure in cardiac arrest.
d) The dose of vasopressin is 40 mg.
93) What is the dose of Amiodarone that is given in ventricular fibrillation?
a) 150 mg IV or IO, then 300 mg in 3 to 5 minutes.
b) 300 mg IV or IO, then another dose in 3 to 5 minutes.
c) 300 mg IV or IO, followed by 150 mg in 3 to 5 minutes.
d) 150 mg IV or IO, followed by another 150 mg in 3 to 5 minutes.
94) Which of the following is the better treatment for ventricular
fibrillation?
a) Shock, shock, epinephrine, lidocaine, magnesium.
b) Shock, epinephrine, shock, Amiodarone, shock, magnesium.
c) Shock, vasopressin, magnesium, Amiodarone.
d) Shock, start IV, intubate, insert foley catheter, epinephrine.
99) After the patient is recessitated you should do this first.
a) Inform the family.
b) Order a wet-stat chest radiograph to confirm endotracheal tube placement.

c) Start an IV infusion of the antiarrhythmic that was successful in

converting the rhythm.
d) Clean up the room and chart.
100) What is considered the maximum 24 hour dose of Amiodarone?
a) 2 g.
b) 1.5 g.
c) 2.2 g.
d) 2.5 g.
101) What is the maximum dose for lidocaine?
a) 2 mg/kg.
b) 3 mg/kg.
c) 4 mg/kg
d) 1.5 mg/kg.
102) When you see a flat line on the monitor you should do all of the
following except:
a) Change leads to validate asystole.
b) Check that all the leads are in their proper place.
c) Check that the amplitude is not turned down.
d) Record the rhythm as flat line.
103) What do you do after administering one shock and two minutes of CRP?
a) Check the pulse.
b) Check the rhythm.
c) Check for breathing
d) Check that CPR is performed correctly.
104) What is the first dose of lidocaine used in the treatment of ventricular
fibrillation?
a) 0.5 to 0.75 mg/kg/min.
b) 2 mg/kg/min.
c) 1 to 2 g.
d) 1 to 1.5 mg/kg/min.
105) What is the dose of magnesium for the treatment of ventricular
fibrillation?
a) 1 to 2 g in 10 ml. IV or IO over 2 minutes.
b) 1 to 2 g in 10 ml. IV or IO over 20 minutes.
c) 1 to 2 g in 50 ml. IV over 30 minutes.
d) 1 to 2 g in 10 ml. IV or IO every 3 to 5 minutes.
105) What electrolyte abnormalities often coexist with magnesium deficiency?
a) Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia.
b) Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia.
c) Hypercalcemia and hyperkalemia.
d) Hypocalcemia and hypernatremia.
107) When do you administer drugs for the treatment of ventricular
fibrillation?
a) After the second shock.
b) After each shock.
c) Before you shock the patient.
d) After the first shock and before or after the following shocks.

108) What is the initial dose of atropine for the treatment of asystole?
a) 3 mg.
b) 1 mg. And repeat in 3 to 5 minutes if no response.
c) 0.5 mg.
d) 1 to 2 mg.
109) Which is the better treatment for asystole?
a) CPR, IV, intubate, epinephrine, pace.
b) CPR, IV, epinephrine or vasopressin, pace.
c) CPR, IV, epinephrine, atropine.
d) CPR, IO, intubate, epinephrine, defibrillate or pace.
110) What is ROSC?
a) Return of Spontaneous Circulation.
b) Review of Stroke Scale.
c) Reevaluation of Sudden Confusion.
d) Report of Observance of Standards and Codes.
111) Which of the following is not a contributing factor to an arrest.
a) Exercise.
b) Taking doubling the prescription dose.
c) Developing a pneumothorax.
d) Being the passenger in a motor vehicle accident.
112) What is considered the first treatment for hypotension?
a) Start a low dose dopamine infusion.
b) Administer a bolus of normal saline.
c) Administer a vasoconstrictor by the IV route.
d) Stop all blood pressure medication.
113) What are the signs and symptoms of an unstable patient?
a) A patient who complains all of the time.
b) A patient who demonstrates tachycardia, fever, and sweats.
c) A patient who reports pain.
d) A patient who reports chest pain, or shortness of breath, or has
hypotension.
114) What are the two most common causes of PEA?
a) Hypothermia and hypoxia.
b) Hypovolemia and thrombosis.
c) Hypovolemia and hypoxia.
d) Hypothermia and aneurysm.
115) MACE is all of the following except.
a) Death or nonfatal MI.
b) Urgent revascularization.
c) Major adverse cardiac events.
d) Unstable cardiac rhythms.
116) Which of the following is not a potential cause of chest pain?
a) Aortic dissection.
b) Pulmonary embolism.
c) Pericardial effusion.
d) Atherosclerosis.

117) All of the following are effects of morphine except.

a) Decreases catecholamine release.
b) Produces venodilation.
c) Produces arteriolar dilation.
d) Decreases systemic vascular resistance.
118) What is STEMI?
a) ST deviation <0.5 mm or T wave inversion of 2mm or less.
b) ST segment depression of 0.5mm or greater or T wave inversion with
discomfort.
c) ST elevation of >1mm in 2 or more leads or new LBBB.
d) ST elevation of 20 minutes or less.
119) What is the initial assessment of a patient with ischemic chest discomfort composed
of?
a) Oxygen, monitor, vital signs.
b) Morphine, nitroglycerine, aspirin, and oxygen.
c) Vital signs, oxygen, IV.
d) Vital signs, complete history, call physician.
120) What is NSTEMI?
a) ST deviation <0.5 mm or T wave inversion of 2mm or less.
b) ST segment depression of 0.5mm or greater or T wave inversion with
discomfort.
c) ST elevation of >1mm in 2 or more leads or new LBBB.
d) ST elevation of 20 minutes or less.
121) What is unstable angina (US)?
a) ST deviation <0.5 mm or T wave inversion of 2mm or less.
b) ST segment depression of 0.5mm or greater or T wave inversion with
discomfort.
c) ST elevation of >1mm in 2 or more leads or new LBBB.
d) ST elevation of 20 minutes or less.
122) What are the agents used in the medical management of ischemic chest pain?
a) Stop and make the patient rest.
b) Oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerine, morphine.
c) Serial ECG, CPK and troponin.
d) Reperfusion therapy.
123) Of the following, who is a candidate for fibrolytic therapy?
a) > 1mm ST segment elevation.
b) Onset of symptoms was 14 hours ago.
c) Onset of symptoms was yesterday.
d) Inferior MI.
124) When do you assess the pulse in the asystole algorithm?
a) Just prior to calling the arrest and after IV, epinephrine and
atropine treatment if there is electrical activity.
b) Just prior to calling the arrest and after each drug.
c) Just prior to calling the arrest and after placing the IV and intubating,and then after
each drug.
d) Just prior to calling the arrest and each time after you give epinephrine.
125) How long should the team implement resuscitation efforts?

a) 30 minutes.
b) 20 minutes.
c) One hour.
d) Until they are exhausted.
126) Prolonged resuscitation efforts may be indicated for patients who
a) Have a diagnosis of terminal cancer.
b) Suffered a massive MI.
c) Drowned.
d) Are hypothermic or overdosed on drugs.
127) Classification of acute coronary syndromes is based on
a) ECG and cardiac enzymes.
b) ECG.
c) History.
d) History and ECG.
128) Patients are instructed to chew an aspirin if
a) They have no allergy to aspirin.
b) They have a recent gastrointestinal bleed.
c) History of gastritis or peptic ulcer.
d) They are not having a heart attack.
129) Nitroglycerin can be safely administered to a patient with
a) An inferior MI with RV involvement.
b) Recent consumption of Viagra, Cialis or Levetra.
c) Systolic blood pressure < 90 mmHg.
d) Congestive heart failure.
130) What is the infusion rate of epinephrine?
a) 2 to 10 mcg/min.
b) 2 to 10 mcg/kg/min.
c) 2 to 10 mg/min.
d) 2 to 10 units/min.
131) What is the infusion rate of dopamine?
a) 2 to 10 mcg/kg/min.
b) 2 to 10 mg/min.
c) 2 to 10 units/min.
d) 2 to 10 mcg/min.
132) Which patient do you need to be cautious of giving atropine to?
a) The patient who was just given benadryl.
b) A patient with a second degree block.
c) A patient with a pacemaker.
d) A patient with Mobitz type II block.
133) What should you do before you pace a semicontious patient?
a) Ensure proper placement of the pacing patches.
b) Consult a cardiologist.
c) Administer pain medication and sedation.
d) Let the monitor technician know that you are going to pace the patient.
134) Which of the following is not a precaution for transcautaneous pacing?
a) It is contraindicated in severe hypothermia.

b) It is not recommended for asystole.

c) Assess only the carotid pulse when confirming mechanical capture.
d) An extremely hairy chest.
135) Which of the following is not considered an adjunctive treatment for a heart attack
victim?
a) Nitroglycerine.
b) Oxygen.
c) Beta-blockers.
d) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE).
136) Which of the following is not considered a bradycardia rhythm?
a) Second degree heart block.
b) Sinus bradycardia.
c) Heart rate > 60 beats/min.
d) Third degree heart block.
137) Which of the following is not a sign of an unstable patient?
a) Pulmonary congestion.
b) Occasional PVC.
c) Hypotension.
d) Syncope.
138) What is the better treatment for bradycardia?
a) CPR, IV, atropine, and observe the patient.
b) Support airway, breathing and circulation.
c) Support airway and breathing, start IV, give atropine while awaiting
pacemaker.
d) CPR, fluid bolus, dopamine drip, pacemaker.
139) Which of the following is considered to be a relative bradycardia?
a) A septic patient that is not tachycardic.
b) A patient who has had a recent MI.
c) An athlete.
d) A patient with a third degree heart block.
140) Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of unstable bradycardia?
a) Chest pain, shortness of breath.
b) The shakes.
c) Weakness, fatigue.
d) Decreased level of consciousness.
141) Transcautaneous pacing should be started immediately in all of the
following except:
a) When there is no response to atropine.
b) The patient is severely symptomatic.
c) The unstable patient has a 2nd degree block or 3rd degree block.
d) On a patient with a 1st degree block.
142) When pacing is still not available or a symptomatic bradycardia isunresponsive to
atropine you should:
a) Start a dopamine drip at 10 to 20mcg/kg/min.
b) Start an epinephrine drip at 2 to 20mcg/min.
c) Start a dopamine drip at 2 to 10mcg/kg/min.

d) Start an epinephrine drip at 5mcg/min.

143) Which of the following is not considered unstable tachycardia?
a) The heart is beating so fast that the cardiac output is reduced.
b) Patient reports chest pain, and shortness of breath.
c) Heart rate is greater than 100 beats per minute.
d) The heart is beating ineffectively.
144) How fast does the heart have to beat to cause unstable tachycardia?
a) Greater than 150 beats per minute.
b) Greater than 100 beats per minute.
c) Greater than 200 beats per minute.
d) Depends on the speed of the atria.
145) Of the following, what is the best treatment for a narrow regular tachycardia?
a) Diltiazem drip.
b) Vagal maneuvers, adenosine.
c) Amiodarone bolus and then start a drip.
d) Loading doses of digoxin.
146) Which of the following is not an AV nodal blocking agent?
a) Adenosine.
b) Digoxin.
c) Diltiazem.
d) Amiodarone.
147) What do you do if a stable tachycardic patient becomes unstable?
a) Obtain a 12 lead ECG.
b) Consult a cardiologist.
c) Immediate cardioversion.
d) Get consent for cardioversion.
148) Of the following, what is the best treatment for a wide tachycardia?
a) Support airway, breathing and circulation. Then give Amiodarone.
b) Immediate cardioversion.
c) Support airway, breathing and circulation. Then give adenosine.
d) Loading dose of 1g magnesium then a magnesium drip.
149) What should you do if the patient has a wide-complex tachycardia and is unstable?
a) Assume the rhythm is ventricular tachycardia (VT) until proven otherwise.
b) Check for a pulse.
c) Get a second opinion.
d) Recheck the pulse and blood pressure.
150) What is synchronized cardioversion?
a) Electrical shock is delivered when the shock button is pressed.
b) A higher energy is used.
c) Discharges on the QRS.
d) Discharges on the T wave.
151) What is the treatment for stable monomorphic ventricular tachycardia?
a) Initial shock of 100 J.
b) Initial shock of 200 J.
c) Synchronized shock of 350 J.
d) Unsynchronized shock of 350 J.

152) Which of the following is not a potential problem with synchronization?

a) The monitor sensor may be unable to identify the R wave peak.
b) No synchronization available through the quick look paddles.
c) Synchronization may take extra time.
d) Low energy shocks are only delivered.

153) Which of the following can be cardioverted at 50 J dose?

a) VT or VF.
b) Stable VT.
c) Atrial flutter or SVT.
d) Atrial fibrillation.
154) Which of the following is not a compensatory tachycardia?
a) A patient with a fever.
b) A recovery room patient.
c) A patient who is NPO and has diarrhea.
d) A patient with a heart rate of 130 beats per minute at rest.
155) What is the treatment for stable tachycardia?
a) Immediate cardioversion.
b) Lidocaine 0.5 mg/kg bolus then start an infusion at 2mg/min.
c) Obtain IV access, get a 12 lead ECG, consult a cardiologist.
d) Give an Amiodarone 150mg bolus and start an infusion.
156) What is ischemic stroke?
a) Caused by an aneurysm.
b) Caused by an arterial occlusion.
c) Caused by a burst blood vessel in the brain.
d) Caused by medical treatment.
157) What is the treatment for hemorrhagic stroke?
a) Heparin bolus and then infusion.
b) Obtain a stat CT scan.
c) Support airway, breathing and circulation and consult a neurosurgeon.
d) Evaluation for possible fibrinolytic therapy.
158) Which of the following is not a goal of stroke care?
a) General assessment within 10 minutes of arrival in the emergency department.
b) CT scan performed within 25 minutes of arrival in the emergency department.
c) Initiation of fibrinolytic therapy within 1 hour of arrival in the emergency
department.
d) Arrival in the emergency department to admission into the hospital of 6 hours.
159) Which of the following is not a sign of a stroke?
a) Trouble speaking or understanding.
b) Loss of balance or coordination.
c) Sudden weakness or numbness.
d) Headache that gets better after treatment with Tylenol.
160) Which of the following is not a contraindication to administrationof tPA?
a) Witnessed seizure.
b) History of arteriovenous malformation.
c) Platelet count <100 000/mm.

d) Central line placement.

161) Fibrinolytic therapy needs to be started within what time frame?
a) Within 6 hours for the MI patient and 3 hours for the stroke patient.
b) Within 3 hours for the MI patient and 12 hours for the stroke patient.
c) Within 12 hours for the MI patient and 3 hours for the stroke patient.
d) Within 6 hours for the MI patient and 3 hours for the strokepatient.
162) When may anticoagulants or antiplatelets be administered to a patient who has
received tPA for stroke treatment?
a) Within one hour of administration of tPA.
b) After 24 hours.
c) Never.
d) Within 5 hours of administration of tPA.
163) How high does the blood pressure go before it is considered a contraindication to tPA?
a) Systolic blood pressure > 200 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure > 110mmHg.
b) Systolic blood pressure > 210 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure > 110mmHg.
c) Systolic blood pressure > 180 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure > 90mmHg.
d) Systolic blood pressure > 180 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure > 110mmHg.
164) What medications are used to treat hypertension in the stroke patient?
a) Labetalol, sodium nitroprusside, nicardipine.
c) Nitroglycerine, Labetalol, calcium channel blockers.
d) ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, beta-blockers.
165) What is the dose of Labetalol for the treatment of hypertension?
a) 10 mg IV over 2 minutes.
b) 5 to 10 mg over 10 minutes.
c) 2 mg over 2 minutes.
d) 10 to 15 mg over two minutes.
166) What is the maximum dose of Labetalol?
a) 300 mg.
b) 500 mg.
c) 200mg.
d) 150 mg.
167) What is the drip rate for Labetalol?
a) 5 units/hr.
b) 10 mg/min.
c) 2 to 8 mg/min.
d) 5 to 10 mg/min.
168) What is the IV drip range for nicardipine?
a) 5 to 15 mg/hr.
b) 5 to 20 mg/hr.
c) 2 to 10 mg/hr.
d) 10 to 20 mg/hr.
169) What should the sodium nitroprusside drip rate be started at?
a) 0.5 mcg/kg/min.
b) 1 mcg/kg/min.
c) 1.5 mcg/kg/min.

d) 0.2 mcg/kg/min.
170) Which of the following are considered vagal maneuvers?
a) Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage.
b) Valsalva maneuver.
c) Carotid sinus massage.
d) A deep breath.
171) What do you do if the patient does not respond to vagal maneuvers?
a) Bolus with cardizem and start a cardizem drip.
b) Consult a cardiologist.
c) Prepare to administer 12 mg of adenosine.
d) Prepare to administer 6 mg of adenosine.

172) The first drug and dosage for Ventricular Fibrillation (other than
Oxygen) is what?
A.
Epinephrine .5 mg Q 3-5 minutes
B.
Epinephrine 1 mg Q 3-5 minutes
C.
Lidocaine 1-1.5 mg/KG
2
173)During VF, which drug and dosage may be used in
.place of Epinephrine?
A.
Vasopressin 20 units
B.
Vasopressin 40 units
C.
Lodocaine 1-1.5 mg/KG
174) For significant adult bradycardia with poor perfusion, which drugs
would you use and in what doses?
A.
Epi 0.01 mg/kg followed by Atropine 0.5 mg or Dopamine 5-10
mcg/kg/min
B.
Atropine .5 mg followed by Dopamine 2-10 mcg/kg/min or Epi 2-10
mcg/min
C.
Atropine 1 mg followed by Epi 0.01 mg/kg or Dopamine 5-10
mcg/kg/min
4
175) Which statement is true about Atropine when used for
.symptomatic bradycardia?
A.
(Max 3 mg) (0.02 mg/KG)
B.
(MAX 2 mg) (0.04 mg/kg)
C.
(MAX 3 mg) (0.04 mg/kg)
5
176) What is another treatment (in addition to Atropine) that might be used
.for symptomatic bradycardia?
A.
Isoproterenol

B.
C.

TCP
Both Isoproterenol and TCP

6
177) What drugs might be
.used with PEA?
A.
EPINEPHRINE 1 mg IV PUSH Q 3-5 MIN
B.
Lidocaine .5 mg/kg/min
C.
Atropine .2mg IVP, repeat Q 3-5
7
.178)A useful acronym for handling
asystole is what?
A.
TAE, Transcutaneous Pacing, Atropine, Epinephrine
B.
ATE, Atropine, Transcutaneous Pacing, Epinephrine
C.
TEA, Transcutaneous Pacing, Epinephrine, Atropine
8
.179) What is a useful acronym in remembering the drugs that may be
administered down an ET tube?
A.
MAN - Magnesium, Atropine, Naloxone
B.
SAN - Sodium Bicarbonate, Atropine, Naloxone
C.
LEAN - Lidocaine, Epinephrine, Atropine, Naloxone
9
180)Doses administered down an ET tube
.should be cut in half.
A.
True
B.
False
1
0
181)Which drug should not be administered as a bolus (i.e.,
.continuous infusion only)?
A.
Procainamide
B.
Amiodarone
C.
Lidocaine
1
182)A drug that might be used in place of Epi when dealing
1
with VF is what?
.
A.
Atropine .5 mg Q 3-5 min
B.
Lidocaine 1-1.5 mg/kg
C.
Vasopressin 40 Units IVP
1
183)Vasopressin may only be
2
administered once.
.

A.
True
B.
False
1
184)Vasopressin and Epi may be administered simultaneously
3
when dealing with VF.
.
A.
True
B.
False
1
4
.
185)A useful drug in dealing with persistent tachyarrhythmia causing
hypotension is what?
A.
Adenosine
B.
Bretillium
C.
Narcan
1
186) Adenosine IV initial
5
dosage is 6 mg.
.
A.
True
B.
False
1
187)Which statement about
6
Adenosine is true?
.
A.
Rapid push is indicated
B.
Second dose is 12 mg (if required)
C.
Both rapid push and 12 mg (second
dose) are indicated
1
7
188) Which statement is true concerning
.synchronized cardioversion?
A.
Narrow regular: 50-100J, Wide regular: 100 J
B.
Narrow regular: 100J, Wide regular: 50-100 J
C.
Narrow irregular: 200 biphasic or 300J monophasic
1
8
189) What is the normal dose of
.Amiodarone?
A.
6 mg initial followed by 12 mg in five minutes
B.
300 mg IV initially, followed by second dose of 150 mg IV in five
minutes
C.
1-1.5 mg/kg/min
1
190)Amiodarine is used in
9
pulseless VF.
.
A.
True
B.
False

2
191) The first drug normally used in cardiac
0
arrest is what?
.
A.
Atropine
B.
Lidocaine
C.
Epinephrine