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ACLS TEST

After providing a shock with an AED you should:

 1.   Start CPR, beginning with chest compressions

 2.   check a pulse

 3.   give a rescue breath


 4.   let the AED reanalyze the rhythm

Which of the following is true about chest compressions:

 1.   push hard and fast

 2.   ensure full chest recoil

 3.   minimize interruptions in chest compression


 4.   all of the above

Which of the following is performed before the BLS


Assessment?

 1.   make sure the scene is safe

 2.   activate EMS and get an AED if available

 3.   tap the victim's shoulder and say "Are you alright?"
 4.   all of the above

During the Primary Assessment when assessing


(B)breathing, which of the following is correct about
supplementary oxygen delivery?
 1.   Administer 100% oxygen for cardiac and respiratory
arrest patients

 2.   For ACS keep O2 sat ≥ 90%

 3.   Other than cardiac and respiratory arrest, administer


oxygen to achieve an O2 saturation value of 95-98% by pulse
oximetry
 4.   For post-cardiac arrest care keep O2 sat 92-98%

Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps for


BLS CPR?

 1.   chest compressions, airway, breathing

 2.   airway, breathing, circulation

 3.   circulation, airway, breathing


 4.   access care early, begin CPR, check pulse

Examples of advanced airway adjuncts include all the


following except:

 1.   oropharyngeal airway

 2.   laryngeal tube

 3.   laryngeal mask airway

 4.   combitube
 5.   endotracheal tube

During CPR with no advanced airway in place the


compression-to-ventilation ratio is:

 1.   5:1
 2.   30:2

 3.   10:1
 4.   20:2

During CPR after an advanced airway is in place, which of


the following is true:

 1.   The breaths should be synchronized with the chest


compressions.

 2.   The goal is 20 or greater breaths per minute

 3.   Chest compressions should be stopped while giving


breaths.
 4.   One breath every 6 seconds should be given

The most important intervention with witnessed sudden


cardiac arrest is:

 1.   early defibrillation

 2.   effective chest compressions

 3.   early activation of EMS


 4.   rapid use of resuscitation drugs

Typically, suctioning attempts in ACLS situations should


be:

 1.   ten seconds or less

 2.   20 seconds or less

 3.   5 seconds or less


 4.   no more than 30 seconds

For patients experiencing respiratory arrest with a


perfusing rhythm, deliver rescue breaths at 1 breath every
____ seconds.

 1.   6 seconds

 2.   5-6 seconds

 3.   10 seconds


 4.   8 to 10 seconds

While conducting the BLS Assessment, you should do all


of the following except:

 1.   check patient responsiveness

 2.   activate emergency response system

 3.   start an IV
 4.   get an AED

Success of any resuscitation attempt is built on:

 1.   high quality CPR

 2.   defibrillation when required by the patients ECG rhythm

 3.   neither 1 or 2
 4.   both 1 and 2

The most important algorithm to know for adult


resuscitation is:
 1.   Bradycardia

 2.   PEA

 3.   Tachycardia
 4.   Cardiac Arrest

(True or False) The systematic approach with a person in


cardiac arrest should include the BLS Assessment and the
Primary Assessment?

 1.   True
 2.   False

When performing BLS/ACLS you should avoid all of the


following except:

 1.   prolonged rhythm analysis

 2.   frequent pulse checks

 3.   taking too long to give rescue breaths to the patient


 4.   keeping the patients airway open

When checking for a carotid pulse during CPR you should


take no longer than ______seconds before restarting CPR

 1.   fifteen

 2.   ten

 3.   five
 4.   twenty
Interruptions in chest compressions should be limited to
no longer than _____seconds.

 1.   twelve

 2.   five

 3.   ten
 4.   fifteen

Effective resuscitation team dynamics would include all of


the following statements except which one:

 1.   Team leaders and team members should have clear,


closed-loop communication.

 2.   Team members inform the team leader when a task


begins or ends.

 3.   Team members do not question team leaders orders


even if doubt exists.
 4.   Team leaders define all roles of team members in the
clinical setting.

Good team dynamics requires which of the following:

 1.   knowledge sharing

 2.   knowing one's limitations

 3.   clear roles and responsibilities


 4.   all of the above

The goal of BLS interventions for a patient in respiratory or


cardiac arrest is to:
 1.   restore effective oxygenation

 2.   restore effective ventilation

 3.   restore or support effective circulation


 4.   all of the above

During CPR with an advanced airway in place the


compression rate is:

 1.   ≥ 80/min

 2.   90 -100/min

 3.   ≥ 100/min
 4.   100 -120/min
The purpose of a Rapid Response Team is:

 1.   improve patient outcomes by identifying and


treating early clinical deterioration

 2.   reduce hospital costs related to expense of emergency


treatment

 3.   keep floor nurses from having to be involved in


emergency situations.
 4.   all of the above

Which of the following is performed before the BLS


Assessment?

 1.   make sure the scene is safe

 2.   activate EMS and get an AED if available

 3.   tap the victim's shoulder and say "Are you alright?"
 4.   all of the above
During the Primary Assessment when assessing
(B)breathing, which of the following is correct about
supplementary oxygen delivery?

 1.   Administer 100% oxygen for cardiac and respiratory


arrest patients

 2.   For ACS keep O2 sat ≥ 90%

 3.   Other than cardiac and respiratory arrest, administer


oxygen to achieve an O2 saturation value of 95-98% by pulse
oximetry
 4.   For post-cardiac arrest care keep O2 sat 92-98%

When providing BLS/ACLS to a known or suspected


cervical spine trauma which of the following is NOT correct
when attempting to open the airway?

 1.   Open the airway using the jaw thrust without head
extension.

 2.   Use a head tilt-chin lift maneuver if the jaw thrust is not
effective.

 3.   Use manual restriction to stabilize the head


 4.   Use an immobilization device to stabilize the head

When performing the Airway Assessment portion of the


Primary Assessment, the following questions should be
asked:

 1.   Is the airway patent?

 2.   Is an advanced airway indicated?

 3.   Does the patient have a pulse?


 4.   both 1 and 2

During the (C) circulation portion of the Primary


Assessment, the following actions are carried out:

 1.   look, listen, and feel

 2.   Obtain IV access, Attach ECG leads, monitor rhythm,


given medications to manage rhythm, give IV/IO fluids if needed

 3.   Obtain IV access, give supplemental oxygen, secure the


advanced airway, give IV/IO fluids if needed
 4.   Check a pulse, monitor heart rhythm, begin CPR if
indicated

For conscious patients who may need more advanced


assessment and management techniques, healthcare
providers should conduct the Primary Assessment first?

 1.   True
 2.   False

In the Primary Assessment of the systematic approach to


ACLS, the D stands for:

 1.   defibrillation

 2.   definitive care

 3.   differential diagnosis


 4.   disability

Which of the following best describes how to select the


proper size of an (OPA) oropharyngeal airway?
 1.   one size fits all

 2.   the OPA should be the length of the patients middle


finger

 3.   the OPA should be the length from the corner of the
mouth to the angle of the mandible.
 4.   the OPA should be the length from the patients nose to
the ear lobe.

What is generally considered the most important and


clinically significant degree of block?

 1.   type I (Mobitz I)

 2.   type II (Mobitz II)

 3.   third-degree AV block


 4.   first-degree AV block

Which drugs are involved in the Bradycardia Algorithm?

 1.   atropine, epinephrine, dopamine

 2.   atropine, norepinephrine, dopamine

 3.   atropine, lidocaine, adenosine


 4.   atropine, epinephrine, lidocaine

Bradyarrhythmia is defined as:

 1.   any rhythm disorder with a heart rate less than 40 beats
per minute

 2.   any rhythm disorder with a heart rate less than 60


beats per minute
 3.   any symptomatic rhythm disorder with a heart rate less
than 50 beats per minute
 4.   any rhythm disorder with a heart rate less than 50 beats
per minute

Symptomatic bradycardia exists when_________.

 1.   the heart rate is slow

 2.   the patient has symptoms

 3.   the symptoms are due to a slow heart rate


 4.   all of the above are needed for symptomatic
bradycardia to exist.

Symptoms of bradycardia include acutely altered mental


status, signs of shock, and ischemic chest discomfort.

 1.   True
 2.   False

Signs of symptomatic bradycardia include hypotension


and acute heart failure

 1.   True
 2.   False

The primary decision point in the bradycardia algorithm is


the determination of:

 1.   heart rate

 2.   adequate perfusion


 3.   blood pressure
 4.   rhythm

After it is determined that the patient does not have


adequate perfusion your first step is to:

 1.   prepare for transcutaneous pacing

 2.   observe and monitor the patient

 3.   give atropine while awaiting transcutaneous pacer


 4.   use defibrillator set at 200 J

What is the first-line agent for treatment of symptomatic


bradycardia?

 1.   atropine

 2.   lidocaine

 3.   epinephrine
 4.   vasopressin

Which rhythm is most likely to be associated with


symptomatic bradycardia?

 1.   PEA

 2.   Mobitz II

 3.   ventricular fibrillation


 4.   sinus rhythm
The correct dose of dopamine given in the bradycardia
algorithm is:

 1.   5-20 mcg/kg/min infusion

 2.   2-8 mcg/kg/min infusion

 3.   5-10 mcg/kg/min infusion


 4.   1-5 mcg/kg/min infusion

The key clinical question when determining steps to take


for the patient with symptomatic bradycardia is:

 1.   Is the bradycardia reversible?

 2.   Does the patient respond to medications?

 3.   Are the symptoms caused by bradycardia or some


other illness?
 4.   Is the patient a DNR?

The treatment sequence for bradycardia with poor


perfusion is:

 1.   prepare for transcutaneous pacing, give atropine


while preparing TCP, use epinephrine or dopamine while
awaiting pacemaker or if pacing is ineffective.

 2.   give epinephrine, if ineffective give atropine, if atropine is


ineffective start transcutaneous pacing

 3.   start IV drip of dopamine or epinephrine, if ineffective


begin transcutaneous pacing, and if this is not effective, give atropine
 4.   begin cpr, give epinephrine, give atropine, defibrillate,
repeat epinephrine if needed.
Transcutaneous pacing should be started immediately if:

 1.   there is no response to atropine

 2.   atropine is unlikely to be effective or if IV access cannot


be quickly established

 3.   the patient is severely symptomatic


 4.   all of the above

If transcutaneous pacing is ineffective for symptomatic


bradycardia, the next step would be to prepare for:

 1.   prepare for transvenous pacing

 2.   give repeat doses of atropine

 3.   prepare for pacemaker placement

 4.   begin CPR

 5.   begin an infusion of dopamine or epinephrine


 6.   both 1 and 5

Atropine doses of less than 0.5mg may paradoxically


result in further slowing of the heart rate.

 1.   True
 2.   False

For bradycardia unresponsive to atropine, what other drug


should be considered?

 1.   vasopressin

 2.   epinephrine
 3.   magnesium sulfate
 4.   all of the above

If atropine fails, the treatment of choice for symptomatic


bradycardia with signs of poor perfusion is ____________.

 1.   pacemaker placement

 2.   transcutaneous pacing

 3.   CPR
 4.   none of the above

The correct dose of epinephrine given in the bradycardia


algorithm is:

 1.   1-5 mcg/min infusion

 2.   2-8 mcg/min infusion

 3.   2-10 mcg/min infusion


 4.   5-10 mcg/min infusion

The correct dose of atropine given in the bradycardia


algorithm is:

 1.   1 mg atropine, may repeat up to a total dose of 3 mg

 2.   0.5 mg atropine, may repeat up to a total dose of 2 mg

 3.   0.5 mg atropine, may repeat up to a total dose of 3 mg


 4.   1 mg atropine, may repeat up to a total dose of 4 mg

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