Test Booklet Code JMD No. 7538948 7 7 This Test Booklet contains 20 pages. Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. Important Instructions 1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/blaek ballpoint pen only. ‘The test is of $ hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total score, The maximum marks are 720. 3. Use Blue/Black Ballpoint Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses. 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away Test Booklet only with them. ‘The CODE for this Test Booklet is ZZ. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 7. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded, Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet er 8. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet. 9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator i 10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. 11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. 12. Use of Blectronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited. 13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall-All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board. 14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Shect shall be detached under any circumstances. 15. The candidates will write the correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet. Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) : ARMILARHA RUATT Roll Number (in Figures) : 1 2 7B) 6 B tn Words): Sigh) Cnne Leverty “tut laa Sindy ego. Centre of Examination (in Capitals: KEN pi) ae DYALA YA HATH RAK ALA penenpon ’s Signature : Candidate's Signature : Facsimile Signature Stamp of —_ Centre Superintendent : E41 © 3. jt ry mM % @ ° co R >r oO zr ‘ " ® ee a? @ satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius R) at a height A from its surface. wee? ithe wee 5 rey JMD/E4 [¢--+Fe i on zee ‘ dan ive \\ 2m?) w) 2 os. i A. Goll phere of ma m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. Cet tins of the same mass and same Taditis is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation (Expnere / Beytinder ) Will be f1:5 a Q) 1:4 v7 as. — +s te © NIT A light rod of length has two masses m, and ‘mg attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through the centre of mass is (1) TAA 2 (2) (my + mg)? mit @) jam? y im +m, Starting from the centre of the earth having radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is shown by oe Sr ok > ‘The total energy of the satellite in terms of go: the value of acceleration due to gravity at the earth's surface, is Té- ket PC oath) sts Ke ek L 4 mee Ray [Mer ke = 450° Was 20 en Loree) 5. A rectangular film of gil is extended from (4.cmx2cm) to (5cmx4 cm). If the work done is 3x10 J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is (1) 0125 Nm? (2) 02 Nm? (3) 80Nm fA) 0-250 Nm? GL oThree liquids of densities py, p2 and py (witt _'p,>2>P3) having the same value o: surface tension T, rise to the same_heigh’ in three identical capillaries, The angles 0 contact 8, 82 and 03 ad IO TusS () 056; <8 <8, <5 CF ago = =a 2¢ rn B) 7> 0) >82>%3>F Or © sor > U2 > Bic 6204 Oye identical bodies ar@-made of a materia for which the heat capacity increases witl temperature. One of these is at 100 °C, whil the other one is at 0 °C. If the two bodies an brought into contact, then, assuming n heat loss, the final common temperature i (1) more than 50 °C (2) less than 50°C but greater than 0°C (3) 0°c (4) 50°C (2) % <0, <6) <6y0,>0)>05 20 8. A body cools from a temperature 37 to 2 in 10 minutes. The room temperature is 2 Assume that Newton's law of cooling i applicable. The temperature of the body ¢ the ghd of next 10 minutes wil be os nee te ™ 9. One mole en ideal monatomic gs undergoes a process descr t equation PV® = constant. The heat capacit of the gas during this process is a Se > aw — a0? a = a Man 2(R+h) Ce ey 290%? Cee rte) BS qe = Pe a) -2790R_ z= es = GMa (4) 0k 2(R+h) 4 eewer Ton Tow Ma = ‘exo peer An "Gey. : a ae ae AHA) = Gomis — (xis = 12m5* ‘The temperature inside a refrigerator is t2°C and the room temperature is °C. The amount of heat delivered to the room for each joule of electrical energy consumed B 16. A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance Cis filled with four dielectric materials having dielectric constants ky, kp, ks and kq as shown in the ideally will be yewer figure below. If a single dielectric material is 3) 24273 @ 2 +273 (Ne et to be used to have the same capacitance Cin O Ht th-t, \ this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k titty a AIT is given by Fak nye 8 4 +273 a t-t t Al | Als Als ” 11. A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume V at a pressure P and absolute Ly temperature T.The mass of each molecule of the gas ig/m) Which of the following give: density of the gas? de q uf j === ) Pm /(kKT) (2) P/(kTV) eT a A @) mT (4) PART) A afhwr (1) R= FU thy thy) +2ks 12. A body of mass m is attached to the! 7 w Jower end of a spring whose upper end 3 east bmi is fixed. The spring has negligible mass, Ry thy thy hy When the mass m is slightly pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time period 6xr loc ) of 3s. When the mass m is increased 6 by 1kg, the time period of oscillations — wt OQ becomes 5 s. The value of m in kg js (4) k= hy +g +g +3kq © ir eee me oy 3 9 @® te potential difference (V, - Vj) between he a 3 fer Rf = = V the points A and B in the given figure is 16 ‘i Way 2 8Y ia” y, fs = ‘a ov 13. The second overtone of an open organ -—ww———*. pipe has the same frequency as the first Cin2A Se overtone of a closed pipe L metre long. The Grower length of the open pipe will be wv ) 43 Q) +6V (a) 2 @s He efov (@) -3V 3 6 Bt tLe i ) aL @)L é. ot 18. A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used ‘amy ‘Three sound waves of equal ampifades have frequencies (n-1), n, (n+1). They superimpose to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be a4 @3 0c- do (3) 2 @1 Anz te 18, An clectric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field intensity 2x 10° N/C. It experiences @ torque equal to 4Nm. The charge on the dipole, if thg dipole length is in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes500 W. The value of Ris () 46.9 22 Oh (3) 13.9 (4) 2200 Oe 19. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n tums. The 2om, is = Yxd'x 2 xo? magnetic pe at the centre of this ag 2mC < <> n yarns will be 2) 5mc ‘eu B x16 () n2B (2) 2nB 2X8 (3) 7 HC = ZOKIST = (2K) 0] Wxir (4), 8 mc ai naty—_? 2n?B bo-f-h=a MAT 3 = = df 50.2% JMD/E4 S= 24 4.+17 go. 3 Mey EProa, T= my: . 5 Regre MCE) ee Del segenes ra Mt Me $2 Be go ae ties ? 2hwhee d —tos6r/ . GaMEswe 7 wore (1a) = PE MB Cc mas fo= we a ce 20he SW 20, A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread | 24. The tential differences aeToss the in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and resgstanc pactgneg/and inductance are is in equilibrium state. The energy required BOW, 40W and 100 respectively in an to rotate it by 60° is W. Now the torque LCR circuit. The power factor of this required to keep the magnet in this new circuit is position is = mR-20 Q) 05 08 AO BW as + (3) 10 (a) 04 we Ww i @ o% | /28) A 100 0 resistance and a capacitor of 100 © \F ‘reactance are connected in series across 21. An electron is moving in a_ circular 2 220 V source. When the capacitor is 50% path under the influence of @ transverse charged, the peak value of the displacement magnetic field of 3:57 x 107 T. If the value current is =TRAY of ¢ ins hin eh Chas. frequency of ay a 2) 44 ~ og %en ned W2A 4) 22 A ) 100 MHz (2) 62:8 MHz () 1a a ~ KIS (3) 628 MHz (4) 1 GHz @r identical glass (itg= 3/2) equiconvex 22. Which of the following combinations should lenses of focal length f each are kept in ce tected for better tuning of an LCR contact. The space between the two lenses 6 circuit used for communication? filled with water (iw = 4/3) The focal length (1) R=250, L=25 H, C=45 uF of the combination is SD KIeKe (2) R=150, L=35 H, C=30 uF ws B42 - sean 3) R=250,L=15 H, C=45 WF (3) 3f/4 (4) £/3 = (4) R=200, L=1'5 H, C=35 pF 23. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within ‘a region of radius r. The magnetic field 27. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1'3 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and changes with time at a rate %. Loop 1 of 3m deep when viewed from the opposite at face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is ‘ radius R>r encloses the region rand loop 2 na ia of radius R is outside the region of magnetic feld as shown in the figure below. Then the @ 16 4) 8 emf. generated is 28, The interference pattern is obtained with two Jeu rae mvt light sources of intensity ratio m 2 G2) In the interference pattern, the ratio % Jemax ~ Imin f= oe pers Wee 7 will be a fe 3) a aun eos | £ (Es -Z ar? im toop 1 and nel gest ne ey cet a -B ar? in loop 2 a 4, iB tne? 68 xlo? @ ~@2 nx? in toop 1 and zero in toop 2 avn di ln SS ® ae acBaIo ne 2) ~GPar? in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 ‘i y de sown fi me in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 O aig a ot. e > 2 wwpjea f= 17M x BGEKIO = eee 3 NCI eT29. A person can see clearly objects only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm.from his eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lerfg, the person has to use, will be ce ete eh concave, -0-25 diopter th (2) concave, -0-2 diopter je 7 (3) conveys, +015 diopter (4) convey+2-25 diopter 30. A linear aperture whose width is 0-02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60cm. The, aperture is illuminated zry eet err =F \Ott ou a 4)H | YG4at3o00 ete, ~ Vert C= * | J 9 33. If an electron in a hydrogen from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits oo eet Caeningata when ie fam from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be 9 2 a) 16 20 13 3) @ ‘The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. The time {in minutes) taken between 40% decay and 85% decay of thy chine redioastive aubwtance is" > EMV normally by a parallel beam of wavelength Q 5x10°° cm. The distance of the first dark (1) 30 Q) 45 5 i band of the diffraction pattern from the =la0 centre of the screen is gine VIEIRA Ox a Kg lke (1) 025cm = o™ The PE =clc | 95: For Ce transistor amplifier, the audio signal ¢y, ah, 040 Qo. voltage across the collector resistance of 2k VI = (2) em, e417 +R is 4V. If the current amplification factor of (3) 0-15 ¢ -f —%the transistor is 100 and the base resistance ISS sa PRIS is 1k0, then the input signal voltage is @) 10 em eG ISS s et Le DHS Ne yo mv (2) 30 mv “dt aS Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie () 15 mV (4) 10 mv me wavelength 2 fall on the target in an X-ray i. oe D tube. The cutoff wavelength (Ao) of the D(A Uw a) pe Baa der @) koe 32. Photons with ,eneray 5 eV are incident on a cat ‘in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident,on C, no photoelectrons will reach 36. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below: The 3) 313 A e Ww = © 2 Se 37. What is the output ¥ in the following circuit, the anodé“A, if the stopping potential of A} » " when all the three inputs A, B, C are first relative to Cis, og ~_ SM = (fs\¢ Via] 0 and then 1? 6= B+ Q) +4v Seal a @-1v~ to ee i -3V 4 one (@) 0,0 1,0 @+3v T= 2.XP a @ 11 buy —d Pred ump/E4 NC oe = coh a7 dt = dha us! $0“ME tt KR ED : rel ; (98. Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in (Se yacuum (c) and Newton’s gravitational constant (G) are three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of| yo length? ve wie @ [er 2% eo ¢ o\ AS ( S w/z le ‘two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are represented by xp(t t+ bt” and xo(t) = jt-t?. At what time do the cars have the same velocity? Le ae or mit \ 42. A bullet of mass 10g moving horizontally with a velocity of 400 ms”! strikes a wooden block of mass 2 kg which is suspended by a light inextensible string of length 5m. As a result, the centre of gravity of the block is found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm. ‘The speed of the bullet after it emerges out horizontally from the block will be g (1) 80 ms" Pa . 2) 120 ms opt F amas UII @) 160 ms? Se oF a uy (4) 100 ms a + ee ao ‘Two @entical balls A and & having velocities of 05 mm/s and ~0-3 m/s respectively collide ex « otf gy att e c 2(b-1) 2(1+b) elastically in one dimension. “The velocities of yo) Sa2 we Sot Band A after the collision respectively will De 2(1+b) 1+b 05 m/s and -03 iin Jo. Ip the given figure, a= 15 m/s” represents (2) -03 m/s and 05 m/{p Rx a 3.4-Mhe total acceleration of a particle moving in mm ste % clockwise direction in a circle of radius (3) 03 m/s and OS m/s yA = R=2-5 m at a given instant of timg. The (4) -05 m/s and 03 m/si@ "esta speed of the particle is #MLr4 44 Pe Vpa Ges ry |. A particle moves from a point (-2i + §j) to A\ (wm (4j+3k) when a force of (4i+39)N is A applied. How much work, has been dpne by er i pL tne force? ? =A >) a * my ! fis sate fo \ Gm (1) 5:0 m/s (2) 5:7 m/s D ptaut Oe 4 (3) 62 m/s (4) 45 m/s a sy P= oleyazéypries) 41. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at (3) 29 Whee & 60" and gets reflected without eed ace a as shown in the figure below. The value of! 4) 8 = a LA» We ait -\flagie impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be cx Lape “al 45. Two rotating bodies A,and B of masses m SA mvOO! and 2m with:moments of inertia J, and Tn llg> Iq) have equal kinetic energy of aren qhtation. If Ly and Lp be their angular momenta respectively, then ty) Ly =2Lp Pet uae tase (8) Lary ) ba web-y “Wut, (QA RY sh EDK! 3-2 =(Bo yi | X Oy v0n 2 oN soon? e o3 Oe So= av nzyme is (2) ligase ey (2) deoxyribonucteaseN2— & (4) lysozyme elect the mismatch. \~ on } Large central vacuoles—Animal cells/\ (2) Protists—Eukaryotes “ (3) Methanogens—Prokaryotes/ (4) Gas vacuoles—Green bacteria ~Aj = A2 and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cellg\ 48. Select the wrong statement. (2) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells.” (3) Mycoplasma = is_—aa_—Swall-less microorganism. (4) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycany/ M2=2 Nl=2 49. A cell organélle containing “hydrolytic enzymes is (1) microsome (2) ribosome (3) mesosome Jef 1 a lysosome a | 50. During cell growth, DNA thesis takes place in {2 Cc () G phase Zo (2) Gp phase (3) M phase JAS phase : H =2hist (53) wnicn of the following roma le pn Uap common to respiration-mediated breakdowsi| of fats, carbohydrates and proteins? a= 38x FH a FF tag} few drops of sap were collected by cutting nH 7 ‘across a plant stem suitable method. the following test ae emer That it is iy phloem sap? a) (2) Low refractive index |. oe Vleet ) (3) Absence of sui ) ae yhiy 53. differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you ‘The sap was tested chemically. Whictrone of (1) Alkaline, (4) Acidic You are given a tissue 4 a potent a Ror add to the medium to secure shoots as well ae . § ‘oa R ) Auxin and cytokinin 16 2) Auxin and abscisic acid AL [-_ (3) Gibberellin and abscisic acid wt (4) IAA and gibberellin = Phytochrome is a (1) glycoprotein (2) lipoprotein (3) chromoprotein VA {4 —2~2 wiz (4) flavoprotein U4 Y~ SUL ich is essential for the growth of root tip? 1) Fe 2) Cy WR Sy (3) Mn (4) Zn hy . The process which makes major differencé— between Cy and C, plants is a) alvin cycle photorespiration (3) respiration YE --2N +3 —2hL=vA, (@) aycosis UR po tz ava 57. Which one of the following statements is not correct? VRE CAVA VE+I=VA Efferent ductules > Epididymis (3) Efferent ductules —> Rete testis > Vas jeferens — Epididymis Rete testis — Efferent ductules Epididymis — Vas deferens 108. Match Column—I with Column—II and select the correct option using the codes Go given below : Column—I Column—II a. Mons pubis Embryo formation b. Antrur Sperm ¢. Trophectoder Female external a. Nebo” A Srnafian folile Codes = Zi AS Gi) io) (2) Gi) i) 8 a (4) Gi) (iv) JMD/E4 12 progesterone are protiuced by cits x% wy (2) fallopian tube x (8) pituitary 7 zy (4) ovary Txt 110. If a colour-blind man marries a woman who ig homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability of their ag colour-blind is () os (2/075 ho 1 111. Genetic drift operates in (1) large isolated population (2) non-reproductive population {@)_slow reproductive population Jo eal acated popolation 112. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by ey 2pq 2) pa (7 F2puta?=} a? (@) p? 113. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is ‘Ramapithecus -> Australopithecus —> Homo habitis > Homo erectus (2) Ramapithecus > Homo Kabilis —> Australopithecus -» Homo erectus (3) Australopithecus, Homo habilis > ‘Ramapithecus Homo erectus (4) Australopithecus .¥ Ramapithecus — ‘Homo habilis > Homo erectus of life? 1, Formation of protabionG I, Synthesis of organic monomers) Ill, Synthesis of organic polymerd(2>) IV. Formation of DNA7baged genetic systems (3, 1, 1, 1V Cy u, U1, 1,1 (4) 1, 0, m1, 1V (Ge) nin of the following is the correct | sequence of events in the origi115. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except (1), it should be able to-generate its replica JH it should be (Gnstable) structurally and chemically (3) changes that are required for evolution it should be able to express itself jn the form of ‘Mendelian characters 7, LY Gs8. Dwa-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the (2) coding strand 2) alpha strand (3) ,antistrand (f template strand @) 117. Interspecific hybridization is the mating of two different related species (2) superior males and females of different breeds (3) more closely related individuals within same breed for 4-6 generations/ (4) animals within same breed without having common ancestors Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV? HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two transcriptase. HIV is unenveloped retfOvirus, HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response! HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptasex @ molecules of reverse (2) (3) @) Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine fish having rich source of, omega-3 fatty acids? te — meee 2 (Ret) it should provide the scope for slow] , mae 120, Match Column—I with Column—I and select the correct option using the codes given below -a ; b c dad J @ © ww 2 0 ww i) Gi 8) Gi) ( @ Gi o~ 4) Gi) Gv) 121. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may| ’be a good index for pollution for water boties receiving effluents from —[~ Sr (1), dairy industry 7 TT. = WA petroleum industry £4105 (3) sugar industry. Zette pr (4) domestic sewage/ z 122, The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by AX To =37 ee F. Gause |, > ToT) (2) MacArthur z (9) Verhulst and P&arl py = 3027-7 (4) ©. Darwin Te= @t-—t10 Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul? (1) Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh Tot 3Ts= 6T (2) Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal lesh ty = Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir Te (4) Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur Ty 124, A lake which is rich in ane Gg result in tL a1 ST (1) drying of the lake due to algal bloom (2) increased population of fish due to lots of 0 Autionts gee mortality of fish due to lack of oxygeny~ (4) increased population of aquatic organisms due to minerals~\ The highest DDT concentration in aquatic P (1) Mangur food chain shall occur in Ar : (1) seagull Te Mau (2) Mrigala Chere: (Reta) Wf Mackerel Pe e (4) Mystus ' (4) phytopléikton = TC = gfe * 2(Re +n yMD/E4 5) =9 ( Inzh ~ COG Be [ PTO. Tee — e CBr)a0 Stee twTG 126. Which of the-follgwing sets of diseases iq caused by bacteria? =. pe (2) Typhok Gmallpox (2) Tetanus and@mumpa (3) Hefpes and influenza Aa Cholera and tetanus 127. Match Column—I with Column—II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below : Column—I Column—It a. Famil Diptera b. Orde Arthropoda c. Ch ii) Muscidae d. Phylum. iv) Insecta Codes’: a ob oc 4 ) Gi) Gi) @) i) i) @) @&) Gi) Gi AP Gi) i) 128. Chpose the correct statement All cyclostomgs do not possess jaws and fins” (2) (aL Ml) reptiles ave a three chambered (3) All Pisces have gills covered by an operculu (4) All mammals are viviparous* 129. Study the four statements (A-D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them : cored qe c Mme DPC tf Oxidative phosphorylation is (1) oxidation of phosphate groin ATP (2) addition of phosphate group to "ATP formation of ATP by energy released from electrons. removed. during (substrate oxidation (4) formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from a substrate + to ADPA 133) Which of the following is the involved in stabilizing the folding of most proteins? (i) Electrostatic interaction (2) Hydrophobic interaction” (af (Ester bonds @) eo bonds / 194, Which of the following describes the giver graph correctly? (is Potential Energy —> ‘A. Definition of biolggical species was given by Emst Mayr. ane B. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants’ ‘Exothermic reaction with energy A it C. Binomial nomenclature system was presence of enzyme and Bin absence 0 given by R. H. Whittaker enzyme D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is (2) Endothermic reaction with energy A it synonymous with growth. absence of enzyme and B in presence © ‘The two correct statements are enzyme (1) C an’ ‘A and D (3) Exothermic reaction with energy A it (@) Aand Be (4. Band C absence of enzyme and B in presence © ee a Ge) ge (4) Bndothermic reaction with energy A i which part of the reproductive syst (Q) Mushroom glands Q) Testes @) Vas deferens ‘Seminal vesicles 131. Smooth muscles are (2) voliitary, multinucleate, cylindrical (2) involuntary, cylindrical, striated voPGntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate ) involuntary, fusiform, non-striated ot. 6 "Ao t) JMD/E4 presence, of enzyme and B in absence ¢ enzymt /hen cell has stalled DNA replication fork (5) checkpoint should be predeminantl activated? (1) G/M (2) M ane G/M and M Oy SAY) = = forte Ris* 14Dac mn—tos NI canner PHT 136. Which one of the following is incorrect for| 142. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce ideal solution? > galvanized iron but the reverse is not 1) AU ig = Oy possible. It is because (1) zine has lower meltin Put than iron 2) AP = Pog — Peatculated by Recut’ lew 0 . eae (@) zine has lower negative electrode Gani = 0 ential than iron (8) Addie “© 6 son tax igite- pogine. erode The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility Fotentiel than fron product 6x 107!° in 0-1 M NaCl solution would be Pgh == Agt 4 (1) 16x10 M => bpe ane vp (1) quicktimecaJO 9 ile of ime (2) 16x10 w le (By yero. gee (3) aqueous eolution of elaked lime- -s yi PoaA0 ae LAIST. (4) timewater ay CAM 9 = OAKS (38. )Suppose the elements X and Y combine to] 144, The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of form two compounds XY and XY. When nitrogen in NO}, NO3 and NH} respectively -1 mole of XY, weighs 10 g and 0:05 mole are D> J HoVEM-R df Xj¥p weighs 9g, the atomic weights of : = X and ¥ are 01 go 8 and sp yA Lo (2) 60, 40 (2) 20, 30 Was sp? and sp? > 7 = oy (@) 30, 20 (4) 40, 30 ©) sp?, sp and sp? &) | 139. The number of electrons delivered at the @) sp, sp? and sp? Me ASH = 6 =2 cathode during electrolysis by a current of z H Tampere in 60 seconds is (charge on{Z4B Which of the following fluoro-compounds Spe electron = 1-60 x 107!9 C) most likely to behave as a Lewis_hase? | (1) 6x10 A 3-75 x10 (1) PRs (2) CF, | @) Sir, (4) BF, | (3) 7-48x107 (4) 6x10 (wien of the following pairs of ions is 140. Boric ‘acid is an acid because its molecule prccseccron ieee shower ePturele TFeRS we a prota 11) c103, co @) s03-AS a Pan | Qe accepts OH” from water releasing proton w2F C103, 803° (4) COF-, NOS Cr | (3) combines with proton from water = molecule 247. In contest with beryllium, which one of they Kal | (a) Cbeesiropiateane 13? ion towing vleorael Faroese? (1) It forms Be,C. tA) 141. AIF, is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. Tis ae nthe wie a (2) Its salts rarely hydrolyze. KAT - (3) Its hydride is electron-deficient and (2) Kg(AIFo @ an, “6p eon (9) KIAIFSH] (4) K [AIF Hs} (4) It ie rendered passive by nitric acid. HeoIS SF. RuMD/EA Q-ne 15 ag [ P.T.0. 4 Ove 41X60 = Goxolt _ 9 1A sp a = SOAS = 39.0 4 ACG yy e@ © oastt eg ty Taegut 148. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of| the following reactions does not show oxidizing behaviour? (1) 38+2H,S0, 380, +2H,0 @) &42H,80, + 86, +280, 4211,0 a Cangs H,S0, — CaS0%+ 2H ~ (4) C+ 2H,S0, > CuSO, +SO, +2H,0 149. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes? (1) des dye dada yp 8) days dya_ya () da, de 150. The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF, are (1) trigonal bipyramidal, sp°d (2) planar triangle, sp?d° square planar, sp?d? (4) octahedral, sp°d? Among the following, which one is a wrong statement? (1) pw-dr bonds are present in SOy (2) SeF, and CH, have same shape. (3) 15 has bent geometry. (4) PHs and BiCls do not exist. 182. The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the following species is v2 . (1) CN> > CgHg > Bro > NHg 183. Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is incorrect? (1) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu. All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium. Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis. Europium shows +2 oxidation state. (2) Bro > CN” > NHg > CoH5 (3) CN > Bro > CgHg > NH, (4) NH, > CN” > Bro > CoH (2) (3) @ JMD/E4 1 154, Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high spin complexes of ay a® (2) a# (3) a? @ a 158. Which of the following can be used as the halide component for \Friedel-Crafts reaction en (1) Bromobendre 3 Ry }) Isopropyl chloride Chloroethene () Chlorobensene 6 In which of the following molecules, all atoms are coplanar? 187. Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer? Lae H et) . by bo H, C OH | 1 Av ty A y \ Retctia)e—NH | Hdl ° - / te @) a H H L- Ay | I Nu 1 CH lee 6 com eh ge 7161. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from ma (1) DNA ~ Carbohydrates — Proteins DNA ~ RNA ~ Proteins ‘lectron density is maximum on ye (3) DNA + RNA + Carbohydrates 3 and 4 (4) Amino acids — Proteins + DNA @) 2and4 (3) 2and S 162. ‘The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given below 4) Biend's HO CHO CHO CHO x—fon HoH wot ation Which of the following compounds shall not H-—OH =H—-}-OH HO+—H HoH roduce propene by reaction with HBr H,0H CH,OH = CH,OH = CH,OH followed by elimination or direct only elimination reaction? respectively, is a HycEEG;GR Cty cn =O, (1) D-threose, D-erythrose, _L-threose, i 2 L-erythrose c=0 dE. Maeno (2) Lerythrose, L-threose, _D-erythrose, Ha D-threose (@) Hyc—C2cH,Br ve 1 2 (3) D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, (4) WT tty —y or —ct L+threose Hp (4) Lerythrose, L-threose, _L-erythrose, D-threose 160. Which one of the following nitro-cpmpounds does not react with ‘nitrous acic ie BB AMD 163. In the given reaction Nou Nnog O-o HF,» ore Hse the product P is Hcy @) Hsc—p—No, a 2) HC! [o (3) HsC\ AGN, F 8) NO a Py _ O BO Ano, OC Ha |JMD/E4 17 [ P.T.O.164. A given _nitrogen-containing aromatic compound A reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO, to give an unstable compound B B, on treatment with phenol, forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the molecular formula C,2H,)N0. The structure of compound A is wer @ oF 4 on 165. Consider the reaction CHjCHCH,Br + NaCN ~ CH,CHjCHCN + NaBr ‘This reaction will be the fastest in 2-4 methanol J2 J N,N’-dimethylformamide (DMF) Jon “Ee vr = Wah = nti +e Join g St) =nti— om ‘The correct structure of the product A formed in the reaction a @) 8) water ethanol 166. Hy (gas, 1 atmosphere) ‘Pa/carbon, ethanol aX i _ _Jf§63, The compound that will react most readi monet NA AL +28) “eid OF itn gaacous bromine hy the Bula aw Pee U) 167. Which among the given molecules can 168. exhibit tautomerism? : Oe " ~~ (1) Both I and I oO m 2) Both I and II (3) Both If and It (4) II only e correct order of strengths of the ‘carboxylic acids Ee ee tle I u m1 () u>m>1 Q) m>m>t (@) W>1> m1 Ay i> n> mm 1S ren ated Ss wage Ny (1) CyHy Gilyh CMa a OM, 2) Cathe cai Cl on wees 0 | re = f Cah, ¢ cre any 3 7 . “i 3He " w= CH, JMD/E4 ee = Badtoly | ANZA ea phe PN bC=Ch, |171. 172, 173. 174, MD/E4 Which one of the following—compoumis ‘shows the presence of / intramolecular hydrogen bond? = (1) HON. 2) Cellulose (8) Concentrated acetic acid ~ 4) F202 The molar conductivity of a 0-5 mol/dm? solution of AgNO; with electrolytic conductivity of 5-76x10-°Scm at 298 K is Aya alc nine (1) 11-52 Sem?.fmol & (2) 0-086 Scm? /mol (3) 28-8 Scm? /mol (4) 2-88 Scm? /mol The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because the (1) rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage rate is independent of the surface coverage Tate of decomposition is very slow rate is proportional to the surface coverage (2) 8) @ ‘The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of AS S$ fare given below : 1 2 I= 52, TL @aelg) = 0-69, IM, (MgS0,) = 0-22 The correct order of their codgulat power is Or > n> 1 Q) w>1>m @ MW>i>m 4 1>n>m During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to, produce 0:10 mol of chlorine gas using a of amperes is 1SAIIUKy (2) 110 minutes s1y (2) 220 minutes 3 (3) 330 minutes oO YSo0 (4) 55 minutes Clty 4-0 —)\ 2 (32 175, How many electrons€an fit in thd orbital Yor which n=3and 1-1? 2ya—aqqC () 6 - 4 (3) 14 a ond 176. For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is changed isothermally from p, to p,, the entropy change is given by y we 6 os 2) - oO =e (2) AS=nRTin (: =f Ee iv (a) ene! ) ase arin[ 2) rey, (Ps «) as-nrin(2L] Pi 177. The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is (Ca GV), = Ra?t+ Pen Moa (2) 2 ie 3 (4) 0 co) 178. The percentage of pyridine (CsHN) that forms pyridinium ion (CsHsN*H) in a 0-10 M aqueous pyridine solution (Ky, * for CsH5N = 1-7 x 107%) is Y (1) 0.013% eS 70.8 (2) 0:77% (3) 1.6% 48% (4) o-0050%6L ye oy structure, the coordination numbers for calcium ion (Cq?*) and fluoride ion (F~) are (1) 6 and a Sav @ eh Os (2) 8 and 4 = = | 3) 4 ands (4) 4 and 2 180. If the E_y for a given reaction has a negative value, which of the following gives the correct relationships fog the values of AG and Keg? Da sG-nferetl (1) AG°>0; Keg >1 (2) AG°<0, Keg>1 A4=-yFteol (8) aG<0; Keg <1 2, 5) (4) Aar> 0, Kaci Peron Ota 4 RaW? Te > see +) LQ Y