Cisco Actualtests 200-310 v2016-07-07 by Any 372q PDF

200-310 CCDA - Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Number: 000-000
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 4.0
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Sections
1. Multiple choice
2. Select and Place
3. Single choice
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about designing the Data Center Access layer are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address

B. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer
C. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer
D. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the layer access
E. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent
Correct Answer: CE
Section: Multiple choice
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
User access is primarily layer 2 in nature, layer 2 clustering is possible only in layer 2.
Defining the DC Access Layer
The data center access layers main purpose is to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 physical port density for various servers in the data center. In addition, data center
access layer switches provide high-performance, low-latency switching and can support a mix of over subscription requirements. Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access
(also called routed access) designs are available, but most data center access layers are built using Layer 2 connectivity. The Layer 2 access design uses VLAN
trunks upstream, which allows data center aggregation services to be shared across the same VLAN and across multiple switches. Other advantages of Layer 2
access are support for NIC teaming and server clustering that requires network connections to be Layer 2 adjacent or on the same VLAN with one another.
QUESTION 2
An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria:
- has a low initial cost

- provides low-to-medium BW
- has medium-to-high latency and jitter
Which technology should the organization use?
A. DSL
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. Wireless
E. Analog Modem
Correct Answer: A
Section: Single choice
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. Extends the network to remote users

B. Allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
C. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
D. Reduces the number of physical connections
E. Simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
QUESTION 4
A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured:
Which numbered box represents the core layer?
A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4
E. #5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two.)
A. Video streaming on the LAN

B. Security between departments
C. The segmenting of collision domains
D. The segmenting of broadcast domains
E. The use of multi vendor equipment
F. A limited corporate budget
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing network? (Choose three.)
A. Staff input
B. Visual inventory
C. Network audit
D. Traffic analysis
E. Server statistics
Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which Cisco security mechanism has the attributes listed below?
- It is a sensor appliance
- It searches for potential attacks by capturing and analyzing traffic
- It is a "purpose-built device"
- It is installed passively
- It introduces no delay or overhead
A. IKE
B. PIX
C. HIPS
D. NIDS
E. HMAC
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
HIPS = Host based Intrusion Prevention System
HMAC = Hashed Message Authentification Code
IKE = Internet Key Exchange
NIDS = Network based Intrusion Detection System
PIX = Private Internet eXchange
QUESTION 8
Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step in a design implementation plan? (Choose three.)
A. Step description
B. Design document references
C. Easy guidelines in case of failure
D. Estimated implementation time
E. Simple implementation guidelines
F. Estimated rollback time in case of failure
Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation
QUESTION 9
A company is implementing an Identity Management solution with these characteristics:
- Existing AAA Server

- Cisco Catalyst switches
- Minimal added investments
Which Cisco Trust and Identity Management solution would you recommend?
A. NAC Appliance
B. Cisco IBNS
C. CSM
D. Cisco Security MARS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
CSM = Cisco Security Manager
IBNS = Identity Based Networking Services
Cisco MARS = (Cisco Security) Monitoring Analysis and Response System
NAC = Network Admission Control
QUESTION 10
Which Cisco device management feature is most suited to metering network traffic and providing data for billing network usage?
A. BGP
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. QoS
D. RMON
E. NetFlow
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 11
What are the three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.)
A. Use organizational input

B. Perform a traffic analysis
C. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees
E. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network
F. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer's existing network
Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which two routing protocols converge most quickly? (Choose two.)
A. RIPv1
B. RIPv2
C. BGP
D. OSPF
E. EIGRP
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
QUESTION 13
What is the benefit of VLSM?
A. Reduces configuration complexity by using the same subnet mask length

B. Reduces the routing table size by using automatic route summarization
C. Reduces the routing table size by using manual route summarization
D. Allows the subnet mask and classful routing updates to be advertised
E. Secures the hosts on a subnet by using RFC 1918 addresses
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 14
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to
include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces while being customized according to each interface?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
RMON = Remote network Monitoring
NetFlow provides extremely granular and accurate traffic measurements and a high-level collection of aggregated traffic. The output of NetFlow information is
displayed via the show ip cache flow command on routers. The Table shows a description of the fields for NetFlow output.
QUESTION 15
What is the primary consideration when choosing a routed network design over a traditional Campus Network design?
A. Layer 3 service support at the Network Edge
B. The routing protocol choice: open (OSPF) or proprietary (EIGRP)
C. The routing abilities of the host devices
D. The need to control the broadcast domains within the Campus Core
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Layer 3 ability at network edge should be available to leverage the benefits of routed network design.
QUESTION 16
Which statement is true concerning the Data Center Access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two servers links to two separate switches
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which statement is true concerning the Data Center Distribution (Aggregation) layer design?
A. With Layer 3 at the aggregation layer, the physical loops in the topology must still be managed by STP
B. The boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 must reside in the multilayer switches, independent of any other devices
C. A mix of both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access is sometimes the most optimal
D. In a small data center, the aggregation layer can connect directly to the campus core, exchanging IP routes and MAC address tables
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 18
When considering the three VoIP design models - single site, centralized multisite, and distributed multisite - which question below would help to eliminate one of
the options?
A. Will the witches be required to provide inline power?

B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 19
With deterministic Wireless LAN Controller redundancy design, the different options available to the designer have their own strengths. Which statement is an
example of such a strength?
A. Dynamic load balancing, or salt-and-pepper access point design, avoids the potential impact of oversubscription on aggregate network performance
B. N+N redundancy configuration allows logically grouping access points on controllers to minimize intercontroller roaming events
C. N+N+1 redundancy configuration has the least impact to system management because all of the controllers are colocated in an NOC or data center
D. N+1 redundancy configuration uses Layer 3 intercontroller roaming, maintaining traffic on the same subnet for more efficiency
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
With such an arrangement there is no complex mesh of access points & controllers.
N+N WLC Redundancy
With N+N redundancy, shown in figure, an equal number of controllers hack up each other. For example, a pair of WLCs on one floor serves as a backup to a
second pair on another floor. The top WLC is primary for API and AP2 and secondary for AP3 and AP4. The bottom WLC is primary for AP3 and AP4 and
secondary for API and AP2. There should be enough capacity on each controller to manage a failover situation.
N+N+1 WLC Redundancy
With N+N+1 redundancy, shown in figure, an equal number of controllers back up each other (as with N+N), plus a backup WLC is configured as the tertiary WLC
for the APs. N+N+1 redundancy functions the same as N+N redundancy plus a tertiary controller that backs up the secondary controllers. The tertiary WLC is
placed in the data center or network operations center.
QUESTION 20
When there is a need for immunity to EMI for connecting locations that are greater than 100 meters apart, which two solutions can be utilized?
A. Multimode fiber
B. Fibre Channel
C. HVDC transmission lines
D. Single-mode fiber
E. Serial RS-232
F. Gigabit Ethernet 1000Base-CX
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
EMI = ElectroMagnetic Intererence
HVDC = High Voltage Direct Current
QUESTION 21
Which mode is used to exclusively look for unauthorized access points?
A. Monitor mode
B. Sniffer mode
C. Rogue detector mode
D. Local mode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 22
OSPF will be used as the IGP within a campus network. Which two things should you consider before deployment? (Choose two.)
A. All areas need to connect back to area 0

B. The OSPF process number on each router should match
C. NSSA areas should be used when an area cannot connect directly to area 0
D. Stub areas should be connected together using virtual links
E. ECMP may cause undesired results depending on the environment
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
ECMP = Equal Cost Multi-Path
QUESTION 23
Which is the North American RIR for IPv4 addresses?
A. RIPE
B. ARIN
C. IANA
D. IEEE
E. APNIC
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
APNIC = Asia-Pacific Network Information Center
ARIN = American Registry for Internet Numbers
IANA = Internet Assigned Numbers Authority
IEEE = Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers
RIPE = Rseaux IP Europens
RIR = Regional Internet Registry
QUESTION 24
An Enterprise Campus module is typically made up to four submodules, as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part
of this module? (Choose two.)
A. DMZ
B. Entreprise branch
C. Building distribution
D. Server Farm / Data Center
E. MAN
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
MAN = Metropolitan Area Network
QUESTION 25
WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy. Which is the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic
over the public Internet?
A. Security
B. Static versus dynamic routing
C. Bandwidth
D. QoS
E. Latency
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
WAN Backup over the Internet
Another alternative for WAN backup is to use the Internet as the connectivity transport between sites. However, keep in mind that this type of connection does not
support bandwidth guarantees. The enterprise also needs to work closely with the ISP to set up the tunnels and advertise the company's networks internally so that
remote offices have reachable IP destinations.
Security is of great importance when you rely on the Internet for network connectivity, so a secure tunnel using IPsec needs to be deployed to protect the data
during transport.
QUESTION 26
Which type of area should you use in an enterprise OSPF deployment if you want to prevent propagation of type 5 LSAs but still allow the redistribution of external
routes?
A. Stub
B. Totally stubby
C. Backbone
D. NSSA
E. Virtual link
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?
A. MGCP
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. CDP
E. ICMP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Voice bearer = voice carrier
ICMP = Internet Control Message Protocol

MGCP = Media Gateway Control Protocol
RTP = Real-Time Transport Protocol
SCCP = Skinny Client Control Protocol
VoIP Control and Transport Protocols
A number of different protocols are used in a VoIP environment for call control, device provisioning, and addressing.
QUESTION 28
On which router should you configure redistribution?
A. Router 1
B. Router 2
C. Router 3
D. Router 4
E. Router 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 29
Which three Cisco technologies can you use to detect and mitigate threats? (Choose three.)
A. NetFlow
B. FWSM
C. ISE
D. VRRP
E. sFLOW
Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation
FWSM = Firewall Services Module
ISE= Identity Services Engine
sFLOW = packet sampling technology (open standard) versus NetFlow (Cisco proprietary)
QUESTION 30
Which technology allows remote networks to be connected via site-to-site tunnels?
A. IPSec VPN
B. AnyConnect VPN
C. SSL VPN
D. EasyConnect VPN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which RFC defines the IPv6 standard?
A. RFC 1918
B. RFC 2338
C. RFC 2460
D. RFC 2740
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 32
What is the maximum RIPv2 hop count for a reachable route?
A. 13
B. 14
C. 15
D. 16
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 33
Which Cisco Wireless LAN Controller interface is used for out-of-band management?
A. Service port
B. Management port
C. Controller port
D. Virtual port
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Service Port is used for OOB wireless management
QUESTION 34
In which operation mode does the AP act as a dedicated sensor for location-based and intrusion detection services?
A. Monitor mode
B. Promiscuous mode
C. Discovery mode
D. Sniffer mode
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 35
Which HSRP parameters must match to ensure proper functionality?
A. Group parameters
B. Priority parameters
C. Preempt parameters
D. Tracking parameters
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 36
What three primary sources of information are needed to perform a network audit? (Choose three.)
A. Existing documentation
B. New documentation
C. Existing network management software
D. New network management tools
E. Management personnel
F. Technical personnel
Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation
QUESTION 37
Which three layers comprise the traditional hierarchical model? (Choose three.)
A. Core layer
B. Distribution layer
C. Access layer
D. Aggregation layer
E. Network layer
F. Internet layer
Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation
QUESTION 38
Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes client traffic between multiple routers?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. IGRP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Which three options are characteristics of data center evolution? (Choose three.)
A. Consolidation
B. Virtualization
C. Automation
D. Standardization
E. Optimization
F. Modulation
Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation
QUESTION 40
Which option is a benefit of the modular approach to network design?
A. Higher availability
B. Repeatable scalability
C. Increased security
D. Improved resiliency
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 41
Which statement describes the methodology that supports the Cisco Enterprise Architecture models?
A. It divides the network into functional network modules

B. It divides the network into role-based network modules
C. It divides the network into regional network modules
D. It divides the network into operational network modules
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 42
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
A. Linear
B. Triangular
C. Rectangular
D. Circular
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in the data center?
A. It enables NIC teaming

B. It removes STP dependency
C. It increases scalability
D. It decreases convergence
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 44
Router A has three feasible successors to the 192.168.1.0/24 network, which are listed here:
- Option 1 has a metric of 8123228

The variance 4 command was issued on Router A.
How many active entries does Router A have in its routing table for the 192.168.1.0/24 network?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 45
Which two mechanisms are used by distance vector protocols to prevent routing loops? (Choose two.)
A. Split horizon
B. Route summarization
C. Route poisoning
D. Tuned timers
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 46
Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 47
What are the three modes of unicast reverse path forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. Strict
B. Loose
C. VRF
D. Global
E. PIM
F. Local
Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation
QUESTION 48
A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. Which layer of the OSI model is used to start the design?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 49
Where in the network hierarchy should network access control be performed?
A. Backbone
B. Core
C. Access
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 50
What are two advantages of employing scalability when designing a campus network? (Choose two.)
A. Reduces operational cost

B. Higher port density
C. Investment protection
D. Consistent operation
E. Improved fault tolerance
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
QUESTION 51
A network engineer is using the traditional switched hierarchical design. The client has asked to increase uplink utilization from the access layer to the distribution.
How can the engineer attain this new requirement without adding new physical connections?
A. Enable spanning-tree portfast

B. Enable VSS at the distribution layer
C. Increase the MTU size on the uplink interfaces
D. Ensure the root bridge is equal on both distribution switches
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 52
Multicast has been enabled and configured in the Enterprise, and PIM Sparse-mode has been enabled on all VLANs.
What feature is required to stop multicast traffic from being broadcasted on the access layer switches?
A. IGMP snooping
B. Multicast boundary filter
C. PIM dense-mode
D. Dynamic ARP inspection
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 53
What two SAN protocols will allow a customer to utilize 10GbE for SAN access? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI
B. FCoE
C. SATA
D. Fiber Channel
E. AoE
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
AoE = ATA over Ethernet
QUESTION 54
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
A. Core
B. Aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 55
A data center is reaching its power and cooling capacity. What two virtualization technologies can address the problem by directly reducing the number of physical
devices? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual switching systems

B. Virtual device contexts
C. Virtual servers
D. Virtual routing and switching
E. Virtual port channels
F. Virtual LANs
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 56
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices.
What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?
A. Floating static entry

B. EIGRP variance
C. Bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum path
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 57
When designing a new Enterprise Campus Network, what topology should be used for maximum scalability?
A. Flat
B. Three-layer
C. Star
D. Partial mesh
E. Full mesh
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 58
A spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco IOS technology in the distribution block?
A. VDC
B. vPC
C. Rapid PVST+
D. VSS
E. Flex Links
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 59
An organization is deciding what routing protocol to use throughout their network.
What must be considered if routing is to be performed at the access layer?
A. Reduced scalability of the network when introducing a large number of switch blocks into the routing table
B. Centralized management of access control lists at the distribution layer
C. Reliability when implementing routing over spanning-tree at the access layer
D. Performance differences between core, distribution and access layer equipment
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 60
A routing protocol neighbor relationship has been established between two routers across the public Internet using GRE. What technology can be used to encrypt
this communication channel?
A. Access list
B. IP security
C. Context based access
D. Intrusion prevention system
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 61
Which statement correctly describes queuing in environments supporting teleworkers?
A. CQ is for time sensitive protocols

B. Queuing occurs on the outbound interface
C. Priority queuing guarantees some level of service to all traffic
D. Hardware queues are configured for appropriate PQ, CQ, or WFQ
E. WFQ is the Cisco IOS default on all WAN links regardless of speed
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 62
Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes traffic across multiple gateways?
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. iBGP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 63
A network engineer must collect application-level information passing through a router.
What two tools can provide this information? (Choose two.)
A. NBAR
B. CiscoWorks
C. SNMP collector
D. NetFlow collector
E. Syslog
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
NBAR = network based application recognition
QUESTION 64
What information should be utilized to identify network applications that are running on an existing network infrastructure?
A. Customer information
B. Existing documentation
C. Traffic analysis
D. External feedback
E. User feedback
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 65
A design engineer must send management information messages across the public internet.
What solution provides a secure and encrypted method for passing these messages?
A. SNMP v3
B. NetFlow v9
C. Syslog traps
D. Secure Shell v2
E. SNMP v2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 66
A network engineer is designing a solution that will monitor IP traffic through corporate routers with the ability to export the flows to a collection engine without using
network probes.
Which technology meets this requirement?
A. RMON
B. NetFlow
C. SNMP
D. Syslog
E. IP SLA
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 67
A network engineer is following the Cisco enterprise architecture model.
Where are aggregation switches found?
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. SP Edge WAN
D. Remote Module
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 68
What two configurations are Cisco recommended best practices for user access interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. VTP transparent mode

B. BPDU guard
C. Root Guard
D. Portfast
E. Trunk mode
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 69
What Cisco product is designed to improve the performance of Windows file and exchange services in remote data centers?
A. Application Control Engine

B. Wide Area Application Services
C. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
D. Cisco Prime Network Services Controller
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
ACE = Application Control engine
WAAS = Wide Area Application Services
QUESTION 70
What design feature should be considered when accessing resources from a remote data center over a WAN connection?
A. Security
B. Bandwidth
C. Reliability
D. Management
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 71
What two addresses are defined under RFC 1918? (Choose two.)
A. 19.22.37.1
B. 10.1.7.19
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 172.31.1.1
E. 239.15.12.1
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 72
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 73
What two components are used when creating an endpoint's modified EUI-64 format IPv6 address?
A. IPv6 Prefix
B. 64-bit MAC address
C. 48-bit MAC address
D. IPv4 address
E. Link Local Suffix
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 74
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone area
B. Totally Stub area
C. Not so Stubby area
D. Stub area
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 75
What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose two.)
A. Employees
B. Geography
C. Applications
D. Administration
E. Throughput
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 76
The spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco NX-OS technology is the distribution and access layer?
A. VDC
B. vPC
C. Rapid PVST+
D. VSS
E. Flex Links
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 77
What network technology consolidates network and storage traffic in the data center?
A. Virtual storage-area network

B. Unified fabric
C. Unified computing system
D. Virtual switching system
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 78
What type of topology supports WAN redundancy when a balance is required between cost, high availability, and performance?
A. Partial mesh
B. Full mesh
C. Star
D. Ring
E. Bus
F. Point-to-point
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 79
What is the key limitation of using Internet circuits as a backup to a private enterprise WAN?
A. Circuit bandwidth
B. Prioritization
C. Security
D. Operational expense
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 80
A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence in a Cisco environment.
What protocol allows for this?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 81
What are two benefits of the bottom-up design approach? (Choose two.)
A. Allows a quick response to a design request

B. Facilitates design that is based on previous experience
C. Requires little or no notation of actual requirements for implementation
D. Incorporates organizational requirements
E. Provides a broader overview to the organization and the designer
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 82
Which network layer is the best fit fro security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping?
A. Campus core
B. Enterprise edge
C. Campus distribution
D. Remote-access VPN
E. Enterprise data center
F. Campus access
Correct Answer: F
Explanation
QUESTION 83
Directory services and electronic messaging are performed at which layer of the network?
A. Core
B. Application
C. Distribution
D. Network
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 84
Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load balancing at the same time?
A. R1
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 1 track Serial0
standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
standby 2 priority 95
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
B. R1
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
C. R1
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
D. R1
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 85
Cisco FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet environments.
What are two advantages of using Cisco FabricPath technology? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning

B. Loop mitigation is provided by the TTL field in the frame
C. Cisco FabricPath technology is supported in all Cisco platforms and can replace legacy Ethernet in all campus networks
D. Cisco FabricPath relies on OSPF to support Layer 2 forwarding between switches, which allows load balancing between redundant paths
E. Cisco FabricPath is IETF-standard and is not used with Cisco products
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 86
A network design shows two routers that are directly connected to an Ethernet switch using optical connections. There is an OSPF Adjacency between the routers.
In this design, which solution ensures that interface-down detection is reported as quickly as possible to the IGP?
A. Optimized OSPF SPF timers
B. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
C. Automatic protection switching
D. Optimized OSPF LSA timers
E. Ethernet OAM CFM monitoring
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 87
Which statement is true about using a DNS server to discover a controller IP?
A. The AP sends a discovery request to the first controller on the list and then goes down the list chronologically until it receives a discovery response
B. The AP sends a discovery request to the last controller on the list and then goes up the list chronologically until it receives a discovery response
C. The AP sends a discovery request to all controllers on the list simultaneously
D. Multiple controller IP addresses in a DNS response are not supported
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 88
A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56 kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay
WAN circuit at a remote site. The engineer checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit. The engineer
requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router.
What is causing this issue to occur?
A. The wrong CIR is configured

B. The BECN configuration is causing this issue
C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface
D. The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 89
Which option is an advanced congestion management mechanism?
A. Weighted fair queuing

B. Policing
C. Payload compression
D. Header compression
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 90
Which option is an example of physical device virtualization?
A. VSS
B. VPN
C. VRF
D. VLAN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 91
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server virtualization.
Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?
A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links

B. Cisco FabricPath
C. Data center bridging
D. Cisco Unified Fabric
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 92
A company would like to distribute a VM hosting cluster between three data centers with the capability to move VMs between sites. The connectivity between data
centers is IP only, and the new design should use existing WAN.
Which layer 2 tunneling technology should be used?
A. VPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. OTV
D. AToM
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
AToM = Any Transport over MPLS
L2TPv3 = Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol Version 3 (IETF - RFC 3931)
OTV = Overlay Transport Virtaulization
VPLS = Virtual Private LAN Service
QUESTION 93
In which two places is redundancy recommended in an Enterprise Campus Network design? (Choose two.)
A. Building distribution
B. Campus core
C. Building access
D. E-commerce
E. Internet connectivity
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 94
What are two purposes of route redundancy? (Choose two.)
A. Minimize the effect of link failures

B. Minimize the effect of internetworking device failures
C. Minimize the convergence time of STP
D. Load balance across redundant paths
E. Save network costs
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 95
Which two statements are true regarding a hierarchical network? (Choose two.)
A. Facilitates choosing the type of routing protocols to be used in the network

B. Provides scalability without affecting other layers and functionality
C. Provides better performance as network resources are efficiently utilized
D. Limits redundancy at the distribution layer
E. Complicates manageability because of the added security
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 96
Which two Cisco data center can participate in Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches

B. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 97
Assuming that a network will grow exponentially for the next 24 months, what is the main limitation that must be addressed?
A. Scalability
B. Serviceability
C. Redundancy
D. Resiliency
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 98
A network engineer is tasked with summarizing the routes to a remote site. What is the optimal route statement to connect to the 192.168.101.0/24 and
192.168.102.0/24 networks across the corporate WAN?
A. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0 10.1.1.1

B. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.252.0 10.1.1.1
C. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1
D. ip route 192.168.101.0 255.255.254.0 10.1.1.1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 99
Where should routes in the routing table be aggregated or summarized?
A. In the core toward the data center
B. In the distribution toward the access
C. In the core toward the distribution
D. In the distribution toward the core
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 100
Which option is used by OSPF to reduce the flooding domain of database updates in a network?
A. Hello packets
B. Virtual links
C. Interface cost
D. Areas
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 101
Which three OSPF routers are the only routers that may perform summarization with the current network layout? (Choose three.)
A. Router 2
B. Router 3
C. Router 4
D. Router 5
E. Router 7
F. Router 8
Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation
QUESTION 102
Which two options should be used to achieve fast convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose two.)
A. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

B. Fast hellos
C. LSA retransmission interval
D. SPF throttle timers
E. LSA group pacing
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 103
Which next hop will the router select if given an IP packet with the dstination address 19.48.254.3?
A. Router 1
B. Router 2
C. Interface 0
D. Interface 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 104
In this suboptimal design of homogeneous Cisco network, which version of spanning tree provides the fastest convergence?
A. PVST+
B. CST
C. RPVST
D. VSTP
E. PVST
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 105
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution?
A. The STP root becomes the gateway
B. The interdistribution link is used for transit
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
D. The interaccess link is used for transit
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 106
The organization is migrating away from HSRP. VSS has been implemented on a pair of Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches. In order to avoid changes to end
hosts, the default gateway is carried over to the SVI on the VSS.
Why does the implementation plan require a four-hour wait after removing the FHRP configuration?
A. The VLAN interface MAC address and the FHRP MAC address are different. It takes four hours for the VLAN interface to come up
B. The SVI IP address and the FHRP IP address are different. It takes four hours for the SVI to come up
C. The VLAN interface MAC address and the FHRP MAC address are different. It takes four hours for the ARP cache to time out
D. The VLAN interface IP address and the FHRP address are different. It takes four hours for the VLAN interface to come up
E. The VLAN interface IP address and the FHRP IP address are different. It takes four hours for the ARP cache to time out
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 107
Which command is correct for creating a virtual interface on Cisco wireless controller?
A. config create interface

B. tag interface
C. config interface address
D. untag interface
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 108
Which three series of Cisco wireless controllers support wireless Bidirectional Rate Limiting?
A. Cisco 2500 Series Wireless Controllers

B. Cisco 5500 Series Wireless Controllers
C. Cisco 5700 Series Wireless Controllers
D. Cisco 7500 Series Wireless Controllers
E. Cisco 8500 Series Wireless Controllers
F. Cisco 7200 Series Wireless Controllers
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
QUESTION 109
Which option cause deep-packet examination to determine the specific nature of an attack?
A. Network IPS
B. Netflow collector
C. Stateful firewall
D. Syslog server
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 110
Which location is the best for placing a monitor-only IPS that has visibility into the most data center traffic?
A. (A) Inline before the firewall

B. (B) Inline after the firewall
C. (C) Passive off the firewall
D. (D) Passive off the internal switch
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 111
A remote user for a company must periodically connect to the company network to access internal resources using a company laptop with software that was
preinstalled by the IT department. Which VPN method is used for connectivity?
A. DMVPN
B. SSL VPN
C. IPsec VPN
D. GET VPN
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 112
Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance?
A. recognize users, their devices, and their roles in the network

B. Does not offer audit and reporting features
C. Must be placed inline with other network devices
D. Does not recognize guest users
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 113
Which two Cisco products can be used in a data center to support OTV technology? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches

B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco ASR 1000 Series Routers
D. Cisco ASR 9000 Series Routers
E. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switches
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 114
Which IETF standard technology can be used with data center design to readily scale server virtualization?
A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links

B. OTV
C. vPC
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 115
Which three options are examples of network logical virtualization? (Choose three.)
A. Virtual PortChannel
B. Virtual machine
C. Virtual Device Context
D. Virtual Switching System
E. Virtual device driver
Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation
QUESTION 116
Which type of structure consists of the addressing, routing protocols, QoS, and security components?
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Layered
D. Virtual
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 117
What phase of Cisco's PPDIOO is the final test of the appropriateness of the design?
A. Operate
B. Optimize
C. Design
D. Implement
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 118
what phase of Cisco's PPDIOO includes the identification and resolution of issues prior to moving the entire network to production?
A. Optimize
B. Operate
C. Implement
D. Design
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Seems to be OK (p.14 of CCDA 640-864 Official Cert Guide).
QUESTION 119
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Section: Select and Place
Explanation
Classification is the process of partitioning traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. Information in the frame or packet header is inspected, and the
frames priority is determined. Marking is the process of changing the priority or class of service (CoS) setting within a frame or packet to indicate its classification.
Classification is usually performed with access control lists (ACL), QoS class maps, or route maps, using various match criteria.
Congestion-avoidance techniques monitor network traffic loads so that congestion can be anticipated and avoided before it becomes problematic. Congestion-
avoidance techniques allow packets from streams identified as being eligible for early discard (those with lower priority) to be dropped when the queue is getting
full. Congestion avoidance techniques provide preferential treatment for high priority traffic under congestion situations while maximizing network throughput and
capacity utilization and minimizing packet loss and delay.
Weighted random early detection (WRED) is the Cisco implementation of the random early detection (RED) mechanism. WRED extends RED by using the IP
Precedence bits in the IP packet header to determine which traffic should be dropped; the drop-selection process is weighted by the IP precedence.
Traffic conditioner consists of policing and shaping. Policing either discards the packet or modifies some aspect of it, such as its IP Precedence or CoS bits,
when the policing agent determines that the packet meets a given criterion. In comparison, traffic shaping attempts to adjust the transmission rate of packets that
match a certain criterion. Shaper typically delays excess traffic by using a buffer or queuing mechanism to hold packets and shape the flow when the sources data
rate is higher than expected. For example, generic traffic shaping uses a weighted fair queue to delay packets to shape the flow. Traffic conditioner is also referred
to as Committed Access Rate (CAR).
Congestion management includes two separate processes: queuing, which separates traffic into various queues or buffers, and scheduling, which decides from
which queue traffic is to be sent next. There are two types of queues: the hardware queue (also called the transmit queue or TxQ) and software queues. Software
queues schedule packets into the hardware queue based on the QoS requirements and include the following types: weighted fair queuing (WFQ), priority queuing
(PQ), custom queuing (CQ), class-based WFQ (CBWFQ), and low latency queuing (LLQ).
LLQ is also known as Priority QueuingClass-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (PQ-CBWFQ). LLQ provides a single priority but its preferred for VoIP networks
because it can also configure guaranteed bandwidth for different classes of traffic queue. For example, all voice call traffic would be assigned to the priority queue,
VoIP signaling and video would be assigned to a traffic class, FTP traffic would be assigned to a low-priority traffic class, and all other traffic would
be assigned to a regular class.
Link efficiency techniques, including link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI) and compression. LFI prevents small voice packets from being queued behind
large data packets, which could lead to unacceptable delays on low-speed links. With LFI, the voice gateway fragments large packets into smaller equal-sized
frames and interleaves them with small voice packets so that a voice packet does not have to wait until the entire large data packet is sent. LFI reduces and
ensures a more predictable voice delay.
(Reference: Cisco Press Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions)
QUESTION 120
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Trust and identity management solutions provide secure network access and admission at any point in the network and isolate and control infected or unpatched
devices that attempt to access the network. If you are trusted, you are granted access.
We can understand trust is the security policy applied on two or more network entities and allows them to communicate or not in a specific circumstance.
Identity is the who of a trust relationship.
The main purpose of Secure Connectivity is to protect the integrity and privacy of the information and it is mostly done by encryption and authentication. The
purpose of encryption is to guarantee confidentiality; only authorized entities can encrypt and decrypt data. Authentication is used to establish the subjects identity.
For example, the users are required to provide username and password to access a resource
QUESTION 121
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 122
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 123
Place Methodology in correct order
A. Prepare, Implement, Operate, Plan, Optimize, Design

B. Optimize, Operate, Design, Prepare, Implement, Plan
C. Prepare, Optimize, Design, Implement, Operate, Plan
D. Optimize, Design, Prepare, Implement, Operate, Plan
E. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize
F. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Optimize, Operate
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 124
Which is the equation used to derive a 64 Kbps bit rate?
A. 2 x 8 kHz x 4-bit code words

B. 8 kHz x 8-bit code words
C. 2 x 4-bit code words x 8 kHz
D. 2 x 4 kHz x 8-bit code words
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
While the human ear can sense sounds from 20 to 20,000 Hz, and speech encompasses sounds from about 200 to 9000 Hz, the telephone channel was designed
to operate at about 300 to 3400 Hz. This economical range carries enough fidelity to allow callers to identify the party at the far end and sense their mood. Nyquist
decided to extend the digitization to 4000 Hz, to capture higher-frequency sounds that the telephone channel may deliver. Therefore, the highest frequency for
voice is 4000 Hz. According to Nyquist theory, we must double the highest frequency, so 2x4kHz = 8kHz.
Each sample will be encoded into a 8-bit code. Therefore 8kHz x 8-bit code = 64 Kbps (notice about the unit Kbps: 8kHz = 8000 samples per second so 8000 x 8-
bit = 64000 bit per second = 64 Kilobit per second = 64 Kbps)
Note:
Nyquist theory: When sampling a signal (e.g., converting from an analog signal to digital), the sampling frequency must be greater than twice the bandwidth of the
input signal in order to be able to reconstruct the original perfectly from the sampled version.
QUESTION 125
Which three of these are components of the North American Numbering Plan? (Choose three.)
A. Numbering Plan Area
B. Country Code
C. Prefix
D. Zone
E. Line Number
F. Trunk Channel
Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation
NANP has the address format of NXX-NXX-XXXX, where N is any number from 2 to 9 and X is any number from 0 to 9. The first three digits identify the numbering
plan area and are commonly called the area code. The address is further divided into the office code (also known as prefix) and line number. The prefix is three
digits, and the line number is four digits. The line number identifies the phone.
QUESTION 126
A customer has the following Enterprise Campus design requirements:
- at least 10 Gbps of bandwidth

- network runs of up to 40km
- no concern for transmission medium cost
Which transmission medium should you recommend to this customer?
A. Shielded twisted pair

B. Unshielded twisted pair
C. Multimode fiber
D. Single-mode fiber
E. Wireless
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Below is the comparison of transmission media
Media Bandwidth Distance

Twisted pair Up to 1 Gbps 100 m
Multimode fiber Up to 1 Gbps 2 km (FE) 550 m (GE)
Single-mode fiber 10 Gbps 90 km (FE) 40 km (GE)
Wireless 54 Mbps (27 Mbps effective) 500 m at 1 Mbps
(Reference from CCDA Official Exam Certification Guide. Some other books have different figures but we should answer it according to the Official book)
QUESTION 127
In the Cisco branch office design, what categorizes an office as large?
A. Between 50 and 100 users and a three-tier design

B. Between 50 and 100 users and a single-tier design
C. Between 100 and 200 users and a two-tier design
D. Between 100 and 200 users and a three-tier design
E. Over 200 users and a two-tier design
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 128
Which layer is the distribution layer?
A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layer A & B form a consolidated core and distribution layer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 129
Which two implementation plan principles best describe how to deal with potential failures? (Choose two.)
A. A good implementation plan

B. A successful test network test
C. A test should be included at every step
D. A detailed rollback procedure for each implementation step
E. A table of failure points, and estimated rollback times
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
QUESTION 130
A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the distribution layer?
A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 131
Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step of each phase in a design implementation plan? (Choose three.)
A. Step description
B. Design document references
C. Easy guidelines in case of failure
D. Estimated implementation time
E. Simple implementation guidelines
F. Estimated rollback time in case of failure
Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation
QUESTION 132
Which three terms describe the primary functions of the distribution layer of the campus network design hierarchy? (Choose three.)
A. Provide end-user connectivity

B. Provide high speed transport
C. Provide QoS services
D. Enforce security policies
E. Provide WAN connections
F. Connect access devices to the core backbone
Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation
QUESTION 133
Which two statements correctly identify the layers of the Enterprise Campus module? (Choose two)
A. A is the Data Center Module and C is the Campus Core layer

B. A is the Data Center Module and D is the Building Access layer
C. B is the Campus Core layer and C is the Building Distribution layer
D. B is the Building Distribution layer and C is the Campus Core layer
E. A is the Internet Connectivity layer and B is the Campus Core layer
F. B is the Building Distribution layer and D is the Building Access layer
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Data Center aka Server Farm
QUESTION 134
Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer in this design?
A. QoS should be performed only in the core

B. Load balancing should never be implemented or used in the core
C. Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation
D. It is acceptable to use a partial mesh in the core if it is connected to each device by multiple paths
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 135
Which element or elements of the existing network infrastructure does this network map emphasize?
A. Network services
B. Network protocols
C. OSI data link layer
D. Network applications
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 136
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular approach to network design? (Choose two.)
A. Improve flexibility
B. Facilitates implementation
C. Lowers implementation costs
D. Improves customer participation in the design process
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 137
Data link switching is typically used in which Enterprise Campus Module layer?
A. Server Farm
B. Campus Core
C. Building Access
D. Building Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
In the most general model, the Building Access layer uses Layer 2 switching (or Data link switching), and the Building Distribution layer uses multi-layer switching.
The six modules of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture are:
+ Enterprise Campus module

+ Enterprise Edge module
+ Enterprise WAN module
+ Enterprise Data Center module
+ Enterprise Branch module
+ Enterprise Teleworker module
The purpose of the access layer is to grant end-user access to network resources.
The distribution layer provides aggregation for the access layer devices and uplinks to the core layer. It is also used to enforce policy within the network.
The core layer provides a high-speed, highly available backbone designed to switch packets as fast as possible.
QUESTION 138
Which two statements about designing the Enterprise Data Center Access submodule are correct? (Choose two)
A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address

B. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer
C. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer
D. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer
E. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Data link layer switches are often used to connect end devices in the access layer (while distribution and core layer typically use multilayer switches.
The use of Layer 2 clustering requires the servers to be Layer 2 adjacent.
QUESTION 139
Which two statements about the Enterprise Data Center Aggregation submodule are correct? (Choose two.)
A. it provides Layer 4-7 services

B. It should never support STP
C. It is the critical point for control and application services
D. It typically provides Layer 2 connectivity from the data center to the core
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
This submodule provides Layer 4 through Layer 7 services through security and application service devices such as load-balancing devices, SSL offloading
devices, firewalls, and IDS devices.
The Data Center Aggregation (distribution) layer aggregates the uplinks from the access layer to the Data Center Core layer and is the critical point for control and
application services.
QUESTION 140
Which of the following is a modular component within the Cisco Enterprise Campus module in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture framework?
A. Teleworker
B. E-Commerce
C. Internet Connectivity
D. Building Distribution
E. WAN/MAN Site-to-Site VPN
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 141
DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third ISP for international business. They
are organizing the enterprise network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge.
To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related? (Choose two.)
A. PSTN
B. E-Commerce
C. WAN/MAN
D. Edge Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access VPN
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
The Enterprise Edge Module consists of the following modules:
+ E-commerce module: includes the devices and services necessary for an organization to provide e-commerce applications.
+ Internet connectivity module: provides enterprise users with Internet access.
+ VPN and remote access module: terminates VPN traffic and dial-in connections from external users.
+ WAN/ MAN and site-to-site module: provides connectivity between remote sites and the central site over various WAN technologies.
In these modules, only E-Commerce and Internet Connectivity modules will be directly related to the three ISPs.
QUESTION 142
Which statement describes the recommended deployment of DNS and DHCP servers in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model?
A. Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise Campus Access layer and Enterprise branch
B. Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise Campus Server Farm layer and Enterprise branch
C. Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus Core layer and Remote Access/VPN module with the DNS server in the Internet Connectivity module
D. Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus Distribution layer with the DNS server in the Internet Connectivity module
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
For the Enterprise Campus, DHCP and internal DNS servers should be located in the Server Farm and they should be redundant. External DNS servers can be
placed redundantly at the service provider facility and at the Enterprise branch.
QUESTION 143
Which two modules are found in the Enterprise Edge functional area of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Teleworker
B. WAN/LAN
C. Server Farm
D. E-Commerce
E. Internet Connectivty
F. Remote Access/VPN
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
The Enterprise Edge functional area consists of four main modules: E-commerce module, Internet Connectivity module, Remote Access and VPN module, WAN
and MAN and Site-to-Site VPN module.
QUESTION 144
The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises which two Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two)
A. Interactive Services
B. Business Applications
C. Network Infrastructure
D. Collaboration Applications
E. WAN/Internet
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
SONA = Service-Oriented Network Architecture
The SONA framework defines the following three layers:
+ Networked Infrastructure layer: Where all the IT resources interconnect across a converged network foundation. The objective of this layer is to provide
connectivity, anywhere and anytime.
+ Interactive Services layer: Includes both application networking services and infrastructure services. This layer enables efficient allocation of resources to
applications and business processes delivered through the networked infrastructure.
+ Application layer: Includes business applications and collaboration applications. The objective of this layer is to meet business requirements and achieve
efficiencies by leveraging the Interactive Services layer.
QUESTION 145
Which three of these are layers in the Cisco SONA Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Application
B. Physical Infrastructure
C. Presentation
D. Integrated Transport
E. Core Common Services
F. Networked Infrastructure
Correct Answer: ABF
Explanation
The SONA framework defines the following three layers:
+ Networked Infrastructure layer: Where all the IT resources interconnect across a converged network foundation. The objective of this layer is to provide
+ Interactive Services layer: Includes both application networking services and infrastructure services. This layer enables efficient allocation of resources to
applications and business processes delivered through the networked infrastructure.
+ Application layer: Includes business applications and collaboration applications. The objective of this layer is to meet business requirements and achieve
efficiencies by leveraging the Interactive Services layer.
QUESTION 146
A Cisco SONA architecture layer is described as follows:
- The layers IT resources are interconnected across a converged network foundation.

- The layers IT resources include servers, storage, and clients.
- The layer represents how resources exist across the network.
- The customer objective for the layer is to have anywhere/anytime connectivity.
Which Cisco SONA architecture layer is being described?
A. Application
B. Physical
C. Integrated Transport
D. Interactive Services
E. Networked Infrastructure
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Networked Infrastructure layer: Where all the IT resources interconnect across a converged network foundation. The objective of this layer is to provide
QUESTION 147
At which stage in the PPDIOO process would you analyze a customers network in order to discover opportunities for network improvement?
A. Plan
B. Prepare
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Design Assesment
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Cisco has formalized a networks life cycle into six phases: Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, and
Optimize. These phases are collectively known as PPDIOO.
Design phase: Developing a detailed design is essential to reducing risk, delays, and the total cost of network deployments. A design aligned with business goals
and technical requirements can improve network performance while supporting high availability, reliability, security, and scalability.
(Reference: http://www.ciscozine.com/2009/01/29/the-ppdioo-network-lifecycle/)
QUESTION 148
Which of these is the next step after the design phase in the PPDIOO process?
A. Order the equipment

B. Develop a high-level migration plan
C. Create a pilot or a prototype network
D. Develop the implementation plan in as much detail as possible
E. Identify which network management protocol will be used for which function
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
The Implement phase begins after the design phase has been finished. In this phase, new devices are installed, configured and tested according to the design
specifications.
QUESTION 149
According to Cisco, which four improvements are the main benefits of the PPDIOO lifecycle approach to network design? (Choose four.)
A. Faster ROI
B. Improved business agility
C. Increased network availability
D. Faster access to applications and services
E. Lower total cost of network ownership
F. Better implementation team engagement
Correct Answer: BCDE
Explanation
ROI = Return on Investment
The PPDIOO life cycle provides four main benefits:
+ It improves business agility by establishing business requirements and technology strategies.

+ It increases network availability by producing a sound network design and validating the network
operation.
+ It speeds access to applications and services by improving availability, reliability, security, scalability, and
performance.
+ It lowers the total cost of ownership by validating technology requirements and planning for infrastructure
changes and resource requirements.
(Reference: Cisco CCDA Official Exam Certification Guide, 3rd Edition)
QUESTION 150
During which stage of the PPDIOO process are implementation procedures prepared?
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
The Design phase includes network diagrams and an equipment list. The project plan is updated with more granular information for implementation. This is the so-
called prepare implementation procedures.
QUESTION 151
Which two design methodology steps relate, at least in part, to the implement phase of the PPDIOO process? (Choose two.)
A. Verifying the network

B. Testing design
C. Determining customer requirements
D. Characterizing the existing network
E. Establishing the organizational requirements
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
The Implement phase relates to implement new devices, including verifying and testing so A and B are the most suitable options.
Determining customer requirements occurs in the Prepare phase, which identifies requirements and builds a conceptual architecture.
Characterizing the existing network belongs to the Plan phase; this step is performed to determine the infrastructure necessary to meet the requirements.
In the establishing the organizational requirements step, the network topology is designed to meet the requirements and close the network gaps identified in the
previous steps. This step is related to the Design Phase of the PPDIOO process.
QUESTION 152
Which two statements represent advantages that the top-down network design process has over the bottom-up network design process? (Choose two.)
A. Is able to provide the big picture

B. Utilizes previous experience
C. Takes less time to design a network
D. Identifies appropriate technologies first
E. Provides a design for current and future development
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
By incorporating the organizations requirements, the top-down network design process provide the big picture that meets current and future requirements.
QUESTION 153
Which statement identifies a benefit obtained when using a top-down network design plan?
A. Allow quick responses to design requests

B. Facilitates design based on previous experience
C. Incorporates customer organizational requirements
D. Is less time-consuming than using a bottom-up approach
E. Provides a more detailed picture of the desired network
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
The top-down approach begins with the organizations requirements before looking at technologies. Network designs are tested using a pilot or prototype network
before moving into the Implement phase.
QUESTION 154
What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.)
A. Use organizational input

B. Perform a traffic analysis
C. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees
E. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network
F. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customers existing network
Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation
QUESTION 155
Which of the following Cisco router services performs network traffic analysis to assist in documenting a customers existing network?
A. MRTG
B. NetMon
C. NetFlow
D. SNMP MIB complier
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 156
You are performing an audit of a customers existing network and need to obtain the following router information:
- interfaces
- running processes
- IOS image being executed
Which command should you use?
A. show version
B. show tech-support
C. show starup-config
D. show running-config
E. show processes memory
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 157
Which Cisco device management feature is most suited to metering network traffic and providing data for billing network usage?
A. BGP
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. QoS
D. RMON
E. NetFlow
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 158
Which network management protocol allows a network device to have vendor-specific objects for management?
A. SNMP v1
B. SNMP v2
C. SNMP v3
D. MIB
E. RMON 1
F. RMON 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 159
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing network? (Choose three.)
A. Staff input
B. Visual inventory
C. Network audit
D. Traffic analysis
E. Server statistics
Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation
QUESTION 160
To provide Layer 2 connectivity between the primary and remote data centers, given that the two data centers are using Layer 3 routed DCIs, which NX-OS
technology can be used to facilitate this requirement?
A. VRF
B. OTV
C. MPLS
D. STP
E. vPC
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
MPLS = Multiprotocol Label Switching
OTV = Overlay Transport Virtualization
STP = Spanning Tree Protocol
vPC = Virtual Port Channel
VRF = Virtual Routing and Forwarding
QUESTION 161
What is the acceptable amount of one-way network delay for voice and video applications?
A. 300 bytes
B. 1 sec
C. 150 msec
D. 500 msec
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Delay Components in VoIP Networks
The ITU's G.I 14 recommendation specifics that the one-way delay between end points should not exceed 150 ms to be acceptable, commercial voice quality.
In private networks, somewhat longer delays might be acceptable for economic reasons.
The ITU G.114 recommendation specifics that 151-ms to 400-ms one-way delay might be acceptable provided that organizations are aware that the transmission
time will affect the quality of user applications. One-way delays of above 400 ms are unacceptable for general network planning purposes.
QUESTION 162
At which layer of the network is route summarization recommended?
A. Data link layer

B. Core layer
C. Distribution layer
D. Access layer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 163
Which WAN technology is a cost-effective method to deliver 100Mb of bandwidth to multiple branch offices?
A. DSL
B. DWDM
C. ISDN
D. Metro Ethernet
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
DSL = Digital Subscriber Line
DWDM = Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing
ISDN = Integrated Services Digital Network
QUESTION 164
Which Cisco device has the sole function at looking at threat detection and mitigation at the Enterprise Edge?
A. Cisco IOS Router

B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco Catalyst FWSM
D. Cisco IPS
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
ASA = Adaptative Security Appliance
FWSM = FireWall Service Module
IPS = Intrusion Prevention System
QUESTION 165
If a teleworker is required to access the branch office via a secure IPsec VPN connection, which technology is recommended to provide the underlying transport?
A. ISDN
B. Metro Ethernet
C. Frame Relay
D. ASDL
E. ATM
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 166
Which factor would be most influential in choosing multimode fiber optic connections over UTP?
A. Signal attenuation
B. Required bandwidth
C. Required distance
D. Electromagnetic interference
E. Cost
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 167
A hierarchical design of the EIGRP domain facilitates which two of the following? (Choose two.)
A. Route summarization
B. Faster convergence
C. Unequal cost load balancing
D. Redistribution
E. Virtual Links
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 168
Which three types of WAN topologies can be deployed in the Service Provider Module? (Choose three.)
A. Ring
B. Star
C. Full mesh
D. Core/edge
E. Collapsed core
F. Partial mesh
Correct Answer: BCF

Explanation
QUESTION 169
Which two features are supported by single wireless controller deployments? (Choose two.)
A. Automatic detection and configuration of LWAPPs

B. LWAPP support across multiple floors and buildings
C. Automatic detection and configuration of RF parameters
D. Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming
E. Controller redundancy
F. Mobility groups
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 170
Which three describe challenges that are faced when deploying an environment for teleworkers? (Choose three.)
A. Supporting a mix of technically knowledgeable and non technical users

B. Simplifying router installation and configuration
C. Verifying available power at employee's house for necessary equipment
D. Avoiding situations where employees might use nonstandard hardware or configurations
E. Reducing daily commuting time to main office location
F. Providing access to FTP servers located in main office location
G. Implementing leased line connectivity between main office and employee's home location
Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation
QUESTION 171
What are the three models that are required in the systematic approach of the top-down design methodology? (Choose three.)
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Layered
D. Network components
E. Technological
F. Protocols
G. Virtual
Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation
QUESTION 172
What design requirement is necessary for Campus Network Access layer switching?
A. High cost per port
B. High availability
C. High scalability
D. High performance
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 173
Which two issues are typical challenges to network stability and reliability? (Choose two.)
A. Hardware failures
B. Layer 1 link failures
C. Application failures
D. Core layer failures
E. Distribution layer failures
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 174
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do thery have on the routing table?
A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added

B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added
C. Both routes are added
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 175
Which two options are benefits of using a modular network architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Facilitates troubleshooting
B. Accurate monitoring
C. Consistent documentation
D. Increased flexibility
E. Reduced cabling requirements
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 176
What is a benefit of IPv6 over IPv4 addresses?
A. Shorter addresses
B. Automatic summarization
C. Hierarchical global address space
D. Faster IGP convergence
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 177
For a VLAN that requires 70 hosts, which subnet is the most efficient?
A. 10.0.0.1/8
B. 172.31.17.0/26
C. 192.168.1.0/25
D. 192.168.15.0/24
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 178
Which item is the fundamental basis of a virtual network?
A. VRF instance
B. MIB database
C. GRE tunnel
D. Redundant hardware
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 179
Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. The company will be connected to VendorA via a single dedicated link and to VendorB via redundant links. Both
vendors also use OSPF for internal routing. Which of the following deployments describes the best intra-domain routing practice in this situation?
A. Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB using existing OSPF
B. Redistribute the routes on each link between your company and the vendors to a shared EIGRP routing protocol
C. Use iBGP to reach VendorA and eBGP to reach VendorB
D. Use static routes to reach VendorA and eBGP to reach VendorB
E. Use static routes to reach both VendorA and vendorB
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 180
Refer to the list of requirements. Which IP telephony design model should you implement to fulfill these requirements?
- Must be a single, large location with many remote sites

- Must have multisite WAN connectivity
- Requires SRST for call processing redundancy
A. Centralized
B. Distributed
C. Clustered
D. Decentralized
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
SRST = Survival Remote Site Telephony
QUESTION 181
Which network access control technology is recommended to use with Layer 2 access layer switches?
A. 802.1q
B. 802.1x
C. 802.3af
D. 802.3q
E. 802.11n
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 182
Which technology enables WLCs to peer with each other to enable roaming support?
A. WAP profiles
B. Roaming profiles
C. Mobility groups
D. Peer groups
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which IP telephony component supports VoIP, PoE, and QoS?
A. Client Endpoints
B. Voice-enabled infrastructure
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
CUCM = Cisco Unified Communications Manager
QUESTION 184
What business trend allows employees to use personal devices to access enterprise data and systems?
A. ISE
B. BYOD
C. SAN
D. IOE
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
BYOD = Bring Your Own Device
IOE = Internet of Everything
ISE = Identity Services Engine
SAN = Storage Area Networks
QUESTION 185
What three customer supported details identifies network requirements based on the PPDIOO design model? (Choose three.)
A. Goals
B. Budget
C. User needs
D. Locations
E. Policies
F. Tasks
Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation
QUESTION 186
An engineer receives a resource utilization alert on a router. What command should be used to investigate the issue?
A. show processes cpu

B. show memory
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 187
What part of the network does a top-down network design focus on for solution development?
A. Presentation
B. Hardware
C. Session
D. Application
E. Data link
F. Transport
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 188
An engineer has configured a router to send level 7 messages to a syslog server. What severity level are these messages?
A. Error
B. Warning
C. Debug
D. Informational
E. Notice
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Level Keyword Level Description Syslog Definition
emergencies 0 System unstable LOG_EMERG
alerts 1 Immediate action needed LOG_ALERT
critical 2 Critical conditions LOG_CRIT
errors 3 Error conditions LOG_ERR
warnings 4 Warning conditions LOG_WARNING
notifications 5 Normal but significant condition LOG_NOTICE
informational 6 Informational messages only LOG_INFO
debugging 7 Debugging messages LOG_DEBUG
QUESTION 189
A network engineer must implement a design where LAN clients are to connect to various access layer devices, while remaining on the same VLAN.
What type of design would support this requirement?
A. Routed
B. Switched
C. Tunneled
D. Virtual
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 190
When evaluating network design, what indicator demonstrates that the modular approach was followed?
A. Ability to scale
B. Follows best practices
C. Redundant connectivity
D. Easy to deploy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 191
A network engineer is following the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model. To which network layer would a branch office connect to using a private VLAN?
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. SP Edge Premise
D. Remote Module
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 192
A network engineer is following the three tiered Network Hierarchical Model. At which tier is route summarization implemented?
A. Core
B. Distribution
C. Backbone
D. Access
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 193
A network engineer is using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. In what module do network management servers reside?
A. Enterprise campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. Remote Modules
D. SP Edge WAN/Internet
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 194
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus Core?
A. Low latency
B. Access control
C. Traffic filtering
D. High speed
E. Redundant links
F. QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation
QUESTION 195
What type of device can be installed to increase a broadcast domain?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. IDS
D. IPS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
IDS = Intrusion Detection System
IPS = Intrusion Prevention System
QUESTION 196
To what Layer 2 technology does VRF closely compare?
A. VSS
B. vPC
C. VLAN
D. VTP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 197
What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the data center to reduce the number of physical devices?
A. VLANs
B. VPLS
C. VDC
D. VSS
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 198
During the design of a new campus network, the customer requests the ability to route overlapping IP addresses. What technology can be leveraged to meet this
request?
A. VRF
B. VLANs
C. VSS
D. vPC
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 199
Which three are considered as technical constraints when identifying network requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Support for legacy applications

B. Bandwidth support for new applications
C. Limited budget allocation
D. Policy limitations
E. Limited support staff to complete assessment
F. Support for existing legacy equipment
G. Limited timeframe to implement
Correct Answer: ABF

Explanation
Network design might be constrained by parameters that limit the solution. Legacy applications might still exist that must be supported going forward, and these
applications might require a legacy protocol that may limit a design. Technical constraints include the following:
* Existing wiring does not support new technology.

* Bandwidth might not support new applications.
* The network must support exiting legacy equipment.
* Legacy applications must be supported (application compatibility).
QUESTION 200
Which two common cable management strategies are used in high-density server deployments in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Top-of-rack
B. Middle-of-rack
C. Bottom-of-rack
D. Beginning-of-row
E. Middle-of-row
F. End-of-row
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
QUESTION 201
Which protocol is the recommended first-hop redundancy protocol for an existing infrastructure that contains multiple vendors and platforms?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 202
Which IGP provides the fastest convergence by default?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. RSTP
E. BGP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 203
Which three are valid Layer 2 access designs? (Choose three.)
A. Looped Triangle
B. Looped Square
C. Looped U
D. Loop-Free Triangle
E. Loop-Free Square
F. Loop-Free U
Correct Answer: ABF

Explanation
QUESTION 204
Which two enterprise campus layers are combined in a medium-sized LAN? (Choose two.)
A. Core
B. Distribution
C. Access
D. Backbone
E. Aggregation
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 205
What is a characteristic of campus core design?
A. Fast transport
B. Security
C. Summarization
D. Redistribution
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 206
Which servers that reside in the data center require direct links to all other enterprise modules?
A. Network management servers

B. DHCP servers
C. Active Directory servers
D. IP SLA servers
E. Web servers
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 207
Which Gigabit Ethernet media type provides the longest reach without a repeater?
A. 1000Base-CX
B. 1000Base-LX
C. 1000Base-SX
D. 1000Base-T
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 208
which three options represents the components of the Teleworker Solution? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified IP Phone

B. Cisco 880 Series Router
C. Aironet Office Extend Access Point
D. Catalyst 3560 Series Switch
E. Cisco 2900 Series Router
F. MPLS Layer 3 VPN
G. Leased lines
Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation
A Cisco ASR is used to terminate Teleworker solutions, not a 2900 series router.
Hybrid teleworker uses Aironet, Advanced teleworker uses 880, both use IP phones.
The Cisco Virtual Office Solution for the Enterprise Teleworker is implemented using the Cisco 800 series ISRs. Each ISR has integrated switch ports that then
connect to the users broadband connection. The solution uses a permanent always-on IPsec VPN tunnel back to the corporate network. This architecture provides
for centralized IT security management, corporate-pushed security policies, and integrated identity services. In addition, this solution supports the enterprise
teleworker needs through advanced applications such as voice and video. For example, the
enterprise teleworker can take advantage of toll bypass, voicemail, and advanced IP phone features not available in the PSTN.
Enterprise Teleworker Module
The enterprise teleworker module consists of a small office or a mobile user who needs to access services of the enterprise campus. As shown in Figure 2-14,
mobile users connect from their homes, hotels, or other locations using dialup or Internet access lines. VPN clients are used to allow mobile users to securely
access enterprise applications. The Cisco Virtual Office solution provides a solution for teleworkers that is centrally managed using small integrated service routers
(ISR) in the VPN solution. IP phone capabilities are also provided in the Cisco Virtual Office solution, providing corporate voice services for mobile users.
QUESTION 209
What is the maximum number of groups that is supported by GLBP?
A. 64
B. 256
C. 512
D. 1024
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 210
Which three services categories are supported by an ISR? (Choose three.)
A. Voice
B. Security
C. Data
D. Internet
E. Storage
F. Satellite
Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation
QUESTION 211
Which three protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
A. RIPv2
B. RIPv1
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
E. IGRP
Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation
QUESTION 212
Which statement describes an unique feature of EIGRP?
A. It enables unequal-cost load balancing

B. It enables equal-cost load balancing
C. It enables source-based load balancing
D. It enables port-based load balancing
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 213
ACME corporation is implementing dynamic routing on the LAN at its corporate headquarters. The interior gateway protocol that they select must support these
requirements: multivendor environment, efficient subnetting, high scalability, and fast convergence.
Which interior gateway protocol should they implement?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIPng
D. BGP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 214
Which routing protocol classification should you use when full topology information is needed?
A. Link-state
B. Distance vector
C. Stateful
D. Path vector
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 215
When you are designing a large IPv6 multivendor network, which IGP does Cisco recommend to use?
A. OSPFv3
B. EIGRP for IPv6
C. BGP
D. RIPng
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 216
When designing the infrastructure protection portion for the Enterprise Edge, which solution would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACLs in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. AAA
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Cisco MARS = (Cisco Security) Monitoring Analysis and Response System
QUESTION 217
Which two design approaches provide management of Enterprise Network devices? (Choose two.)
A. In-band
B. Out-of-line
C. Out-of-band
D. In-line
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 218
A network engineer is attempting to separate routing domains using virtualization technology. What protocol can be configured to perform this task?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. VRF
D. vPC
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 219
What device virtualization technology allows a single point of management and a centralized routing instance?
A. ACE
B. VSS
C. VDC
D. VM
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 220
What two performance considerations must be taken into account when designing a remote worker access solution? (Choose two.)
A. Simultaneous VPN connections

B. Port density
C. Throughput capacity
D. Packet size
E. Latency
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 221
In which network location should an external DNS server be placed?
A. Campus data center

B. Enterprise branch
C. Internet
D. Remote access
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 222
What submodule is found within the Enterprise Edge module?
A. Enterprise WAN
B. Remote branch
C. Campus IPS
D. Building distribution
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 223
A company requires a managed WAN solution that supports Layer 2 adjacency across remote offices for applications and services. What solution should be
selected?
A. DMVPN
B. MPLS
C. VPLS
D. FR
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 224
A circuit has been placed for Gigabit Ethernet and is 80 km from the carrier equipment. What type of SFP will be required?
A. TX
B. SX
C. ZX
D. LX
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
SFP = Small Form-factor Pluggable
QUESTION 225
A secure WAN design requires dynamic routing and IP multicast. What two VPN protocols meet these requirements?
A. Standard IPsec
B. P2P GRE over IPsec
C. DMVPN
D. AnyConnect
E. PPTP
F. Easy VPN
G. SSL/TLS
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 226
What branch design supports 100 to 1000 users and integrates ASA firewalls ?
A. Small
B. Medium
C. Large
D. Extra large
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 227
A network engineer is designing an enterprise managed VPN solution for a large number of remote offices that do not have on-site IT support and communicate
only with the home office.
What type of VPN solution should be implemented?
A. VPLS
B. GRE
C. IPsec
D. EVPN
E. DMVPN
F. SSL client
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
EVPN = Easy VPN
QUESTION 228
A remote office has a T1 WAN link to headquarters and a T1 Internet connection. The client requests WAN redundancy to headquarters with similar bandwidth.
What two connection types satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Secondary T1 WAN circuit

B. ISDN BRI
C. IPsec tunnel over the Internet
D. DWDM
E. POTS Line T1 WAN
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 229
What two features are advantages of adding a secondary WAN link at the Enterprise Edge? (Choose two.)
A. Provides additional bandwidth and load balancing capabilities

B. Acts as a a backup link in event the primary link fails
C. Reduces capital and operational costs
D. Improves security and prevents against denial of service attacks
E. Distributes traffic proactively based on link utilization
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 230
What technology can secure data over an insecure medium and provide WAN redundancy in the event of a primary connection failure?
A. Virtual Private Network

B. Shadow PVC
C. Dial-up ISDN
D. GRE tunnel
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 231
A client wants to consolidate applications that are currently housed at multiple sites to a remote data center. What two design requirements are unique to this
scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Bandwidth
B. Security
C. Latency
D. Storage
E. Availability
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 232
What IPv4 addressing technique allows for the division of addresses into subnets of different sizes?
A. VLSM
B. RIR
C. CIDR
D. NAT
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 233
An organization is conducting an evaluation on the migration to IPv6 within the enterprise network and has requested clarification on recommended migration
strategies.
What three migration models would accomplish the organization's goal? (Choose three.)
A. Dual Stack
B. Service Block
C. Top-Down
D. Hybrid
E. Tunneled
F. Fork-Lift
Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation
QUESTION 234
An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts. How can the application communicate using IPv6?
A. Anycast
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 235
What significant advantage does EIGRP have over OSPF?
A. Easy summarization
B. Shorter convergence time
C. Single area operation
D. Low processor utilization
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 236
What routing protocol requires full mesh between internal peers in an enterprise network?
A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. BGP
D. IS-IS
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 237
What three considerations should be taken into account when selecting a routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Classful routing
B. Scalability
C. Default route origination
D. Multi vendor support
E. Link load balancing
F. Hop count
Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation
QUESTION 238
By default, how does EIGRP's metric differ from OSPF?
A. Hops
B. Cost
C. Bandwidth
D. Delay
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Bandwidth or Delay
QUESTION 239
What characteristic separates link state routing protocols from a distance vector?
A. Creates a topological view of the entire network

B. Path calculation utilizes a more granular metric
C. Do not scale well for large networks
D. Constantly shares link states updates throughout the topology
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 240
A company must deploy an IGP routing protocol on an Enterprise Network. Where should route summarization be implemented?
A. Distribution
B. Core
C. Access
D. Backbone
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 241
What routing configuration can prevent routing loops between IGPs?
A. Route filters
B. Route reflectors
C. Auto summarization
D. Virtual links
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 242
What is the first step when creating a network security policy?
A. Define what should be protected

B. Investigate how likely an attack is to occur
C. Implement measures to protect assets
D. Hire a security firm to perform penetration tests
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 243
A customer requests a filtering design based on the need to scan all internet traffic, including remote workers. What solution meets these requirements?
A. Cisco Cloud Web Security
B. Cisco Network Admission Control
C. Cisco Identity Service Engine
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Cisco Cloud Web Security
As a cloud-delivered web proxy, Cloud Web Security provides security and control for the distributed enterprise across one of the top attack vectors: the web.
Users are protected on any device and in any location through Cisco worldwide threat intelligence and advanced threat defense capabilities.
QUESTION 244
A customer wants to support a BYOD environment. What two products allow for posture assessment? (Choose two.)
A. ACS
B. NAC
C. ASA
D. ISE
E. WAAS
F. IDS
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
ACS = Access Control Server
ASA = Adaptive Security Appliance
IDS = Intrusion Detection System
ISE = Identity Services Engine
NAC = Network Admission Control
WAAS = Wide Area Application Services
QUESTION 245
What two CoS values are used by voice traffic? (Choose two.)
A. CoS 1
B. CoS 2
C. CoS 3
D. CoS 4
E. CoS 5
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
CoS = Class of Services
QUESTION 246
A client wants to deploy a video conferencing platform in a multisite WAN environment. What two design considerations need to be evaluated? (Choose two.)
A. Codecs supported by the video units

B. Buffer sizes on the routers
C. PoE capabilities of the switches
D. Number of current calls
E. Number of hops between sites
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 247
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to
interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 248
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Plan Phase
The Plan phase identifies the network requirements based on goals, facilities, and user needs.
This phase characterizes sites and assesses the network, performs a gap analysis against best practice architectures, and looks at the operational environment.
A project plan is developed to manage the tasks, responsible parties, milestones, and resources to do the design and implementation. The project plan aligns with
the scope, cost, and resource parameters established with the original business requirements. This project plan is followed (and updated) during all phases of the
cycle.
QUESTION 249
Which is part of the Prepare phase of PPDIOO?
A. Obtain site contact information

B. Perform network audit
C. Identify customer requirements
D. Optimize
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Prepare Phase
The Prepare phase establishes organization and business requirements, develops a network strategy, and proposes a high-level conceptual architecture to support
the strategy.
Technologies that support the architecture are identified.
This phase creates a business case to establish a financial justification for a network strategy.
QUESTION 250
When designing the identity and access control portions for the enterprise campus network, which of these solutions would be the most appropriate solution to
consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core Layer
D. NetFlow
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 251
Which is the purpose of the Cisco NAC Profiler?
A. Automates discovery and inventory of all LAN attached devices

B. Generates a profile based on username and group
C. Learns and creates a database of virus definitions based on LAN traffic
D. A database used to map user VPN accounts
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Cisco NAC Profiler: Enables network administrators to keep a real-time, contextual inventory of all devices in a network.
It greatly facilitates the deployment and management of Cisco Network Admission Control (NAC) systems by discovering and tracking the location and type of all
LAN attached end points, including those that are not capable of authenticating.
It also uses the information about the device to determine the correct policies for NAC to apply.
QUESTION 252
Cisco Identity-Based Networking Services relies heavily on the 802.1x protocol. Which other authentication solution is used hand-in-hand with 802.1x to
authenticate users for network access?
A. RADIUS
B. LEAP
C. IPsec
D. TACACS
E. ISAKMP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Cisco Identity-Based Network Services
The Cisco Identity-Based Network Services solution is a way to authenticate host access based on policy for admission to the network. IBNS supports identity
authentication, dynamic provisioning of VLANs on a per-user basis, guest VLANs, and 802.1X with port security.
The 802.1 X protocol is a standards-based protocol for authenticating network clients by permitting or denying access to the network. The 802.1 X protocol
operates between the end-user client seeking access and an Ethernet switch or wireless access point (AP) providing the connection to the network. In 802.1 X
terminology, clients are called supplicants, and switches and APs are called authenticates. A back-end RADIUS server such as a Cisco Access Control Server
(ACS) provides the user account database used to apply authentication and authorization.
With an IBNS solution, the host uses 802.IX and Extensible Authentication Protocol over LANs (EAPoL) to send the credentials and initiate a session to the
network. After the host and switch establish LAN connectivity, username and password credentials are requested. The client host then sends the credentials to the
switch, which forwards them to the RADIUS ACS.
The RADIUS ACS performs a lookup on the username and password to determine the credentials' validity. If the username and password are correct, an accept
message is sent to the switch or AP to allow access to the client host. If the username and password are incorrect, the server sends a message to the switch or AP
to block the host port.
QUESTION 253
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow across the network?
A. cRTP
B. IEEE 802.1P
C. RSVP
D. LFI
E. Auto QoS
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
cRTP = Compressed Real-Time protocol
IEEE 802.1P = class of services in Ethernet header
RSVP = Resource Reservation Protocol
LFI = Link Fragmentation and Interleaving
RSVP : Signaling protocol that enables end stations or applications to obtain guaranteed bandwidth and low delays for their data flows (depreciated today).
QUESTION 254
Which four services does the architecture for Media Services contain? (Choose four.)
A. Access services
B. Transport services
C. Storage services
D. Forwarding services
E. Session control services
F. Security services
G. Filtering services
H. Remote access services
Correct Answer: ABCE

Explanation
An architecture framework for media services supports different models of video models. As shown in figure, the network provides service to video media in the
Media Services Framework. Those services are access services, transport services, bridging services, storage servers, and session control services, which arc
provided to end points.
QUESTION 255
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the nearest content server?
A. Link-local
B. Site-local
C. Anycast
D. Multicast
E. Global aggregatable
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Anycast is a network addressing and routing methodology in which data grams from a single sender are routed to the topologically nearest node in a group of
potential receivers all identified by the same destination address.
QUESTION 256
What is the recommended spanning tree protocol to use for all Layer 2 deployments in a branch office environment?
A. CST
B. RSPT
C. PVST
D. MISTP
E. Rapid PVST+
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 257
Which two are types of network virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. VSS: Virtual Switching System

B. VRF: Virtual Routing and Forwarding
C. VCI: Virtual Channel Identifier
D. VLSM: Variable Length Subnet Masking
E. VM: Virtual Machine
F. VMP: Virtual Memory Pool
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Network virtualization encompasses logical isolated network segments that share the same physical infrastructure. Each segment operates independently and is
logically separate from the other segments. Each network segment appears with its own privacy, security, independent set of policies, QoS levels, and independent
routing paths.
Here are some examples of network virtualization technologies:
VLAN: Virtual local-area network
VSAN: Virtual storage-area network
VRF: Virtual routing and forwarding
VPN: Virtual private network
vPC: Virtual Port Channel
QUESTION 258
You are tasked with designing a new branch office that will support 75 users with possible expansion in the future and will need a highly available network.
Which of the branch design profiles should be implemented?
A. Large branch design

B. Medium branch design
C. Teleworker design
D. Small branch design
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Medium Branch Design
The medium branch design is recommended for branch offices of 50 to 100 users, which is similar to the small branch but with an additional access router in the
WAN edge (slightly larger) allowing for redundancy services. Typically, two 2921 or 2951 routers are used to support the WAN, and separate access switches are
used to provide LAN connectivity.
QUESTION 259
Which two can be used as a branch office WAN solution? (Choose two.)
A. Frame Relay
B. MPLS
C. Metro Ethernet
D. GPRS
E. Dial-up modem
F. 3G USB modems
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Frame relay is an old 'shared' technology today's sites use some flavor or Metro E or MPLS/VPN.
QUESTION 260
Drag the WAN characteristics on the left to the branch office model where it would most likely to
be used on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Small Branch Design
The small branch design is recommended for branch offices that do not require hardware redundancy and that have a small user base supporting up to 50 users.
This profile consists of an access router providing WAN services and connections for the LAN services.
The Layer 3 WAN services are based on the WAN and Internet deployment model. A T1 is used for the primary link, and an ADSL secondary link is used for
backup. Other network fundamentals are supported, such as EIGRP, floating static routes, and QoS for bandwidth protection.
Medium Branch Design
The medium branch design is recommended for branch offices of 50 to 100 users, which is similar to the small branch but with an additional access router in the
WAN edge (slightly larger) allowing for redundancy services.
Large Branch Design
The large branch design is the largest of the branch profiles, supporting between 100 and 1000 users. This design profile is similar to the medium branch design in
that it also provides dual access routers in the WAN edge. In addition, dual Adaptive Security Appliances (ASA) are used for stateful firewall filtering, and dual
distribution switches provide the multilayer switching component. The WAN services use an MPLS deployment model with dual WAN links into the WAN cloud.
QUESTION 261
Your company's Cisco routers are operating with EIGRP. You need to join networks with an acquisition's heterogeneous routers at 3 sites, operating with EIGRP
and OSPF.
Which describes the best practice for routing protocol deployment?
A. Apply OSPF throughout both networks

B. Apply one-way redistribution exclusively at each location
C. Apply two-way redistribution exclusively at each location
D. Apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route filter at only one location
E. Apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route filter at each location
F. Apply EIGRP with the same autonomous system throughout both networks
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Without filters there is possibility of routing loops.
QUESTION 262
Which one of these statements is an example of how trust and identity management solutions should be deployed in the enterprise campus network?
A. Authentication validation should be deployed as close to the data center as possible.

B. Use the principle of top-down privilege, which means that each subject should have the privileges that are necessary to perform their defined tasks, as well as
all the tasks for those roles below them.
C. Mixed ACL rules, using combinations of specific sources and destinations, should be applied as close to the source as possible.
D. For ease of management, practice defense in isolation - security mechanisms should be in place one time, in one place.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Validating user authentication should be implemented as close to the source as possible, with an emphasis on strong authentication for access from untrusted
networks. Access rules should enforce policy deployed throughout the network with the following guidelines:
* Source-specific rules with any type destinations should be applied as close to the source as possible.
* Destination-specific rules with any type sources should be applied as close to the destination as possible.
* Mixed rules integrating both source and destination should be used as close to the source as possible.
An integral part of identity and access control deployments is to allow only the necessary access. Highly distributed rules allow for greater granularity and scalability
but, unfortunately, increase the management complexity. On the other hand, centralized rule deployment eases management but lacks flexibility and scalability.
Practicing defense in depth by using security mechanisms that back each other up is an important concept to understand. For example, the perimeter Internet
routers should use ACLs to filter packets in addition to the firewall inspecting packets at a deeper level.
QUESTION 263
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to
consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System (MARS) facilitates this process by:
* Identifying threats on the Cisco network by "learning" the topology, configuration, and behavior of your environment
* Making precise recommendations for threat mitigation, including the ability to visualize the attack path and identify the source of the threat
* Simplifying incident management and response through integration with Cisco Security Manager security management software
QUESTION 264
You have a campus network that consists of only Cisco devices. You have been tasked to discover the device platforms, the IOS versions, and an IP address of
each device to map the network.
Which proprietary protocol will assist you with this task?
A. SNMP
B. TCP
C. CDP
D. ICMP
E. LLDP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 265
Which three technologies are recommended to be used for WAN connectivity in today's Enterprise Edge designs? (Choose three.)
A. DWDM
B. Metro Ethernet
C. Frame relay
D. MPLS VPN
E. ISDN
F. DSL
G. Wireless
Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation
There is some discussion about whether ISDN not DWDM should be the answer but it does say TODAYS network.
QUESTION 266
Which WLC interface is dedicated for WLAN client data?
A. Virtual interface
B. Dynamic interface
C. Management interface
D. AP manager interface
E. Service port interface
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
WLC Interface Types
A WLC has five interface types:
* Management interface (static, configured at setup, mandatory) is used for in-band management, connectivity to AAA, and Layer 2 discovery and association.
* Service-port interface (static, configured at setup, optional) is used for out-of-band management. It is an optional interface that is statically configured.
* AP manager interface (static, configured at setup, mandatory except for 5508 WLC) is used for Layer 3 discovery and association. It has the source IP address
of the AP that is statically configured.
* Dynamic interface (dynamic) is analogous to VLANs and is designated for WLAN client data.
* Virtual interface (static, configured at setup, mandatory) is used for leaver 3 security authentication, DHCP relay support, and mobility management.
QUESTION 267
The first phase of PPDIOO entails identifying customer requirements.
Drag the example on the left to the associated requirement on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 268
During which phase of the PPDIOO model would you conduct interviews with supporting staff to develop and propose a viable solution?
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Prepare Phase
The Prepare phase establishes organization and business requirements, develops a network strategy, and proposes a high-level conceptual architecture to support
the strategy. Technologies that support the architecture are identified. This phase creates a business case to establish a financial justification for a network
strategy.
QUESTION 269
Drag the description or characteristic on the left to the appropriate technology or protocol on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 270
Click and drag the phases of the PPDIOO network lifecycle approach on the left to their order on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 271
Characterizing an existing network requires gathering as much information about the network as possible. Which of these choices describes the preferred order for
the information-gathering process?
A. Site and network audits, traffic analysis, existing documentation and organizational input
B. Existing documentation and organizational input, site and network audits, traffic analysis
C. Traffic analysis, existing documentation and organizational input, site and network audits
D. Site and network audits, existing documentation and organizational input, traffic analysis
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
This section describes the steps necessary to characterize the existing network infrastructure and all sites. This process requires three steps:
Step 1. Gather existing documentation about the network, and query the organization to discover additional information. Organization input, a network audit, and
traffic analysis provide the key information you need. (Note that existing documentation may be inaccurate.)
Step 2. Perform a network audit that adds detail to the description of the network. If possible, use traffic-analysis information to augment organizational input when
you are describing the applications and protocols used in the network.
Step 3. Based on your network characterization, write a summary report that describes the health of the network. With this information, you can propose hardware
and software upgrades to support the network requirements and the organizational requirements.
QUESTION 272
Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer in this design?
A. QoS should only be performed only in the core

B. Load balancing should never be implemented or used
C. Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation
D. Partial mesh should be used as long as it is connected to each device by multiple paths
E. Policy-based traffic control should be implemented to enable prioritization and ensure the best performance for all time-critical applications
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 273
Which three modular components are part of the Cisco Enterprise Edge Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. E-commerce module
B. Internet connectivity module
C. Server farm module
D. Remote access and VPN module
E. PSTN services module
F. Enterprise branch module
G. Building distribution module
Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation
QUESTION 274
Drag the characteristics of the traditional campus network on the left to the most appropriate hierarchical network layer on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Large-building LANs are segmented by floors or departments.
The building-access component serves one or more departments or floors. The building-distribution component serves one or more building-access components.
Campus and building backbone devices connect the data center, building-distribution components, and the enterprise edge-distribution component. The access
layer typically uses Layer 2 switches to contain costs, with more expensive Layer 3 switches in the distribution layer to provide policy enforcement. Current best
practice is to also deploy multilayer switches in the campus and building backbone.
QUESTION 275
Drag the network function on the left to the functional area or module where it is most likely to be performed in the enterprise campus infrastructure on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 276
Where in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model does network management reside?
A. Enterprise data center module

B. Enterprise campus module
C. Enterprise edge module
D. Service Provider edge module
E. Service Provider data center module
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
The network management servers reside in the campus infrastructure but have tie-ins to all the components in the enterprise network for monitoring and
management.
QUESTION 277
Drag the security prevision on the left to the appropriate Network module on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Building access layer:
Protect network services including DHCP, ARP, and IP spoofing protection

Protect against inadvertent loops
Building distribution layer:
Protect the end points using network-based intrusion prevention

Protect the infrastructure using NFP best practices
Campus Core:
Does not perform any security functions to mitigate transit
Filter and rate-limits control-plane traffic
QUESTION 278
Which three solutions are part of the Borderless Network Services? (Choose three.)
A. Wireless
B. Routing
C. TrustSec
D. MediaNet
E. Swicthing
F. EnergyWise
G. Next-Gen WAN
Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation
QUESTION 279
The evolution of the Data Center is best represented by the 3.0 architecture component of virtualization. Which of the following is not an example of the
virtualization taking place in the Data Center?
A. Virtualized media access utilizing Fiber Channel over Ethernet

B. VLANs and virtual storage area networks (VSANs) provide for virtualized LAN and SAN connectivity, separating physical networks and equipment into virtual
entities
C. Virtual Machines that run an application within the client operating system, which is further virtualized and running on common hardware
D. Storage devices virtualized into storage pools, and network devices are virtualized using device contexts
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 280
Which layer of the OSI model does Cisco recommend to place the enterprise network core layer, when designing a network based on its switched hierarchical
design?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 281
Which Cisco technology using Nexus NX-OS infrastructure allows the network architect to create up to four separate control and data plane instances of the Nexus
chassis?
A. vPC (Virtual port-channel)

B. VRF (Virtual Routing and Forwarding)
C. VSS (Virtual Switching System)
D. VDC (Virtual Device Context)
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Virtualization
Virtual local-area network (VLAN), virtual storage-area network (VSAN), and virtual device contexts (VDC) help to segment the LAN, SAN, and network devices
instances.
Cisco Nexus 1000V virtual switch for VMware ESX and ESXi help to deliver visibility and policy control for virtual machines (VM).
Flexible networking options with support for all server form factors and vendors, including support for blade servers from Cisco, Dell, IBM, and HP with integrated
Ethernet and Fiber Channel switches.
QUESTION 282
Which three options are valid Cisco STP tools used to ensure best-practice access layer design for the enterprise campus? (Choose three.)
A. PortFast
B. UDLD
C. Root Guard
D. BPDU Guard
E. Flex Links
F. SPAN
G. EtherChannel
Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation
Access layer Limit VLANs to a single closet when possible to provide the most deterministic and highly available topology.
Use RPVST+ if STP is required. It provides the best convergence.
Set trunks to ON and ON with no-negotiate
Manually prune unused VLANs to avoid broadcast propagation.
Use VTP Transparent mode, because there is little need for a common VLAN database in hierarchical networks.
Disable trunking on host ports, because it is not necessary. Doing so provides more security and speeds up Port Fast.
Consider implementing routing in the access layer to provide fast convergence and Layer 3 load balancing.
Use Cisco STP Toolkit, which provides Port Fast, Loop Guard, Root Guard, and BPDU Guard.
QUESTION 283
Spanning Layer 2 across geographically separate data centers is a key consideration for current data center designs. Which is the name of the NX-OS technology
that facilitates MAC in IP transport for Layer 2 VLANs across any IP network?
A. Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV)

B. Virtual Private LAN Services (VPLS)
C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
D. Q-in-Q tunneling
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 284
When selecting which hardware switches to use throughout an enterprise campus switched network, which consideration is not relevant?
A. Whether data link layer switching based upon the MAC address is required
B. The number of shared media segments
C. Which infrastructure service capabilities are required
D. Whether to support Layer 3 services at the network edge
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Shared media are not used in modern networks; all links are operating full-duplex.
QUESTION 285
Which two of these practices are considered to be best practices when designing the access layer for the enterprise campus? (Choose two.)
A. Implement all of the services (QoS, security, STP, and so on) in the access layer, offloading the work from the distribution and core layers.
B. Always use a Spanning Tree Protocol; preferred is Rapid PVST+.
C. Use automatic VLAN pruning to prune unused VLANs from trunked interfaces to avoid broadcast propagation.
D. Avoid wasted processing by disabling STP where loops are not possible.
E. Use VTP transparent mode to decrease the potential for operational error.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
When designing the building access layer, you must consider the number of users or ports required to size up the LAN switch. Connectivity speed for each host
should also be considered. Hosts might be connected using various technologies such as Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, or port channels. The planned VLANs
enter into the design.
Performance in the access layer is also important. Redundancy and QoS features should be considered.
The following are recommended best practices for the building access layer:
* Limit VLANs to a single closet when possible to provide the most deterministic and highly available topology.
* Use Rapid Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus (RPVST+) if STP is required. It provides the faster convergence than traditional 802.1d default timers.
* Set trunks to ON and ON with no-negotiate.
Manually prune unused VLANs to avoid broadcast propagation (commonly done on the distribution switch).
* Use VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) Transparent mode, because there is little need for a common VLAN database in hierarchical networks.
* Disable trunking on host ports, because it is not necessary. Doing so provides more security and speeds up PortFast.
* Consider implementing routing in the access layer to provide fast convergence and Layer 3 load balancing.
* Use the switchport host commands on server and end-user ports to enable PortFast and disable channeling on these ports.
* Use Cisco STP Toolkit, which provides:

> PortFast: Bypass listening-learning phase for access ports
> Loop Guard. Prevents alternate or root port from becoming designated in absence of bridge protocol data units (BPDU)
> Root Guard. Prevents external switches from becoming root
> BPDU Guard. Disables PortFast-enabled port if a BPDU is received
QUESTION 286
The enterprise campus core layer has requirements that are unique from the distribution and access layers. Which of the following is true about the core layer?
A. The core layer provides convergence using Layer 2 and Layer 3 services and features
B. The core layer provides high availability to support the distribution layer connections to the enterprise edge
C. The campus core layer is optional
D. The core layer requires high performance to manage the traffic policing across the backbone
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 287
Drag the technology on the left to the type of enterprise virtualization where it is most likely to be found on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Network Virtualization:
* VPC
* VLAN
* VRF
Device Virtualization:
* ASA firewall context

* IPS
* VDC
Network virtualization encompasses logical isolated network segments that share the same physical infrastructure. Each segment operates independently and is
logically separate from the other segments. Each network segment appears with its own privacy, security, independent set of policies, QoS levels, and independent
routing paths.
Device virtualization allows for a single physical device to act like multiple copies of itself. Device virtualization enables many logical devices to run independently of
each other on the same physical piece of hardware. The software creates virtual hardware that can function just like the physical network device. Another form of
device virtualization entails using multiple physical devices to act as one logical unit.
QUESTION 288
Which statement is true concerning enterprise edge distribution switches?
A. The speed of switching is the most critical feature

B. Security requirements are offloaded to the other modules for performance reasons
C. Edge distribution switches are only required when using a collapsed core backbone
D. Enterprise edge distribution switches are similar to the building distribution layer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 289
Which is a factor in enterprise campus design decisions?
A. Network application characteristics

B. Routing protocol characteristics
C. Switching latency characteristics
D. Packet filtering characteristics
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 290
Which network virtualization technology involves creating virtual routers with its own individual routing tables on a physical router?
A. VSS
B. vPC
C. VRF
D. VLAN
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 291
Drag the network characteristic on the left to the design method on the right which will best ensure redundancy at the building distribution layer.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Layer 2 between distribution and access layers, with a Layer 3 link between the distribution switches
-> FHRP for convergence, no VLANs span between access layer switches across the distribution switches
Layer 2 between distribution and access layers, with a Layer 2 link between the distribution switches
-> Support Layer 2 VLANs spanning multiple access layer switches across the distribution switches
VSS
-> Convergence (FHRP) is not an issue
QUESTION 292
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design? (Choose three.)
A. Access layer aggregation

B. Route summarization
C. Network trust boundary
D. Next-hop redundancy
E. Layer-2 switching
F. Port security
G. Broadcast suppression
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
QUESTION 293
High availability is a key design consideration in the enterprise campus network. In a fully redundant topology, which is likely to provide faster IGP convergence
during a failure?
A. Redundant supervisors
B. Redundant supervisors with Cisco Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) and Stateful Switchover (SSO)
C. Single supervisors with tuned IGP timers
D. Single supervisors
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 294
In the enterprise data center, which are the three main components? (Choose three.)
A. Network Infrastructure
B. Interactive services
C. Data Center Management
D. Internet services
E. WAN services
F. VPN and remote access
Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation
QUESTION 295
Drag the associated virtualization tool or solution on the left to the appropriate design requirement on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 296
When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in which Enterprise Campus layer does the Remote Access and VPN module establish its connection?
A. Building Access
B. Campus Core
C. Enterprise Branch
D. Enterprise Data Center
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 297
Drag the WAN technology on the left to the most appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 298
You need to connect to a remote branch office via an Internet connection. The remote office does not use Cisco equipment. This connection must be secure and
must support OSPF.
Which of the following can be used to transport data to the branch office?
A. GRE over IPsec

B. IPsec
C. GRE
D. IPsec VTI
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 299
Which two are characteristics of a Lightweight Access Point? (Choose two.)
A. Managed via a central wireless LAN controller

B. Code upgrade performed via a TFTP server
C. CAPWAP tunnels
D. Managed directly via CLI or web interface
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 300
Which one of these statements describes why, from a design perspective, a managed VPN approach for enterprise teleworkers is most effective?
A. A managed VPN solution uses a cost-effective, on-demand VPN tunnel back to the enterprise
B. This solution supports all teleworkers who do not require voice or video
C. This architecture provides centralized management where the enterprise can apply security policies and push configurations
D. It provides complete flexibility for remote access through a wireless hotspot or a guest network at a hotel, in addition to a home office
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 301
What are three key areas that need to be considered when designing a remote data center? (Choose three.)
A. Power diversity
B. Active Directory services
C. Cisco IOS versions
D. Data storage
E. Applications
F. User access
G. Packet routing
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation
QUESTION 302
Which model of ISR is utilized for the teleworker design profile?
A. Cisco 1900 Series

B. Cisco 1800 Series
C. Cisco 800 Series
D. Cisco 500 Series
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 303
When designing a WAN backup for voice and video applications, what three types of connections should be used? (Choose three.)
A. Private WAN
B. Internet
C. ISDN
D. MPLS
E. Dial-up
F. ATM
G. DSL
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
QUESTION 304
When designing for a remote worker, which two are typical requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Best-effort interactive and low-volume traffic patterns

B. Connections to the enterprise edge using Layer 2 WAN technologies
C. Always-on connection with SLA from ISP
D. Voice and IPsec VPN support
E. High-end security devices with stateful firewall filtering
F. Dual or multihoming to ISPs
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 305
Which two routing protocols operate over NBMA point-to-multipoint networks without the use of point-to-point sub interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. RIPv1
B. RIPv2
C. IS-IS
D. EIGRP
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
QUESTION 306
Which three modules would typically utilize public IPv4 addressing? (Choose three.)
A. Access
B. Distribution
C. Core
D. Data Center
E. E-Commerce
F. Internet Connectivity
G. Remote Access/VPN
H. WAN/MAM
I. Branch
J. Branch Data Center
Correct Answer: EFG

Explanation
QUESTION 307
With respect to IPv6 addressing, from a design perspective, which of these statements is it important to keep in mind?
A. IPv6 addressing provides convenience of anycast addressing without any configuration requirements
B. IPv6 does not use multicast addressing
C. An IPv6 router will not forward packets from one link to other links if the packet has either a link-local source or a link-local destination address
D. Dynamic address assignment requires DHCPv6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 308
Which consideration is the most important for the network designer when considering IP routing?
A. Convergence
B. Scalability
C. On-demand routing
D. Redistribution
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 309
Your supervisor has asked you to deploy a routing protocol within the lab environment that will allow for unequal cost multipath routing. Which should you choose?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. RIP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 310
Which two methods are used to reduce the mesh links required between iBGP peers in the same AS? (Choose two.)
A. Community
B. Router reflectors
C. Local preferences
D. Confederations
E. Atomic Aggregate
F. MED
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 311
A company wants to use private IP addresses for all its internal hosts. Which technology can the company use to provide access to the Internet using a single
public IP address?
A. Static NAT
B. Source routing
C. ACL
D. PAT
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 312
Which two link state routing protocols support IPv6 routing? (Choose two.)
A. BGP4+
B. OSPF
C. RIPng
D. EIGRP
E. IS-IS
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 313
What is the most compact representation of the following IPv6 address: 2001:db8:0000:0000:cafe:0000:0000:1234 ?
A. 2001:db8::cafe::1234
B. 2001:db8::cafe:0000:0000:1234
C. 2001:db8:0:0:cafe::1234
D. 2001:db8::cafe:0:1234
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 314
Which is usually used to connect to an upstream ISP?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. IS-IS
E. RIPv2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 315
You are designing a network that requires a routing protocol that will use minimal network bandwidth. Which would satisfy this requirement?
A. RIPv2
B. RIPng
C. OSPF
D. ARP
E. EGP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 316
Which two statements best describe an OSPF deployment? (Choose two.)
A. ABR provides automatic classful network boundary summarization

B. ABR requires manual configuration for classful network summarization
C. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from stub areas via ASBR
D. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ASBR
E. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ABR
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 317
Which three items pertain to EIGRP? (Choose three.)
A. Can use multiple unequal paths

B. Routes are redistributed as type 2 by default
C. ASN and K values must match to form neighbors
D. Uses multicast address 224.0.0.9 for updates
E. Exchanges full routing table every 30 seconds
F. Summary routes have AD of 90
G. External routes have AD of 170
Correct Answer: ACG

Explanation
QUESTION 318
Which statement should the designer keep in mind when considering the advanced routing features?
A. One-way route redistribution avoids the requirement for static or default routes
B. Redistribution, summarization, and filtering are most often applied between the campus core and enterprise edge
C. Filtering only occurs on the routing domain boundary using redistribution
D. Summarize routes at the core toward the distribution layer
E. The hierarchical flexibility of IPv6 addressing avoids the requirement for routing traffic reduction using aggregation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 319
When designing an EIGRP network, which two things should you take into consideration? (Choose two.)
A. ASN and K values must match

B. The neighbor command can be used to enable unicast communication
C. The neighbor diameter cannot exceed a 15-hops limit
D. NSSA areas can be used to redistribute external routes
E. Neighbor relationship can be established with non-Cisco routers
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 320
You are asked to design a new branch office that will need to support 25 users. These users will be using an ISP connection and will need to connect to the main
office for network services. Which two Cisco devices are the most appropriate to fulfill all of these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IPS
B. Cisco ISR G2
C. Cisco ASA
D. Cisco 2960
E. Cisco CRS-1
F. Cisco ACS
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 321
Which three statements are true regarding the virtual interface on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose three.)
A. Support mobility management

B. Serves as DHCP relay
C. Used for all controller to AP communication
D. Supports embedded Layer 3 security
E. Default for out-of-band management
F. Default for in-band management
G. Provides connectivity to AAA servers
Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation
QUESTION 322
A campus network needs end-to-end QoS tools to manage traffic and ensure voice quality. Which three types of QoS tools are needed? (Choose three.)
A. Interface queuing and scheduling
B. Congestion management
C. Compression and fragmentation
D. Bandwidth provisioning
E. Traffic classification
F. Buffer management
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation
QUESTION 323
Your supervisor wants you to recommend a management protocol that will allow you to track overall bandwidth utilization, utilization by traffic type, and utilization by
source and destination. Which is ideally suited for this function?
A. MRTG
B. NetFlow
C. RRD
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 324
Which subnet address and mask would you use for all Class D multicast addresses to be matched within an access list?
A. 224.0.0.0/20
B. 224.0.0.0/4
C. 239.0.0.0/24
D. 239.0.0.0/8
E. 225.0.0.0/8
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 325
Which two devices would you place in your DMZ to ensure enterprise edge security? (Choose two.)
A. IPS
B. NAC
C. ASA
D. ACS
E. WCS
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
ACS = Access Control System
ASA = Adaptive Security Appliance
IPS= Intrusion Prevention System
NAC = network Admission Control
WCS = Wireless Control System
QUESTION 326
Which three are security services offered through Cisco Router Security? (Choose three.)
A. Trust and Identity

B. Integrated Threat Control
C. Unified Wireless Network Security Solution
D. Secure Connectivity
E. Voice-Messaging Security
F. Endpoint Security
G. Virtual Security Gateway
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
QUESTION 327
Which voice codec should you use in order to provide toll quality calls?
A. G.711
B. G.718
C. G.722
D. G.729
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 328
Which three are features of LWAPP? (Choose three.)
A. Firmware synchronization
B. Local management of APs
C. Configuration changes manually synced
D. Encryption of control channel
E. Configuration data only on the WLC
F. Wireless control free operation
G. Replaces 802.1x for authentication in wireless connections
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation
QUESTION 329
A company has dark fiber between headquarters and its data center. It is presently configured as a 10GbE connection. Network utilization shows high utilization on
the connection. What technology can be implemented to increase capacity without acquiring another circuit?
A. MPLS
B. DWDM
C. VPLS
D. DMVPN
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 330
What wireless authentication option requires a Public Key Infrastructure?
A. EAP-TLS
B. PEAP
C. LEAP
D. EAP-FAST
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 331
What two access point modes support the transmission of user traffic over a LWAPP/CAPWAP tunnel? (Choose two.)
A. Local
B. H-REAP
C. Rogue detector
D. Monitor
E. Sniffer
F. Standalone
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
H-REAP = Hybrid Remote Edge Access Point
QUESTION 332
What is the primary advantage of implementing a wireless LAN controller in a wireless LAN design?
A. Roaming between APs

B. RADIUS user authentication
C. Radio resource management
D. accelerated data transfer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 333
A wireless LAN client is sending traffic to the wired LAN client. What path will the packet take to reach the destination endpoint in a lightweight wireless
deployment?
A. Switch > controller > ap > client

B. Controller > ap > switch > client
C. AP > controller > switch > client
D. Switch > ap > controller > client
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 334
You design a network with the following network addresses:
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?
A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.171.128/3
C. 192.168.168.0/21
D. 192.168.175.0/3
E. 192.168.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 335
Which option is an advantage of the bottom-up design model?
A. Focuses on the needs of user communities

B. Includes a thorough analysis of customer requirements
C. Facilitates a quick response to client requests
D. Produces a "big-picture" of the desired outcome
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 336
A large company requests a hierarchical design model. What tier should be free of physically connected hosts?
A. Core
B. Access
C. Aggregation
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 337
An organization is redesigning a 3-tier hierarchical network into a collapsed core. What design issue is a primary concern per Cisco best practices?
A. Services delineation
B. Port density
C. Feature availability
D. Resource utilization
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 338
What three design best practices are key functions of the distribution layer? (Choose three.)
A. Fault domain isolation

B. Admission control
C. Access switch aggregation
D. QoS tagging
E. Address summarization
F. End user and application isolation
Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation
QUESTION 339
A network engineer is tasked to upgrade and expand a large existing production network. From the IOS CLI, what two protocols can be used to build a topology
map of the existing network? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP
B. IP SLA
C. ICMP Echo
D. LLDP
E. Traceroute
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
QUESTION 340
A network engineer has finished designing and implementing a new network. What two protocols would they use to gain insight into the network and determine the
components that require optimization? (Choose two.)
A. CDP
B. NetFlow
C. ICMP Echo
D. NMAP
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 341
What are two benefits of a structured IPv4 addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. reduces routing table size

B. Provides increased security
C. Allows for address translation to be performed
D. Improves manageability and troubleshooting
E. Increases high availability
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 342
What are two reasons discontinuous IPv4 networks hinder scalability? (Choose two.)
A. Routing table bloat

B. Inability to utilize automatic summarization
C. Insufficient IP addresses
D. Slowed packet forwarding
E. Delayed interface queuing
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
to bloat = to increase
QUESTION 343
GRE has been used to establish a routing-protocol neighbor relationship between two routers, across the public Internet. Which technology can you use to encrypt
this communication channel?
A. Access lists
B. IPsec
C. CBAC
D. IPS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 344
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. Provides information about directly connected Cisco devices

B. Provides greater detail about collected data, including time stamping
C. Combines with the network layer data that is gathered by NetFlow when using a NetFlow collector
D. Part of the IEEE 802.1ab standard
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 345
Which three QoS levels should VoIP clients be set to on a Cisco WLC? (Choose three.)
A. Platinium
B. Bronze
C. Gold
D. Silver
E. Premier
F. Critical
Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation
QUESTION 346
What is the optimal device and location to fulfill these requirements?
A. IPS inline
B. IPS inline inside of the firewall
C. Cisco IOS IPS on the border router
D. passive IPS connected to a SPAN port outside of the firewall
E. passive IPS connected to a SPAN port inside of the firewall
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 347
A remote worker for a sales company must submit daily updates via the company email system. The employee does not have a company-issued laptop, so which
VPN method is used for connectivity to the company email server?
A. DMVPN
B. SSL VPN
C. IPsec VPN
D. GET VPN
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 348
Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private addresses into "legal" public addresses on a one-for-one basis?
A. PAT
B. NAT
C. VLAN
D. GARP
E. PPP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 349
You are designing routing between building distribution switches and campus core switches. Assuming that all links have the same speed, which statement about
these designs is true?
A. Option A has more fault tolerance but slower convergence than Option B
B. Option A has more fault tolerance and faster convergence than Option B
C. Option B has more fault tolerance but slower convergence than Option A
D. Option B has more fault tolerance and faster convergence than Option A
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 350
Which technology should a company use to connect a branch office to headquarters via an Internet connection while maintaining confidentiality and the flexibility to
run a routing protocol between the two locations?
A. GRE over IPsec

B. IPsec
C. GRE
D. SSL VPN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 351
A network engineer needs to create a controller-based, high-density RF design. Which two factors determine the cell size? (Choose two.)
A. Antenna type
B. ClientLink support
C. TPC threshold setting
D. QoS setting
E. Free space path loss
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
TPC = Tx Power Control
QUESTION 352
Which IP address can be routed to cross the public Internet?
A. 10.31.1.1
B. 192.168.32.1
C. 172.32.1.1
D. 169.254.32.1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 353
Which DHCP option do you need to configure to ensure that an LWAP can communicate with the Cisco WLC in a different subnet?
A. 7
B. 19
C. 43
D. 150
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 354
Which two options can be virtual networking devices? (Choose two.)
A. ESX host
B. VM
C. Switches
D. Routers
E. Hyper-V host
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 355
Drag the STP toolkit term on the left to the definition on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 356
Drag the characteristic on the left to the correct campus design model on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 357
Drag the technology on the left to the matching routing protocol on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 358
Drag the security term on the left to the matching description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 359
Drag the term on the left to the matching deployment scenario on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 360
What are two components of the Build phase in the Cisco Design Lifecycle? (Choose two.)
A. Migration
B. Deployement
C. Optimization
D. Design
E. Configuration
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 361
Which design enables easy and flexible scaling in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model?
A. Modular
B. Top-down
C. Bottom-up
D. Full-mesh
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 362
Which benefit is an advantage of route summarization?
A. It reduces the size of the routing table

B. It causes routes to be updated more frequently
C. It lowers the cost metric
D. It enables neighbor discovery
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 363
Which two states are RSTP port states? (Choose two.)
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Blocking
D. Listening
E. Disabled
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 364
When is the Cisco FlexConnect design model recommended?
A. When remote-site APs are centrally managed

B. When each remote site has its own wireless controller
C. When each remote site runs VSS
D. When the remote sites use WAN optimization
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 365
In which two modes can you deploy Cisco IPS appliances? (Choose two.)
A. Inline
B. Promiscuous
C. VTP group
D. Threat mitigation
E. Threat detection
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 366
According to Cisco best practices, which traffic control should you apply to the strict priority queue?
A. Bandwidth should be limited to one-third of the link capacity

B. Bandwidth should be limited to 768 kbps
C. Limits should be applied to non-real-time traffic and all real-time traffic should be permitted
D. The link serialization delay should be set to less than 100 ms
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 367
According to fundamental design principles, which location is best for implementing Cisco QoS policies?
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Cisco 3900 Series Integrated Services Routers running IOS software
D. WAN routers running IOS software
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 368
Which item is the fundamental basis of a virtual network?
A. A VRF instance
B. A MIB database
C. A GRE tunnel
D. Redundant hardware
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 369
Which network virtualization technique can you implement without disrupting the existing network design and infrastructure?
A. VRF-Lite
B. EVN
C. MPLS
D. VNET tags
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 370
When designing a hierarchical network design, in which layer DAI and DHCP snooping take place?
A. Core layer
B. Application
C. Distribution layer
D. Enterprise Edge
E. Access layer
F. Network layer
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
DAI = Dynamic ARP inspection
QUESTION 371
What are two components of the Build phase in Cisco design life cycle? (choose two)
A. Assessment
B. Validation
C. Deployment
D. Design
E. Analysis
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 372
A network engineer must connect two sites. Each sites has a different autonomous number. Which method do you use to exchange Routing information between
the sites?
A. BGP
B. IGP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPFv3
E. Static Route
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Cisco Actualtests 200-310 v2016-07-07 by Any 372q PDF

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200-310 CCDA - Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions

A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address

- has a low initial cost

Which technology should the organization use?

A. Extends the network to remote users

A. Video streaming on the LAN

Correct Answer: ACD

Correct Answer: ABD

- Existing AAA Server

A. Use organizational input

Correct Answer: ABE

A. Reduces configuration complexity by using the same subnet mask length

A. Will the witches be required to provide inline power?

N+N WLC Redundancy

N+N+1 WLC Redundancy

A. All areas need to connect back to area 0

ICMP = Internet Control Message Protocol

VoIP Control and Transport Protocols

On which router should you configure redistribution?

Correct Answer: ABC

Correct Answer: ACD

Correct Answer: ABC

Correct Answer: ABC

A. It divides the network into functional network modules

A. It enables NIC teaming

- Option 1 has a metric of 8123228

The variance 4 command was issued on Router A.

Correct Answer: ABC

A. Reduces operational cost

A. Enable spanning-tree portfast

A. Virtual switching systems

A. Floating static entry

What must be considered if routing is to be performed at the access layer?

A. CQ is for time sensitive protocols

What two tools can provide this information? (Choose two.)

Which technology meets this requirement?

Where are aggregation switches found?

A. VTP transparent mode

A. Application Control Engine

A. Virtual storage-area network

What protocol allows for this?

A. Allows a quick response to a design request

A. Cisco FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning

What is causing this issue to occur?

A. The wrong CIR is configured

A. Weighted fair queuing

Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?

A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links

Which layer 2 tunneling technology should be used?

A. Minimize the effect of link failures

A. Facilitates choosing the type of routing protocols to be used in the network

A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches

A. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0 10.1.1.1

A. In the core toward the data center

Correct Answer: ACE

A. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

A. config create interface

A. Cisco 2500 Series Wireless Controllers

A. (A) Inline before the firewall

A. recognize users, their devices, and their roles in the network

A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches

A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links

Correct Answer: ACD