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NEW TESTS

Report/Result : NEET MOCK TEST (3)2017

Total number of correct Answers : 69

Number of answered questions : 217

Number of unattempted questions : 23

Total Marks : 32

Sr Question Answer Option Correct Answer Your Answer Answer Explanation

1 Post-dural puncture headache is A. A result of leakage of
typically: blood into the epidural
space
B. Worse when lying
down than in sitting
position
C. Bifrontal or occipital
D. Seen within 4 hours
of dural puncture
C. Bifrontal or occipital
Seen within 4 • Characteristics of post lumbar
hours of dural puncture Headache – • Cause -
puncture There is loss of C.S.F. which
decreases the brains supportive
cushion so that when a patient is
upright there is dilatation and
tension placed on brain’s anchoring
structures and the pain sensitive
dural sinuses, resulting in pain. •
Nature - Usually a dull ache but may
be throbbing • Location - Occipito
frontal* • Accompanying symptoms
– - Nausea, stiff neck, blurred vision,
photophobia, tinnitus and vertigo •
Onset - Pain usually begins within
48 hrs., but may be delayed for upto
12 days. • Precipitating factors - It is
dramatically positioned, it begins
when the patient sits or stands
upright - Also worsened by head
shaking or jugular venous
compression. - Relief is obtained on
reclining or with abdominal
compression • Treatment -
Treatment with I.V. caffeine sodium
benzoate given over a few minutes
as a 500 mg. dose promptly
terminates headache in 75% of pts.
- Epidural blood patch : an epidural
blood patch accomplished by
injection of 15 ml. of autologus
whole blodd is almost successful in
those who do not respond to
caffeine.
2 Precision attachment are given in?
3 Serum C3 is persistently low in the
following except-
4 All of the following are associated
with low complement levels except:
5 The most common gene defect in
idiopathic steroid resistant nephrotic
syndrome:
6 Organised glomemler deposits in
kidney is present in-
A. For extra retention C. Edentulous area with Distal extension Internal attachment -Dr. Herman ES
B. Distal extension periodontally stable teeth denture base Chaves (1906) • It is also known as
denture base anterior & posteriorly. precision attachment or frictional
C. Edentulous area with attachment or key and keyway
periodontally stable attachment or parallel attachment or
teeth anterior & slotted attachment. Some commonly
posteriorly. use internal attachments are •
D. Where abutment Neyes-Chayes attachment • Stern-
teeth with large pulp Goldsmith attachment • Baker-
chamber. attachment Advantage^ Elimination
o f visual retentive component.
A. Post streptococcal A. Post streptococcal Glomerulonephritis Ans. is ‘A’ i.e., Post streptococcal
glomerulonephritis glomerulonephritis related to bacterial glomerulonephritis [Ref: Harrison]
B. endocarditis Although all conditions mentioned in
Membranoproliferative the question are associated with low
glomerulonephritis compliment levels ''persistently
C. Lupus nephritis depressed levels’ are not seen in
D. Glomerulonephritis post streptococcal
related to bacterial glomerulonephritis. In post
endocarditis streptococcal glomerulonephritis :
serum C3 levels are depressed
within 2 weeks, however these
usually return to normal levels within
6 to 8 weeks Persistently depressed
levels after this period should
suggest another cause such as
presence of C3 nephritic factor
(Membranoproliferative
glomenulonephritis) – Harrison
A. Lupus nephritis C. Diarrhea associated Glomerulonephritis Ans. is C i.e., Diarrhea associated
B. Mesanogio capillary hemolytic uremic related to bacterial hemolytic uremic syndrome [Ref:
glomerulonephritis syndrome endocarditis Refer previous question] Lupus
C. Diarrhea associated Nephritis, post streptococcal
hemolytic uremic glomerulonephritis and membrano
syndrome proliferative glomerulonephritis are
D. Glomerulonephritis all associated with low complement
related to bacterial levels as depicted in the table in the
endocarditis previous question.
A. ACE B. NPHS 2 ACE Ans. is ‘b’ i.e. NPHS-2 [Ref:
B. NPHS 2 Robbin’s 8th/e p. 927 & ?h/e p 983-
C. HOX11 984] Genetic basis of proteinuria in
D. PAX nephrotic syndrome o Recently
certain gene mutations have been
recognized which are associated
with certain glomerulonephritis,
producing nephrotic syndrome. o
The gene mutations codes certain
proteins and the common feature of
these proteins is their localization to
the structures of the glomerular
filtration barrier, such as slit
diaphragm and podocyte
cytoskeletal structures such as
actin.
A. Amyloidosis C. IgA nephropathy Amyloidosis Ans. is ‘c’ i.e., IgA Nephropathy
B. Diabetes millitus [Ref: Internet -> Pubmed] o
C. IgA nephropathy Organized glomerular deposits are
D. Cryoglobulinemia seen in : □ Mesangial proliferative
GN □ Memranous GN □
Membranoproliferative GN o IgA
nephropathy is a type of
mesangioproliferative GN.
7 Which component of HBV causes
glomerulonephritis:
8 In Leprosy most common renal lesion A. MGN
seen is-
9 Which of the following types of
glomerulonephritis is most likely to
cause CRF all except
10 The cause of oedema in Nephritic
syndrome is-
11 A patient presenting with
haemoptysis and renal failure with
antibasement membrane antibodies
has-
A. Hbe Ag C. HBs Ag Anti HBs Ag Ans is ‘c’ i.e., Hbs Ag [Ref: Harrison
B. HBc Ag antibody 18th/ep. 2545 & 17*/ep. 1938] o
C. HBs Ag Immune complex mediated tissue
D. Anti HBs Ag antibody damage is the cause of
glomerulonephritis in HB V infection,
o Immune complex consists Hbs Ag
and antiHBs. o Hbs Ag is a
structural component HB V, while
Anti Hbs Ag is formed by the host, o
So, Hbs Ag is the component of
HBV that is responsible for
glomerulonephritis.
A. MGN MGN Ans is a i.e., MGN [Ref: Harrison
B. MPGN 18th/e p . 2347 & 15th/e p . 1587]
C. Focal Most of the infectious causes lead to
glomeruloselerosis membranous glomerlonephritis like
D. Diffuse Hepatic B &C, syphilis, malaria,
glomerulosclerosis Leprosy, filariasis & schistasomiasis.
A. Post streptococcal A. Post streptococcal Focal segmental Ans. is ‘a’ i.e., Poststreptococcal GN
glomerulonephritis glomerulonephritis glomerulosclerosis [Ref: Robbin’s 8th/ e p. 933 fig
B. Membranous GN (20.21) & ?h/ e p. 989fig (20-28)] o
C. Membrano 95% of the affected children with
proliferative GN PSGN recover completely. The
D. Focal segmental remaining of who do not recover,
glomerulosclerosis develop a rapidly progressive form
of glomerulonephritis and land up in
ARF and only <1% reach upto CRF.
Chances of CRF in decreasing order
of frequency. RPGN > Foeal
glomerulosclerosis > MPGN >
Membranous GN - IgA nephropathy.
A. Decreased in plasma D. Sodium and water Increased in Ans. is D i.e., Sodium and water
protein concentration retension plasma protein retension [Ref Harrison 16th/e p.
B. Increased in plasma concentration 1984] o Cause of edema:- (i) In
protein concentration nephrotic syndrome —>
C. Reduced plasma Hypoproteinemia ( decreased
osmotic pressure plasma protein concentration) and
D. Sodium and water edema is massive. (ii) In nephritic
retension syndrome —≫ results from sodium
and water retention and edema is
usually mild.
A. Good pasture’s A. Good pasture’s Henoch-scholein Ans. is ‘a’ i.e., Good-pasture
B. Wegener's purpura syndrome [Ref: Robbin’s 8th/ep. 918
C. Churg Strauss & ?h/ep. 746] Goodpasture
D. Henoch-scholein syndrome o Goodpasture syndrome
purpura is a rare condition characterized by
rapid destruction of the kidney and
diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage. o It
is an autoimmune disease
characterized by presence of
circulating autoantibodies targeted
against basement membrane of lung
and kidney. o These antibodies are
directed against the noncollagenous
domain of the a-3 chain of type IV
collegen (collegen of basement
membrane).
12 Collapsing glomerulopathy, features A. Tuft necrosis D. Hypertrophy and Hypertrophy and Ans. is D i.e., Hypertrophy and
are- B. Mesangiolysis necrosis of visceral necrosis of necrosis of visceral epithelium [Ref:
C. Parietal epithelial epithelium visceral epithelium Robbin’s 8th/ep. 926 & ?h/ep. 983,
proliferation 984, 973; Harrison 18th/ep. 2353 &
D. Hypertrophy and 1?h/ep. 1796] o Collapsing
necrosis of visceral glomerulopathy is actually an
epithelium aggressive form of focal segmental
glomerulosclerosis, o Focal
segmental glomerulosclerosis is
characterized by sclerosis of some
but not all glomeruli (thus it is focal)
and in the affected glomeruli only a
portion of the capillary tuft is
involved, o In contrast, collapsing
glomerulopathy is characterized by
collapse and sclerosis of the entire
glomerular tuft (in addition to the
usual focal segmental glomerular
lesions).

13 HTV associated nephropathy is a A. Membranous C. Collapsing Immunotaetoid Ans. is C i.e., Collapsing

type of- glomerulonephritis glomerulopathy glomerulopathy glomerulopathy [Ref: Harrison
B. Immunotaetoid 18th/e p . 2353 & l ? h/e p . 1796;
glomerulopathy Robbin’s 8th/e p. 928; ?h/e p. 982,
C. Collapsing 983] Glomerulopathy in HIV
glomerulopathy infection The classic and most
D. Fibrillary common HIV associated
glomerulopathy glomerulopathy is an aggressive
form of focal segmented
glomeruloscrelosis, an entity that is
termed HIV associated nephropathy
(HIVAN). (It was earlier called
collapsing glomerulopathy).

14 Glomerulonephritis associated with A. Focal segmental GN A. Focal segmental GN MPGN Ans. is ‘a’ i.e., Focal segmental GN
AIDS is- B. PSGM [Ref: Robbin’s 8th/e p. 928 & ?h/ep.
C. MPGN 982, 983] Most characteristic lesion
D. Membranous GN of HIV-associated nephropathy is
collapsing glomerulopathy, a
morphological variant of focal
segmental glomerulosclerosis.
Morphological changes in FSGS o
Sclerosis of some glomeruli with
involvement of only a portion of
capillary tuft, o Collapse of GBM. o
Increase in matrix. o Segmental
insudation of plasma proteins along
the capillary wall (Hyalinosis).

15 A person with radiologically A. Focal segmental A. Focal segmental Proliferative Ans. is ‘a’ i.e., Focal segmental
confirmed reflux nephropathy glomerulosclerosis glomerulosclerosis glomerulonephritis glomerulosclerosis [Ref: Robbin's
develops nephrotic range proteinuria. B. Nodular with crescents 8th/ep. 931,926; Also see above
Which of the following would be the glomerulosclerosis explanation] o Reflux nephropathy
most likely histological finding in the C. Membranous causes focal segmental
patient? glomerulopathy glomerulosclerosis (FSGS).
D. Proliferative
glomerulonephritis with
crescents
16 In reflux nephropathy, glomerular
lesion is-
17 Frequency of renal involvement in
HSP
18 Increased IgA deposits are seen in -
19 A female patient Nandini presents
with upper respiratory tract infection.
Two days after. She develops
hematuria. Probable diagnosis is-
A. Focal GN. A. Focal GN. Membrano Ans. is ‘A’ i.e., Focal G.N. [Ref:
B. Membranous G.N. proliferative G.N. Robbin’s 8th/ep. 926 & 7h/ep. 982]
C. Membrano Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
proliferative G.N. o Focal segmental
D. Minimal change glomerulosclerosis is characterized
disease by sclerosis of- (i) Some, but not all,
glomeruli (thus, it is focal) (ii) In the
affected glomeruli, only a portion o f
capillary tuft is involved (thus, it is
segmental).
A. 20-40% C. 40-60% >80% Ans. is C i.e., 40-60% [Ref:
B. >80% Heptinstall Pathology of the kidney
C. 40-60% volume-1 p. 463] o The reported
D. 10% incidence of renal involvement in
HSP varies considerably between
different studies, o This may be
because of the different criteria used
to describe the involvement & the
variability of the length used to
follow up. o In different studies
incidence of pediatric renal
involvement in HSP was between
20-56% and in adults 50-78%
A. Henoch Schonlein A. Henoch Schonlein Chronic Ans. is ’a’ i.e., Henoch schonlein
Purpura Purpura Pyelonephritis purpura [Ref: Robbing 8th/e p. 930-
B. Minimal Change 931 & ?h/ e p. 990] Henoch
Glomerulonephritis schonlein purpura o This syndrome
C. Chronic consists of (i) Pruritic skin lesions
Pyelonephritis characteristically involving the
D. Haemolytic Uremic extensor surfaces of arms and legs
Syndrome as well as buttocks. (ii) Abdominal
manifestations —> Pain, vomiting,
bleeding (iii) Nonmigratory arthralgia
(iv) Renal abnormalities
A. IgA nephropathy A. IgA nephropathy Post streptococcal Ans. is A i.e., IgA Nephropathy [Ref:
B. Wegener’s glomerulonephritis Harrison 18th/e p. 2343 & l? h/e p.
granulomatosis 1789; Robbin’s 8th/e p. 931] o
C. Henoch sholein Presentation of gross hematuria
purpura after an attack of upper respiratory
D. Post streptococcal tract infection suggests either □ IgA
glomerulonephritis nephropathy, or □ Post
streptococcal glomerulonephritis o
The important differentiating feature
between these two conditions is the
time lag between the onset of
respiratory tract infection and the
presence of gross hematuria.
20 IgA nephropathy can occur in-
21 Thickening of basement membrane
of glomeruli is seen in-
22 All are steroid resistant except-
23 A child had hematuria and nephrotic
syndrome (minimal change disease)
was diagnosed. True about it is-
A. C. Mesangioproliferative
Membranoproliferative GN
GN
B. Minimal change GN
C. Mesangioproliferative
GN
D. RPGN type I
A. IgA nephropathy
B.
Membranoproliferative
glomerulonephritis
C. Lipoid nephrosis
D. Post streptococcal
glomerulonephrities
A. Post-streptococcal
glomerulonephritis
B. Minimal change
glomerulonephritis
C. RPGN
D. Recurrent hematuria
A. A type of focal
segmental GN
B. IgA deposition on
basement membrane
C. Foot process of
glomerular membrane
normal
D. Glomerular function
is lost due to loss of poly
charge on both sites of
glomerular foot process
RPGN type I Ans. is ‘c’ i.e., Mesangioproliferative
glomerulonephritis [Ref O.R Ghai
6th/e p. 446, 454; Nelson 17th/ep.
1755; Robbin’s 8th/ep. 930]
Mesangial proliferative
glomerulonephritis - o It is
characterized by the proliferation of
mesangial cells o It is classified
according to the predominant type of
immunoglobulin present in the
glomerulus. (a) IgG in the
mesangium - (0 Increased no. of
mesangial cells in the glomeruli (ii)
Immunoflorescence shows the
presence o f IgG and C3 in the
mesangium. (b) IgA in the
mesangium (IgA nephropathy or
Berger s disease) (i) It is
characterized by focal segmental or
diffuse proliferation o f mesangium.
(ii) Immunoflorescence shows
presence of IgA deposits in the
mesangium C3 is also present.
B. Membranoproliferative Lipoid nephrosis Ans. is ‘b’ i.e.,
glomerulonephritis Membranoproliferative
glomerulonephritis [Ref: Robbinrs
8th/ e p. 925 & 7h/ep. 984] o In
MPGN there is thickeng of GBM,
which is most evident in the
peripheral capillary loops.
B. Minimal change Recurrent Ans. is B i.e., Minimal Change
glomerulonephritis hematuria Glomerulonephritis [Ref: Robbin's
8th/ep. 925 & ?h/ep. 983] Steroids
produce an excellent response in
minimal change disease and
remission has been found to occur
in 75% pediatric patients. (Judged
as an abolition of proteinuria)
D. Glomerular function is IgA deposition on Ans. D i.e., Glomerular function is
lost due to loss of poly basement lost d/t loss of poly charge on both
charge on both sites of membrane sites of glomerular foot process
glomerular foot process [Ref: Robbin’s 8th/e p. 925 &?h/e p.
981] o The basic pathogenesis of
minimal change glomerulonephritis
is loss of the basement membrane
polyanion. (Heparan sulfate
proteoglycan). Loss of the polyanion
reduces the negative charge in
membrane which allows anionic
molecules of the plasma (Albumin)
to pass through.
24 A 7 year old girl is brought with
complaints of generalized swelling of
the body. Urinary examination
reveals grade 3 proteinuria and the
presence of hyaline and fatty casts.
She has no history of hematuria.
Which of the following statements
about her condition is true?
25 A 9 year girl old child shows profuse
bleeding after tonsilectomy, blood
shows normal platelet count, normal
PT but increased APTT. Condition
can be?
26 The following is not a method of
isolation of Chlamydia from clinical
specimens:
A. No IgG deposits or A. No IgG deposits or C3 Ans. is ‘a’ i.e., No IgG deposits or
C3 deposition on renal deposition on renal C3 deposition on renal biopsy [Ref:
biopsy biopsy Robbin fs 8th/e p. 925,926; Nelson
B. Her C3 level will be 18th/e p. 2191,2192;O.P. Ghai
low 7th/ep. 457] o Grade 3 proteinuria,
C. IgA nephropathy is and the presence of hyaline and
the likely diagnosis fatty cast in urine suggest the
D. Alport’s syndrome is diagnosis of nephritic syndrome. o
the likely diagnosis Most common cause of nephrotic
syndrome in a child is minimal
change disease ( not IgA
nephropathy or Alport’s syndrome) o
In minimal change disease there is
no deposition of immune reactants
(immunoglobulin or complement),
and serum complement levels are
normal.
A. Von Willebrands A. Von Willebrands Von Willebrands Ans: (A). Von Willebrands disease In
disease disease disease this question, the patient is girl and
B. Haemophilia A therefore unlikely to have
C. Haemophilia B hemophilia A. → vWD is the most
D. Factor V deficiency common inherited bleeding disorder.
→ vWF serves two roles: (1) as the
major adhesion molecule that
tethers the platelet to the exposed
subendothelium; and (2) as the
binding protein for FVIII, resulting in
significant prolongation of the FVIII
half-life in circulation. The platelet-
adhesive function of vWF is critically
dependent on the presence of large
vWF multimers, while FVIII binding
is not. Most of the symptoms of
vWD are "platelet-like" except in
more severe vWD when the FVIII is
low enough to produce symptoms
similar to those found in Factor VIII
deficiency (hemophilia A).
A. Yolk sac inoculation B. Enzyme Ans.(B). Enzyme immunoassay -
B. Enzyme immunoassay Chlamydia is a genus of bacteria
immunoassay that are obligate intracellular
C. Tissue culture using parasites. Chlamydia infections are
irradiated McCoy cells the most common bacterial sexually
D. Tissue culturing transmitted infections in humans
irradiated BHK cells and are the leading cause of
infectious blindness worldwide. -
Chlamydia may be found in the form
of an elementary body and a
reticulate body. - The elementary
body is the non-replicating infectious
particle that is released when
infected cells rupture. - The
elementary body is responsible for
the bacteria's ability to spread from
person to person. This form is
analogous to a spore. The
elementary body may be 0.25 to 0.3
μm in diameter, and it mainly
consists of C. trachomatis, C.
pneumoniae and C. psittaci.
27 All of the following statements about
the vagus are true except that it
28 True about aminoglycosides is all
EXCEPT:
29 Erythromycin is given in intestinal
hypomotility because-:
30 Which of the following should be
monitored if linezolid is given for
more than 14 days
A. Supplies heart and B. Carries postganglionic Innervates right Ans.(B). Carries postganglionic
lung parasympathetic fibers two third of parasympathetic fibers VAGUS
B. Carries transverse colon NERVE The vagus nerve also called
postganglionic pneumogastric nerve or cranial
parasympathetic fibers nerve X, is the tenth of twelve
C. Innervates right two (excluding CN0) paired cranial
third of transverse colon nerves. Upon leaving the medulla
D. Stimulates peristalsis between the medullary pyramid and
and relaxes sphincters. the inferior cerebellar peduncle, it
extends through the jugular
foramen, and then passes into the
carotid sheath between the internal
carotid artery and the internal
jugular vein down below the head, to
the neck, chest and abdomen,
where it contributes to the
innervation of the viscera. Besides
output to the various organs in the
body, the vagus nerve conveys
sensory information about the state
of the body's organs to the central
nervous system. 80-90% of the
nerve fibers in the vagus nerve are
afferent (sensory) nerves
communicating the state of the
viscera to the brain.
A. Are bacteriostatic A. Are bacteriostatic Distributed only Ans. (a) Are bacteriostatic (Ref: KDT
B. Distributed only extracellularly 6/e p718) • The aminoglycosides are
extracellularly bactericidal antibiotics. • They are
C. Excreted unchanged more active at alkaline pH. • They
in urine kill the bacteria by interfering with
D. Teratogenic protein synthesis. • They are
distributed only extracellularly so the
volume of distribution is nearly equal
to the extracellular fluid volume. •
They are not metabolized; they are
excreted unchanged in the urine.
A. It increases bacterial D. It binds to motilin It decreases Ans. (d) It binds to motilin receptor
count receptors bacterial count (Ref: Katzung 11/e pl078; KDT 6/e
B. It decreases bacterial p728) Macrolide antibiotics such as
count erythromycin directly stimulate
C. It binds to adenylyl motilin receptors on GI smooth
cyclase muscle and promote the onset of a
D. It binds to motilin migratory motor complex.
receptors Intravenous erythromycin (3 mg/kg)
is beneficial in some patients with
gastroparesis. It may be used in
patients with acute upper GI
bleeding to promote gastric
emptying of blood before
endoscopy.
A. Liver function tests C. Platelet count Platelet count Ans. (c) Platelet count (Ref: Katzung
B. Kidney function test 11/e p804) Principal toxicity of
C. Platelet count linezolid is hematological which is
D. Audiometry reversible and generally mild.
Thrombocytopenia is the most
frequent manifestation, particularly
when the drug is administered for
longer than 2 weeks.
31 Tetracycline is used for the A. Cholera A. Cholera Brucellosis Ans. (a) Cholera (Ref: Katzung, 11/e
prophylaxis of-? B. Brucellosis p897f CMDT 2010,1341)
C. Leptospirosis Tetracyclines are used for
D. Meningitis prophylaxis of both cholera
(Katzung) as well as leptospirosis
(CMDT). However if we have to
choose one, we will go with cholera,
as the table on pg 897 of Katzung
clearly writes tetracycline for cholera
prophylaxis whereas in CMDT
reference, doxycycline is used for
prophylaxis of leptospirosis.

32 Which of the following mechanism is
mainly responsible for gentamicin
induced ototoxicity-?
A. Direct hair cell toxicity A. Direct hair cell toxicity Direct hair cell Ans (a) Direct hair cell toxicity (Ref:
B. Binding to and toxicity Goodman and Gilman 12/e pl513,
inhibition of hair cell Na+ CMDT 2012/87-88)
K+ ATPase Aminoglycosides can lead to
C. Non-cumulative ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity and
toxicity neuromuscular blockade. •
D. Bind to Ca2+ Ototoxicity involves progressive and
channels irreversible damage to, and
eventually destruction of, the
sensory cells in the cochlea and
vestibular organ of the ear. •
Nephrotoxicity consists of damage
to the proximal tubules, and is
reversible. • A rare but serious toxic
reaction is paralysis caused by
neuromuscular blockade. This is
usually seen only if the agents are
given concurrently with
neuromuscular-blocking agents. It
results from inhibition of the Ca2+
uptake necessary for the exocytotic
release of acetylcholine.

33 Carbenicillin- A. Is effective in A. Is effective in Is a macrolide Ans. (a) Effective in pseudomonas

pseudomonas infection pseudomonas infection antibiotic infection (Ref: KDT 6/e p702) •
B. Has no effect in Carbenicillin is a penicillin congener
Proteus infection effective against pseudomonas and
C. Is a macrolide indole positive proteus which are not
antibiotic inhibited by penicillin G or
D. Is administered orally ampicillin/amoxicillin. • It is inactive
orally and excreted rapidly in urine.
It is sensitive to penicillinase and
acid, so administered parenterally
as sodium salt.

34 Antipseudomonals are all, EXCEPT A. Cephalexin A. Cephalexin Piperacillin Ans. (a) Cephalexin (Ref: KDT 6/e
B. Carbenicillin p704-705; Goodman & Gilman
C. Piperacillin 10/epl209) Cephalexin is an orally
D. Ceftazidime effective first generation
cephalosporin active against gram
positive but not against gram
negative organisms like
pseudomonas.
35 Not true about cefepime is-
36 A 36 years old woman recently
treated for leukemia is admitted to
the hospital with malaise, chills and
high fever. Gram stain of blood
reveals the presence of gram
negative bacilli. The initial diagnosis
is bacteremia and parenteral
antibiotics are indicated. The record
of the patient reveals that she had
severe urticarial rash, hypotension
and respiratory difficulty after oral
pencillin V about 6 months ago. The
most appropriate drug should be?
37 This drug has activity against many
strains of P. aeruginosa. However,
when it is used alone, resistance has
emerged during the course of
treatment. The drug should not be
used in penicillin-allergic patients. Its
activity against gram-negative rods is
enhanced if it is given in combination
with tazobactam. Which of the
following drugs is being described
38 TRUE statement regarding
vancomycin is
39 The following is true of vancomycin
EXCEPT
A. 4th generation D. Given twice daily Given twice daily Ans. (d) Given twice daily orally
cephalosporin orally orally (Ref: KDT 6/e p707) • Cefepime is a
B. Useful in hospital 4th generation cephalosporin. • Due
acquired infection to high potency and extended
C. Inhibits spectrum, it is effective in many
transpeptidase serious infections like hospital
D. Given twice daily acquired pneumonia, febrile
orally neutropenia, bacteremia, septicemia
etc. f - • All p-lactam antibiotics act
by inhibiting the enzyme
transpeptidase. • Cefepime is given
by i.v. route as it is not effctive orally.
A. Ampicillin plus B. Aztreonam Cefazolin Ans. (b) Aztreonam (Ref: KDT 6/e
sulbactum p708) In patient with severe
B. Aztreonam sensitivity to penicillin, all beta
C. Cefazolin lactams except monobactams are
D. Imipenem plus contraindicated. Both aztreonam
cilastatin and imipenem are effective for gram
negative infections but because
imipenem causes seizures as
serious adverse effect, aztreonam is
preferred in such a patient.
A. Amoxicillin C. Piperacillin Vancomycin Ans. (c) Piperacillin (Ref: KDT 6/e
B. Aztreonam p702) • Piperacillin can be combined
C. Piperacillin with beta-lactamase inhibitor,
D. Vancomycin tazobactam. • Vancomycin is NOT
effective against pseudomonas. • All
P-lactams except aztreonam are
contra-indicated if severe allergic
reaction develops to any p-lactam
antibiotic.
A. It is bacteriostatic C. It is not susceptible to It is not Ans. (c) It is not susceptible to
B. It has the advantage penicillinases susceptible to penicillinases (Ref: KDT 6/e p732) •
of high oral penicillinases Vancomycin is a glycopeptide
bioavailability bactericidal antibiotic that is
C. It is not susceptible to administered by parenteral route. • It
penicillinases is penicillinase resistant, thus can be
D. Staphylococcal used in MRSA infections. • It is also
enterocolits occurs used for the treatment of
commonly with its use pseudomembranous colitis. •
Vancomycin is ineffective against
pseudomonas.
A. It is a bactericidal B. It acts by inhibiting It is an alternative Ans. (b) It acts by inhibiting bacterial
antibiotic active primarily bacterial protein to penicillin for protein synthesis (Ref: KDT 6/e
against gram positive synthesis enterococcal p732) • Vancomycin is a
bacteria endocarditis glycopeptide that acts by inhibiting
B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis. It is a
bacterial protein bactericidal drug (like other cell wall
synthesis synthesis inhibitors). • It is the drug
C. It is an alternative to of choice for MRSA and enterococci
penicillin for resistant to penicillins. •
enterococcal Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity and red
endocarditis man syndrome are prominent
D. It can cause adverse effects of vancomycin.
deafness as a dose
related toxicity
40 Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid is active
against the following organisms
EXCEPT-
41 Which of the following statements
about the biodisposition of penicillins
and cephalosporins is NOT
accurate?
42 All of the following cephalosporins
have good activity against
Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT:
43 One of the following is not
penicillinase susceptible-
44 Most common mechanism for
transfer of resistance in
Staphylococcus aureus is
45 Multiple drug resistance is transferred A. Transduction
through:
A. Methicillin resistant A. Methicillin resistant P-lactamase Ans. (a) Methicillin resistant Staph
Staph, aureus Staph, aureus producing E. coli aureus (Ref: KDT 6/e p702, 703) •
B. Penicillinase Staphylococcus aureus develops
producing Staph, aureus resistance to methicillin by acquiring
C. Penicillinase altered penicillin binding proteins
producing N. that have low affinity. No B-lactam
gonorrhoea antibiotic is effective against MRSA.
D. P-lactamase • Clavulanic acid is an inhibitor of B-
producing E. coli lactamase. It can restore the
sensitivity of penicillins against the
organisms who have developed
penicillinases.
A. Oral bioavailability is C. Renal tubular Ans. (c) Renal tubular reabsorption
affected by lability to reabsorption of beta- of beta-lactams is inhibited by
gastric acid lactams is inhibited by probenecid (Ref: KDT 6/e p697) •
B. Procaine penicillin G probenecid Probenecid inhibits renal tubular
is used via secretion of penicillins (not
intramuscular injection reabsorption) • Beta lactams
C. Renal tubular eliminated by biliary route are: -
reabsorption of beta- Ampicillin - Nafcillin - Ceftriaxone -
lactams is inhibited by Cefoperazone • Penicillin G has to
probenecid be given by i.m. route because it is
D. Nafcillin and broken down by gastric acid
ceftriaxone are (decreases oral bioavailability).
eliminated mainly via
biliary secretion
A. Cephadroxil A. Cephadroxil Cefepime Ans. (a) Cephadroxil (Ref: KDT 6/e
B. Cefepime p706, 707) First generation
C. Cefoperazone cephalosporins like cefadroxil are
D. Ceftazidime mainly effective against gram +ve
organisms and possess little activity
against Pseudomonas.
A. Amoxicillin D. Cloxacillin Amoxicillin Ans. (d) Cloxacillin (Ref: KDT 6/e
B. Penicillin G p700) • Methicillin, cloxacillin,
C. Piperacillin oxacillin and nafcillin are
D. Cloxacillin penicillinase resistant penicillins. •
Piperacillin, ticarcillin, ampicillin,
amoxycillin, carbenicillin etc. are
broad spectrum penicillins but these
are susceptible to penicillinase.
A. Conjugation B. Transduction Mutation Ans. (b) Transduction (Ref:
B. Transduction Goodman & Gilman 11/e pl098; KDT
C. Transformation 6/e p671) • Transduction is
D. Mutation particularly important in transfer of
resistance among staphylococci. •
Multidrug resistance is transferred
by conjugation.
C. Conjugation Mutation Ans. (c) Conjugation (Ref: KDT 6/e
B. Transformation p671) Multiple drug resistance is
C. Conjugation transferred through plasmids, mostly
D. Mutation by conjugation.
46 Which of the following is not an
established antimicrobial drug
synergism at clinical level
47 The persistent suppression of
bacterial growth that may occur after
limited exposure to some
antimicrobial drug is called
48 Bacitracin acts on
49 A post operative patient developed
septicemia and was empirically
started on combination
chemotherapy by a new resident
doctor. However, when the patient did
not respond even after 10 days of
antibiotics treatment, the review of
the charts was done. It was found
that that the resident doctor had
started the combination of antibiotics
which was mutually antagonistic in
action. Which of the following is the
most likely combination that was
given?
50 Which of the followign drugs require
dose adjustment in renal failure?
51 Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting
protein synthesis?
A. Amphotericin B and C. Penicillin and Penicillin and Ans. (c) Penicillin and tetracycline in
flucytosine in tetracycline in bacterial tetracycline in bacterial meningitis (Ref: KDT 6/e
cryptococcal meningitis meningitis bacterial p677) Combination of a
B. Carbenicillin and meningitis bacteriostatic and a bactericidal
gentamicin in drug in most cases is antagonistic.
pseudomonal infections Bactericidal drugs act on fast
C. Penicillin and multiplying organisms whereas
tetracycline in bacterial bacteriostatic drugs inhibit the
meningitis growth. Here, penicillins are
D. Trimethoprim and bactericidal whereas tetracyclines
sulfamethoxazole in are bacteriostatic.
coliform infections
A. Time dependent B. Post antibiotic effect Ans. (b) Post antibiotic effect (Ref:
killing Katzung 10/ep756) - • Time
B. Post antibiotic effect dependent killing kinetics is shown
C. Concentration by aminoglycosides. Here, the killing
dependent killing activity depends upon the length of
D. Sequential blockade time, plasma concentration is above
MIC. • Concentration dependent
killing is shown by (3 lactam drugs.
Here, killing activity depends upon
the ratio of plasma concentration to
MIC.
A. Cell wall A. Cell wall Cell membrane Ans. (a) Cell wall (Ref: Katzung 10/e
B. Cell membrane p741; KDT 6/e p668) • Bacitracin
C. Nucleic acid acts by inhibiting the synthesis of
D. Ribosome cell wall. • Other polypeptide
antibiotics like polymyxin B, colistin
and tyrothricin act by affecting
membranes.
A. Vancomycin and C. Ampicillin and Ampicillin and Ans. (c) Ampicillin and
Amikacin Chloramphenicol Chloramphenicol chloramphenicol (See below) (Ref:
B. Cephalexin and KDT b/e p677) Combination of a
Gentamicin bactericidal (ampicillin) and a
C. Ampicillin and bacteriostatic drug
Chloramphenicol (chloramphenicol) is usually
D. Ciprofloxacin and antagonistic in nature. This is
Piperacillin because cidal drugs are usually
acting on fast multiplying organisms
whereas static drugs decrease this
multiplication.
A. Cefoperazone C. Streptomycin Doxycycline Ans. (c) Streptomycin (Ref: Katzung
B. Doxycycline 10/e p835 KDT 6/e p673)
C. Streptomycin Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside
D. Rifampicin and require dose adjustment in renal
failure whereas doxycycline,
rifampicin and cefoperazone are
secreted in bile and do not require
dose adjustment in renal failure.
A. Cefotetan B. Doxycycline Cefotetan Ans. (b) Doxycycline (Ref: Goodman
B. Doxycycline & Gilman 11/e p i 173; KDT 6/e
C. Ciprofloxacin p668-669) • Doxycycline is a
D. Oxacillin tetracycline that act by inhibiting
protein synthesis • Cefotetan and
oxacillin are P-lactam antibiotics that
act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis. •
Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone
that acts by inhibiting DNA gyrase.
52 Enzyme inactivation is the main
mode of resistance to:
53 True statement regarding
development of drug resistance in
MRS A is?
54 Drug resistance transmitting factor
present in bacteria is:
55 All of the following drugs are
bactericidal except:
56 HIV can be inactivated by (except):
A. Aminoglycosides A. Aminoglycosides Aminoglycosides Ans. (a) Aminoglycosides (Ref: KDT
B. Quinolones 6/e p720) Resistance to quinolones
C. Rifamycins is due to altered DNA gyrase, to
D. Glycopeptides rifamycin is due to mutation in gene
rpo B reducing its ability or the
target and for glycopeptides like
vancomycin due to reduced affinity
for target site.
A. Results due to B. Occurs due to change Occurs due to Ans (b) Occurs due to change in
penicillinase enzyme in penicillin binding change in penicillin binding proteins (Ref:
production proteins penicillin binding Katzung's ll/ e p776) Methicillin
B. Occurs due to proteins resistance occurs due to altered
change in penicillin PBPs, thus no penicillin, (infact no
binding proteins beta-lactam antibiotic) is useful
C. Chromosome against methicillin-resistant
mediated Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
D. Treated with infections.
amoxicillin + clavulariic
acid
A. Plasmid A. Plasmid Chromosome Ans. (a) Plasmid (Ref: KDT 6/e
B. Chromosome p671) Plasmids contain extra-
C. Introns chromosomal DNAs that help in
D. Centromere transferring the genes responsible
for multiple drug resistance among
bacteria. These are therefore
involved in horizontal transfer of
resistance. As it is not due to
penicillinase, beta lactamase
inhibitors like clavulanic acid cannot
reverse this resistance.
A. Isoniazid B. Tigecycline Daptomycin Ans. (b) Tigecycline (Ref: KK
B. Tigecycline Sharma 2/e p733, 750) Tigecycline
C. Daptomycin is a newer drug in the class
D. Ciprofloxacin 'Glycylcyclines/ Its mechanism of
action and most properties are
similar to tetracyclines. However, it
is resistant to efflux pump (major
mechanism of resistance against
tetracyclines). Most protein
synthesis inhibiting drugs (including
tetracyclines and tigecycline) are
bacteriostatic except
aminoglycosides. Isoniazid,
ciprofloxacin and daptomycin are
bactericidal.
A. Autoclaving D. Gamma radiation Autoclaving ANS D. (Gamma radiation): Ref:
B. 2% glutaraldehyde Neelima Malik 2nd/790 HIV is a
C. Boiling for 20 minutes fragile virus which can be
D. Gamma radiation inactivated by simple method of
boiling for 20 minutes. Other
methods recommended are: (i)
Autoclaving (ii) Chemical
sterilization by (a) 1% hypochlorite
(b) 2% glutaraldehyde (c) 6% H20 2
(d) 50% ethanol (e) 2.5% povidone
iodine
57 The immunodeficiency characteristic
of HIV infection is due to:
58 The confirmatory test used for HIV
infection is:
59 ELISA test demonstrates:
60 Detection of HIV antigen is:
61 The first antibody to HIV antigen
appears in blood after:
A. Diminished humoral B. Diminished cellular Both A and B ANS B. (Diminished cellular
immunity immunity immunity): Ref: Microbiology D.R
B. Diminished cellular Arora 2nd/558 Main target cells of
immunity HIV are the Tlymphocytes especially
C. Both A and B T4 (helper cells). These cells are
D. None of the above responsible for cellular immunity.
Since T cells decrease due to
infection with HIV it leads to
diminished cellular immunity.
Though with time antibodies also
decrease. But primarily cellular
immunity decreases.
A. ELISA D. Western blot test ELISA ANS D. (Western blot test): Ref:
B. Immunodot test Shafer's Textbook o f Oral Pathology
C. RIPA test 5th/496 Except for Western blot test
D. Western blot test all other tests are not carried for
specific antibodies against specific
core, coat and other antigens. They
are not very specific but easiest,
commonly used tests for detection
of HIV infection.
A. HIV antigen B. HIV antibodies HIV antigen ANS B. (HIV antibodies): Ref:
B. HIV antibodies Shafer's Textbook o f Oral Pathology
C. HIV 5th/496 The diagnostic
D. None of the above investigations for HIV infection are
by: (i) Demonstration of HIV antigen,
e.g. Polymerase chain reaction only,
used during early 2-4 weeks of
infection and when clinical phase
sets in (see Q 13). (ii)
Demonstration of antibodies to HIV
by: (a)ELISA (b) Rapid immunodot
test (c)Karpas test (d) RIPA test
(e)Westem blot test
A. Positive after 4-6 B. Positive after 2-4 Positive only after ANS B. (Positive after 2-4 weeks of
weeks till clinical weeks of infection and 10 days of infection and then becomes
disease sets in then becomes negative infection negative till the clinical disease sets
B. Positive after 2-4 till the clinical disease in): Ref: Shafer's Textbook o f Oral
weeks of infection and sets in Pathology 5th/490 Following
then becomes negative infection with HIV the principal core
till the clinical disease antigen is detected in blood after 2-4
sets in weeks and then disappears from the
C. Only positive when circulation and remains undetected
clinical disease sets in throughout the asympto-matic
D. Positive only after 10 phase. When clinical phase of
days of infection disease begins the antigen
reappears.
A. 1 -2 weeks of C. 4-6 weeks of infection 1 -2 weeks of ANS C. (4-6 weeks of infection):
infection infection Ref: Shafer's Textbook o f Oral
B. 2-4 weeks of infection Pathology 5th/490 The HIV core
C. 4-6 weeks of antigen appears in blood after about
infection 2-4 weeks and first antibody
D. 4-6 months of appears in blood 4-6 weeks after
infection infection.
62 Diagnosis of paediatric AIDS can be A. ELISA test C. Virus culture ELISA test ANS C. (Virus culture): Ref: Shafer's
done by- B. Western blot test Textbook o f Oral Pathology
C. Virus culture 5th/495,496 HIV antibodies which
D. None of the above are IgG in nature can be passively
transferred transplacentally and
hence can be present in an infant
without HIV infection. Thus one
often has to wait till the age of 15
months to be definite about
paediatric HIV infection. Hence
ELISA and Western blot test give
false positive results in first 15
months. Therefore virus should be
cultured from blood for early definite
results in infants.

63 The facial development seen in HIV
positive children is characterised by:
A. Normal facial profile D. Blue sclera Ocular ANS D. (Blue sclera): Ref:
B. Macrocephaly hypotelorism Carranza's ClinicalPeriodontology
C. Ocular hypotelorism 10th/515 HIV infection in infants
D. Blue sclera leads to the embryopathy or
dysmorphic syndrome characterised
by: (i) Microcephaly (ii) Ocular
hypertelorism (iii) Prominent box-like
forehead (iv) Wide palpebral fissure
(v) Blue sclera (vi) Pendulous lips

64 The most common pathogen isolated A. Mycobacterium
from pulmonary system of HIV tuberculosis
patient is: B. Mycobacterium
avium intracellulare
C. Pneumocystis carinii
D. None of the above
C. Pneumocystis carinii Mycobacterium ANS C. (Pneumocystis carinii): Ref:
avium Shafer's Textbook o f Oral Pathology
intracellulare 5 th/491 In HIV positive patients, the
most common pathogens isolated
from pulmonary system are: (i)
Pneumocystis carinii (ii)
Mycobacterium avium intracellular

65 Body fluids can be responsible for
transmission of AIDS (except):
A. Blood D. Saliva Blood ANS D. (Saliva): Ref: Shafer's
B. CSF Textbook o f Oral Pathology 5th/489
C. Cervical secretions HIV has been isolated from blood,
D. Saliva semen, cervical secretions,
lymphocytes, CSF, saliva, tears,
urine. But transmission does not
occur by last three since the
concentration of virus in them is not
sufficient to cause infection.

66 The main target cells of HIV are A. Plasma cells C. T4 cells Plasma cells ANS C. (T4 cells): Ref: Shafer's
B. T8 cells Textbook o f Oral Pathology 5th/489
C. T4 cells The main target cell of HIV is helper
D. B cells T Lymphocytes (T4 lymphocytes).
The other cells of body which show
HIV uptake include monocytes,
macrophages, microglial cells in
brain, activated B cells, follicular
cells of lymph nodes.

67 HIV virus is a: A. DNA virus B. Retrovirus DNA virus ANS B. (Retrovirus): Ref: Shafer's
B. Retrovirus Textbook o f Oral Pathology 5th/489
C. DNA, RNA virus HIV is a retrovirus with typical RNA
D. None of the above and enzyme reverse transcriptase.

68 The dental infection/s commonly
seen in AIDS patient:
A. Necrotising ulcerative D. All of the above All of the above ANS D. (All of the above): Ref:
gingivitis Shafer's Textbook o f Oral Pathology
B. Rapidly progressive 5 th/491 Rapidly progressing
periodontitis periodontitis is characteristically
C. Horizontal bone loss found in HIV positive patients. There
D. All of the above is horizontal bone loss present and
there is necrotising ulcerative
gingivitis.
69 Viral infection/s which can be seen in A. Hairy leukoplakia D. All of the above All of the above ANS D. (All of the above): Ref:
oral cavity of patients with HIV is/are: B. Herpetic stomatitis Shafer's Textbook o f Oral Pathology
C. Papilloma warts 5 th/491 Viral infections seen
D. All of the above intraorally in HIV positive patients
are: (i) Hairy leukoplakia caused by
Epstein-Barr virus. It is exclusively
found in these patients. Presents as
white patch on lateral surface of
tongue (ii) Herpes simplex (iii)
Herpes zoster (iv) Papilloma warts
(v) Cytomegalo virus infections

70 During GA oxygen concentration of A. 90% A. 90% 90% ANS A. (90%) Though it should be
blood should not fall below: B. 60% maintained at 100%, below this—
C. 40% acidosis, cynosis, etc. develop with
D. 20% concomitant CVS, respiratory
changes.

71 Which of the following is used as an
dissociative anaesthetic agent:
A. Fentanyl C. Ketamine Fentanyl ANS C. (Ketamine): Ref: Neelima
B. Thiopentone Malik 2nd/174 With ketamine,
C. Ketamine dissociative anaesthesia results
D. Halothane + ether which gives analgesia with a feeling
mixture of dissociation without complete loss
of consciousness. Fenatyl is a
neurolept analgesic agent.
Thiopentone is ultrashort acting
anaesthetic agent excellent for
induction of GA.

72 In most surgical procedures, GA with A. 70% N 20 + 30% 02 B. 70% N 20 + 20-30% 50% N 20 + 50% ANS B. (70% N2o + 20-30% 02 +
N20 is given as: B. 70% N 20 + 20-30% 02 + other GA agent 02 + other GA other GA agent): Ref: Neelima Malik
02 + other GA agent agent 2nd/171 Cannot be given alone for
C. 50% N 20 + 50% 02 long durations—drying of mucosa,
+ other GA agent alveoli, etc occur. Therefore to 70%
D. 70% 0 2 + 20% N20 N20 + 20 02 another anaesthetic
agents is added, e.g. halothane.

73 A patient who is being operated A. Lignocaine B. Lignocaine + Lignocaine + ANS B. (Lignocaine + adrenalin):
under halothane should not be given: B. Lignocaine + adrenalin adrenalin Ref: Neelima Malik 2nd/183
adrenalin Halothane sensitises the
C. Propoxycaine myocardium to adrenalin. If
D. Mepivacaine adrenalin is administered
exogenously untoward CVS
problems can occur.

74 In TMJ ankylosis patient, GA can be A. Oral intubation D. B and C B and C ANS D. (BandC) In cases of TMJ
administered by: B. Blind nasal intubation ankylosis nowadays,
C. Fiberoptic assisted Nasoendotracheal intubation is done
intubation with fibre optic bronchoscope. But if
D. B and C this is not available blind intubation
is to be done since patients mouth
cannot be opened to guide the tube
in the larynx.

75 Goldman’s vapourizer is used for: A. N20 B. Halothane N20 ANS B. (Halothane): Ref: Neelima
B. Halothane Malik 2nd/l 70 Halothane is mixed to
C. Ether N20 + 02 gas mixture in vapour
D. Cyclopropane form. The vapours are added
fromthe Goldman’s vapouriser or
from Row Botham vapouriser.

76 The endotracheal tube should be A. In right bronchus C. Above cirina In laryngopharynx ANS C. (Above cirina): Ref: Neelima
placed for GA- B. In left bronchus Malik 2nd/159 Cirina is the
C. Above cirina bifurcation of trachea into (Right)
D. In laryngopharynx and (Left) bronchus. Endotracheal
tube is placed just above cirina to
allow equal gaseous exchange in
both lungs during GA.
77 For maxillofacial injuries one should A. Non inflatable
always use which endotracheal tube B. Inflatable cuffed
for GA? C. Catheterized
D. None of the above
78 If long acting muscle relaxants are A. Neostigmine
used during GA their action is B. Atropine
terminated by use of: C. Ketamine
D. Succinylcholine
79 Nowadays induction phase of GA has A. Halothane
been reduced because of use of-: B. Ether, halothane
combination
C. Thiopentone sodium
D. Ether, N20 ,
halothane combination
80 Succinylcholine is administered A. Better control
during GA for: B. Intubation
C. Prevention of apnoea
D. Decreasing
respiratory rate and thus
decreasing GA toxicity
81 During CVS depression in lignocaine A. Vasoconstrictors
toxicity, one should administer: B. Atropine
C. Crystalloids
D. All of the above
82 Succinylcholine can be used for A. Pentobarbitone
control of tonic clonic seizures but should be used
along with this: B. Artificial respiration is
must
C. Atropine should be
given
D. Neostigmine should
be given to terminate its
action
B. Inflatable cuffed
A. Neostigmine
C. Thiopentone sodium
B. Intubation
D. All of the above
B. Artificial respiration is
must
Catheterized ANS B. (Inflatable cuffed): Ref:
Neelima Malik 2nd/158 Because of
intraoral bleeding, other secretions
and possibility of displacement of
foreign objects from oral cavity to
oropharynx, a cuffed inflatable tube
should be used to prevent aspiration
of these.
Ketamine ANS A. (Neostigmine): Ref: Neelima
Malik 2nd/l 71 During GA long acting
muscle relaxarits or neuromuscular
blocking agents e.g. pancuronium,
etc are used. Their action is
peripheral. Anti-cholinesterases as
neostigmine are used to reverse the
action of pancuronium. D. is a short
acting muscle relaxant C. is a
dissociative anaesthetic agent B. is
a anticholinergic drug used for
decreasing oronasopharyngeal
secretions during GA.
Ether, N20 , ANS C. (Thiopentone sodium): Ref:
halothane Neelima Malik 2nd/181 Thiopentone
combination sodium is an ultra short acting
anaesthetic agent with rapid
induction and recovery. After rapid
induction other anaesthetic agents
are added to maintain patient under
anaesthesia.
Decreasing ANS B. (Intubation): Ref: Neelima
respiratory rate Malik 2nd/181 Succinylcholine is
and thus short acting muscle relaxant it is
decreasing GA given before intubation for
toxicity paralysing laryngeal and pharyngeal
muscles to allow easy intubation.
Apnoea results with this.
Crystalloids ANS D. (All of the above): Ref:
Handbook of Local Anesthesia
Malamed 5th/318 A. To increase
HR, BP B. Atropine to decrease
action of vagus C. To maintain
venous return of blood.
Artificial B. (Artificial respiration is must): Ref:
respiration is must Handbook o f Local Anesthesia
Malamed 5th/316 / Succinylcholine
is a short-acting muscle relaxant. Its
administration paralyses all muscles
including those for respiration.
Though it controls outward
manifestation of the seizures but
artificial respiration should be
carried along with this to maintain
oxygen/C02 tension in the body.
83 To control tonic clonic seizures
following lignocaine toxicity the drug
of choice would be:
84 Aspiration should be carried out at
least in:
85 Use of which of the solutions
relatively can have more burning
sensation?
86 If needle breaks during injecting LA
and radiographically it appears to be
deep in tissues, the advised
management would be:
87 For extraoral maxillary nerve block
the target area is
88 In patients with reduced mouth
opening which technique of
mandibular anaesthesia should be
used?
A. Pentobarbital B. Diazepam Succinylcholine ANS B. (Diazepam): Ref: Handbook
B. Diazepam o f Local Anesthesia Malamed
C. Succinylcholine 5th/316 With pentobarbitone-
D. Antihistaminics postictal depression is intense and
prolonged. With succinylcholine
artificial respiration has to be carried
out during time of muscle paralysis.
Diazepam is effective if instituted i.v.
before onset of tonic clonic seizures
and postictal depression is not
marked.
A. One plane B. Two planes Two planes ANS B. (Two planes): Ref:
B. Two planes Handbook o f Local Anesthesia
C. Three planes Malamed 5th/310 When needle is
D. Four planes injected it may enter a vessel and on
aspiration a negative pressure is
created. This might pull the vessel
wall and prevent blood from entering
the lumen of needle. Therefore
needle should be turned at 45° and
aspiration should be done again.
A. Plain lignocaine C. Lignocaine and Lignocaine and ANS C. (Lignocaine and adrenalin):
B. Isotonic solution adrenalin adrenalin Ref: Handbook o f Local Anesthesia
C. Lignocaine and Malamed 5th/l 15 Any acidic or
adrenalin hypertonic solution can have
D. Hypotonic solution burning sensation. Addition of
adrenalin lowers the pH of LA from
5.5 to 3.3.
A. Removal of needle C. Leaving the needle in Removal of needle ANS C. (Leaving the needle in the
under LA the tissue under LA tissue): Ref: Handbook o f Local
B. Removal of needle Anesthesia Malamed 5 th/287 A
under GA radiograph must be taken in 2 or 3
C. Leaving the needle in planes and if needle is deep in
the tissue tissue it should be left as such.
D. None of the above Fibrosis would ensue and needle
would remain localised in that area
only. Regular check up is
mandatory.
A. Posterior to lateral B. Anterior to lateral Anterior to lateral ANS B. (Anterior to lateral pterygoid
pterygoid plate pterygoid plate pterygoid plate plate): Ref: Handbook of Local
B. Anterior to lateral Anesthesia Malamed 5th/242 For
pterygoid plate extraoral have maxillary nerve block:
C. Pterygomandibular target area is anterior to pterygoid
fissure plate in pterygopalatine fossa.
D. Pterygomandibular Mandibular nerve block: the target
fossa area is posterior to pterygoid plate
below the forameji ovale.
A. Gow gates B. Akinosis Gow gates ANS B. (Akinosis): Ref: Handbook o
B. Akinosis f Local Anesthesia Malamed 5th/242
C. Labyrinths In trismus or when patient is unable
D. Williams to open the mouth completely.
Needle is placed parallel to occlusal
plane, in line with mucogingival
junction of upper teeth and LA is
injected medial to ramus of
mandible, well above the lingula to
anaesthetise the mandibular nerve.
This is known as the Akinosis
technique.
89 The target of Gow Gates technique
is:
90 In cardio pulmonary resuscitation
chest compressions is done on the:
91 Mucoperiosteal flaps
92 Which of the following dentitions
shows the highest frequency of
occurrence of supernumerary teeth-? B. Maxillary permanent
93 Resistance units of equal size pulling A. Cortical anchorage.
against each is an example of which B. Reciprocal
form of anchorage-:
A. Coronoid notch D. Neck of condyle Neck of condyle ANS D. (Neck of condyle): Ref:
B. Sigmoid notch Handbook o f Local Anesthesia
C. Foramen ovale Malamed 5th/239 Medial to this
D. Neck of condyle mandibular nerve is devided into
auriculotemporal, lingual and inferior
alveolar nerve.
A. Upper part of C. Middle of the lower Middle of the lower Ans. (C) Middle of the lower part of
sternum part of the sternum. part of the the sternum Ref: Clinical
B. Xiphisternum sternum. Anesthesiology by Morgan 3rd
C. Middle of the lower ed/927, Oral Surgery by Laskin Vol.
part of the sternum. 11/384 Cardio Pulmonary
D. Left side of the chest. Resuscitation (CPR) • In adults:
pressure should be applied to the
lower third of the sternum.(option c)
• In children: pressure should be
applied to mid sternum.
A. When raised do not B. Are raised whenever Are raised Ans. (B) Are raised whenever bone
cause post operative bone removal is desired whenever bone removal is desired to facilitate
swelling and pain. to facilitate extraction. removal is desired extraction Ref: Extraction of teeth by
B. Are raised whenever to facilitate Jeffrey Howe/43 • Full thickness flap
bone removal is desired extraction. including both mucosa and
to facilitate extraction. periosteum is k/a mucoperiosteal
C. Are routinely raised flap. • They are not routinely
during extraction. indicated. Indications for
D. When raised will Mucoperiosteal Flap • Any tooth
cause trauma and injury which resist intra-alveolar extraction
to underlying osseous • History of difficult extraction • Any
tissues. heavily restored tooth, especially RC
treated, pulpless tooth.
A. Maxillary deciduous B. Maxillary permanent Maxillary Ans. (B) Maxillary permanent
dentition. dentition. deciduous dentition. Ref: Shafer Oral pathology
dentition. 5th ed/64-65, 4th ed/49 Not clearly
dentition. given in the new edition, I am
C. Mandibular quoting the lines from the older
deciduous dentition. edition!! • It is of interest and yet
D. Mandibular unexplained that approximately 90%
permanent dentition. of all supernumerary tooth occur in
the maxilla. • Supernumerary teeth
in the deciduous dentition are less
common than in permanent
dentition, but when it is found ,the
supernumerary teeth is usually a
Maxillary Lateral Incisor. •
Mesiodens is the most common
supernumerary tooth.
B. Reciprocal Stationary Ans. (B) Reciprocal Anchorage. Ref:
anchorage. anchorage. Graber 3rd ed/521] • Reciprocal
anchorage. anchorage: anchorage in which the
C. Reinforced resistance of one or more dental
anchorage. units is utilized to move one or more
D. Stationary opposing dental units is called
anchorage. reciprocal anchorage. • Stationary
anchorage: anchorage in which the
manner and application of the force
tends to displace the anchorage unit
bodily in the plane of space in which
the force being applied is called
stationary anchorage.
94 Which of the following forces best
accomplish orthodontic tooth
movement-:
95 Which position is the most important
in diagnosis of anterior or posterior
crossbite-?
96 As age advances, the human profile
generally-
97 A single force applied at which point
of a tooth will allow complete
translation of the tooth:
A. Heavy and C. Light and continuous. Light and Ans. (C) Light and continuous. Ref:
continuous. continuous. Profit 3rd ed/304-306. Graber 3rd
B. Heavy and ed/509 According to Oppenheim and
intermittent. Schwartz, optimal orthodontic force
C. Light and continuous. is equal to the capillary pulse
D. Light and intermittent. pressure or 20-26gm.cm2 of root
surface area. Theoretically light
continuous forces are considered as
best for producing efficient tooth
movement.
A. Habitual position. C. Maximum Lateral shift. Ans. (C) Maximum intercuspation.
B. Lateral shift. intercuspation. Ref: Graber 3rd ed/221, 153-
C. Maximum 159.Profit 3rd ed/155, 164, 441, 443
intercuspation. Also, Know That • The point of first
D. The point of first contact at centric relation will help to
contact at centric differentiate between true and
relation. pseudo class III malocclusion. •
Lateral shift will help to differentiate
between true unilateral cross bite
and functional unilateral cross bite,
because the articular eminence is
not fully developed in children, it can
be difficult to find the ‘true ’ centric
relation position that can be
determined in the adults.
A. Remain the same. C. Decreases in Increase in Ans. (C) Decreases in convexity.
B. Increase in convexity. convexity. convexity. Ref: No need for Reference! Points
C. Decreases in to be remembered • When a new
convexity. baby is born, its profile is convex
D. Decreases in due to underdeveloped mandible. •
concavity. In coming years, mandible starts to
come forward during growth and
profile now comes towards more
straight form. • As one reaches
towards older age group, there is a
prognathic appearance.
A. At the apex. C. At the center of At the center of Ans. (C) At the center of resistance.
B. At the incisal edge. resistance. rotation. Ref: Bhalaji 3rd ed/196, Profit 3rd
C. At the center of ed/340 • Centre of resistance: that
resistance. point on the tooth, when a single
D. At the center of force is passed through it, would
rotation. bring about its translation along the
line of action of force. • Single
rooted tooth: centre of resistance
lies between 1/3 and ½ of the root
apical to alveolar crest. • Multirooted
tooth: centre of resistance lies
between the roots, 1 -2mm apical to
the furcation.
98 What is the average amount of
Leeway space available in the upper
arch?
99 The midpalatal suture is most likely to A. 18 years old.
open at which following ages of
expansion?
100 Malocclusion characterized by
retroclined central 160 and proclined
lateral incisor is:
101 Which of fibers attached to
cementum are most likely to
contribute to relapse of tooth
rotation?
102 In cephalometrics, the Frankfort
plane is constructed?-
A. 0.9 mm. B. 1.8 mm. 1.8 mm. Ans. (B) 1.8 mm. Ref: Bhalaji 3rd
B. 1.8 mm. ed/43, 44. Points to be
C. 3.5 mm. Remembered • Leeway space of
D. 5.0 mm. nance: combined mesiodistal width
of permanent canines and
premolars is usually less than that of
deciduous canine and molars, this
difference in width is k/a leeway
space. • Leeway in maxilla: 1.8mm
(0.09mm on each side) • Leeway in
mandible: 3.4mm (1.7mm on each
side) • Leeway space can be utilized
for mesial drift of molars to attain
class I molar relationship, (late shift
occurs in late mixed dentition
period) late shift occurs in cases
having inadequate primate spaces.
B. 13 years old. 18 years old. Ans. (B) 13 years old. Ref: Bhalaji
B. 13 years old. 3rd ed/27 Palate • Ossification starts
C. 25 years old. in 8th week of intrauterine life (pgi
D. 55 years old. 2004) • Intramembranous type of
ossification • Has single ossification
center from maxilla • Mid palatal
suture ossifies by 12-14yrs of age. •
Palatal expansion can be achieved
in almost 100% of the cases before
15yrs of age.
A. Class II Division I. A. Class II Division I. Class II Division II. Ans. (A) Class II Division II. Ref:
B. Class II Division II. Bhalaji 3rd ed/74 “The Classic
C. Class III. feature of Class II Div. II is presence
D. Class I. of lingually inclined upper central
incisors and labially tipped lateral
incisors overlapping the central
incisors Other Characteristics •
Squarish arch unlike V shaped as in
class I. • Normal perioral muscular
activity.
A. Apical fibers. B. Gingival group of Horizontal fibers. Ans.(B) Gingival group of fibers.
B. Gingival group of fibers. “Whenever ortho treatment is done
fibers. the principal fibers and gingival gp of
C. Horizontal fibers. fibers are stretched to the new
D. Oblique fibers. position. Principal fibers’ (including
apical, horizontal, oblique fibers)
reorganizes in 4 weeks to the new
position. Whereas supra-alveolar
fibers take almost 40 weeks to adapt
to the new position, and hence are
considered as major cause for
relapse.”
A. Horizontally from D. Horizontally from Horizontally from Ans. (D) Horizontally from orbitale to
nasion through porion. orbitale to the superior nasion to the the superior aspect of the external
B. Horizontally from aspect of the external superior aspect of auditory meatus. • FH plane helps in
nasion to the superior auditory meatus. external auditory the standardization and act as a
aspect of external meatus. base line to compare cephalometric
auditory meatus. changes during treatment/normal
C. Vertically from growth of an individual. • FH plane is
orbitale through the a horizontal plane joining porion and
maxillary canine. orbitale.
D. Horizontally from
orbitale to the superior
aspect of the external
auditory meatus.
103 Six keys to normal occlusion were
given by-?
104 According to Wolff’s law:
105 According to the Freudian
psychosexual stages of development
the stage which corresponds with
development of mixed dentition and
character formation is:
106 A 30 year old male, Kallu, with a
history of sexual exposure comes
with a painless indurated ulcer over
the penis with everted margins. The
diagnosis is
107 Genital ulcers are seen in all except
A. Andrews. A. Andrews. Andrews. Ans. (A) Andrews. Ref: Bhalaji 3rd
B. Angle. ed/59 In year 1970, Andrews put
C. Tweed. forward the six keys to normal
D. Steiner. occlusion after studying models of
120 normal patients: • Molar inter-
arch relationship • Mesiodistal crown
angulation • Labio-lingual crown
angulation • Absence of rotation
A. Human teeth drift D. Bone trabeculae line Pressure causes Ans. (D) Bone trabeculae line up
mesially as up response to bone resorption. response to mechanical tissue. Ref:
interproximal wear mechanical tissue. Graber 3rd ed/130 “Wolff’s law is a
occurs. theory developed by the German
B. Pressure causes Anatomist/Surgeon Julius Wolff
bone resorption. (1836-1902) in the 19th century that
C. The optimal level of states that bone in a healthy person
force for moving teeth is or animal will adapt to the loads it is
10 to 200 grams. placed under.”
D. Bone trabeculae line
up response to
mechanical tissue.
A. Concrete operational. B. Latency. Genital Ans. (B) Latency. Ref: Shobha
B. Latency. Tandon 1 st ed/124 Phallic S ta g e •
C. Phallic. Exist from 3yrs to 5yrs. •
D. Genital Charecterised by oedipal complex,
castration anxiety, electra complex.
Latency Stage • Comes after phallic
and ends in puberty. • Development
of mixed dentition (6-10yrs) will
coincide with this stage. • Maturation
of ego takes place. • Development
of greater degree of control over
instinctual impulses.
A. Syphilis A. Syphilis Syphilis Ans. is A i.e., Syphilis [Ref: Harrison
B. Chancroid 18th/e p. 1382 &17tk/e p. 1040;
C. Lymphogranuloma Jawetz microbiology 22nd/e p. 642]
venerum • Painless indurated ulcer with
D. Granuloma inguinale everted margins, h/o o f sexual
exposure and lack of systemic
symptoms favours the diagnosis of
syphilis.
A. H. aegypticus A. H. aegypticus Chlaymdia Ans. is A i.e., H. aegypticus [Ref:
B. H.ducreyi Ananthanarayan 8th/e p .
C. HSV 419,Harrison 17th/e p . 831-32]
D. Chlaymdia Genital ulcer • Genital ulcerations
reflect a set of important STDs, most
of which sharply increase the risk of
sexual acquisition and shedding of
HIV. • Ina 1996 study of genital
ulcers in 10 of the IJ.S .Cities with
the highest rates of primary syphilis,
PCR testing of ulcer specimens
demonstrated HSV in 62% of
patients, Treponema pallidum in
13% and Hemophilus ducreyi in 12-
20%.
108 Most common catheter related blood
stream infection is
109 Most common species of
pseudomonas causing intravascular
catheter related infections is
110 Which of the following causes highest A. Patient admitted for A. Patient admitted for
risk of nosocomial infection to a
patient?
111 The most common pathogens
responsible for nosocomial
pneumonias in the ICU are-:
112 All the following are true about
nosocomial infections except-:
113 A person get infected in a hospital
and clinical manifestation appear
after he is discharged this is called-:
A. Candida D. Coagulase negative Candida Ans. is D i.e., Coagulase negative
B. Gram negative staphylococci staphylococci [Ref: Harrison 18th/e
organisms p. 1116, 1117 &l ? h/e p. 839] “The
C. Coagulase positive most common pathogens isolated
staphylococci from vascular device-associated
D. Coagulase negative bacteremia include coagulase
staphylococci negative staphylococci, S. aureus,
enterococci, nosocomial gram-
negative bacilli and Candida.
A. P. cepacia B. P. aeruginosa Ans. is B i.e., P. aeruginosa [Ref:
B. P. aeruginosa Harrison 18th/e p. 1116, 1117 &
C. P. maltiphila 17h/e p. 838, 839; The Internet
D. P. mallei journal of Anaesthesiology]
Intravascular catheter related
infections • Indwelling vascular
catheters are a leading source of
bloodstream infections. • Amongst
indwelling vascular catheters,
central venous catheters are the
most common culprits.
HIV patient Ans. is A i.e., Patient admitted for
elective surgery elective surgery coming in follow elective surgery [Ref:
B. HIV patient coming in up OPD www.cdc.gov;www.reproline.jhu.edu]
follow up OPD • Most common nosocomial infection
C. Patient undergoing —> Urinary tract infection. - Most of
endoscopy the nosocomial UTIs occur after
D. Patient admitted for urinary catheterization. • Second
normal delivery most common nosocomial infection
—> Pneumonia.
A. Gram positive B. Gram negative Virus infections Ans. is B i.e., Gram negative
organisms organisms organisms [Ref: Jawetz 23rd/ e p.
B. Gram negative 739] “Hospital-acquired
organisms (nosocomial) pneumonia is
C. Mycoplasma frequently caused by enteric gram-
D. Virus infections negative bacilli such as E.coli,
pseudomonas aeruginosa”.
A. May manifest within D. May already present May already Ans. is D i.e., May be already
48 hours of admission at the time of admission present at the time present at the time of admission
B. May develop after of admission [Ref: Ananthanarayan 8h/ep. 677 ]
discharge of patient “The term Nosocomial infection is
from the hospital applied to infection developing in
C. Denote a new hospitalized patients". These
condition which is infections neither present, nor in
unrelated to the patient’s incubation, at the time ofpatient’s
primary conditions admission9’ - Ananthanarayan 7th/e
D. May already present p. 634. Such infections may become
at the time of admission evident during their stay in the
hospital or sometimes only after
their discharge.
A. Nosocomial infection A. Nosocomial infection Nosocomial Ans. is A i.e., Nosocomial infection
B. Opportunistic infection [Ref: Ananthanarayan 8th/e p. 677] •
infection The term hospital infection, hospital
C. Epizootic infection -acquired infection or nosocomial
D. Physician induced infection are applied to infections
developing in hospitalized patients,
not present or in incubation at the
time of their admission. • Such
infections may become evident
during their stay in hospital or,
sometimes, only after their
discharge.
114 Vaccination causing intussusception-: A. Rotavirus A. Rotavirus Ans. is A i.e., Rotavirus [Ref: Park
B. Parvovirus 20th/e p. 199] In 1999, a highly
C. Poliovirus efficiaous rotavirus vaccine,
D. BCG Rotashield licenced in United
States, was withdrawn from the
market after less than one year
because of its association with
intussuseption.

115 Which drug interacts with warfarin but A. Oral contraceptive D. Rifampicin Oral contraceptive Ans, D Rifampicin Ref: KDT 6th Ed
does NOT significantly increase INR- B. Metronidazole Pg 741, 742, & Neelima Malik 2nd
C. Erythromycin Ed Pg 771, 772 Highly prolein-
D. Rifampicin bound drugs can displace warfarin
from serum albumin cause an
increase in INR metronidasole &
macrolides, will greatly increase the
effects weefarin by reducing the
metabolism in the body.

116 Which of the following is not a
tocolytic drug?
A. Isoxsuprine B. Natrexam Ans. B Natrexam Ref : KDT 6th Ed
B. Natrexam Pg 323 - 324 & Katzung HTh Ed.
C. Atosiban Pg. 658 Tocolytic Drug: A
D. Ritodrine medication that can inhibit labor,
slow down or halt the contractions of
the uterus. Tocolytic agents are
widely used today to treat premature
labor and permit pregnancy to
proceed and so permit the fetus to
gain in size and maturity before
being born.

117 Drug that does not cause sedation
A. Buspirone A. Buspirone Zalpiclone Ans. A Buspirone Ref: KDT 5th d Pg
B. Nitrazepam 366, 401 & 6th Ed Pg 394, 398, 451,
C. Zalpiclone 452 & Katzung 11th Ed. Pg. 373,
D. Diazepam 381 "Buspirone is the newer anti-
anxiety drug that does not interact
with the GABA-BZD receptor
chloride channel complex."
"Buspirone's chemical structure and
mechanism of action are completely
unrelated to those of the
benzodiazepines, but it purportedly
has an efficacy comparable to that
of diazepam (Valium) in treating
GAD."

118 Drug not used in treatment of
Pituitary Adenoma is-
A. Octreotoid D. Letrozol Ans. D Letrozol Ref : Harrison 17th
B. Bromocriptine Ed Pg 527, 2085 - 2095, 2199 -
C. Orlistat 2203 & Davidson 19th Ed Pg 737 -
D. Letrozol 743 Pituitary Adenomas • Pituitary
adenomas cause most cases of
Cushing's syndrome. • This form of
the syndrome, known as "Cushing's
disease," affects women five times
more frequently than men. • Excess
production of corticotrophin ((ACTH)
Cushing's disease) results in
increased cortisol production by the
adrenal glands causing
hypercortisolism (Cushing
syndrome) which has many other
causes.
119 Oral contraceptive failure occurs in a
patient on rifampicin because of
120 Which of the following opioids is not
given intrathecally
121 Which of the following is not a
prodrug?
122 Which of the following is the best
indication for propofol as an I.V.
induction agent?
123 True about penicillin G
124 Nitrates are not used in
A. Rifampicin induces A. Rifampicin induces Rifampicin induces Ans. (A) Rifampicin induces the
the metabolism of the metabolism of the metabolism of metabolism of contraceptive Ref: K.
contraceptive contraceptive contraceptive D. Tripathi 5th / Ed page no. 290 &
B. Rifampicin causes KDT 6th fe p. 317, 741] • Rifampicin,
the gonadotropin ampicilin and tetracycline by
release from pituatory suppressing intestinal flora, I entero
gland hepatic circulation of OCP. • All the
C. Rifampicin decreases other mentioned drugs decrease the
the release of progestin effectiveness of OCP by including
D. Rifampicin hepatic microsomal enzymes.
antagonizes the action Leading to increased metabolism of
of oral contraceptive OCP.
A. Remifentanil A. Remifentanil Morphine Ans. A Remifentanil Ref : Goodman
B. Morphine and Gilman 11th Ed / 573 & Katzung
C. Sufentanil 10th /e p. 491 ‘Remifentanil is not
D. Fentanyl used intrathecally because glycine
in the drug in the vehicle can cause
temporary motor paralysis. It is
generally given by continuous,
intravenous infusion.
A. Quinapril D. Lisinopril Lisinopril Ans. D Lisinopril [Ref: KDT 6th Ed
B. Fosinopril Pg 485] “Most ACE inhibitors are
C. Benzopril prodrugs which are converted by
D. Lisinopril hepatic esterolysis to an active
diacid metabolite. "Only captopril
and lisinopril have sufficient oral
bioavailability and are given as
active drugs".
A. Neurosurgery B. Day care surgery Day care surgery Ans. (b) Day care surgery [Ref:
B. Day care surgery Morgan Anesthesiology 3rd ed/404,
C. Patient with coronary 570, 860] "Propofol is the agent of
artery disease choice for day-care surgery because
D. In neonates of its tendency to provide a rapid,
clear headed wake up after the
surgery with a low incidence of
nausea and vomiting.
A. Broad spectrum D. Eliminated by kidney Broad spectrum Ans. D Eliminated by kidney Ref. K
antibiotic antibiotic D Tripathi 4th ed/700-702 & 5th
B. Acid stable ed/48; 6th Ed Pg 694, 696-699, 32
C. Not destroyed by The pharmacokinetics of PnG is
penicillinase dominated by very rapid renal
D. Eliminated by kidney excretion; about 10% by glomerular
filtration and rest by tubular
secretion. • Plasma t l/2 of PnG in
healthy adult is 30 min. • So only
option (D) is right that PnG is
eliminated by kidney.
A. CCF C. Renal Colic Cyanide poisoning Ans. C Renal colic Ref: KDT 6th Ed/
B. Esophageal spasm 524-530 The main pharmacological
C. Renal Colic action of Nitrates • Nitroglycerine
D. Cyanide poisoning relaxes all types of smooth muscle
irrespective of the state of the
preexisting muscle tone. • The most
prominent action is exerted on the
vascular smooth muscle.
125 Which of the following is most potent
antigen for stimulating both humoral
and cell mediated immunity?
126 In HIV, cell line affected is
127 Which of the following types of
collagen is present in Hyaline
cartilage?
A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins Proteins Ans. B Proteins Ref: Lippincott's 2nd
B. Proteins /ed/229, 230, Harper’s 27th ed/246
C. Polysaccharides & Ananthanarayan 8th/e p. 81, 91
D. Lipids Antigen • Antigen is a substance
that stimulates the production of
antibody, when introduced into the
body. It is foreign or self molecule
that are recognised by the immune
system resulting in immune cell
trigering, T cell activation, and or B
cell antibody production. The two
attributes of antigenicity are - 1.
Induction of an immune response
i.e., immunogenicity 2. Specific
reaction with antibodies or
sensitised cells i.e. immunological
reactivity.
A. CD4 A. CD4 CD8 Ans. A CD4 Ref: Robbins Basic
B. CD8 pathology - 6th Ed/I 24, Figs. 5 -37
C. Monocytes & 7th Ed Pg 197, 198 and
D. B Lymphocytes Ananthanarayan 8th Ed Pg 127 -
130 CD4+ and CD8+ T cells perform
distinct but somewhat overlapping
effector functions. The CD4+ T cell
can be viewed as a master regulator
- the conductor of a symphony
orchestra, so to speak. By secreting
cytokines, CD4+ T cells influence
the function of virtually all other cells
of the immune system, including
other T cells, B cells, macrophages,
and NK cells.
A. 2 A. 2 6 Ans. A Type 2 Ref. Robbin’s 7th Ed,
B. 4 Pg. 104 & Carranza 9th Ed Pg 264 -
C. 6 266, and 10th Ed Pg. 69 Hyaline
D. 9 cartilage consists of a slimy mass of
a firm consistency, but of
considerable elasticity and pearly
bluish color. It contains no nerves or
blood vessels, and its structure is
relatively simple. • Cartilage is
composed of specialized cells called
chondrocytes that produce a large
amount of extracellular matrix
composed of collagen fibers,
abundant ground substance rich in
proteoglycan, and elastin fibers. •
Cartilage is classified into three
types - elastic cartilage, hyaline
cartilage and fibrocartilage, which
differ in the relative amounts of
these three main components.
128 Prostate specific antigen is used as A. Tumor marker A. Tumor marker Ans. A Tumor marker Ref : Ganong
B. Proto oncogene 23rd Ed Pg 406 Robbings Basic
C. Oncogene Pathology 7th Ed Pg 668, 669
D. Tumor suppressor Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a
genes protein produced by the cells of the
prostate gland. PSA is present in
small quantities in the serum of
normal men, and is often elevated in
the presence of prostate cancer and
in other prostate disorders. • A blood
test to measure PSA is considered
the most effective test currently
available for the early detection of
prostate cancer. • Rising levels of
PSA over time are associated with
both localized and metastatic
prostate cancer (CaP).

129 In consumptive coagulopathy which
of the following is considered to
interfere with secondary heamostasis C. Heamophilia
A. Warfarin therapy
B. Liver disease
D. ITP
B. Liver disease Heamophilia Ans. B Liver disease (Ref: Robbins
7th Ed Pg 135, 444, 656 & Shafer9s
Textbook of Oral Pathology (6Th
Edition) - Page 140 & Internal
medicine essentials for clerkship
students 2 By Patrick C. Alguire 2nd
Ed Pg 150 - 151) Disorders of
Secondary Hemostasis • Disorders
of secondary hemostasis are
characterized by deficiencies of
coagulation factors. • These include
inherited hemophilias, liver disease,
vitamin K deficiency, antibodies, and
consumptive processes such as
disseminated intravascular
coagulation.

130 ORF stands for: A. Open reading frame A. Open reading frame Orally required Ans. A Open reading frame Ref.
B. Oral rehydration fluid fluoride Lehninger 4th Ed page 1039 ORF
C. Orally required (Open reading frame): In a random
fluoride sequence of nucleotides one in
D. Oncogenic removing every 20 codons in each reading
frequency frame is , on average, a termination
codon. • In general, a reading frame
without a termination codon among
50 or more codon is referred to as
an open reading frames (ORF). •
Long open reading frames usually
correspond to gene that encode
protein. • The ORF Finder (Open
Reading Frame Finder) is a
graphical analysis tool which finds
all open reading frames of a
selectable minimum size in a user’s
sequence or in a sequence already
in the database.
131 Which of the following tests is not
used for detection of specific
aneuploidy-?
132 Rothera’s test used for
133 Most important function of albumin in
body is-
134 The hormone whose deficiency
causes diabetes insipidus is released B. Pre optic
from which nucleus of pituitary
A. FISH D. Microarray Ans. is D (Microarray) Ref: Harrison
B. RT-PCR 17th/406 “Microarray based
C. QF-PCR techniques are currently not used for
D. Microarray detection of Specific Aneuploidies.
Microarray is the single best answer
of exclusion” Some Important Points
• Fluorescent in situ hybridisation
(FISH) and Polymerase chain
Reaction (PCR) based tests
including QF-PCR and RT-PCR are
commonly used for rapid detection
of common specific chromosomal
aneuploidy. • Microarray based
Array- Comparitive Genomic
Hybridization (a-CGA) is a relatively
new technique that is
complementary to conventional
cytogenetic analysis (karyotyping)
and fluorescence in situ
hybridization (FISH).
A. Ketone bodies A. Ketone bodies Ketone bodies Ans: A. Ketone bodies Ref:
B. Urine sugars Satyanarayana 3rd Ed Pg 295;
C. Bence Jones proteins Practical Biochemistry for students
D. Ethers in urine By Malhotra 4th Ed 43-47;
Laboratory Manual of Biochemistry
by Chary & Sharma (2004) / 21
“Rothera ’s test is used for detection
of ketone bodies in urine99 Ketone
bodies in Urine and their detection •
Ketone bodies represent
intermediate products of fat
catabolism that may accumulate in
the blood in certain states like
diabetes mellitus and starvation etc.
A. Oncotic pressure A. Oncotic pressure Drug transport Ans. A (Oncotic pressure
maintenance maintenance maintenance) Ref: KDT 6th /e p. 20-
B. Drug transport 21 & 5th /e p. 18, 19 & Guyton 11th
C. Measuring GFR Ed Pg 188 Osmolality : Harrison
D. Substances binding 17th Ed Pg 274 - 275 • The solute or
particle concentration of a fluid is
known as its osmolality. • It is
expressed as milliosmoles per
kilogram of water (mosmol/kg). •
Water crosses cell membranes to
achieve osmotic equilibrium (ECF
osmolality = ICF osmolality).
A. Supraoptic A. Supraoptic Suprachiasmatic Ans. A [Supraoptic] Ref: Guyton
11th Ed Pg 359 & Ganong 22nd Ed
C. Suprachiasmatic Pg 242 & Essentials Of Medical
D. Paraventricular Physiology-3rd Edition-sembulingam
Pg No. 306, 307 “ADH is mainly
secreted by supraoptic nucleus of
hypothalamus and in small
quantities by paraventricular
nucleus” “In the absence of ADH,
the reabsorbtion of water in the
renal tubules does not occur and
dilute urine is excreted. This leads to
a loss of large amount of water
through urine. This condition is
called diabetes insipidus and the
excretion of large amount of water is
called diuresis. ”
135 Which of the following is false about
the cerebellar lesions
136 Constitutive component of pulmonary A. Lipoprotein lipase
endothelial cells is
137 In which type of parental behaviour
children are not allowed to use their
own initiative for themselves:
138 Which of the following is not a
method of child management in the
dental office?
139 Which of the following is a function of A. Asthetics
primary teeth-?
140 Root resorption of deciduous teeth
begins:
A. It affects the
voluntary movements on
the ipsilateral side of the
body
B. It affects the
involuntary movements
on the opposite side of
the body
C. A small area damage
in cerebellum is
represented by a large
area in the body
function
D. Deeply placed nuclei
of cerebellum causes
more extensive area of
damage as compared to
superficially placed
nuclei.
B. Factor X
C. Thrombin
D. Plasminogen
activator
A. Domination
B. Overprotection
C. Rejection
D. Overanxiety
A. Use of admiration
B. Child reconditioning
C. Bribery
D. Dentist's proper
conversion
B. Speech
C. Stimulation of jaw
growth
D. All of the above
A. About one year after A. About one year after
eruption eruption
B. About two years after
eruption
C. About three years
after eruption
D. Just after eruption
B. It affects the Ans. B [It affects the involuntary
involuntary movements movements on the opposite side of
on the opposite side of the body] Copyrights Reserved :
the body Target MDS Ref: Guyton 11th Ed Pg
706 - 707 Cerebellum consists of •
Superficial cortex • Deep white
matter • Four pairs of deep nuclei
Cerebellar lesions - Disrupts the co-
ordination Rate, range & force of
movements goes unchecked Initial
agonist burst is prolonged and has a
reduced peak force Antagonist burst
delayed / premature hypometria or
hypermetria Most apparent in rapid
alternating movements.
D. Plasminogen activator Lipoprotein lipase Ans. D [Plasminogen activator] Ref :
Guyton 11th Ed Pg 464 Activation of
Plasminogen to Form Plasmin :
Lysis of Clots. • When a clot is
formed, a large amount of
plasminogen is trapped in the clot
along with other plasma proteins.
This will not become plasmin or
cause lysis of the clot until it is
activated. • The injured tissues and
vascular endothelium very slowly
release a powerful activator called
tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
that a few days later, after the clot
has stopped the bleeding, eventually
converts plasminogen to plasmin,
which in turn removes the remaining
unnecessary blood clot.
B. Overprotection Overprotection ANS B. Overprotection Direct Pick
from Ritu Duggal
C. Bribery Bribery ANS C. Bribery Direct Pick from Ritu
Duggal
D. All of the above All of the above ANS D. All of the above Direct Pick
from Ritu Duggal
About one year ANS A. About one year after
after eruption eruption Direct Pick from Ritu
Duggal
141 Which of the following is not a feature A. More pronounced C. Thin layer of dentin Marked ANS C. Thin layer of dentin over the
of primary teeth? cervical ridge over the pulpal wall at constriction of pulpal wall at the occlusal fossa
B. Marked constriction the occlusal fossa neck Direct Pick from Ritu Duggal
of neck
C. Thin layer of dentin
over the pulpal wall at
the occlusal fossa
D. Flaring out of molars
roots nearer the cervix

142 Which of the following tooth
morphology is unique among the
primary molars?
A. Maxillary first molar C. Mandibular first molar Maxillary first ANS C. Mandibular first molar Direct
B. Maxillary second molar Pick from Ritu Duggal
molar
C. Mandibular first molar
D. Mandibular second
molar

143 Mongoloid idiocy is: A. Trisomy of 21 A. Trisomy of 21 Trisomy of 21 ANS A. Trisomy of 21 Direct Pick
B. Trisomy of 18 from Ritu Duggal
C. 22 + XXY
D. 22 + X

144 Normal colour of healthy gingiva in A. Pink D. Pale pink Pink ANS D. Pale pink Direct Pick from
children is: B. Coral pink Ritu Duggal
C. Red
D. Pale pink

145 Poliomyelitis virus enters the body A. Alimentary tract A. Alimentary tract Lungs ANS A. Alimentary tract Direct Pick
via: B. Lungs from Ritu Duggal
C. Sexual contact
D. Skin

146 Rhagades are: A. Red or copper C. Red or copper Red or copper ANS C. Red or copper coloured
coloured lesions coloured lesions usually coloured lesions lesions usually seen in lower lip
particularly seen in seen in lower lip prenatal usually seen in prenatal syphilis Direct Pick from
upper lip syphilis lower lip prenatal Ritu Duggal
B. Ulcerative lesions syphilis
particularly seen in
upper lip
C. Red or copper
coloured lesions usually
seen in lower lip
prenatal syphilis
D. Copper coloured
lesions in the buccal
mucosa which are found
in tertiary syphilis.

147 Hyposecretion of thyroid hormone A. Graves' disease C. Cretenism Cretenism ANS C. Cretenism Direct Pick from
during infancy results in: B. Myxedema Ritu Duggal
C. Cretenism
D. Gigantism

148 By age 12, how much percentage of A. 50% C. 90% 70% ANS C. 90% Direct Pick from Ritu
school children have experienced B. 70% Duggal
tooth decay: C. 90%
D. 100%

149 Which of the following abrasive agent A. Calcium phosphate D. Calcium Sodium chloride ANS D. Calcium hydrophosphate
is most commonly used in fluoride B. Sodium chloride hydrophosphate Direct Pick from Ritu Duggal
dentifrices? C. Magnesium
phosphate
D. Calcium
hydrophosphate

150 Which of the following method of A. Fluoride mouthwash C. Fluoride tablets Fluoride ANS C. Fluoride tablets Direct Pick
fluoride application system has both B. Fluoride dentifrices mouthwash from Ritu Duggal
local and systemic fluoride action- C. Fluoride tablets
D. Fluoride drops
151 On Snyder test, yellow colour after 4
hrs indicates:
152 All of the following features are seen
in the viral pneumonia except:
153 Aschoff s nodules are seen in:
A. Marked caries
susceptibility susceptibility
B. Definite caries
susceptibility
C. Limited caries
susceptiblity
D. No caries
susceptibility
A. Presence of B. Predominance of
interstitial inflammation. alveolar exudates.
B. Predominance of
alveolar exudates.
C. Bronchiolitis.
D. Multinucleate gaint
cells in the bronchiolar
wall.
A. Subacute bacterial C. Rheumatic carditis.
endocarditis.
B. Libman-Sacks
endocarditis.
C. Rheumatic carditis.
D. Non-bacterial
Thrombotic
endocarditis.
A. Marked caries Marked caries ANS A. Marked caries susceptibility
susceptibility Direct Pick from Ritu Duggal
Predominance of Answer is B (Predominance of
alveolar exudates. alveolar exudate): Robbins Viral
pneumonias are an example of
‘atypical pneumonias9 and are
characterized by inflammatory
reaction predominantly restricted
within the walls of alveoli within the
intertitium. The alveoli may be free
from exudates - Robbins. The
alveolar septa are widened and
edematous and usually have a
mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate.
Alveoli may be free from exudates
but in many patients there is
accumulation of intraalveolar
proteinaceous matriafe, a cellular
exudates and characteristically pink
hyaline membranes. These changes
reflect alveolar damage similar to
that seen diffusely in ARDS.
Subacute bacterial Answer is C (Rheumatic carditis):
endocarditis. Robbins; (Repeat) Aschoff bodies
are characteristic focal inflammatory
lesions of acute rheumatic fever
found in any o f the three layers of
the heart. Aschoff bodies: - • Aschoff
bodies are focal inflammatory
lesions seen during acute rheumatic
fever • They consist o f foci o f
swollen eosinophillic collagen
surrounded by - Lymphocytes
(primarily T cells) - Occasional
plasma cells
154 Which o f the following statement is
not true?
155 A 48 year old woman was admitted
with a history of weakness for two
months. On examination, cervical
lymph nodes were found enlarged
and spleen was palpable 2 cm below
the costal margin. Her hemoglobin
was 10.5 g/dl, platelet count 2.7 x
109/L and total leukocyte count 40 x
109/L, which included 80% mature
lymphoid cells with coarse clumped
chromatin. Bone marrow revealed a
nodular lymphoid infiltrate. The
peripheral blood lymphoid cells were
positive for CD 19, CD5, CD20 and
CD23 and were negative for CD79B
and FMC-7.The histopathological
examination o f the lymph node in
this patient will most likely exhibit
effacement o f lymph node
arachitecture by:
156 The subtype of Hodgkin’s disease,
which is histogentically distinct from
all the other subtypes, is:
A. Patients with IgD B. A diagnosis o f Answer is B (A diagnosis of plasma
myeloma may present plasma cell leukemia can cell leukemia .......): Wintrobe’s
with no evident M-spike be made if circulating haematology ‘Plasma cell leukaemia
on serum peripheral blood 9 by definition is characterized by
electrophoresis. plasmablasts comprise more than 20% plasma cells in the
B. A diagnosis o f 14% o f peripheral blood peripheral blood The patient in
plasma cell leukemia white cells in a patient question has 14% plasma blasts in
can be made if with white blood cell peripheral blood and thus does not
circulating peripheral count o f 1 x 109/L and classify as a plasma cell leukaemia.
blood plasmablasts platelet count o f 88 x
comprise 14% o f 109/L.
peripheral blood white
cells in a patient with
white blood cell count o
f 1 x 109/L and platelet
count o f 88 x 109/L.
C. In smoldering
myeloma plasma cells
constitute 10-30% o f
total bone marrow
cellularity.
D. In a patient with
multiple myeloma, a
monoclonal light chain
may be detected in both
serum and urine
A. A pseudofollicular D. A diffuse proliferation Answer is D (A diffuse proliferation
pattern with proliferation o f medium to large of medium to large lymphoid cells
centers. lymphoid cells with high with high mitotic rate): British
B. A monomorphic mitotic rate. Journal of Haematology, 125, 294-
lymphoid proliferation 317, 2004 Blackwell Publishing Ltd;
with a nodular pattern. New Biologic Indicators of Prognosis
C. A predominantly in Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia:
follicular pattern. Vol 18, No. 2, April 2004; William G.
D. A diffuse proliferation Finn, M.D. MLabs Hematology
o f medium to large Laboratory; Wintrobe’s
lymphoid cells with high Haematology; Robbins The patient
mitotic rate. in question is a case o f Chronic
lymphocytic leukemia as indicated
by the characteristic clinical picture
and immunophenotypic
characteristics. (Typically, CLL cells
express CD5, CD 19, CD23 and
show absence of CD79B, CD22 and
FMC7)
A. Lymphocyte A. Lymphocyte Lymphocyte Answer is A (Lymphocyte
predominant. predominant. depleted. predominance): Robbins; Harrisons
B. Nodular sclerosis. The lymphocyte predominance
C. Mixed cellularity variant is also known as Nodular
D. Lymphocyte Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin
depleted. Disease. The nodular pattern is due
to the presence o f expanded B cell
follicles. 4Nodular Lymphocyte
Predominance Hodgkin9s Disease
is now recognized as an entity
entirely distinct from classical
Hodgkin 9s disease9 - Harrisons
16th/ 655
157 The classification proposed by the
International Lymphoma Study Group
for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is
known as:
158 In familial Mediterranean fever, the
gene encoding the following protein
undergoes mutation:
159 Which type o f Amyloidosis is caused A. Familial
by mutation of the transthyretin
protein?
160 Which one of the following stains is
specific for Amyloid?
161 Which one of the following is not
used as a tumor marker in testicular
tumours-?
162 A simple bacterial test for mutagenic
carcinogens is
A. Kiel classification. B. REAL classification. WHO Answer is B (REAL Classification) :
B. REAL classification. classification. Robbins; AJC Cancer staging
C. WHO classification. Handbook In 1994, a group of
D. Rappaport hematopathologists, oncologists and
classification. molecular biologists came together
(International Lymphoma Study
Group) and introduced a new
classification, called the Revised
European-American Classification of
Lymphoid Neoplasms (REAL). WHO
has now reviewed and updated the
reed classification resulting in
imlusionof additional rare entities.
A. Pyrin. A. Pyrin. Pyrin. Answer is A (Pyrin): Robbins ‘The
B. Perforin. gene for Familial Mediterranean
C. Atrial natriuretic fever has been cloned and its
factor. product is called pyrin, (for its
D. Immunoglobulin light relation to fever) — Robbins
chain.
B. Familial amyloidotic Prion protein Answer is B (Familial Amyloidotic
Mediterranean fever. polyneuropathy. associated Neuropathy): Robbins Transthyretin
B. Familial amyloidotic amyloidosis. is a normal serum protein that binds
polyneuropathy. and transports thyroxine and retinol
C. Dialysis associated (trans-thy-retin). A mutant form of
amyloidosis. transthyretin is deposited in a group
D. Prion protein of genetically determined disorders
associated amyloidosis. referred to as familial amyloid
polyneuropathies9 - Robbins •
Familial Mediterranean fever: is
associated with ‘AA’: Amyloid
associated protein • Dialysis
associated amyloidosis: is
associated with p2 microglobulin
A. Periodic Acid schif C. Congo red. Congo red. Answer is C (Congo Red): Robbins
(PAS). “To differentiate amyloid from
B. Alzerian red. other^hyaline deposits (eg. Collagen
C. Congo red. and fibrin), a variety of histochemical
D. Von-Kossa. techniques are used, of which the
most widely used is Congo Red" –
Robbins
A. AFP. D. CEA. Answer is D (CEA): Robbins; Kirk’s
B. LDH. Manual of Surgery; Harrison
C. HCG. Biological markers of germ cell
D. CEA. testicular tumors include AFP, HCG,
Placental alkaline phosphatase,
placental lactogen and LDH. HCG,
AFP and LDH are widely used
clinically and have proved to be
valuable in the diagnosis and
management of testicular cancer.
A. Ames test A. Ames test Redox test Answer is A (Ames test): Lehninger;
B. Redox test Goodman Gillman’s Ames test is a
C. Bacteriophage simple test developed by Bruce
D. Gene splicing Ames that measures the potential of
a given chemical compound to
promote mutations in a specialized
bacterial strain (mutagenic
carcinogenesis) – Lehninger
163 The following is not a feature of
malignant transformation by cultured
cells:
164 An example of a tumour suppressor
gene is:
165 All endothelial cells produce
thrombomodulin except those found
in:
166 In-situ DNA nick end labeling can
quantitate:
167 In apoptosis, Apaf-1 is activated by
release of which of the following
substances from the mitochondria-?
A. Increased cell B. Increased Loss of Answer is B (Increased
density. requirement for growth anchorage. Requirement of growth factors):
B. Increased factors. Biology o f the cell (2003) Cultured
requirement for growth cells undergoing malignant
factors. transformation do not show
C. Alterations of increased requirement of growth
cytoskeletal structures. factors. On the contrary they lose
D. Loss of anchorage. the requirement of growth factors.
The process o f malignant
transformation is associated with a
stable heritable loss of requirement
of cultured cells for growth factors.
— Biology of the Cell (2003)
A. myc D. Rb Rb Answer is D (Rb): Robbins ‘Tumor
B. fos suppressor genes ’ are genes
C. ras whose products, down regulate the
D. Rb cell cycle, and thus apply brakes to
cellular proliferation. Loss o f tumor
suppressor genes is associated with
several important human tumors. Rb
gene is a tumor suppressor gene,
loss of which (whek both normal
copies are lost) is associated with
Retinoblastoma (and
osteosarcomas). Myc, fos and ras
are all examples of protooncogenes
and not tumor suppressor genes
A. Hepatic circulation C. Cerebral Answer is C (Cerebral
B. Cutaneous circulation microcirculation microcirculation): Ganong ‘All
C. Cerebral endothelial cells except those in the
microcirculation cerebral microcirculation produce
D. Renal circulation. thrombomodulin, a thrombin protein,
and express it on their surface-
Ganong
A. Fraction of cells in A. Fraction of cells in Answer is A (Fraction of cells in
apoptotic pathways apoptotic pathways apoptotic pathways): Various texts/
B. Fraction of cells in S Journals; The Journal of
phase. Histochemistry & Cytochemistry:
C. p53 gene product. Volume 47(5): 711-717, 1999 In situ
D. bcr/abl gene. DNA nick end-labeling is an in situ
method for detecting areas of DNA
which are nicked during apoptosis.
Terminal deoxynucleotidyl
transferase mediated dUTP - biotin
Nick end labeling ‘TUNEL’ is a
method for detecting apoptotic cells
that exhibit DNA fragmentation.
A. Bcl-2 D. Cytochrome C. Cytochrome C. Answer is D (Cytochrome C):
B. Bax. Robbins Apoptosis is induced by a
C. Bcl-XL cascade of molecular events all of
D. Cytochrome C. which culminate in the activation of
caspases. (In the cytosol
cytochrome C binds to a protein
called Apafl (Apoptosis activating
factor-1) and the complex activates
caspase - Robbins
168 Fibrinoid necrosis may be observed
in all of the following, except:
A. Malignant C. Diabetic Answer is C (Diabetic
hypertension glomerulosclerosis. glomerulosclerosis): Robbins
B. Polyarteritis nodosa Fibrinoid necrosis has not been
C. Diabetic mentioned as a feature of diabetic
glomerulosclerosis. glomerulosclerosis Fibrinoid
D. A sch o ffs nodule. Necrosis: Fibrinoid necrosis is a
distinctive morphological pattern of
cell injury characterized by
deposition of fibrin-like
proteinaceous material in walls of
arteries.

169 All of the following vascular changes
are observed in acute inflammation,
except:
A. Vasodilation. D. Decreased Vasodilation. Answer is D (Decreased hydrostatic
B. Stasis o f blood. hydrostatic pressure pressure): Robbins With acute
C. Increased vascular inflammation hydrostatic pressure is
permeability. increased (due to increased blood
D. Decreased flow from vasodilation) and at the
hydrostatic pressure same time osmotic pressure is
reduced because of protein leakage
(due to increased permeability) –
Robbins

170 All o f the following statements are
true regarding reversible cell injury,
except:
A. Formation of A. Formation of Answer is A (Formation of
amorphous densities in amorphous densities in Amorphous densities in
the mitochondrial matrix. the mitochondrial matrix. mitochondrial matrix): Robbins
B. Diminished Formation of amorphous densities in
generation of adenosine the mitochondrial matrix is a feature
triphosphate (ATP). of irreversible injury and not
C. Formation of blebs in reversible injury. ‘Transition to
the plasma membrane. irreversible injury is characterized by
D. Detachment of swelling and disruption of
ribosomes from the lysosomes, presence of large
granular endoplasmic amorphous densities in swollen
reticulum. mitochondria, disruption of cellular
membranes and profound nuclear
changes – Robbins

171 Both Vitamin K and C are involved in- A. The synthesis of B. Post translational Antioxidant Answer is B (Posttranslational
clotting factors. modifications. mechanisms. modifications): Harper Both vitamin
B. Post translational C and vitamin K are required for
modifications. post translational modifications
C. Antioxidant Vitamin C is required for post
mechanisms. translational modification
D. The microsomal ofprocollagen polypeptide molecules
hydroxylation reactions. in colldgen synthesis and vitamin K
is required for post translational
modification ofglutamate residues
for generation of clotting factors.

172 The predominant isozyme ofLDH in
cardiac muscle is:
A. LD-1. A. LD-1. Answer is A (LD-1): Harper Since
B. LD-2. the heart expresses the H subunit
C. LD-3. almost exclusively, isoenzyme Ij
D. LD-5. (LDH Isoenzyme-1) with four ‘H9
subunits predominates in this tissue
- Harper Isoenzymes of Lactate
Dehydrogenase: • Lactate
dehydrogenase is a tetrameric
enzyme and consists of four
subunits • These subunits can
occurs in two isoforms i.e.
173 The amino acid residue having an
iminoside chain is:
174 Neuronal degeneration is seen in all
of the following except:
175 The first physiological response to
high environmental temperature is-
176 Hypercalcemia associated with
malignancy is most often mediated
by-?
177 Osteoclasts are inhibited by:
178 Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly
in-
A. Lysine. D. Proline. Lysine. Answer is D (Proline): Harper;
B. Histidine. Satyanarayanan “Proline is a unique
C. Tyrosine. amino acid. It has an imino group
D. Proline. (=NH) instead of an amino ('NH2)
group found in other amino acids.
Therefore proline is an imino acid" –
Satyanarayanan
A. Crush nerve injury. D. Neuropraxia. Senescence.. Answer is D (Neuropraxia): Apleys
B. Fetal development. ‘Neuropraxia 9 by definition refers to
C. Senescence.. physiological disruption of
D. Neuropraxia. conduction only. No structural
changes or degeneration occur.
Neuronal degeneration may well be
seen as part of crush nerve injury,
fetal development and senescence.
A. Sweating. B. Vasodilatation. Sweating. Answer is B (Vasodilatation):
B. Vasodilatation. Guyton; Ganong The major
C. Decreased heat thermoregulatory responses to high
production. environmental temperature include
D. Non-shivering cutaneous vasodilation and
thermogenesis. sweating. The earliest response
(first physiological response) is
cutaneous vasodilatation. For
sweating to occur cutaneous
vasodilatation is a prerequisite.
A. Parathyroid hormone B. Parathyroid hormone Parathyroid Answer is B (Parathyroid Hormone
(PTH). related protein (PTHrP). hormone related Related Peptide): Harrisons
B. Parathyroid hormone protein (PTHrP). Hypercalcemia related to
related protein (PTHrP). malignancy is also termed as
C. Interleukin - 6 (IL-6). ‘Humoral hypercalcemia o f
D. Calcitonin. malignancy. ‘These are several
humoral causes of hypercalcemia of
malignancy, but is most often
associated with over production of
PTHrP. ’ - Harrison
A. Parathyroid hormone B. Calcitonin Parathyroid Answer is B (Calcitonin): Ganong;
B. Calcitonin hormone KDT ‘Calcitonin inhibits bone
C. 1,25- resorption by direct action on
dihydroxycholecalciferol. osteoclasts9 - KDT ‘Calcitonin
D. Tumor necrosis exerts its calcium lowering effect by
factor. inhibiting bone resorption. This
action is direct, and calcitonin
inhibits the activity of osteoclasts in
vitro– Ganong
A. Kidney C. Spleen Kidney Answer is C (Spleen): Lippincott’s
B. Liver biochemistry; Chaudhri Physiology
C. Spleen Breakdown of heme to bilirubin
D. Bone marrow occurs in macrophages of the
reticuloendothelial system. This
occurs mainly in the spleen as well
as in the liver and bone marrow. -
Chaudhri Thus while heme is
converted into bilirubin, in spleen,
liver and also bone marrow, the
most important site is the spleen
and hence is the answer of choice
here.
179 The fibers from the contralateral
nasal hemiretina project to the
following layers of the lateral
geniculate nucleus:
180 Urinary concentrating ability o f the
kidney is increased by:
181 Which one of the following
statements regarding water
reabsorption in the tubules?
182 S. A. node acts as a pacemaker of
the heart because of the fact that it:
A. Layers 2, 3 & 5. C. Layers 1, 4 & 6. Answer is C (Layers 1 ,4, 6):
B. Layers 1, 2 & 6. Neuroanatomy by Inderbir Singh;
C. Layers 1, 4 & 6. Ganong Fibres from the nasal
D. Layers 4, 5 & 6. hemiretina of the opposite eye end
in Lamina 1, 4, and 6 - IB Singh’s
Neuroanatomy Lateral geniculate
body and the relay pathway: •
Lateral geniculate body is a relay
station on the visual pathway lying
just posterior to the optic tract. • It
receives fibres from the contralateral
nasal hemiretina and ipsilateral
temporal hemiretina • Grey matter o
f this body is split into six laminae.
A. ECF volume A. ECF volume Increase in GFR. Answer is A (ECF volume
contraction. contraction. contraction): Guyton The kidney has
B. Increase in RBF. the ability to form urine that is more
C. Reduction o f concentrated than the plasma.
medullary When there is contraction of the
hyperosmolarity. ECF volume (water deficit in the
D. Increase in GFR. body), the urinary concentrating
ability of the kidney increases and it
forms a concentrated urine with a
smaller volume, thereby maintaining
homeostasis.
A. The bulk of water A. The bulk of water Answer is A (The bulk of water
reabsorption occurs reabsorption occurs reabsorption occurs secondary to
secondary to Na+ secondary to Na+ Na+ reabsorption): Guyton “The
reabsorption. reabsorption. reabsorption of water is coupled to
B. Majority of facultative sodium reabsorption. Changes in
reabsorption occurs in sodium reabsorption significantly
proximal tubule. influence the reabsorption of water.
C. Obligatory
reabsorption is ADH
dependent.
D. 20% o f water is
always reabsorbed
irrespective of water
balance.
A. Is capable of D. Generates impulses Generates Answer is D (Generates impulses at
generating impulses at the highest rate. impulses at the the highest rate): Ganong; Guyton
spontaneously highest rate. “The sinus node controls the beat of
B. Has rich sympathetic the heart because its rate of
innervation. discharge is greater than that of any
C. Has poor cholinergic other part of the heart Therefore the
innervations. sinus node is the pacemaker of the
D. Generates impulses heart99 - Guyton Although the A V
at the highest rate. node and Purkinje fibres are also
capable of generating impulses
spontaneously, it is the sinus node
which controls the hearts rhythmicity
and acts as the pacemaker of the
heart.
183 All of the following factors normally
increase the length of the ventricular
cardiac muscle fibers except-
184 Distribution of blood flow in mainly
regulated by the
185 The vasodilatation produced by
carbon dioxide is maximum in one of
the following:
186 C02 is primarily transported in the
arterial blood as
187 In which of the following a reduction
in arterial oxygen tension occurs-?
A. Increased venous D. Lying-to-standing Increased Answer is D (Lying to standing
tone. change in posture. negative change in posture): Ganong When a
B. Increased total blood intrathoracic person moves from a supine
volume. pressure. position to standing position a
C. Increased negative significant volume of blood pools in
intrathoracic pressure. the lower extremity because of high
D. Lying-to-standing compliance of veins and venous
change in posture. return decreases. As a result of
decreased venous return the length
of ventricular cardiac muscle fibres
is decreased and in accordance with
‘Frank-Sterling relationship’ the
stroke volume and cardiac output
decreases.
A. Arteries. B. Arterioles. Capillaries. Answer is B (Arterioles): Concise
B. Arterioles. Medical Physiology by Chaudhri
C. Capillaries. Arterioles are the major site of
D. Venules. resistance to blood flow and are
hence often termed as ‘seat
ofperipheral vascular resistance
Small changes in their caliber cause
large changes in total peripheral
resistance and hence on distribution
of blood flow. Also called
‘precapillary resistance vessels ’,
arterioles, help in distribution of
blood flow by alteration in their
diameter, thereby increasing or
decreasing the peripheral resistance
to blood flow.
A. Kidney B. Brain Heart Answer is B (Brain): Ganong ‘The
B. Brain direct vasodilator action of C02 is
C. Liver most pronounced in the skin and
D. Heart brain - Ganong. As skin is not
present amongst the options, brain
is the answer of choice. The
metabolic changes that produce
vasodilation include, in most tissues,
decrease in oxygen tension and pH.
Increase in C02 tension and
osmolality also dilate the vessels.
The direct dilator action of C02 is
most pronounced in the skin and
brain – Ganong
A. Dissolved C02 D. Bicarbonate Carbamino- Answer is D (Bicarbonate): Ganong;
B. Carbonic Acid hemoglobin. Guyton ‘Transport of carbon dioxide
C. Carbamino- in the form of bicarbonate ions
hemoglobin. accounts for approximately 70% of
D. Bicarbonate the carbon dioxide transported from
the tissues to the lungs. Thus this is
by far the most important of all
methods of transport.
A. Anaemia D. Hypoventilation. CO poisoning Answer is D (Hypoventilation):
B. CO poisoning Physiology by Chaudhri Arterial
C. Moderate exercise oxygen tension may be reduced
D. Hypoventilation. either from a defect in oxygenation
(eg. Type Ifailure) or ventilation (type
II failure). It is not reduced in
anaemia, CO poisoning or moderate
exercise.
188 Barr body is found in the following
phase of the cell cycle:
A. Interphase A. Interphase Telophase Answer is A (Interphase): Tortora
B. Metaphase Principles o f Anatomy and
C. GI phase Physiology; Robbins; Chandrasoma
D. Telophase Taylor The inactive X can be seen in
the interphase nucleus as a darkly
staining small mass in contact with
the nuclear membrane known as the
Barr body or X chromatin - Robbins
‘Barr body is the inactivated X
chromosome. In non dividing
interphase cells it remains tightly
coiled and can be seen as a dark
staining body within the nucleus

189 The following statements concerning A. Carries secretomotor
chorda tympani nerve are true except fibers to submandibular
that it: gland
B. Joins lingual nerve in
infratemporal fossa
C. Is a brach o f facial
nerve
D. Contains
postganglionic
parasympathetic fibers.
D. Contains Joins lingual nerve Answer is D (Contains
postganglionic in infratemporal postganglionic parasympathetic
parasympathetic fibers. fossa fibres): BDC; Various references
Chorda tympai nerve contains
preganglionic
secretomotorparasympathetic fibres
that synapse on cell bodies in the
submandibular ganglion. It does not
contain postganglionic
parasympathetic fibres.

190 In an adult male, on per rectal
examination, the following structures
can be felt anteriorly except:
A. Internal iliac lymph A. Internal iliac lymph Bulb o f the penis. Answer is A (Internal iliac lymph
nodes nodes nodes): Gray’s; Snell's The internal
B. Bulb o f the penis. iliac lymph nodes do not lie in
C. Prostate. anterior relation to the rectum. When
D. Seminal vesicle when enlarged they may be palpated
enlarged. laterally.

191 The femoral ring is bounded by the
following structures except:
A. Femoral vein. C. Femoral artery. Lacunar ligament. Answer is C (Femoral artery): BDC
B. Inguinal ligament. Vol II The femoral ring refers to the
C. Femoral artery. upper opening of the most medial
D. Lacunar ligament. compartment of the femoral sheath
(femoral canal). The femoral artery
occupies the lateral compartment
and is separated from the femoral
ring by an intermediate
compartment, occupied by the
femoral vein.

192 Development of TMJ begins A. 10th A. 10th 10th ANS 1)10th At approximately 10
approximately at ____ week of B. 14th weeks the components of the fetus
intrauterine life: C. 24th future joint become evident in the
D. 36th mesenchyme between the condylar
cartilage of the mandible and the
developing temporal bone.

193 Except for ______ the mandibular
primary teeth are shed before their
maxillary counter parts:
A. First molars C. Second molar First molars ANS 3) Second molar In general,
B. Canine the pattern of exofoliation is
C. Second molar symmetrical for the right and left
D. Lateral incisor sides of the mouth. Except for
second molars, the mandibular
primary teeth are shed before their
maxillary counterparts.

194 A divided pulp canal is most likely to A. Root of a maxillary B. Root of a mandibular Lingual root of a ANS 2) Root of a mandibular canine
occur in the: canine canine maxillary 1st molar • Root of a mandibular canine may
B. Root of a mandibular show a divided pulp canal in around
canine 20-25% cases. • All the other
C. Root of a maxillary choices usually dont show such a
central incisor variation.
D. Lingual root of a
maxillary 1st molar
195 At what age is a child expected to
have 12 erupted primary teeth and 12 B. 6½ years
erupted permanent teeth:
196 The main bulk of the tooth is
composed of:
197 The duration of a single chewing
cycle is:
198 The maximum lateral movement in
the absence of TMJ dysfunction
including pain is:
199 The arterial supply to the jaw bones
and the teeth comes from all of the
following except:
200 The outline form of the cross section
of the cervical level of maxillary first
premolar is:
A. 4½ years C. 8½ years 12½ years ANS 3)8½ years • First 12
permanent teeth to erupt are four
C. 8½ years molars (1st) and eight incisors
D. 12½ years (upper & lower four each). Out of
these maxillary LI is last to erupt at
8-9 yrs of age which means that at
about 8 ½ yrs of age one is
expected to have 12 permanent
teeth. • Primary teeth left at 8 ½ yrs
are: Canine, IM, IIM in each
quadrant i.e. total of 12 primary
teeth. So at 8 ½ years, there are 12
deciduous & 12 permanent teeth.
A. Enamel B. Dentin Enamel ANS2)Dentin The main bulk of the
B. Dentin tooth is composed of dentin, which
C. Cementum is clear in a cross section of the
D. Pulp tooth.
A. 3 seconds C. 0.6 seconds 0.1 second ANS 3)0.6 seconds Chewing is
B. 2 seconds highly complex and oral motor
C. 0.6 seconds behavior usually seen in the frontal
D. 0.1 second plant in simple form. No archetypal
chewing cycle. The means of the
vertical dimension of the chewing
cycle are between 16 and 20 mm
and between 3 and 5 mm for lateral
movements. The duration of the
cycle varies between 0.6 to 1
second depending on the type of
food. The speed of masticatory
movement varies within each cycle,
according to types of foods and
among individuals. Speed, duration,
and form of the chewing cycle vary
with the type of occlusion, kind of
food, and presence of dysfunction.
A. 50 to 60 mm C. 10 to 12 mm ANS 3)10 to 12 mm The maximum
B. 8 to 10 mm lateral movement in the absence of
C. 10 to 12 mm TMJ muscle dysfunction, including
D. 3.5 to 6 mm pain is about 10 to 12 mm.
A. External maxillary B. Internal maxillary External maxillary ANS 2) Internal maxillary artery
artery artery artery Internal Maxillary Artery – The
B. Internal maxillary arterial supply to the jaw bones and
artery the teeth comes from the maxillary
C. Inferior alveolar artery, which is a branch of the
artery external carotid artery. The
D. External carotid branches of the maxillary artery that
artery feed the teeth directly are the
inferior alveolar artery and the
superior alveolar arteries.
A. Oval D. Kidney shaped Kidney shaped ANS 4)Kidney shaped The cross
B. Round section of the cervical level shows
C. Triangular the characteristic kidney-shaped
D. Kidney shaped outline form of the maxillary first
premolar.
201 The following statements regarding
clinical character of mandibular
micrognathia are true, except:??
A. A.Severe retrusion of C. C. Severe protrusion C. Severe Ans: (C) Mandibular micrognathia
chin of chin protrusion of chin means short mandible, results in
B. B.Steep mandibular retrusion of the chin.
angle
C. C. Severe protrusion
of chin
D. D. Deficient chin
button

202 The word “Agnathia” denotes:? A. A. Small jaw C. C. Missing maxilla or A. Small jaw Ans: (C) A=absence Gnathia=jaw
B. B. Large mandible mandible
C. C. Missing maxilla or
mandible
D. D. Absence of the
tongue

203 Macrognathia associated with A. A. Pierre Robin A. A. Pierre Robin A. Pierre Robin Ans: (A)
following condition? except: syndrome syndrome syndrome
B. B. Paget's disease
C. C. Acromegaly
D. D. Fibrous, dysplasia

204 The following factors attributed to A. A. Hormonal and D. D. Iatrogenic A. Hormonal and Ans: (D) Iatrogenic produced by
facial hemihypertrdphy excepf: chromosomal abnormolities chromosomal doctors during any procedure in the
abnormalities abnormalities hospital.
B. B. Incomplete
twinning of embryo
C. C. Localized
alteration of intrauterine
development
D. D. Iatrogenic
abnormolities

205 Van der Woude’s syndrome is:
A. A. Association of pits A. A. Association of pits A. Association of Ans:(A), Choice (C) Symptom
in the lower lip and cleft in the lower lip and cleft pits in the lower lip complex of Melkersson- Rosenthal
lip or cleft palate lip or cleft palate and cleft lip or cleft syndrome.
B. B. Double lip and palate
cleft palate
C. C.Cheilitis granuloma
tosa, facial paralysis
and scrotal tongue
D. D. None of the above

206 Development lip anomaly which A. A. Cleft lip C. C. Double lip D. Lip C. Double lip D. Ans: (C)
resembles Cupid’s bow in: B. B. Cheilitis pit Lip pit
granuloma tosa
C. C. Double lip D. Lip
pit
D. D. LIP PIT

207 Superficial suppurative type of A. A. Baelz's disease A. A. Baelz's disease B. Cheilitis Ans: (A) Choice “B & C” are other
cheilitis glandularis also known as: B. B. Cheilitis glandularis name for deep suppurative disease.
glandularis apostematosa
apostematosa
C. C. Myxadenitis
labialis
D. D. None of the above

208 Familial generalised intestinal A. A. Peutz-Jeghers A. A. Peutz-Jeghers A. Peutz-Jeghers Ans: (A)

polyposis and pigmented spots on syndrome syndrome syndrome
the face, oral cavity and some times B. B. Miescher'
hands and feet, are feature of: syndrome
C. C. Gardner's
syndrome
D. D. Addison's disease
209 Bilateral symmetrical, granular yellow A. A. Heck's disease B. B. Fordyce's granules C. Pigmentary Ans: (B) Ectopic sebaceous gland in
plaque in the buccal mucosa known B. B. Fordyce's granules disturbances oral cavity is known as Fordyce’s
as: C. C. Pigmentary associated with granules.
disturbances associated pharmaceutical
with pharmaceutical and and other
other chemicals chemicals
D. D. Benign and
malignant pigmented
neoplasm.

210 Dense diffuse, smooth or nodular A. A. Hereditary gingival A. A. Hereditary gingival A. Hereditary Ans: (A) Also called elephantiasis
growth of the gingival, usually fibromatosis fibromatosis gingival gingiva.
appears the time of eruption of B. B. Dilantin gingival fibromatosis
permanent incisor in one or both the hyperplasia
arches known as: C. C. Inflammatory
gingival hyperplasia
D. D. Eosinophilic
granuloma

211 Secondary macroglossia occurs in A. A. Hyperpituitarism D. D. Congenital A. Ans: (D) Primary macroglossia
following pathological conditions, B. B .Cretinism Hyperpituitarism occurs in congenital condition.
except: C. C. Tumour of the
tongue
D. D. Congenital

212 Partial cleft in the tongue results due A. A. Incomplete A. A. Incomplete merging D. All of the above Ans: (A)
to: merging and failure of and failure of groove
groove oblitration by oblitration by underlying
underlying mesenchyme mesenchyme
B. B. Failure of fusion
lateral lingual swelling
C. C. Failure of fusion of
occipital myotomes
D. D. All of the above

213 Ovoid or rhomphoid shaped reddish A. A. Benign migratory B. B. Median rhomboid B. Median Ans: (B) Results due to failure of
patch on dorsal surface of the tongue glossitis glossitis rhomboid glossitis fusion of tuberculum impar with two
is a feature of: B. B. Median rhomboid lateral swelling.
glossitis
C. C. Hairy tongue
D. D. Lingual tonsil

214 Hypertrophic filliform papillae a A. A. Geographic B. B. Hairy tongue C. Central Ans: (B) Hypertrophic filliform
histopathologic feature ' : of: tongue papillary atrophy papilla, secondary pigmentation
B. B. Hairy tongue of the tongue gives black hairy tongue
C. C. Central papillary appearance clinically.
atrophy of the tongue
D. D. Wandering rash

215 Following statements are true about A. A. Dilated tortuous C. C. Due to Ans: (C)
varix,except: vein depapillation of ventral
B. B. Increased surface of the tongue
hydrostatic pressure in
the venous end and
poorly supported by
surrounding tissue
C. C. Due to
depapillation of ventral
surface of the tongue
D. D. Common in ranine
veins
216 Kimura’s disease is: A. A. Angiolymphoid A. A. Angiolymphoid D. All of the above Ans: (A) Atypical endothelial
hyperplasia with hyperplasia with proliferation, lymphoid aggregates
eosinophilia eosinophilia numerous eosinophils and chronic
B. B. Angiolymphoid inflammatory cell infiltration.
follicular lymph node
malformation
C. C. Reactive lymphoid
hyperplasia
D. D. All of the above

217 The term xerostomia denotes: A. A. Dryness of the eye C. C. Dryness of the C. Dryness of the Ans: (C)
B. B. Dryness of the mouth mouth
stomach
C. C. Dryness of the
mouth
D. D. Increased
salivation

218 The following factors are causes for A. A. Radiation therapy B. B. Bell's palsy B. Bell's palsy Ans: (B) Drooping of saliva seen in
xerostomia, except: B. B. Bell's palsy Bell’s palsy.
C. C. Administration of
atropine and
antihistaminic drugs
D. D. Vitamin A
deficiency

219 The term “Atresia” denotes: A. A. Congenital A. A. Congenital D. Atrophy of the Ans: (A)
occlusion or absence of occlusion or absence of salivary glands
one or more of the one or more of the major
major salivary gland salivary gland ducts
ducts
B. B. Widespread
distribution of normal
accessory salivary
glands
C. C. Hyperplasia of the
palatal glands
D. D. Atrophy of the
salivary glands

220 True generalized microdontia A. A. Hereditary B. B. Pituitary dwarfism D. Down's Ans: (B)
commonly occurs in: ectodermal dysplasia syndrome
B. B. Pituitary dwarfism
C. C. Congenital syphilis
D. D. Down's syndrome

221 Identify the Instrument?> A. (A). Crown Crimping A. (A). Crown Crimping (B). Adams Plie Ans. (A). Crown Crimping Plirer
Plirer r Plirer r
B. (B). Adams Plie
C. (C). Crown removing
plier
D. (D). Crown Scissors

(photo_gallery/147859507017.PNG)

222 Identify the Instrument??. A. (A). Crown Crimping D. (D). Crown Scissors (D). Crown Ans. (D). Crown Scissors
Plirer Scissors
B. (B). Adams
C. (C). Crown removing
plier
D. (D). Crown Scissors
(photo_gallery/147859574718.PNG)
223 Identify the Instrument?. A. (A). Crown Crimping C. (C). Crown removing (C). Crown Ans. (C). Crown removing plier
Plirer plier removing plier
B. (B). Adams Plier
C. (C). Crown removing
plier
D. (D). Crown Scissors

(photo_gallery/147859755319.PNG)

224 Movement encircled as shown in A. (A). Zygomaticus A. (A). Zygomaticus (A). Zygomaticus Ans:(A) Zygomaticus major-(SMILE
above photograph is due to action of major major major MUSCLE)
which muscle? B. (B). Frontalis
C. C). Procerus
D. ( (D). Platysma

(photo_gallery/147859790120.PNG)

225 The procedure is indicated in? A. (A). Type 1 A. (A). Type 1 (D). All of the Answer: (A). Type 1 embrasures
embrasures embrasures above
B. (B). Type II
embrasures
C. (C). Type III
embrasures .
D. (D). All of the above

(photo_gallery/147859820621.PNG)

226 The chromosome shown in this A. (A). Acrocentric A. (A). Acrocentric (B). Ans:(a) Acrocentric
picture indicates a?? B. (B). Submetacentric Submetacentric
C. (C). Telocentric
D. (D). Metacentric

(photo_gallery/147859854822.PNG)

227 During Botox treatment of patient, A. (A). Levator A. (A). Levator (A). Levator Ans.(A) Levator palpabrae
neurotoxin was injected into following Palpabrae superioris Palpabrae superioris Palpabrae superioris
muscle that caused a raised upper B. (B). Procerus superioris
eyelid. The muscle involved was? C. (C). Orbicularis
D. (D). Occipitofrontalis

(photo_gallery/1478599020JJJ.PNG)
228 Which type of Major Connector is A. (A). Antero A. (A). Antero (A). Antero Ans. (A). Antero posteriorPalatal
used in the Cast Partial Denture posteriorPalatal strap posteriorPalatal strap posteriorPalatal strap
Shown in the Colour plate? B. (B). Palatal Bar strap
C. (C). Horse shoe
shape
D. (D). Continuous Bar

(photo_gallery/147859934623.PNG)

229 Identify the Part of Cast Partial A. (A). Retentive Arm B. (B). Reciprocal Arm (A). Retentive Arm Ans. (B). Reciprocal Arm
Denture marked with arrow.? B. (B). Reciprocal Arm
C. (C). Proximal Part
D. (D). Rest

(photo_gallery/147859955724.PNG)

230 Identify the Part of Cast Partial A. (A). Retentive Arm A. (A). Retentive Arm (A). Retentive Arm Ans. (A). Retentive Arm
Denture marked with arrow.?? B. B). Reciprocal Arm
C. (C). Proximal Part
D. ((D). Rest

(photo_gallery/147859978025.PNG)

231 Identify the type of minor connector A. (A). Mesh work B. (B). Latice Work (B). Latice Work Ans. (B). Latice Work
marked in the colour plate? B. (B). Latice Work
C. (C). Nail head
D. (D). Wire

(photo_gallery/147860003825.PNG)

232 Following statements regarding A. A. It is formed D. D. It is filled with A. It is formed ANS :(D) It is mucoprotein or
pellicle are true except: immediately after the bacteria immediately after glycoprotein, free from bacteria-
brushing the brushing
B. B. Completely covers
the tooth surface
C. C. Mature thickness
is about 0.1 to 0.8
microns
D. D. It is filled with
bacteria

233 All given stains in the teeth are A. A. Tobacco tar B. B. Tetracycline D. Chromogenic Ans (B) It is endogenous stain due
produced by exogenous substances, B. B. Tetracycline bacteria to administration of tetracycline
except: C. C. Chlorhexidine during formative stage of tooth.
mouth wash
D. D. Chromogenic
bacteria

234 Causative organism for ANUG is: A. A. Borrelia vincenti D. D. Both A and B A. Borrelia vincenti Ans: (D) It is a fusospirochetal
B. B. Fusiform bacilli infection.
C. C. Spirochetes
D. D. Both A and B
 235 Drugs most commonly cause gingival A. A. Antihypertensive C. C. Both A and B C. Both A and B Ans: (C) Both these drugs calcium
enlargement are: B. B. Antiepileptic channel blocker in antihypertensive
C. C. Both A and B drug also causes gingival
D. D. Only B enlargement.

236 Following systemic factors causing A. A. Vitamin C D. D. Poor oral hygiene B. Pregnancy Ans: (D) It is a local factor causing
gingival enlargement deficiency gingival enlargement.
B. B. Pregnancy
C. C. Leukemia
D. D. Poor oral hygiene

237 The term gingival recession denotes: A. A. Gingiva enlarges B. B. Gingiva moves B. Gingiva moves Ans: (B)
and covers the CE towards apex exposes towards apex
junction. the cementum exposes the
B. B. Gingiva moves cementum
towards apex exposes
the cementum
C. C. Gingival covers
the whole tooth
D. D . None of the
above

238 Periodontal pocket extends apical to A. A. Infrabony pocket A. A. Infrabony pocket B. Suprabony Ans: (A)
the crest of the alveolar bone is B. B. Suprabony pocket pocket
called: C. C . Pseudo pocket
D. D . All of the above

239 If the pathological changes limited to A. A. Infrabony pocket C. C . Pseudo pocket D Four walled Ans: (C)
the gingiva, gingival tissue increases B. B. Suprabony pocket pocket
in bulk that increases probing depth C. C . Pseudo pocket
is called: D. D Four walled pocket

240 Periodontosis is otherwise called: A. A. Juvenile A. A. Juvenile D . Periodontal Ans: (A)

periodontitis periodontitis traumatism
B. B. Desquamative
gingivitis
C. C. Rapidly
progressive periodontitis
D. D . Periodontal
traumatism

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