Q11.

If the temperature of a crystal diode increases, then leakage current

………..
1. remains the same
2. decreases
3. increases
4. becomes zero
Answer: 3

Q12. The PIV rating of a crystal diode is ………….. That of equivalent

vacuum diode
1. the same as
2. lower than
3. more than
4. none of the above
Answer: 2

Q14. The knee voltage of a crystal diode is approximately equal to

………….
1. applied voltage
2. breakdown voltage
3. forward voltage
4. barrier potential
Answer: 4

Q20. If the doping level in a crystal diode is increased, the width of

depletion layer………..
1. remains the same
2. is decreased
3. in increased
4. none of the above
Answer: 3

Q30. A zener diode has ………….. breakdown voltage

1. undefined
2. sharp
3. zero
4. none of the above
Answer :2

Q31. ……………. rectifier has the lowest forward resistance

1. solid state
2. vacuum tube
3. gas tube
4. none of the above
Answer :1

Q33. The disadvantage of a half-wave rectifier is that the……………….

1. components are expensive
2. diodes must have a higher power rating
3. output is difficult to filter
4. none of the above
Answer: 3

Q40. A 10 V power supply would use …………………. as filter capacitor.

1. paper capacitor
2. mica capacitor
3. electrolytic capacitor
4. air capacitor
Answer: 3

Q41. A 1,000 V power supply would use ……….. As a filter capacitor

1. paper capacitor
2. air capacitor
3. mica capacitor
4. electrolytic capacitor
Answer: 1

Q42. The ……………….. Filter circuit results in the best voltage regulation
1. choke input
2. capacitor input
3. resistance input
4. none of the above
Answer: 1

Q44. The maximum efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is ………………..

1. 40.6 %
2. 81.2 %
3. 50 %
4. 25 %
Answer: 1

Q45. The most widely used rectifier is ……………….

1. half-wave rectifier
2. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
3. bridge full-wave rectifier
4. none of the above
Answer: 3

Q5. In a pnp transistor, the current carriers are ………….

1. acceptor ions
2. donor ions
3. free electrons
4. holes
Answer: 4

Q6. The collector of a transistor is …………. doped

1. heavily
2. moderately
3. lightly
4. none of the above
Answer: 2

Q9. The emitter of a transistor is ………………… doped

1. lightly
2. heavily
3. moderately
4. none of the above
Answer: 2

Q10. In a transistor, the base current is about ………….. Of emitter

current
1. 25%
2. 20%
3. 35 %
4. 5%
Answer: 4

Q11. At the base-emitter junctions of a transistor, one finds ……………

1. a reverse bias
2. a wide depletion layer
3. low resistance
4. none of the above
Answer: 3

Q23. The most commonly used transistor arrangement is ……………

arrangement
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
4. none of the above
Answer: 1

Q24. The input impedance of a transistor connected in ……………..

Arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
4. none of the above
Answer: 2

Q25. The output impedance of a transistor connected in …………….

arrangement is the highest

1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
4. none of the above
Answer: 3

Q26. The phase difference between the input and output voltages in a
common base arrangement is …………….
1. 180o
2. 90o
3. 270o
4. 0o
Answer: 4

Q27. The power gain in a transistor connected in ……………. arrangement

is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
4. none of the above
Answer: 1

Q28. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a
transistor connected in common emitter arrangement is ………………
1. 0o
2. 180o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer: 2
Q29. The voltage gain in a transistor connected in ……………….
arrangement is the highest
1. common base
2. common collector
3. common emitter
4. none of the above
Answer: 3

Q30. As the temperature of a transistor goes up, the base-emitter resistance

……………
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
Answer: 1

Q31. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in common collector

arrangement is ………..
1. equal to 1
2. more than 10
3. more than 100
4. less than 1
Answer: 4

Q32. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a
transistor connected in common collector arrangement is ………………
1. 180o
2. 0o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer: 2

Q36. BC 147 transistor indicates that it is made of …………..

1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
4. none of the above
Answer: 2

Q40. In a transistor, signal is transferred from a …………… circuit

1. high resistance to low resistance
2. low resistance to high resistance
3. high resistance to high resistance
4. low resistance to low resistance
Answer: 2

Q41. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of

………….
1. electron current in the emitter
2. electron current in the collector
3. hole current in the emitter
4. donor ion current
Answer: 3

Q42. The leakage current in CE arrangement is ……………. that in CB

arrangement
1. more than
2. less than
3. the same as
4. none of the above
Answer: 1

Q45. The collector-base junction in a transistor has ……………..

1. forward bias at all times
2. reverse bias at all times
3. low resistance
4. none of the above
Answer: 2

Q3. Operating point represents …………..

1. Values of IC and VCE when signal is applied
2. The magnitude of signal
3. Zero signal values of IC and VCE
4. None of the above
Answer: 3

Q5. Transistor biasing is generally provided by a …………….

1. Biasing circuit
2. Bias battery
3. Diode
4. None of the above
Answer: 1

Q9. The circuit that provides the best stabilization of operating point is
…………
1. Base resistor bias
2. Collector feedback bias
3. Potential divider bias
4. None of the above
Answer: 3

Q11. An ideal value of stability factor is …………..

1. 100
2. 200
3. More than 200
4. 1
Answer: 4

Q12. The zero signal IC is generally ……………… amp in the initial stages
of a transistor amplifier
1. 4
2. 1
3. 3
4. More than 10
Answer: 2

Q14. The disadvantage of base resistor method of transistor biasing is that

it …………
1. Is complicated
2. Is sensitive to changes in ß
3. Provides high stability
4. None of the above
Answer: 2

Q17. The leakage current in a silicon transistor is about ………… the

leakage current in a germanium transistor
1. One hundredth
2. One tenth
3. One thousandth
4. One millionth
Answer: 3

Q21. The disadvantage of voltage divider bias is that it has ………….

1. High stability factor
2. Low base current
3. Many resistors
4. None of the above
Answer: 3
Q22. Thermal runaway occurs when ……….
1. Collector is reverse biased
2. Transistor is not biased
3. Emitter is forward biased
4. Junction capacitance is high
Answer: 2

Q23. The purpose of resistance in the emitter circuit of a transistor

amplifier is to ………….
1. Limit the maximum emitter current
2. Provide base-emitter bias
3. Limit the change in emitter current
4. None of the above
Answer: 3

Q25. The base resistor method is generally used in ………

1. Amplifier circuits
2. Switching circuits
3. Rectifier circuits
4. None of the above
Answer: 2

Q28. The stability factor of a collector feedback bias circuit is ………..

That of base resistor bias.
1. The same as
2. More than
3. Less than
4. None of the above
Answer : 3

Q30. If the value of collector current IC increases, then the value of

VCE …………
1. Remains the same
2. Decreases
3. Increases
4. None of the above
Answer : 2

Q31. If the temperature increases, the value of VCE …………

1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
4. None of the above
Answer : 3

Q32. The stabilisation of operating point in potential divider method is

provided by ……….
1. RE consideration
2. RC consideration
3. VCC consideration
4. None of the above
Answer: 1

Q33. The value of VBE …………….

1. Depends upon IC to moderate extent
2. Is almost independent of IC
3. Is strongly dependant on IC
4. None of the above
Answer : 2

Q34. When the temperature changes, the operating point is shifted due to
…….
1. Change in ICBO
2. Change in VCC
3. Change in the values of circuit resistance
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Q36. In a particular biasing circuit, the value of RE is about ………

1. 10 kΩ
2. 1 MΩ
3. 100 kΩ
4. 800 Ω
Answer : 4

Q9. The slope of a.c. load line is ……………… that of d.c. load line
1. The same as
2. More than
3. Less than
4. None of the above
Answer : 2

Q18. In a CE amplifier, the phase difference between voltage across

collector load RC and signal voltage is ………..
1. 180o
2. 270o
3. 90o
4. 0o
Answer : 4

Q24. The purpose of a coupling capacitor in a transistor amplifier is to

……….
1. Increase the output impedance of transistor
2. Protect the transistor
3. Pass a.c. and block d.c.
4. Provide biasing
Answer : 3

Q25. The purpose of emitter capacitor (i.e. capacitor across RE) is to

……….
1. Avoid voltage gain drop
2. Forward bias the emitter
3. Reduce noise in the amplifier
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Q26. The ratio of output impedance of a CE amplifier is ……………

1. About 1
2. Low
3. High
4. Moderate
Answer : 4

Q27. If a transistor amplifier feeds a load of low resistance (e.g. speaker),

then voltage gain will be ………….
1. High
2. Very high
3. Moderate
4. Low
Answer : 4

Q28. If the input capacitor of a transistor amplifier is short-circuited,

then………
1. Transistor will be destroyed
2. Biasing conditions will change
3. Signal will not reach the base
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q29. The radio wave picked up by the receiving antenna is amplified about
…….. times to have reasonable sound output
1. 1000
2. A million
3. 100
4. 10000
Answer : 2

Q30. A CE amplifier is also called ………….. circuit

1. Grounded emitter
2. Grounded base
3. Grounded collector
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Q31. The d.c. load of a transistor amplifier is generally ………….. that of a

a.c. load
1. The same as
2. Less than
3. More than
4. None of the above
Answer : 3

Q32. The value of collector load RC in a transistor amplifier is ………… the

output impedance of the transistor.
1. The same as
2. Less than
3. More than
4. None of the above
Answer : 2

Q34. In transistor amplifiers, we generally use ………….. capacitors.

1. Electrolytic
2. Mica
3. Paper
4. Air
Answer : 1

Q38. A transistor amplifier has high output impedance because ………..

1. Emitter is heavily doped
2. Collector has reverse bias
3. Collector is wider than emitter or base
4. None of the above
Answer : 2

Q39. For highest power gain, one would use …………….. configuration
1. CC
2. CB
3. CE
4. none of the above
Answer : 3

Q40. CC configuration is used for impedance matching because its

……………..
1. Input impedance is very high
2. Input impedance is low
3. Output impedance is very low
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Q7. Transformer coupling is used for ………….. amplification

1. Power
2. Voltage
3. Current
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Q12. ………….. coupling provides the maximum voltage gain

1. RC
2. Transformer
3. Direct
4. Impedance
Answer : 2

Q35. RC coupling is generally confined to low power applications because

of ………
1. Large value of coupling capacitor
2. Low efficiency
3. Large number of components
4. None of the above
Answer : 2

Q36. The number of stages that can be directly coupled is limited because
……..
1. Changes in temperature cause thermal instability
2. Circuit becomes heavy and costly
3. It becomes difficult to bias the circuit
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Q38. The upper or lower cut off frequency is also called …………..
frequency
1. Resonant
2. Sideband
3. 3 db
4. None of the above
Answer : 3

Q39. The bandwidth of a single stage amplifier is …………. that of a

multistage amplifier
1. More than
2. The same as
3. Less than
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 1

Q40. The value of emitter capacitor CE in a multistage amplifier is about

……..
1. 1 µF
2. 100 pF
3. 0.01 µF
4. 50 µF
Answer : 4

Q4. The maximum efficiency of resistance loaded class A power amplifier is

……..
1. 5%
2. 50%
3. 30%
4. 25%
Answer: 4

Q5. The maximum efficiency of transformer coupled class A power

amplifier is ………………
1. 30%
2. 50%
3. 80%
4. 45%
Answer: 2

Q6. Class……. power amplifier has the highest collector efficiency

1. C
2. A
3. B
4. AB
Answer: 1

Q7. Power amplifiers handle …………. signals compare to voltage

amplifiers
1. Small
2. Very small
3. Large
4. None of the above
Answer: 3

Q8. In class A operation, the operating point is generally located ………. of

the DC. load line.
1. At cut off point
2. At the middle
3. At saturation point
4. None of the above
Answer: 2

Q10. A power amplifier has comparatively …………….. β

1. Small
2. Large
3. Very large
4. None of the above
Answer: 1

Q11. The maximum collector efficiency of class B operation is ……………..

1. 50%
2. 90%
3. 5%
4. 5%
Answer: 4

Q12. A 2-transistor class B power amplifier is commonly called ………..

Amplifier
1. Dual
2. Push-pull
3. Symmetrical
4. Differential
Answer: 2

Q13. If a transistor is operated in such a way that output current flows for
60o of the input signal, then it is …………… operation
1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
4. None of the above
Answer: 3

Q15. When a transistor is cut off……………..

1. Maximum voltage appears across transistor
2. Maximum current flows
3. Maximum voltage appears across load
4. None of the above
Answer: 1

Q16. A class A power amplifier is sometimes called ………….. Amplifier

1. Symmetrical
2. Single-ended
3. Reciprocating
4. Differential
Answer: 2

Q17. Class ………….. Operation gives the maximum distortion

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. AB
Answer: 3

Q18. The output stage of a multistage amplifier usually employs ………..

1. Push-pull amplifier
2. Preamplifier
3. Class A power amplifier
4. None of the above
Answer: 1

Q19. The size of a power transistor is made considerably large to …………

1. Provide easy handling
2. Dissipate heat
3. Facilitate connections
4. None of the above
Answer: 2

Q20. Low efficiency of a power amplifier results in ……………….

1. Low forward bias
2. Less battery consumption
3. More battery consumption
4. None of the above
Answer: 3

Q21. The driver stage usually employs………….

1. Class A power amplifier
2. Push-pull amplifier
3. Class C amplifier
4. None of the above
Answer: 1

Q28. The push-pull circuit must use …………… operation

1. Class A
2. Class C
3. Class B
4. Class AB
Answer: 3

Q32. Power amplifiers generally use transformer coupling because

transformer permits……..
1. Cooling of the circuit
2. Impedance matching
3. Distortion less output
4. Good frequency response
Answer: 2

Q33. Transformer coupling can be used in …………… amplifiers

1. Either power or voltage
2. Only power
3. Only voltage
4. None of the above
Answer: 1

Q34. The output transformer used in a power amplifier is a …………….

transformer
1. 1:1 ratio
2. Step-up
3. Step-down
4. None of the above
Answer: 3

Q35. The most important consideration in power amplifier is ………..

1. Biasing the circuit
2. Collector efficiency
3. To keep the transformer cool
4. None of the above
Answer: 2

Q36. An AF amplifier is shielded to …………

1. Keep the amplifier cool
2. Protect from rusting
3. Prevent induction due to stray magnetic fields
4. None of the above
Answer: 3

Q37. The pulsating dc. applied to power amplifier causes ……………..

1. Burning of transistor
2. Hum in the circuit
3. Excessive forward voltage
4. None of the above
Answer : 2

Q38. The disadvantage of impedance matching is that it ………………….

1. Gives distorted output
2. Gives low power output
3. Requires a transformer
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Q39. If the gain versus frequency curve of a transistor amplifier is not flat,
then there is distortion.
1. Amplitude
2. Intermodulation
3. Frequency
4. None of the above
Answer: 3

Q40. The most costly coupling is ……………… coupling

1. RC
2. Direct
3. Impedance
4. Transformer
Answer: 4

Q11. Emitter follower is used for …………

1. Current gain
2. Impedance matching
3. Voltage gain
4. None of the above
Answer: 2

Q12. The voltage gain of an emitter follower is ………..

1. Much less than 1
2. Approximately equal to 1
3. Greater than 1
4. None of the above
Answer: 2

Q13. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its

output impedance ……..
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer: 1

Q14. Emitter follower is a ……………….. Circuit

1. Voltage feedback
2. Current feedback
3. Both voltage and current feedback
4. None of the above
Answer: 2

Q15. If voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its output

impedance …………..
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
4. None of the above
Answer: 3
Q16. When a negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier, its
bandwidth……….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. Insufficient data
Answer: 1

Q17. An emitter follower has ………… input impedance

1. Zero
2. Low
3. High
4. None of the above
Answer: 3

Q19. The output impedance of an emitter follower is ……….

1. High
2. Very high
3. Almost zero
4. Low
Answer: 4