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OBSERVERS (ENGINEERING)
PREVIOUS PAPER - 2013
CIVIL ENGINEERING e t
1. The boundary layer thickness in turbulent flow varies as
. n
1) X 1/7 2) X1/2 3) X 4/5

h a
4) X3/5

2.
Where X is the distance from the leading edge
Surge wave in a rectangular channel is an example of
i b
a. steady flow b. unsteady flow
a t
c. uniform flow d. non -uniform flow

p r
The correcet answser is
1) both a and c
d u
2) both b and c 3) both a and d 4) both b and d
3.
a
If f is friction factor, then Chezy's coefficient is proportional to

n 

4.
1) f

.e e 2) √ f

For any channel section, the specific energy increases with

1
3) 
f
1
4) 

√f

w w
a. increase in depth of sub -critical flow
e t
b. increase in depth of super -critical flow

w
c. decrease in depth of sub -critical flow
n
d. decrease in depth of super -critical flow

.
The correct answer is
1) both a and b 2) both a and d 3) both b and c
h a 4) both c and d
5. The mild slope profile M2 occurs for depth

i b
1) above normal but below critical
3) below normal and below critical
a t
2) above critical but below normal
4) above normal and above critical

6.
dy

p r dE
In a gradually varied flow, if =  is positive, then =  will be
dx dx

7.
1) always zero
S2 profile can occur at
a du
2) positive if y > Yc 3) negative if y > Y c 4) always negative

e n
1) a break in slope from mild to steep 2) a break in slope from steep to mild

e
3) the downstream of a sluice gate on a steep slope 4) a sudden drop in bed in a steep slope

.
ww
8. Figure shown below represents gradually varied flow in an open channel with a break in bed slope
CDL

w Hrizontal
CDL
NDL
Types of water surface profiels occuring from left to right are
1) H3, S3 2) H2, S2 3) H2, M2 4) H3, M2

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9. The critical velocity for a flow of qm3 g-1 per metre width of a wide rectangular channel is given by
q2 1/8 
[ ]
1) 
g
2) (qg)1/8 3) √ qg 4) None of above

10. In the most efficient trapezoidal Section, which of the following is not true?

e t
1) Top width is twice the length of the sloping side
2) Hydraulic mean depth is half the depth of flow
. n
3) Shape is half of regular hexagon

h a
11.
4) Depth must be equal to top width
Consider the following measuring structures:
i b
a. submerged broad - created weir

a t
b. free broad - created weir
c. free sharp - created weir

p r d. free ogee spillway

The correct sequence of the increasing order of the discharge coefficient of these structures is
1) a, b, d, c

d u
2) b, a, c, d 3) b, a d, c 4) a, b, c, d
12.
a
Which of the following equations are used for the derivation of the differential equation for water

n
surface profile in open channel flow?

.e e
a. continuity equation
c. momentum equation
b. energy equation

w w
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

e t
13. w
1) a, b and c 2) Only a and c 3) Only a and b
n
4) Only b and c

.
Consider the following statements in respect of specific energy of flow in an open channel of fixed
width:

h a
a. There is only one specific energy curve for a given channel

i b
b. Alternate depths are depths of flow at which the specific energy is the same
c. Critical flow occurs when the specific energy is minimum

a t
Which of the above statements are correct?
1) Only a and b 2) Only a and c
p r 3) Only b and c 4) a, b and c
14.

d u
The chlorine demand of a water sample was found to be 0.5 mg/l. The amount of bleaching powder

1) 1.67 mg a
containing 30% available chlorine to be added to treat one litre of such a water sample is

n 2) 1.92 mg 3) 1.01 mg 4) 1.36 mg

15.

.e e
The populations of a town in three consecutive years are 5000, 7000 and 8400 respectively. The
population of the town in the fourth consecutive year according to geometrical increase method is

ww
1) 9500 2) 9800 3) 10920 4) 10100
16.
w
The rate of filtration of pressure filters is
1) less than that of slow and filters
2) in between the filtration rate of slow and filters and rapid sand filters
3) greater than that of rapid sand filters
4) equal to that of slow and filters

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17. When the coefficient of rugosity is increased from 0.01 to 0.02, the gradient of a pipe of a given
diameter to carry the same flow at the same velocity will be

1) increased by 4 times 2) increased by 2 times 3) decreased by √ 2 times 4) decreased by 4 times
18. The water supply to a house begins with the connection of a service pipe with the municipal water
mains. The connection comprises
e t
a. stop cock b. goose neck c. ferrule
. n
d. water meter
The correct sequence of these connection is
a
19.
1) a, b, c, d 2) c, a, b, d
Consider the following statements:
3) c, b, a, d

i bh 4) a, b, d, c

a t
While deciding to locate an intake structure for a city situated on a river bank, intake for water supply
should be located
a. in deep water
p r b. sufficiently away from shore lines
c. upstream of the populated city

d u d. near navigational channel

20.
1) a, b and d

n a
2) a, b and c 3) b, c and d 4) a, c and d
For a flow of 5-7 MLD and a detention time of 2 hours, the surface area of a rectangular

.
1) 20 m2e e
sedimentation tank to remove all particles having settling velocity of 0.33 mm g-1 is
2) 100 m2 3) 400 m2 4) 200 m2
21.
w w e t
If the total hardness of water is greater than its total alkalinity, the carbonate hardness will be equal to

w
1) total alkalinity 2) total hardness

. n
22.
3) total hardness - total alkalinity
Uniformity coefficient of filter sand is given by
4) non-carbonate hardness

h a
ib
D50 D50 D60 D60
1)  2)  3)  4) 

23.
D5 D10

a tD6 D10
When two identical centrifugal pumps are operating in series on a common rising main, then

r
1) the pressure in the rising main will be nearly doubled, while the discharge will remain the same

p
d u
2) the discharge will be nearly doubled, while the pressure remains the same
3) discharge as well as pressure in the rising main will be doulbled

n a
4) discharge as well as pressure in the rising main will increase but not become doubled
24.

.e e
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
1) Aerator - Excess CO2 and H2S

w ww
2) Rapid sand filter - Suspended matter
3) Sedimentation tank - Settleable and colloidal matter
4) Slow and filter - Hardness
25. The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted water, at normal temperatures is found to be of the
order of
1) 1 mg/l 2) 5 mg/l 3) 50 mg/l 4) 100 mg/l

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26. Most suitable section of sewer in separte sewage system is
1) rectangular section 2) circular section
3) standard form of egg shaped sewer 4) modified egg shaped section
27. The correct relation between theoritical oxygen demand (TOD), biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)

e t
and chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by
1) TOD > BOD > COD 2) TOD > COD > BOD 3) BOD > COD > TOD 4) COD > BOD > TOD
. n
28.

h a
In a BOD test, 1.0 mL of raw sewage was diluted to 100 mL and the dissolved oxygen concentration

The BOD of raw sewage will be

i b
of diluted sample at the begining was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the end of 5 day incubation at 20o C.

at
1) 100 ppm 2) 200 ppm 3) 300 ppm 4) 400 ppm
29. Dissolved oxygen in stream is
1) maximum at noon
p r 2) minimum at noon
3) maximum at midnight

d u 4) same throughout the day

30.

n a
One litre of sewage, when allowed to settle for 30 minutes gives volume of 27 cm3, If the dry weight
of this sludge is 3 grams, then its sludge volume index will be
1) 9

.e e 2) 24 3) 30 4) 81
31.

w w
1) coplanar concurred forces 2) coplanar non -concurrent forces
e t
The forces, whose lines of action lie in the same plane and are meeting at one point, are known as

w
3) non -coplanar concurrent forces 4) none of the above

. n
32.
called
h a
A force P, of high magnitude acts on a body for a small interval of time ∆ t. The product of P and ∆ t is

1) impulsive force
b
2) kinetic energy of the body

i
33.
3) impulse

a t
4) none of the above
When two bodies of mass M and 2M are connected by a light inextensible string and pass over a smooth
pulley, then

p r
d u
1) tension in both sides of the string will be equal
2) tension in one side of the string is two times the tension in the other side of the string

n a
3) tension in one side of the string is half the tension in the other side of the string

34.
. e
4) none of the above

e
A body is moving with a velocity of 10 m/s. The time required to stop the body within a distance of

ww
5 m is equal to

35. w
1) 3 seconds 2) 5 seconds 3) 1 second 4) 0.5 second
A body of weight W is resting on a horizontal plane. A force P is applied parallel to the plane to move
the body. The value of P necessary to move the body against the resistance of friction is
W
1)  2) W sin φ 3) W tan φ 4) W cos φ
tan φ

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36. The centre of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of concurrence of
1) the right bisectors of the angles of the triangle
2) the medians of the triangle
3) the altitudes from the vertices on the opposite side

e t
37.
4) none of the above
The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R is given by
. n
MR2
1) 
2
2)  MR2
MR2
3) 
h a 3
4)  MR2

38.
12 5 36

i b 5
The gravitational acceleration at a place is 6 times the value of gravitational acceleration on Earth. The
weight of the body at that place will be
1) one -sixth of the total weight on Earth
a t
2) same as an Earth
3) six times the weight on Earth
p r 4) none of the above
39.
u
The velocity of a particle moving with SHM is maximum, when it is at

d
1) extreme position

n a
3) a point between its mean and extreme position
2) its mean position
4) none of the above
40.

.e e
The maximum velocity of a particle moving with SHM is 2 m/s and maximum acceleration is 20 m/s2.
The frequency of the motion is equal to

wπw
20
1) 
10
2) 
π
5
3) 
π
1
4) 
π
e t
41.
w n
If a body is moving in a circular path, a force comes into play which acts along the radius of the

.
1) centrifugal force 2) centripetal force 3) shear force a
circular path and is directed towards the centre of the path. This force is called

h 4 none of the above

42.
b
A horizontal force of 40 N is applied on a body of weight 120 N, placed on a horizontal plane. If the

i
body is just on the point of motion, the angle of friction would be
1) 20° 2) 16.7 °
a 3) 10°
t 4) 25°
43.
r
In a composite bar, the load distribution among different materials of which it is made is based on the
assumption that all the materials will have
p
1) equal areas
3) same strain
a du 2) same Young's modulus
4) same stress
44. A strut is a member which

e n
e
1) connects two joints

.
ww
2) is subjected to axial tension primarily
3) is subjected to axial compressive force predominantly

45.
w
4) is subjected to bending moment and shear force along with any axial force
A plate 100 mm wide, 10 mm thick is having a hole of diameter 10 mm, symmetrical about the axis of
the plane. The plate is subjected to a force of 9 kN. The maximum stress on a section passing through
the centre of the hole will be
1) 10 N mm-2 2) > 10 N mm-2 3) < 10 N mm-2 4) 9 N mm-2

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46. A cantilever of span L is subjected to bending moment M at the free end. The shear force diagram
will be
1) a triangle with maximum ordinate at the fixed end
2) a rectangle with ordinate M
ML2
e t
3) a parabola with maximum ordiante of  at the fixed end
2
. n
4) no shear force at all

h a
47. In case of T - section, maximum bending stress will occurs at
1) neutral axis
i b
2) extreme fibre in the flange
3) extreme fibre in the web

a t
4) junction of web and flange
48.
WL2

WL3 r
A cantilever AB is subjected to a concentrated load at the free end. The slope and deflection at the free

p
and  . If the same load is applied at mid-span point, the deflection at
end are respectively
2EI 3EI

d u
the free-end will be
5
 
WL3
n a 5
 
WL3 WL3
 
WL3

49.
1)
384

.e e EI
2)
48 EI
3)
16 EI
4)
16 EI
Polar moment of inertia of a hollow circular section with external diameter D and internal diameter d

π
w
is equal to

w π π π
e t
w
1)  (D4 - d4)
64
2)  (D3 - d3)
64
3)  (D4 - d4)
32
. n
4)  (D3 - d3)
32
50.
a
A thin cylinder of diameter 100 mm and thickness 5 mm is subjected to a internal fluid pressure of
10 N mm -2. The hoop stress is
h
51.
1) 100 N mm-2 2) 10 N mm-2 3) 50 N mm-2

t ib 4) 5000 N mm-2
A simply supported beam of span L carries a UDL of w N m-1. What is the magnitude of

the UDL?
r a
concentrated load to be supplied at the centre of this beam which would produce the same deflection as

3
1)  wL
wL
2) 
u p 5
3)  wL
7
4)  wL

52.
8 2

a d 8 8
Three beams made of same material (but of different sections) of same space are subjected to same

n
maximum bending moment. Then which section will have the maximum weight per unit length?

e
.e
1) circular 2) square 3) rectangular 4) none of the above

ww
53. A spring has a stiffness of K. If it is cut into two equal portions, the stiffness of the cut portion of the
spring is

54.
w
1) k
k
2) 
2
Which of the following relations is correct?
3) 2k
k
4) 
4

1) factor of safety = crippling load - safe load 2) factor of safety = crippling load/ safe load
3) factor of safety = crippling load × safe load 4) factor of safety = safe load / crippling load

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55. The maximum eccentricity of the vertical load on a short column of external diameter D and internal
diameter D, for no tension to occur, is
8D D2 + d2 D2 + d2 D2 - d2
1)  2)  3)  4) 
56.
2 2
D +d 8D D 8D

e t
A solid circular shaft of diameter D is subjected to an axial load to produce a stress of p N cm-2. If the

n
same axial load is applied to a hollow circular shaft of external diameter D and internal diameter D/2,

.
the corresponding stress produced would be
p
1)  N cm-2
p
2)  N cm-2
3p
3)  N cm-2
h a 4p
4)  N cm-2

57.
6 4 2

i b 3
A body is subjected to an axial tensile stress p. Then the normal stress on any oblique plane inclined at
an angle θ to the corss -section of the body is given by
1) pn = p sin θ 2) pn = p cos θ
a t
3) pn = p sin2 θ 4) pn = p cos2 θ
58.
p
To what category do gravel and sand belong? r
1) cohesionless soils

d u
2) cohesive soils 3) marine soils 4) expansive soils
59.
a
Which of the following statement is true?

n
1) In a dry soil, all the voids are filled with air

e e
2) In a saturated soil, all the voids are filled with water

.
w w
3) In a partly saturated soil, the voids are occupied by both air and water
4) All the above
e t
60.
w n
If the temperature at the time of test is more than that of calibration of the hydrometer, the hydrometer
reading will be
.
1) less 2) more 3) same
h a4) none
61.
b
If the overland flow from the critical point to the mouth of a drain is 12 km, and the difference in

i
levels between these points is 14.5 m, then the inlet time would be of the order of
1) 2 hours 2) 4 hours

a t
3) 6 houors 4) 8 hours
62. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
1) Trickling filter - attached growth
p r 2) Oxidation ditch - extended aeration

63.
3) Oxidation pond - symbiotic

a du 4) All of these
The following reaction takes place during anaerobic digestion of organics.
a) methane production

e n b) alkaline fermentation c) acid fermentation d) acid regression

e
The correct sequence of these reactions is

.
ww
1) c, d, b, a 2) d, c, b, a 3) c, d, a, b 4) d, c, a, b
64. The advantage of aerobic digestion over anaerobic digestion is

w
1) lower BOD concentration in supernatant liquor
2) production of sludge with excellent dewstering propensity
3) lesser capital cost
4) all of these

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65. Soluble organics in domestic wastewaters include
1) carbohydrates 2) proteins 3) lipids 4) all the above
66. The settling velocity of a spherical body in still water is given by
1) Lacey's formula
3) Hazen -William's formula
2) Darcy's law
4) Stoke's law
e t
67.

. n
When the times of earliest finish and the latest finish are equal in an operation, the operation is called

68.
1) critical 2) float 3) free float

h a
4) all the above
If for an activity optimistic time is 1 day, pessimistic time is 8 days and most likely time is 3 days, then
the expected time is

i b
69.
1) 3 - 5 days
Float is
2) 3 - 6 days

a t
3) 3 - 75 days 4) 4 days

r
1) the earliest time by which an activity may commence

p
d u
2) latest time by which an activity can be delayed without hampering the completion of project.
3) difference of latest allowable time and earliest expected time

a
4) difference of time available and time required for an activity.

n
70.
of

.e e
Free float is mainly used to identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float

w w
1) preceding activity
3) either the preceding or succeeding activities
2) succeeding activity
4) none of the above
e t
71.
w
The direct cost of project with respect to normal time is

. n
72.
1) minimum
Updating may result in
2) maximum 3) zero

h a 4) infinite

1) change of critical path

b
2) decrease of project completion time

i
73.
3) increase of project completion time
Activity having negative float is called
a t
4) all of the above

1) critical activity
r
2) super critical activity 3) subcritical activity

p
4) all of the above
74. A contractor has two options:

d u
I. Invest his money in project A or B

n a
II. Invest his money in project B. If he decides to invest in A, for every rupee invested, he is assured of
doubling his money in ten years. If he decides to invest in B, he is assured of making his money 1.5

. e
times in 5 years. If the contractor values his money at 10% interest rates, he

e
1) should invest in neither of the two projects 2) could invest in either of the two projects

75.
w ww
3) should invest in project A
Consider the following operations:
a) drilling b) blasting
4) should invest in project B

c) mucking
d) placing steel e) placing concrete
The correct sequence of these operations in tunnel construction is
1) a, b, d, c, e 1) a, c, b, d, e 1) a, b, c, d, e 1) a, c, d, b, e

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76. Functional Organization system of working was introduced by
1) F.W. Taylor 2) Henry Gantt 3) M.R. Walker 4) J.E. Kelly
77. Consider the following statements:
A : A dummy job takes zero time to perform

e t
R : It is used solely to illustrate precedence relationship of these statements
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
. n
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

h a
3) A is true and R is false
4) A is false but R is true
i b
78. Capital recovery factor considers

a t
p r
1) developing a predetermined sum at a future date at a uniform rate
2) consuming a predetermined sum till a future date at a uniform rate

u
3) consuming a predetermined sum till a future date at a uniformly varying rate

d
79.
n a
4) consuming a predetermined sum till a future date at uniform classes
A number of wheel loads 3t, 4t, 5t and 6t spaced 2 m, 3 m and 3 m respectively move on a simply

e e
supported beam AB of span 24 m with the 3t load leading from left to right. To find the maximum
bending moments at 18 m from A, the load that must be placed at the section is

.
80.
1) 3t

w w 2) 4t 3) 5t 4) 6t

e
A load W is moving from left to right support on a simply supported beam to span T. The maximumt
w
bending moment at 0.4 I from the left support is

. n
81.
1) 0.16 WI 2) 0.20 WI 3) 0.24 WI

h a
Which of the following does not fall under the category of displacement method?
4) 0.25 WI

1) Method of consistent deformation

b
2) Equilibrium method

i
82.
3) Moment distribution method

a t
4) Stiffness method
The ratio of design discharge to surface area of a sedimentation tank is known as its
1) surface loading

p r
2) overflow velocity 3) overflow rate 4) all of the above
Fixed end of fixed beam of span L settles by an amount δ. The ratio of the slope and deflection at the
83.
centre of the beam will be
d u
84.
1) 0.5 L

n a
2) 1.5 L
The moment distribution method is best suited for
3) 0.75 L 4) 0.667 L

e e
1) indeterminate pin jointed truss

.
2) rigid frames

ww
3) space frames 4) trussed beam
85. The number of unknowns to be determined in the stiffness method is equal to

w
1) static indeterminacy
3) sum of static and kinematic indeterminacy
2) kinematic indeterminacy
4) none of the above
86. It can be stated in general that if a statically indeterminate structure has k redundancy that it will
become a statically determinate structure if the nummber of plastic hinges formed is equql to
1) k 2) k + 1 3) k - 1 4) none of the above

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87. Corrosion in concrete sewers is caused by
1) septic conditions 2) dissolved oxygen 3) chlorine 4) nitrogen
88. A two-hinged arch (parabolic) is subjected to a temperature rise of t°C, and then horizontal thrust at
support will
1) increase 2) decrease
e t
3) remain same 4) increase or decrease

. n
89.
a
A two span continuous beam ABC is simply supported at A and C and is continuous over support B.

h
Span AB = 6 m, BC = 8 m. The beam carries a UDL of 2 t/m over both spans. EI is constant for the
entire beam. The fixed end moment at B is span BA or BC would be
1) 12 t m 2) 9 t m 3) 8 t m
i b 4) 6 t m
90.
a t
Given the x - component of the velocity u = 6xy - 2x2, then y-component of the flow v is given by
1) 6y2 - 4xy 2) 6xy + 2x2

p r 3) 5x2 - 2xy 4) 4xy - 3y2

91.

u
If S = strength of timber and H = hardness of timber at 12% moisture content for a timber sleeper, then
its "composite sleeper index" is

d
1)
S+H

2
n a
2)
S + 10H

11
3)
S + 9H

10
4)
S + 10H

20
92.

.e e
Sleeper density is
1) number of sleepers per km length

w w
2) number of sleepers per rail length
e t
w
3) density of the material of the sleeper
4) minimum distance between any two neighbouring sleepers
. n
93.
h a
The outer and inner wheels though cast monolithic cover different distances on a curve for the same
number of revolutions because of
1) adzing of sleepers
i b
2) coning of wheels
3) widening of gauge

a t
4) tilting of rails
94. Switch is
1) a tongue rail
p r
2) a stock rail
d u
a
3) combination of both tongue and stock rails

n
95. e
4) tongue and stock rail combination but separated by flange way

e
Flat type of marshalling yard is preferred to the others when

.
ww
1) space available is small and restricted
2) less number of engines are available

w
3) goods to be transported includes perishables
4) pneumatic retarders are provided to bring the bogies to rest quickly
96. Home signal is located not more than ........ from the start of points or switches.
1) 1 km 2) 860 km 3) 180 km 4) 580 km

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97. Newton's law of viscocity states that
1) shear stresss is directly proportional to the velocity
2) shear stress is directly proportional to velocity gradient
3) shear stress is proportional to the viscocity of fluid

e t
98.
4) shear stress is directly proprotional to the shear strain
The increase of temperature
. n
1) increase the viscosity of a liquid

h a
2) decrease the viscosity of a gas

99.
3) decrease the viscosity of a liquid

i b
4) increase the viscosity of a fluid
For submerged curved surface, the vertical component of the hydrostatic force is
1) mass of the liquid supported by the curved surface
a t
p r
2) weight of the liquid supported by the curved surface
3) the force of the projected area of the curved surface on vertical plane
4) none of the above
d u
a
100. The condition of stable equilibrium for a floating body is

n
e e
1) the metacentre M coincides with the centre of gravity G of the body
2) the metacentre M lies below the centre of gravity G of the body

.
w w
3) the metacentre M lies above the centre of gravity G of the body
4) the centre of buoyancy B is above the centre of gravity G of the body
e t
w
101. The gases are considered incompressible when the Mach number

. n
1) is equal to 1.0 2) is equal to 0.5 3) is more than 0.3
102. For a floating body, the buoyant force passes through the
h a 4) is less than 0.2

1) centre of gravity of the body

i b
2) centre of gravity of the submerged portion of the body
3) metacentre of the body
a t
4) centroid of the liquid displaced by the body
p r
u
103. Fluid statics deals with the following forces

d
1) viscous and gravity forces

n
3) gravity and pressure forces a 2) viscous and pressure forces
4) surface tension and gravity forces

.e e
104. The necessary condition for the flow to to be uniform is that
1) the velocity is constant in the flow field with respect to space

w ww
2) the velocity is constant at a point with respect to time
3) the velocity changes at a point with respect to time
4) the velocity changes in the flow field with respect to space
105. The velocity components in x and y directions in terms of stream function. ψ are
∂ψ ∂ψ ∂ψ ∂ψ ∂ψ ∂ψ ∂ψ ∂ψ
1) u =  ; v =  2) u = -  ; v =  3) u =  ; v =  4) u = -  ; v = 
∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y ∂y ∂x ∂y ∂x

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106. For a forced vortex flow, the height of paraboloid formed is equal to
p V2 V2 V2 ωr2
1)  +  2)  3)  4) 
γ 2g 2g r × 2g 2g
107. Flow at a constant rate through a tapering pipe is

e t
i. steady flow
iii. unsteady flow
ii. uniform flow
iv. non uniform flow
. n
a
bh
The correct answer is
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (i) and (iv) 3) (ii) and (iii) 4) (ii) and (iv)
108. In a steady flow, the total acceleration of any fluid particle

t i
1) can be zero
3) is always zero
r a2) is never zero
4) is independent of coordinates

u p
109. The velocity potential function for source varies with distances r as
1
1) 
r
2) 

a
1
r2 d 3) cr 4) ln r

e n
110. Which one of the following velocity fields represents a possible fluid flow?

w.e
1) u = x; v = y 2) u = x2; v = y2 3) u = xy; v = x2y2
111. Consider the following parameters related to fluid flow:
4) u = x; v= -y

t
w w
a. vorticity

n e
b. velocity potential

a .
Among these, those which exist in rotational flows and irrotational flows would include
1) a and b 2) b and c 3) a and c

b h 4) a, b and c
p V2
i
112. In the most general form of Bernoulli's equation, Z +  +  = Constant, each term represents
γ pg
t
1) energy per unit mass

r a 2) energy per unit weight

3) energy per unit volume

u p 4) energy per unit area

113. The locus of elevations that water will raise in a series of pitot tubes is called
1) energy grade line
a d
2) hydraulic grade line 3) pressure head 4) velocity head

n
114. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of steady is minor flow through a circular pipe?

e
.e
1) Shear stress is zero at the centre
2) Velocity is maximum at the centre

w ww
3) Hydraulic gradient varies directly with the velocity
4) All the above
115. A jet of water issues from a 5 cm diameter nozzle, held vertically upwards, at a velocity of 20 m/s. If
air resistance consumes 10% of the initial energy of the jet, find the height it would reach above the
nozzle
1) 18.35 m 2) 19.14 m 3) 19.92 m 4) 20.00 m

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116. For laminar flow in a pipe of circular cross-section, the Darcy's a friction f is
1) directly proportional to Reynolds number and independent of pipe wall roughness
2) directly proportional to pipe wall roughness and independent of Reynolds number
3) inversely proportional to Reynolds number and directly proportional to pipe wall roughness

e t
117. The loss of energy due to sudden enlargement is given by
. n
4) inversely proportional to Reynolds number and directly proportional to pipe wall roughness

v22 A2
(
2
) v1 - v2 2
( ) v22 - v12
a( )
v22 A2 2

bh
1)   - 1 2)  2)  4)  1 - 
2g A1 2g 2g 2g A1

2L 2L i
118. If the speed of pressure wave is V0, and pipe length is L, rapid closure occurs when time of closure is

t L
1) less than 
v0
2) greater than 
v0

r a3) less than 

v0
4) zero

u p
119. If the physical quantities involved in a fluid flow phenomenon are discharge Q, diameter D,
acceleration due to gravity g, dynamic viscosity µ and mass density ρ, then the number of π

1) 2 2) 3 d
parameters needed to express the function f (Q, D, g, µ, ρ) = 0 are

a 3) 4 4) 5

e n
120. Which of the following quantities is dimensionless?

ρF
1) 
µ
w.e µ2ρ
2) 
F
ρF
3) 
µ2
4) 
µ
ρ2F
t
w w
as a function of WC?
n e
121. Two soils A and B are having a flow index of 9 and 6 respectively. Then which soil has better strength

1) A 2) B 3) Both A and B
a . 4) None

1) Kx < Kz 2) Kx = Kz
b h
122. In case of stratified soils, the permeabilities, Kx and Kz, along and across stratification are related as

3) Kx > Kz
t i
4) None of the above

a
123. The hydrostatic pressure on the phreatic line with a dam section is

r
1) greater than atmospheric pressure
3) equal to atmospheric pressure
u p 2) less than atmospheric pressure
4) none of the above

d
124. The seepage velocity v8 and the Darcy's velocity are related as

a
en
v8 v
1) v =  2) v8 =  3) v6 = v.n 4) v6 = n/v
n n

e
125. The unit of coefficient of consolidation is

.
ww
1) cm2/cm 2) cm/sec 3) cm2/sec 4) gram cm2/sec
126. Secondary consolidation of soil is due to the expulsion of

w1) absorbed water only 2) adsorbed water only 3) both (1) and (2)
127. For the same soil, increase in compaction effort
4) None of the above

1) does not affect OMC 2) increases OMC

3) decreases OMC 4) decreases more density

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128. For calculating the stress distribution in soils, Boussinesq assumed the point load to exist
1) below the ground level 2) below water table
3) at the ground level 4) at water table
129. Two soils A and B are tested in the laboratory for the consistency limits. The results are

e t
Liquid limit
A
40%
B
60%
. n
Plastic limit 20% 25%
h a
Which soil is more plastic ?

i b
1) A 2) B

a t
3) both A and B
130. With reference to shrinkage and swelling, the most active clay mineral is
4) None of the above

r
up
1) Kaolinite 2) Montmorillonite
3) Illite 4) None of the above

d
131. Due to raise in temperature, the unit weight and viscosity of the permeant fluid are reduced to 90%

a
en
and 60% respectively. If other thins remain constant, the coefficient of permeability
1) increases by 33.3% 2) decreases by 33.3%

w.e
3) increases by 50% 4) increases by 25%
132. A clay deposit suffers a total settlement of 10 cm with one way drainage, and then with two way
t
w
drainage, it suffers a total settlement of

w n e
1) 20 cm 2) 5 cm 3) 10 cm

a . 4) Nil
133. For better strength and stability, the coarse grained and fine grained soils are respectively compacted as
1) dry of OMC and wet of OMC
h
2) wet of OMC and wet of OMC

b
3) wet of OMC and dry of OMC
i
4) dry of OMC and dry of OMC

t
134. The maximum contact pressure for a rigid footing on a cohesionless soil will be at
1) edges

r a 2) centre
3) between centre and edge

u
135. Standard penetration test is suitable for p 4) none of the above

1) cohesionless soils

a d 2) clayey soils

e n
3) silty soils 4) loamy soils
136. The maximum value of Nc for a strip footing according to Meyerhof when Dl/b ratio is greater than
2.5 is
.e
ww
1) 5.14 2) 5.7 3) 8.25 4) 9.0

w
137. Width of a traffic lane is
1) 5.50 m 2) 3.75 m
138. One of the natural factors influencing camber is
3) 7.50 m 4) 7.00 m

1) type of material used for wearing course 2) topography of the area

3) nature of subsoil met with 4) amount of rainfall

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139. While negotiating a curve
1) wheels of both axles tread the same path
2) front wheels follow a less radius than the rear wheels
3) rear wheels follow a less radius than the front wheels

e t
4) depending on right hand or left hand curve it varies

. n
140. Find the compensated gradient at horizontal curve of radius 60 m with a ruling gradient of 6%
1) 1.25% 2) 4.75% 3) 1.5%

h a
4) 5.0%

1) base course
i b
141. A pavement is classified as flexible pavement or rigid pavement based on its
2) wearing course
3) sub -grade
a t
4) 5.0%
142. Cement stabilization is beat suited for
r
1) sandy soils
3) clayey soils
d up 2) clays rich in sulphates
4) soils rich in lime

a
143. The best road suited to pneumatic and iron wheeled traffic is
1) WBM road

.e en
3) bitumen bound macadam road
2) earthen road
4) cement concrete road

w w
144. Maximum equivalent single wheel load as per LRC is
1) 8160 kg 2) 2040 kg
e t
w3) 4080 kg 4) 1020 kg

. n
145. The safe speed on a highway is
1) 50th percentile speed
h a
2) 98th percentile speed 3) 85th percentile speed 4) 75th percentile speed
146. The range of volume to capacity ratio theoretically
i b
1) 0 to 1.0
3) 0.5 to 1.5
a t
2) 0.5 to 1.0
4) 0 to 1.5
147. Grade sepration has the advantage of
p r
1) easy right turn

d u
2) no aped restriction

n a
3) number of points of conflicts are minimum

.e e
4) occupying the least space
148. Cost of construction of a railway track is proportional to

ww

1) √ Gauge 2) Gauge 3) Gauge2 4) Gauge3

w
149. The side slope that is quite common in cutting is
1) 2H : 1V 2) 1.5H : 1V 3) 1H : 1V
150. The minimum depth of ballast cushion recommended for trunk routes of Broad Gauge is
4) 1H : 2V

1) 150 mm 2) 250 mm 3) 200 mm 4) 300 mm

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ANSWERS
1-3; 2-4; 3-4; 4-2; 5-2; 6-2; 7-1; 8-2; 9-2; 10-4; 11-2; 12-3; 13-3; 14-1; 15-3; 16-3; 17-1; 18-3; 19-2;
20-4; 21-1; 22-4;; 23-1; 24-4; 25-2; 26-2; 27-2; 28-2; 29-1; 30-3; 31-1; 32-3; 33-1; 34-3; 35-3; 36-2; 37-2;

e t
38-3; 39-2; 40-3; 41-2 42-2 43-3 44-3; 45-1; 46-4; 47-3; 48-2; 49-3; 50-1; 51-3; 52-1; 53-3; 54-2; 55-2;
56-4; 57-4; 58-1; 59-4; 60-1; 61-3; 62-4; 63-1; 64-4; 65-4; 66-4; 67-1; 68-1; 69-4; 70-2; 71-1; 72-4; 73-2;

. n
74-1; 75-3; 76-1; 77-1; 78-4; 79-2; 80-3; 81-3; 82-3; 83-2; 84-2; 85-2; 86-2; 87-1; 88-1; 89-2; 90-4; 91-4;
92-2; 93-2; 94-3; 95-1; 96-3; 97-2; 98-3; 99-2; 100-3; 101-4; 102-4; 103-3; 104-1; 105-4; 106-2; 107-1;

h a
108-1; 109-4; 110-4; 111-3; 112-2; 113-1; 114-4; 115-1; 116-3; 117-1; 118-1; 119-1; 120-3; 121-2; 122-3;
123-3; 124-2; 125-3; 126-2; 127-3; 128-3; 129-2; 130-2; 131-3; 132-3; 133-4; 134-2; 135-1; 136-3; 137-2;

b
138-4; 139-3; 140-2; 141-2; 142-1; 143-4; 144-3; 145-3; 146-1; 147-3; 148-3; 149-2; 150-3.

i
a t
p r
d u
n a
.e e
w w e t
w . n
h a
i b
a t
p r
d u
n a
.e e
w ww

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