Jain University PHYSICS

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1. With a monochromatic light, the fringe-width obtained in a
young’s double slit experiment is 0.133 cm. The whole set-
up is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33, then the
new fringe-width is
a) 0.133 cm
b) 0.1 cm
c) 1.33 x 1.33 cm
d) 1.33/2 cm

2. Light waves can be polarised, because they

a) Have high frequencies
b) Have short wavelength
c) Are transverse
d) Can be reflected

3. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is

equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then its focal length
will
a) becomes zero
b) become infinite
c) reduce
d) increase

4. To a fish in water, a bird in air appears to be at 30cm from

the surface. If aμw = 4/3, then the true distance of the bird
from the surface is
a) 40cm
b) 22.5cm
c) 80cm
d) None of these
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5. The radius of curvature of convex surface of a thin plano-
convex lens is 15 cm and refractive index of its material is
1.6. The power of the lens will be
a) + 1 D
b) – 2 D
c) + 3 D
d) + 4 D1

6. A metal surface of work function 1.07 eV is irradiated with

light of wavelength 332 nm. The retarding potential required
to stop the escape of photoelectron is
a) 1.07 eV
b) 2.66 eV
c) 3.74 eV
d) 4.81 eV

7. The half-life of radium is 1600 years. The fraction of a

sample of radium that would remain after 6400 years
a) ¼
b) ½
c) 1/8
d) 1/16

8. The graph between the diode saturation current density J

and the temperature T is (select the answer in the diagram)

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9. What is the Boolean expression for the gate circuit shown in
the below figure

a) A.0 = 0
b) A.‫ܣ‬ҧ = 0
c) A.1 = A
d) A.A = A

10. Large bandwidth for higher data rate is achieved by using

a) high frequency carrier wave
b) low frequency carrier wave
c) high frequency audio wave
d) low frequency audio wave

11. The resultant of two forces acting at an angle of 150o is 10 N

and is perpendicular to one of the forces. The other force is
a) 20—3 N
b) 10—3 /N
c) 20 N
d) 30—3 N

12. The table shows the distance covered in successive

seconds by a body accelerated uniformly from rest. What is
the speed of the body at the end of 4th sec?

Time interval (s) I II III IV

Distance (cm) 2 6 10 14

a) 4 cm/sec
b) 8 cm/sec
c) 14 cm/sec
d) 16 cm/sec

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13. A particle having mass 0.5 kg is projected under gravity with
a speed of 98 m/sec at an angle 60o. The magnitude of the
change in momentum (in kg m/s) after 10 sec is
a) 49
b) 98
c) 4.9
d) 9.8

14. A mass of 2 kg rests on a inclined plane of gradient 1 in 8 as

shown in figure. The work done in sliding it from the lowest
point of the incline to the highest point, if the coefficient of
friction is 0.2, is

a) 192 J
b) 19.2 J
c) 48 J
d) 52 J

15. A car is moving along a circular road at a speed of 20 m/s.

The radius of the circular road is 10 m. If the speed is
increased at the rate of 30 m/s2, what is the resultant
acceleration?
a) 10 m/s2
b) 50 m/s2
c) 250 m/s2
d) 80 m/s2

16. The Young’s modulus for steel is 2.0 x 1011 N/m2. If the
interatomic spacing for the metal is 2.8 Å, the increase in the
interatomic spacing for a force of 109 N/m2 is:
a) 1.4 x 10-3 Å
b)1.4 x 10-1 Å
c)1.4 x 10-2 Å
d) 1.4 Å

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17. Water rises to a height of 16.3 cm in a capillary of height 18
cm above the water level. If the tube is cut at a height 12 cm
in the capillary tube,
a) Water will come out as a fountain from the capillary tube
b) Water will stay at a height of 12 cm in the capillary tube
c) The height of water in the capillary tube will be 10.3 cm
d) Water will flow down the sides of the capillary tube

18. 2 kg of ice at -20oC is mixed with 5 kg of water at 20oC in an

insulating vessel having a negligible heat capacity. Calculate
the final mass of the water remaining in the container. It is
given that the specific heats of ice and water are 1 kcal/kg/oC
and 0.5 kcal/kg/oC. while the latent heat of fusion of ice = 80
kcal/kg/oC
a) 6 kg
b) 7 kg
c) 4 kg
d) 2 kg

19. Two S. H. Ms are represented by the equations

గ
‫ݕ‬ଵ ൌ ͲǤͳ •‹ ቀͳͲͲߨ‫ ݐ‬൅ ଷ ቁand‫ݕ‬ଶ ൌ ͲǤͳ …‘• ͳͲͲߨ‫ݐ‬Ǥ

The phase difference of velocity of particle 2 with respect to the

velocity of particle 1 is:
a) -S/3
b)S/3
c) -S/6
d) S/6

20. A source of frequency n gives 5 beats/s, when sounded with

a source of frequency 200/s. The second harmonic (2 n)
gives 10 beats/s, when sounded with a source of frequency
420/s. n is equal to
a) 200/s
b) 205/s
c) 195/s
d) 210/s

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21. An electric field is given by ‫ܧ‬ሬԦ ൌ ሺ‫ݕ‬ଓƸ ൅ ‫ݔ‬ଔƸሻܰȀ‫ܥ‬. The work
done in moving a 1 C charge from ሬሬሬԦ ‫ݎ‬஺ ൌ ሺʹଓƸ ൅ ʹଔƸሻ݉ to
ሬሬሬԦ
‫ݎ‬஻ ൌ ሺͶଓƸ ሻ
൅ ଔƸ ݉ is
a) + 8 J
b) + 4 J
c) zero
d) – 4 J

22. The two parallel plates of a condenser have been connected

to a battery of 300 V and the charge collected at each plate
is 1 μC. The energy supplied by the battery is
a) 6 x 10-4 J
b) 3 x 10-4 J
c) 1.5 x 10-4 J
d) 45 x 10-4 J

23. An electric cable of copper has just one wire of radius 9 mm.
Its resistance is 5 Ω. This single copper wire of cable is
replaced by 6 different well insulated copper wires each of
radius 3 mm. The total resistance of the cable will now be
equal to:
a) 7.5 Ω
b) 45 Ω
c) 90 Ω
d) 279 Ω

24. The power of heater is 750 W at 1000o. What will be its

power at 200oC if α = 4 x 10-4 per oC?
a) 500 W
b) 990 W
c) 250 W
d) 1500 W

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25. An ammeter is obtained by shunting a 30 Ω galvanometer
with a 30 Ω resistance. What additional shunt should be
connected across it to double the range?
a) 5 Ω
b) 10 Ω
c) 15 Ω
d) None of the above

26. The coercivity of a bar magnet is 120 A/m. It is to be

demagnetised by placing it inside a solenoid of length 120
cm and number of turns 72. The current following through
the solenoid is
a) 1 A
b) 0.5 A
c) 2 A
d) 3 A

27. A magnetising field of 1600 A-m-1 produces a magnetic

flux of 2.4 x 10-5Wb in an iron bar of cross-Sectional area of
0.2 cm2. The susceptibility of the iron bar is
a) 298
b) 1788
c) 1192
d) 596

28. A coil cross-sectional area 102 cm2 is placed in the

magnetic field, which changes to 4 x 10 -2 Wb/cm2 within 5
sec. What will be the current across 5 Ωresistance?
a) 0.016 A
b) 0.16 A
c) 1.6 A
d) 16.0 A

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29. A generator produces a voltage that is given by V = 240 sin
120 t volt, where t is in second. The frequency and r.m.s
voltage are
a) 60 Hz. & 240 volt
b) 19 Hz. & 120 volt
c) 19 Hz. & 170 volt
d) 754 Hz. & 170 volt

30. Consider the following statements:

(1) An electromagnetic wave incident upon a perfectly
absorbing surface exerts pressure equal to that when the
electromagnetic wave is incident upon a perfectly
reflecting surface
(2) The radiation pressure is directly proportional to the
magnitude of pointing vector
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

a) (1) only

b) Neither (1) Nor (2)

c) Both (1) and (2)
d) (2) only

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31. In a sodium atom (atomic number = 11 and mass number =
23 and the number of neutrons is
a) equal to the number of protons
b) less than the number of protons
c) greater than the number of protons
d) none of these

32. The enthalpy of formation of two compounds A and B are

and respectively. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
a) A is less stable than B
b) both A and B are unstable
c) A and B are endothermic compounds
d) A is more stable than B

33. Which of the following represents the Lewi’s structure of

molecule?
a) uu N { Nuu
u u u u
b) uu N { N uu
u u u u
c) uu uNu  uNu uu
u u u u
d) uu uNu N uu
u u

34. A transition metal ion exists in its highest oxidation state. It is

expected to behave as
a) a chelating agent
b) a central metal in a coordination compound
c) an oxidizing agent
d) a reducing agent

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35. The catalyst used in Rosenmund reduction is:
a) Anhydrous AlCl3
b) HgSO4
c) Pd/BaSO4
d) Anhydrous ZnCl2
36. Which of the following is not a colligative property?
a) Osmotic pressure
b) Optical activity
c) Depression in freezing point
d) Elevation in boiling point

37. Which of the following is incorrect in a galvanic cell?

a) Oxidation occurs at anode
b) Reduction occurs at cathode
c) The electrode at which electrons are gained is called
cathode
d) The electrode at which electrons are lost is called
cathode

38. For the reaction A  B  oC , it is found that doubling the

concentration of A increases the rate 4 times, and doubling
the concentration of B doubles the reaction rate. What is the
overall order of the reaction?
a) 4

2
b)
3

c) 3
d) 1

39. Which of the following does not give a red precipitate with
Fehling’s solution?
a) glucose
b) fructose
c) formic acid
d) benzaldehyde

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40. German silver is an alloy of:
a) Cu, Zn, Ni
b) Cu, Sn, Al
c) Fe, Cr, Ni
d) Cu, Zn, Ag
41. The pH of a solution whose is:
a) 3.75
b) 4.45
c) 3.523
d) 4.36

42. What is the wavelength associated with an electron moving

with a velocity of? (given: h 6.63 u 1034 Js and m 9.11 u 1031 kg. )
a) 72.7 nm
b) None of these
c) 7.27 nm
d) 0.727 nm

43. When salicylic acid is treated with bromine water, it gives:

a) tribromophenol
b) tribromosalicylic acid
c) dibromosalicylic acid
d) tribromophenol

44. The chemical name of salol is:

a) sodium salicylate
b) acetyl salicylic acid
c) methyl salicylate
d) phenyl salicylate

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45. Carbylamine test is used in the detection of:
a) aromatic primary amine
b) both aliphatic and aromatic primary amines
c) aliphatic secondary amine
d) aliphatic primary amine.

46. Which one of the following is not present in nucleotide?

a) cytosine
b) guanine
c) tyrosine
d) adenine

47. Which one of the following conditions will increase the

voltage of the cell, represented by the equation
Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) Cu2+(Aq) + 2Ag(s)
a) increase in the concentration of ions.
b) increase in the concentration of ions.
c) increase in the dimensions of copper electrode.
d) increase in the dimensions of silver electrode.

48. Which of the following statement is most applicable to

hydrogen? It can act
a) as a reducing agent
b) as an oxidizing agent
c) as both oxidizing and reducing agent
d) neither as an oxidizing nor as a reducing agent

49. HF is not preserved in glass bottles because

a) it react with the aluminum oxide of the glass
b) it reacts with SiO2 of the glass
c) it reacts with the visible part of the light
d) it reacts with sodium oxide of the glass

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50. Which of the following compound undergoes Claisen
condensation in presence of C2H5ONa?
(i) CH3CH2COOC2H5 (ii) (CH3)2CHCOOC2H5
(iii) ClCH2COOC2H5
a) only (i)
b) (i) and (ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) all of the three

51. Allergy in the body is caused by the production of

a) Vitamin
b) Hormone
c) Histamine
d) Enzyme

52. A reaction occurs spontaneously if

a) T'S = 'H and both 'H and 'S are positive
b) T'S >'H and both 'H and 'S are positive
c) T'S <'H and both 'H and 'S are positive
d) T'S >'H and 'H is positive and 'S is negative

53. Cannizzaro’s reaction is an example of auto oxidation

a) it is a typical reaction of aliphatic aldehyde
b) it is a reaction answered by all aldehyde
c) it is a reaction answered by only aldehyde containing
α-hydrogen
d) it is a reaction answered only by aromatic aldehydes

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54. Solubility product of a salt AB 1 u 10 M in a solution in which
2

the concentration of A ions is 103 M . The salt will precipitate

when the concentration of B ions is kept
a) Between 105 M to107 M
b) Between 107 M to 106 M
c) ! 105 M
d)  108 M

55. Which of the following has the highest bond order?

a) N2
b) O2
c) He2
d) H2

56. The IUPAC name for the complex [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]Cl2 is

a) nitro-N-penta amino Cobalt(II) chloride
b) penta amine nitrito-N-Cobalt(II) chloride
c) penta ammine nitrito-N-Cobalt(III) chloride
d) nitro-N-penta ammine Cobalt(III) chloride

57. Which is a primary alcohol?

a) butan-2-ol
b) butan-1-ol
c) propan-2-ol
d) 2,3-dimethyl hexan-2-ol

58. Metal which is present in Haemoglobin is also present in

a) Tollen’s reagent
b) Vitamin B12
c) Cis-platinate
d) Sodium nitroprusside

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59. Which among the following is a method to prepare ethers
a) Williamson’s reaction
b) Friedal Craft’s reaction
c) Wurtz reaction
d) Rosenmund’s reaction

60. Boiling point of p-nitrophenol is more than o-nitrophenol

because
a) NO2 group at p-position behaves differently from that at
o-position
b) intermolecular hydrogen bonding exists in p-nitrophenol
c) intramolecular hydrogen bonding exists in p-nitrophenol
d) intermolecular hydrogen bonding exists in o-nitrophenol

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Jain Entrance Test – Model Paper MATHEMATICS
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61. If A {1, 2,3, 4} ; B {a, b} and ' f ' is a mapping such that

f : A o B , then A u B is

a) ^ a,1 , 3, b `
b) ^ a, 2 ,  4, b `
c) ^1, a  , 1, b  ,  2, a  ,  2, b  , 3, a  , 3, b  ,  4, a  ,  4, b `

d) None of these

62. If ƒ  x  2 x  8 , then ƒ 1 1

9
a)
2
7
b)
2
2
c)
9
d) 0

63. Find the value of sin  x   sin  x  S   sin  x  S 

a)  sin x
b) sin x
c) secx
d) cos x
ª § 1 ·º
64. The value of sin « arc cos ¨  ¸ » is
¬ © 2 ¹¼
1
a)
2
b) 1
3
c)
2
d) None of these

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65. Let P(n) : n  n  1 is an odd integer. If it is assumed that
2

P(k ) is true Ÿ P(k  1) is true. Therefore P(n) is true

__________
a) for n ! 1
b)  n  N
c) for n ! 2
d) None of these

66. If the cube roots of unity are 1, Z, Z 2 , then the roots of the
equation  x  1  8 0 are
3

a) 1, 1  2Z, 1  2Z 2
b) 1, 1, 1

c) 1,1  2Z,1  2Z 2

d) 1,1  2Z,1  2Z 2

ª1 4 º
67. What is a, B «2 a » if is a singular matrix?
¬ ¼
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

ª 5 3º
68. The inverse of the matrix « » is
¬10 6¼
ª 6  3º
a) « »
¬ 10 5 ¼
ª.5 .3º
b) « »
¬ 1 .6¼
c) Undefined
d) None of these

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ª1 0 º ª 0 1º ª cos T sin T º
69. If I «0 1 » , J « 1 0» and B «  sin T cos T »¼
,then value
¬ ¼ ¬ ¼ ¬
of B in terms of I and J is
a) I sin T +J cos T
b) I sin T -J cos T
c) I cos T +J sin T
d) -I sin T + J cos T

70. In how many ways can 8 Indians and, 4 American and 4

Englishmen can be seated in a row so that all person of the
same nationality sit together?
a) 3! 4! 8! 4!
b) 3! 8!
c) 4! 4!
d) 8! 4! 4!

71. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of

getting at most two heads?
3
a)
4
1
b)
4
3
c)
8
7
d)
8

72. The mean of a distribution is 14 and the standard deviation

is 5. What is the value of the coefficient of variation?
a) 60.4%
b) 48.3%
c) 35.7%
d) 27.8%

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73. Compare the numbers (1.01)1000000 and 10,000?
a) (1.01)1000000 > 10000

b) (1.01)1000000  10000

c) (1.01)1000000 10000
d) None of these
1 1 1
74. If a, b, c are in G.P. and ax by c z then x, y, z are
in_______.
a) In G.P
b) Both in A.P and G.P
c) In A.P
d) None of these

75. The points  –1,1 and  1, –1 are symmetrical about the

line
a) y  x 0
b) y x
c) x  y 1
d) None of these

76. The length of the latus rectum of the Parabola

ay 2  by x  c is
1
a)
4a
a
b)
2
1
c)
a
d) 4a

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2
77. The number of tangents to the parabola y 8x through
(2, 1) is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) None of these
2x
§ a b ·
78. If Lt ¨1   2 ¸ e2 then the value of ’ a ’and ‘ b ’ are
x of
© x x ¹
a) a 1 and b 2
b) a 1 and b  R
c) a  R and b 2
d) a  R and b  R

§ 1· § 1· dy
79. If x a ¨ t  ¸ and y a ¨ t  ¸ then the value of is
© t¹ © t¹ dx

t2 1
a)
t 2 1
t 2 1
b)
t2 1
t 1
c)
t 1
t 1
d)
t 1

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80. Minimum value of the function is
3x  8 x  18 x 2  60
4 3

3
a)
2
2
b)
3
2
c) 
3
3
d) 
2

1
81. For the function x  , x  >1,3@ , the value of ‘c’ for the mean
x
value theorem is
a) 3
b) 3

c) 3

d)  3

3S
4
I
82. Value of ³
S 1  sin I
dI is
4

a) S  2  1
b) S   2  1

c) S  2  1

d) S 1  2 

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83. Area between the curves y x and y x is

1
a)
6
2
b)
3
1
c)
4
d) 2 2

2
x
84. The value of ³
1
x
dx is

a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) None of these

ª 3
º
§ dy · d2y
85. Degree of the differential equation «¨1  ¸ »
2
is
«© dx ¹ » dx 2
¬ ¼
a) 2
b) 3
3
c)
2
2
d)
3

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d2y dy
86. Solution of log x , where y 1 , 1 ,if x 0
dx 2 dx
log y § 2 3 ·
a) x ¨ y  ¸  y 1
2 © 2¹

log x § 2 3 ·
b) y ¨ x  ¸  x 1
2 © 2¹

y2 § 3·
c) x ¨ log y  ¸  y  1
2 © 2¹

x2 § 3·
d) y ¨ log x  ¸  x  1
2© 2¹

87. If two points are P(7, 5,11) and Q(2,8,13) , then the
projection of PQ on a straight line with direction cosines
1 2 2
, , is
3 3 3
1
a)
2
26
b)
3
4
c)
3
d) 7

o o o
88. If a , b , c are non-coplanar vectors and is O a real number,
o o o o o o
then the vectors a  2 b  3 c , O b  4 c and  2O  1 c are non-
coplanar for
a) No value of O
b) All except one value of O
c) All except two values of O
d) All values of O .

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89. The distance between the line

o o
r  2i  2 j  3k   O i  j  4k  and the plane r .i  5 j  k  5
is
10
a)
9
10
b)
3 3
3
c)
10
10
d)
3

x2 y 3 z4 x 1 y4 z 5

90. The lines and are
1 1 k k 2 1
coplanar if
a) k 3 or  2
b) k 0 or  1
c) k 1or  1
d) k 0 or  3

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 Jain University ENGLISH

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Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning
as the word given:-
91. Formulate:
a) Frame
b) Apply
c) Contemplate
d) Regularize

92. Arduous:
a) Hazardous
b) Difficult
c) Different
d) Pleasurable

93. Viable:
a) Rudimentary
b) Practical
c) Negative
d) Impossible

94. Transitional:
a) Extreme
b) Intermediate
c) Revolutionary
d) Change

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Choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in
meaning
as the word given:-
95. Accordance:
a) Conflict
b) Enmity
c) Quarrel
d) Division

96. Viable:
a) Rudimentary
b) Practical
c) Negative
d) Impossible

Choose the opposites of the following words:-

97. Girl:
a) Boy
b) Boyish
c) Girl
d) Feminine

98. Men:
a) Women
b) Woman
c) Lady
d) Madame

99. Absent:
a) Present
b) Presence
c) Available
d) Existing

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100. Young:
a) Childhood
b) Moderate
c) Middle-age
d) Old

101. Good:
a) Bad
b) Fowl
c) Better
d) Best

102. Black:
a) Maroon
b) Dark
c) White
d) Whitish

Replace the incorrect word / phrase printed in bold in the

sentence to make it grammatically correct:-
103. Since the girl did not want to be disturbed while
studying, she left the phone off hooks
a) Of hook
b) For the hook
c) Off hooking
d) Off the hook

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104. Despite having passed out from school over ten years
back, most schoolmates has keep touch with each
other.
a) Had kept in touch
b) Keep touched
c) Is keeping touch
d) Are kept touched

Change the sentences into passive voice :-

105. The cat killed the mouse:
a) The mouse killed the cat
b) The mouse was killed by the cat
c) The cat kill the mouse
d) The mouse has been killed by the cat

106. The mason is building the wall:

a) The wall is being built by the mason
b) The mason built the wall.
c) The wall has been made by the mason
d) The mason is constructing a wall.
107. John washes the dishes:
a) The dishes are being washed by John
b) The dishes are washed by John
c) John was washing the dishes
d) Dishes were washed by John

108. Define a verb.

a) It is used to express an action,condition or experience
b) It is used instead of noun
c) It is used to show some sudden feeling
d) All the above

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109. Choose the Interjection.
a) But
b) Hurrah!
c) And
d) Is

110. What is the use of ‘Question mark’ in a sentence?

a) It is used instead of full stop,after a direct question
b) Used after an indirect question
c) Used to pause after a sentence
d) Used to stop after every sentence

111. Define Present continuous tense.

a) The action is mentioned as incomplete or continuous
b) The action that happened in the past
c) An event happened in the pastbut ends at certain point
d) It expresses action in the present time

Choose the correct use of the suffixes in the words given:-

112. Victory:
a) -y;
b) –ty
c) –ory
d) –ry
113. Active:
a) –ive
b) –act
c) -ey
d) -ve

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114. Action:
a) –on
b) –ion
c) –tion
d) -act

115. What is the plural of ‘Wife?’

a) Wife
b) Wife’s
c) Wives
d) Wive

116. Which word best express the meaning of barbarian:

a) Unkind
b) Impolite
c) Unlikeness
d) Uncivilised

117. I believe in the unity of god, here ‘Unity’ means:

a) Uniqueness
b) Oneness
c) University
d) Universal

Fill in the blanks picking out from the choices:

118. We are _______ to have him_____here to make this
function a great success
a) Pleased, over
b) Sure, come
c) Wonderful, again
d) Happy, arrive

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119. The state government staff ______ threatened to launch
an
indefinite strike from next month to _______ their
demands.
a) Have,press
b) Were, meet
c) Did, get
d) Do, did.

Replace the incorrect word/phrase printed in italic in

the sentence to make it grammatically correct.
120. Since the girl did not want to be disturbed while studying,
she left the phone off hooks.
a) Of hook
b) For the hook
c) Off hooking
d) Off the hook

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Jain Entrance Test – Model Paper
LOGICAL REASONING
Space for rough work
121. In certain code DESK is written as #$52, RIDE is written
as %7#$, How is RISK written in that code?
a) %725
b) %752
c) %7#2
d) %7$#

122. ENGLAND is written as 123456 and FRANCE as 785291.

How will GREECE be written in this coding scheme?
a) 381191
b) 391911
c) 394132
d) 562134

123. Find the odd man out.2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64
a) 50
b) 37
c) 26
d) 64

124. A, G, L, P, S?
a) V
b) W
c) X
d) None of these

125. If train is called bus, bus is called tractor, tractor is called

car, car is called scooter, scooter is called bicycle, bicycle
is called moped, which is used to plough a field?
a) Train
b) Bus
c) Tractor
d) Car

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126. In a certain code MADHYA PRADESH is written as
MDYAHA PAEHRDS and SRI LANKA is written as SRI
LNAAK. How is TAMIL NADU written in that code?
a) TLMIA NDAU
b) TMLAI NDAU
c) TMLIA NDAU
d) TMLAI NADU

127. How many lines of symmetry does a Pentagon have?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 0

128. There are six persons A. B, C, D, E and F. C is the sister

of F. B is the brother of E's husband. D is the father of A
and grandfather of F. There are two fathers, three brothers
and a mother in the group. Who is the mother?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E

129. A girl introduced a boy as the son of' the daughter of the
father of her uncle. The boy is girl's
a) Brother
b) Son
c) Uncle
d) Son-in-law

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130. WFB, TGD, QHG,?
a) NJK
b) NIJ
c) ZIK
d) NIK

131. 198, 194, 185, 169, ?

a) 136
b) 144
c) 112
d) 92

132. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

1.Presentation 2.Recommendation 3.Arrival 4.Discussion
5.Introduction
a) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2
b) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1
c) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
d) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4

133. What was the day on 15th august 1947 ?

a) Friday
b) Saturday
c) Sunday
d) Thursday

134. In an election between two candidates, one got 55% of the

total valid votes, 20% of the votes were invalid. If the total
number of votes was 7500, the number of valid votes that
the other candidate got, was:
a) 2500
b) 2700
c) 2900
d) 3100

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135. A bag contains 6 white and 4 black balls .2 balls are drawn
at random. Find the probability that they are of same
colour.
a) 1/ 2
b) 7/15
c) 8/15
d) 1/9

136. Fresh fruit contains 68% water and dry fruit contains 20%
water. How much dry fruit can be obtained from 100 kg of
fresh fruits ?
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50

137. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

a) 28
b) 32
c) 36
d) 40

138. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every

correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer.
If he attempts all 60 questions and secures 130 marks, the
no of questions he attempts correctly is :
a) 35
b) 38
c) 40
d) 42

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139. The last day of a century cannot be

a) Monday
b) Sunday
c) Tuesday
d) Saturday

140. A is B's sister. C is B's mother. D is C's father. E is D's

mother. Then, how is A related to D?
a) Grandfather
b) Grandmother
c) Daughter
d) Granddaughter

141. A clock is set right at 5 a.m. The clock loses 16 minutes in

24 hours.What will be the true time when the clock
indicates 10 p.m. on 4th day?
a) 11PM
b) 12PM
c) 1PM
d) 2PM

(Q.No:22-26)The following table shows the number of new

employees added to different categories of employees in a
company and also the number of employees from these
categories who left the company every year.

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Space for rough work

142. What is the difference between the total number of

Technicians added to the Company and the total number
of Accountants added to the Company during the years
1996 to 2000?
a) 128
b) 112
c) 96
d) 88

143. What was the total number of Peons working in the

Company in the year 1999?
a) 1312
b) 1192
c) 1088
d) 968

144. For which of the following categories the percentage

increase in the number of employees working in the
Company from 1995 to 2000 was the maximum?
a) Managers
b) Technicians
c) Operators
d) Accountants

145. What is the pooled average of the total number of

employees of all categories in the year 1997?
a) 1325
b) 1195
c) 1265
d) 1235

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146. During the period between 1995 and 2000, the total
number of Operators who left the Company is what
percent of total number of Operators who joined the
Company?
a) 19%
b) 21%
c) 27%
d) 29%

147. (A) '134' means 'you are well';(B) '758' means 'they go
home';(C) '839' means 'we are home';
Which of the statements can be dispensed with while answering
the above question?
a) A only
b) B only
c) A or C only
d) B or C only

148. Find the number of triangles in the given figure?

a) 18
b) 20
c) 24
d) 27

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149. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that

would complete the figure matrix.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

150. If air is called green, green is called blue, blue is called

sky, sky is called yellow, yellow is called water and water
is called pink, then what is the colour of clear sky ?
a) Blue
b) Sky
c) Yellow
d) Water

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