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GRE Chemistry Test: Practice Book
GRE Chemistry Test: Practice Book
Practice Book
This practice book contains
n one actual, full-length GRE® Chemistry Test
n test-taking strategies
Compare your practice test results with the performance of those who
took the test at a GRE administration.
www.ets.org/gre
Table of Contents
Overview ...............................................................................................................3
Test Content .........................................................................................................3
Preparing for the Test ...........................................................................................4
Test-Taking Strategies ..........................................................................................4
What Your Scores Mean .......................................................................................5
Taking the Practice Test .......................................................................................5
Scoring the Practice Test ......................................................................................5
Evaluating Your Performance ...............................................................................6
Practice Test ..........................................................................................................7
Worksheet for Scoring the Practice Test ............................................................51
Score Conversion Table .....................................................................................52
Answer Sheet ......................................................................................................53
Alt text is provided for 77 of the 130 GRE® Chemistry Test questions in this practice book. However,
because of the complexity and length of the verbal descriptions that the graphics associated with some of
the questions would require, it is not practical to provide alt text for all 130 questions in this test.
The statement “No alt text” is included for each of the 53 questions for which alt text is not provided.
If you need additional accessible practice material for the GRE Chemistry Test, contact ETS Disability
Services at 1-609-771-7780 or stassd@ets.org.
The GRE® Chemistry Test consists of about 130 A. Data Acquisition and Use of Statistics —
multiple-choice questions. Testing time is 2 hours and Errors, statistical considerations
50 minutes; there are no separately-timed sections. B. Solutions and Standardization —
A periodic table is printed in the test booklet as Concentration terms, primary standards
well as a table of information (see pages 8 and 9)
presenting various physical constants and a few C. Homogeneous Equilibria — Acid-base,
conversion factors among SI units. Whenever oxidation-reduction, complexometry
necessary, additional values of physical constants D. Heterogeneous Equilibria — Gravimetric
are printed with the text of the question. Test analysis, solubility, precipitation
questions are constructed to simplify mathematical titrations, chemical separations
manipulations. As a result, neither calculators nor E. Instrumental Methods — Electrochemical
tables of logarithms are needed. If the solution to a methods, spectroscopic methods,
problem requires the use of logarithms, the necessary chromatographic methods, thermal
values are included with the question. methods, calibration of instruments
This publication provides a comprehensive
overview of the GRE Chemistry Test to help you get F. Environmental Applications
ready for test day. It is designed to help you: G. Radiochemical Methods — Detectors,
Applications
• Understand what is being tested
• Gain familiarity with the question types II. Inorganic Chemistry (25%)
• Review test-taking strategies
A. General Chemistry — Periodic trends,
• Understand scoring oxidation states, nuclear chemistry
• Practice taking the test
B. Ionic Substances — Lattice geometries,
To learn more about the GRE Subject Tests, visit lattice energies, ionic radii and radius/
www.ets.org/gre. ratio effects
C. Covalent Molecular Substances — Lewis
Test Content diagrams, molecular point groups, VSEPR
concept, valence bond description
The content of the Chemistry Test emphasizes the and hybridization, molecular orbital
four fields into which chemistry has been traditionally description, bond energies, covalent
divided and some interrelationships, individual and van der Waals radii of the elements,
questions may test more than one field of chemistry. intermolecular forces
Some test takers may associate a particular question
D. Metals and Semiconductors — Structure,
with one field, whereas other test takers may have
band theory, physical and chemical
encountered the same material in a different field.
consequences of band theory
For example, the knowledge necessary to answer
some questions classified as testing organic chemistry E. Concepts of Acids and Bases — Brønsted-
may well have been acquired in analytical chemistry Lowry approaches, Lewis theory, solvent
courses by some test takers. Consequently, the system approaches
emphases of the four fields indicated in the following F. Chemistry of the Main Group Elements —
outline of material covered by the test should not be Electronic structures, occurrences and
considered definitive. recovery, physical and chemical properties
of the elements and their compounds
27
GRADUATE RECORD EXAMINATIONS®
CHEMISTRY TEST
SERVICE and the ETS logos are registered trademarks of Educational Testing Service.
7
8
-2
TABLE OF INFORMATION
9
CHEMISTRY TEST
Time—170 minutes
130 Questions
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or
completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding space on the answer sheet.
Throughout the test the following symbols have the specified definitions unless otherwise noted.
T = temperature M = molar
P = pressure m = molal
V = volume L = liter(s)
S = entropy mL = milliliter(s)
H = enthalpy g = gram(s)
U = internal energy kg = kilogram(s)
G = Gibbs energy m = meter(s)
A = Helmholtz energy nm = nanometer(s)
R = gas constant atm = atmosphere(s)
n = number of moles J = joule(s)
s = seconds kJ = kilojoule(s)
mol = mole(s) ppm = parts per million
C = coulomb(s) Pa = Pascal(s)
V = volt(s)
(D)
(E)
8. When the equation shown above is balanced, which of the following is true?
(A) The I − : IO3− ratio is 3:1.
(B) The MnO4− : I − ratio is 6:5.
(C) The MnO4− : Mn2+ ratio is 3:1.
(D) The H+ : I − ratio is 2:1.
(E) The MnO4− : IO3− ratio is 1:1.
(B)
18. Which of the following gives the multiplicities of 20. Which of the following is the major product of the
the signals for the protons designated HA and reaction shown above?
HB in the 1H NMR spectrum of the compound
(A)
shown above?
HA HB (B)
(A) Singlet Singlet
(C)
(B) Triplet Doublet
(C) Septet Singlet
(D) Quartet Triplet (D)
(E) Quartet Singlet
(E)
(D) The internal energy of the system decreases. (B) IR peak intensities are related to
surroundings increases.
(C) most organic functional groups
(B)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(E)
(D)
(E)
40. At a given temperature, the forward rate 42. The Rydberg equation given above accurately
constant, k1, for the one-step reaction shown predicts the UV-visible emission spectrum of the
hydrogen atom. A form of the Rydberg equation
above is 4 × 10−7 M−1 s−1. Given that the may also be used to predict the UV-visible
equilibrium constant is 1 × 10−2, what is the emission for all of the following EXCEPT
reverse rate constant, k−1 ?
(A) hydride ion, H−
(A) 8 × 10−5 M−1 s
−1 (B) deuterium atom, D
(B) 4 × 10−5 M−1 s
−1
(C) tritium atom, T
(D) helium cation, He+
(C) 4 × 10−7 M−1 s
−1
pKa 1 = 2.95
pKa 2 = 6.79
CaCO3(s) S° = 92.9 J K −1 mol −1
CaO(s) S° = 39.8 J K −1 mol −1 43. Phthalic acid, (COOH)C6H4(COOH), is a weak,
CO2(g) S° = 213.7 J K −1 mol −1 diprotic acid with dissociation constants above.
The pH of an aqueous solution of potassium
41. Given the standard molar entropies listed
acid phthalate, (COOH)C6H4(COO−K+), is
above, the standard reaction entropy, DS ∞ ,
closest to
in J K −1 mol −1, for the decomposition of
calcium carbonate into calcium oxide and (A) 9.74
carbon dioxide is (B) 7.00
(C) 6.79
(A) (92.9 + 39.8 + 213.7) (D) 4.87
(B) (−92.9 − 39.8 − 213.7) (E) 2.95
(C) (−92.9 − 39.8 + 213.7) 44. Which of the following is true for Br2
(D) (39.8 + 213.7) at standard temperature and pressure?
(E) (−92.9 + 39.8 + 213.7)
(A) It is a colorless gas.
(B) It is a red-brown volatile liquid.
(C) It is a colorless volatile liquid.
(D) It is a yellow metallic solid.
(E) It is a yellow insulating solid.
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(D)
(C) Ú y *( x) y ( x ) dx = 0
-•
+•
(D) Ú y *( x ) y ( x) dx = 1
-•
(E)
d 2y ( x )
(E) =1
dx 2
(A) y * (r ) y (r )
r *
(B) Ú0 y (r ) y(r ) dr
•
Ú0 y
*
(C) (r ) y (r ) dr
(D) y *(r ) r̂ y (r )
•
(E) 4p Ú y *(r ) rˆ y (r ) r 2 dr
0
52. Which of the following experimental observations 54. The anhydride of Ba(OH)2 is
were explained by Planck’s quantum theory?
(A) BaH2
(A) Blackbody radiation curves (B) BaOH
(B) Emission spectra of diatomic molecules
(C) Ba
(C) Electron diffraction patterns
(D) Temperature dependence of reaction rates (D) BaO2
(E) Pressure dependence of boiling points (E) BaO
-= 2 d 2
(A) Ĥ = (B) (2.9 × 10−19 J) − h(5.5 × 1014 s−1)
2m dx 2
- =2 d 2 af
(B) Hˆ
= +
2
2mR d f 2 p (C) h(5.5 × 1014 s−1) + (2.9 × 10−19 J)
-=2 d 2 1
(C) Hˆ
= + kx 2 h(5.5 ¥ 1014 s-1 )
2m dx 2 2 (D)
(2.9 ¥ 10 -19 J)
- =2 Ê ∂ 2 ∂2 ∂ 2 ˆ Ze2
Hˆ
(D)= + + -
2m ËÁ ∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∂z 2 ˜¯ r
(2.9 ¥ 10 -19 J)
(E)
-= Ê ∂
2
∂ 2
∂ ˆ
2 2
h(5.5 ¥ 1014 s-1 )
=
(E) Hˆ 2 Á 2
+ 2 + 2˜
2mR Ë ∂x ∂y ∂z ¯
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
CH 3 NaOCH 3
CH 3 CH 3OH CH 3
CH 3
O
CH 3
O
(B) O
CH 3
+ CH 3
OH
(C) O
+
CH 3
CH 2
O
(D)
(E) O
..− CH 3
CH 3
(B) (C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(E)
(E)
71. The gas-phase reaction A → products is 72. System A and system B above are identical closed
postulated to proceed by the mechanism shown systems that undergo a change of state from the
above, in which A* is an activated A molecule same initial conditions (P1, V1, T1) to the same
and M is a chemically inert gas. Assuming the final conditions (P2, V2, T2), but by a different
steady-state approximation for A*, this process. What are DU and q for the change in
mechanism yields the rate equation state for system B?
k1k3 [M][A] DU(J) q(J)
rate = .
k3 + k2 [M] (A) −300 0
(B) −300 −100
Which of the following is NOT consistent with
this mechanism? (C) −100 −100
(D) 0 −300
(A) When the partial pressure of M is very high, (E) 200 0
the reaction is first order in A.
(B) When the partial pressure of M is very high,
the reaction is first order overall.
(C) When the partial pressure of M is very low,
the reaction is second order overall.
(D) When the partial pressure of M is very low,
the rate is independent of the concentration
of A.
(E) M can be any molecule capable of
transferring energy to A upon collision.
(D)
(E)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(E)
(E)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
78. Of the following compounds, which is LEAST 80. Which of the following lists the hydrides of
likely to behave as a Lewis acid? group-14 elements in order of thermal stability,
from lowest to highest?
(A) BeCl2
(B) MgCl2 (A) PbH 4 < SnH 4 < GeH 4 < SiH 4 < CH 4
(B) PbH 4 < SnH 4 < CH 4 < GeH 4 < SiH 4
(C) ZnCl2
(C) CH 4 < SiH 4 < GeH 4 < SnH 4 < PbH 4
(D) SCl2 (D) CH 4 < PbH 4 < GeH 4 < SnH 4 < SiH 4
(E) SnCl2 (E) GeH 4 < PbH 4 < SiH 4 < SnH 4 < CH 4
(D) N2H4
(E) OH−
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(E)
(E)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
X2(g) ækæ
Æ 2 X(g)
d [X]
= k [X2 ]
2
(E)
dt
(E)
I II
III
(A)
(C)
(B) (D)
(E)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(B) DJ = 1; Du = 0
(C) DJ = 2; Du = 0
(D) DJ = 1; Du = 1
(E) DJ = 2; Du = 1
115. The equilibrium constant for the formation of Ni(en)32+, shown above, is 1010-fold greater than the equilibrium
constant for the formation of Ni(NH3)62+. The primary explanation for this large difference
is termed the
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(E)
(A) NaBr
(B) PBr3
(C) Br2, CCl4
(D) N-bromosuccinimide (NBS), hn (C)
(D)
(E)
(A) R
shown above? 2
(B) 2R
(C) R
2
(D) 3R
(E) R
2
(A) I and II
(C) II and IV
(E) IV and V
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
(E) V
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this test.
6. TITLE CODE
Copy this code in box 6 on 2 7 1 2 0 Copy the Test Name and Form Code in box 7 on your answer
your answer sheet. Then 0 0 0 0 0
sheet.
fill in the corresponding
Chemistry
1 1 1 1 1
ovals exactly as shown. 2 2 2 2 2 TEST NAME ___________________________________
GR1727
3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 FORM CODE ____________________________________
5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9
DO NOT OPEN YOUR TEST BOOK UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
Total Correct:
Total Scaled:
* The numbers in the P+ column indicate the percentages of test takers in the United States who answer each question correctly.
Total Score
Total Correct Scaled Score Total Correct Scaled Score
74 640
130 980 72-73 630
128-129 970 70-71 620
127 960 68-69 610
126 950 66-67 600
B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B BE SURE EACH MARK IS DARK AND COMPLETELY FILLS THE INTENDED SPACE AS ILLUSTRATED HERE: .
YOU MAY FIND MORE RESPONSE SPACES THAN YOU NEED. IF SO, PLEASE LEAVE THEM BLANK.
C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C
D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D 1 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 47 A B C D E 70 A B C D E 93 A B C D E
763338
E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E 2 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 48 A B C D E 71 A B C D E 94 A B C D E
F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F 3 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 49 A B C D E 72 A B C D E 95 A B C D E
1 2 3 4
G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G 4 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 50 A B C D E 73 A B C D E 96 A B C D E
H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H
Q3442/1-2/2 89176-02954 • TF212E70
5 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 51 A B C D E 74 A B C D E 97 A B C D E
I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I 6 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 52 A B C D E 75 A B C D E 98 A B C D E
J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J 7 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 53 A B C D E 76 A B C D E 99 A B C D E
K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K 8 A B C D E 31 A B C D E 54 A B C D E 77 A B C D E 100 A B C D E
L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L 9 A B C D E 32 A B C D E 55 A B C D E 78 A B C D E 101 A B C D E
M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M 10 A B C D E 33 A B C D E 56 A B C D E 79 A B C D E 102 A B C D E
N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N 11 A B C D E 34 A B C D E 57 A B C D E 80 A B C D E 103 A B C D E
O
O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O 12 A B C D E 35 A B C D E 58 A B C D E 81 A B C D E 104 A B C D E
P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P 13 A B C D E 36 A B C D E 59 A B C D E 82 A B C D E 105 A B C D E
Q
Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q 14 A B C D E 37 A B C D E 60 A B C D E 83 A B C D E 106 A B C D E
R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R 15 A B C D E 38 A B C D E 61 A B C D E 84 A B C D E 107 A B C D E
S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S 16 A B C D E 39 A B C D E 62 A B C D E 85 A B C D E 108 A B C D E
T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T 17 A B C D E 40 A B C D E 63 A B C D E 86 A B C D E 109 A B C D E
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W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W 20 A B C D E 43 A B C D E 66 A B C D E 89 A B C D E 112 A B C D E
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Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y 22 A B C D E 45 A B C D E 68 A B C D E 91 A B C D E 114 A B C D E
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YOUR NAME: SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBER (on back cover of
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(U.S.A. only)
Jan.
MAILING ADDRESS: 0 0 0 0
FORM CODE (on back cover of
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(Print) P.O. Box or Street Address
Mar. 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
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1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
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(number in upper right corner of front cover of
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CENTER: SHADED AREA FOR ETS USE ONLY
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6 6 6 6 6 6 6
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Oct. 8 8 8
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Dec.
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53
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116 A B C D E 148 A B C D E 180 A B C D E 212 A B C D E
117 A B C D E 149 A B C D E 181 A B C D E 213 A B C D E
118 A B C D E 150 A B C D E 182 A B C D E 214 A B C D E
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120 A B C D E 152 A B C D E 184 A B C D E 216 A B C D E
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