Professional Documents
Culture Documents
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I. CRIMINAL LAW (RPC BOOK I)
2. They are bodies of usages, principles and rules of action which do not
rest for their authority upon any declarative will of the legislature. It is
recognized in the United States and England but not recognized under
Philippine jurisdiction.
a. Penal laws c. Common Laws
b. Special penal laws d. None of the foregoing
5. They are not considered as a source of criminal law due to the fact
that they merely explain the meaning of and apply the law as enacted by
the legislature.
a. Revised Penal Code c. Court decisions
b. Special Penal laws d. Executive orders
8. When rape is committed and the victim was killed, the mandatory
civil indemnification shall be.
a. 30,000 c. 100,000
b. 50,000 d. 500,000
10. Which among the following may totally extinguish criminal liability?
a. Absolute pardon c. Amnesty
b. Service of sentence d. All of these
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11. It consists in the successive execution by the same individual of
different criminal acts upon any of which no conviction has yet been made.
a. Plurality of crimes c. Complex crimes
b. Formal crimes d. None of the above
12. Jemma who induced Eric a friend to kill her husband’s mistress is
criminally liable as:
a. Principal c. Accomplice
b. Accessory d. None of the above
16. Under this, crimes are not triable in that country unless they merely
affect things within the vessel or they refer to the internal management
thereof.
a. French rule c. Law of preferential application
b. English rule d. Spanish rule
22. It is the portion of the acts constituting the felony, starting from the
point where the offender begins the commission of the crime to the point
where he has control over his acts.
a. Objective phase c. Overt acts
b. Subjective phase d. Attempted felony
23. Generally they are punishable only when they have been
consummated, with the exemption of those crimes committed against
persons or property.
a. Light felonies c. Grave felonies
b. Less grave felonies d. All of the foregoing
24. Self defense or one’s natural instinct to repel, protect and save his
person or right from impending peril or danger is an example of what
circumstance which affects criminal liability?
a. Justifying c. Aggravating
b. Exempting d. Mitigating
33. In the crime of theft, the culprit is duty-bound to return the stolen
property.
a. Restitution
b. Reparation
c. Indemnification for consequential damages
d. Civil liability
35. It includes rivers, creeks, bays, gulfs, lakes, straits, coves lying
wholly within the three mile limit of any nation.
a. Maritime zone c. Low water mark
b. Interior waters d. High seas
36. It makes criminal an act done before the passage of the law which
was innocent when done, and punishes it.
a. Ex post facto law c. Law on preferential application
b. Bill of attainder d. Self repealing laws
37. Refers to one of three equal portions, called minimum, medium and
maximum of a divisible penalty.
a. Degree c. Prescription
b. Period d. Duration
40. It is the forfeiture of the right of the state to execute the final
sentence after a certain lapse of time.
a. Prescription of the crime c. Degree of the penalty
b. Prescription of the penalty d. Period of the penalty
41. It is that branch or division of law which defines crimes treats of their
nature, and provide for their punishment.
a. Civil law c. Procedural law
b. Criminal law d. Substantive law
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42. Refers to a sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period
defined by law subject to the termination by the parole board at any time
after service of the sentence.
a. Suspension c. Prescription
b. Indeterminate sentence d. Period of penalty
43. Refers to the purpose to use a particular means to effect such result.
a. Intent c. Deceit
b. Motive d. Fault
44. John commences with the execution of a felony but fails to perform
all acts which should produce it, the development or stage refers to:
a. Consummated c. Frustrated
b. Attempted d. Negligence
45. Any bodily movement that tends to produce some effect in the
external world.
a. Act c. Dolo
b. Omission d. Culpa
46. Libel and other similar offenses shall prescribe in how many years?
a. 15 years c. 5 years
b. 10 years d. 1 year
49. Under RA 7659, the death penalty may be suspended when the
accused is among the foregoing: except:
a. A woman while pregnant
b. Persons over 70 years old
c. Woman within one year after delivery
d. Persons over 18 but under 21 years of age
51. Refers to the loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender
after a certain lapse of time.
a. Prescription of the crime c. Degree of the penalty
b. Prescription of the penalty d. Period of the penalty
55. Ariel intending to kill Jiggs to avenged lost honor stabbed the latter
three times in the chest, however due to prompt medical attention Jiggs
was able to survive the attack, Ariel is liable for:
a. Physical Injuries c. Frustrated Homicide
b. Attempted Homicide d. Frustrated Murder
56. When all the elements necessary for the execution and
accomplishment of a felony are present it is said to be:
a. Consummated c. Frustrated
b. Attempted d. Negligence
63. Refers to felonies which the law imposes penalties which are
correctional in nature.
a. Grave c. Light
b. Less grave d. Serious
64. When the law attaches capital punishment or afflictive penalties the
felony is said to be?
a. Grave c. Light
b. Less grave d. Slight
66. Light felonies are made punishable only when they are:
a. Consummated c. Frustrated
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b. Attempted d. Intended
69. What occurs when a person who has decided to commit a felony
recommends its execution to some other person?
a. Conspiracy c. Proposal
b. Piracy d. None of the above
70. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the law, so
that such person is deemed not to have transgressed the law and is free
from both criminal and civil liability except for state of necessity.
a. Justifying circumstances c. Exempting circumstances
b. Mitigating circumstances d. Aggravating circumstances
72. The following are the requisites for self defense, except:
a. Unlawful aggression
b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it
c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending
himself
d. Lack of intent on the part of the person defending himself
73. What crime exists when a single act constitutes two or more grave or
less grave felonies?
a. Complex c. Composite
b. Continuing d. Compound
74. Who among the following are not exempted from criminal liability?
a. Children under 9 years of age
b. Insane persons
c. Children over 9 under 15 years of age acting with discernment
d. Imbecile persons
78. Refers to occurrences which happen beyond the sway of man’s will.
a. Nature c. Events
b. Accidents d. Phenomenon
81. They are aggravating circumstances which change the nature of the
crime, e.g. homicide to murder in case of treachery.
a. Generic c. Qualifying
b. Specific d. Inherent
85. Whenever more than three armed malefactors shall have acted
together in the commission of an offense it is deemed to have been
committed by:
a. Group c. Band
b. Brigands d. Team
86. Refers to a person who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have
been previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in
the same title of the RPC.
a. Delinquent c. Recidivist
b. Habitual delinquent d. Offender
87. A person who has within a period of 10 years from the date of release
or last conviction is said to have been found guilty of the same offense
particularly those of physical injuries, estafa, theft and robbery is
considered as a:
a. Recidivist c. Habitual delinquent
b. Delinquent d. Quasi-recidivist
88. Any person who shall commit a felony while serving his sentence with
a previous conviction is classified as a :
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a. Recidivist c. Habitual delinquent
b. Delinquent d. Quasi-recidivist
89. Which among the following is not among the requisites of evident
premeditation?
a. Sufficient lapse of time
b. Time when the offender decided to commit the felony
c. Act indicating the has clung to his determination
d. Deliberate intent
91. Gloria lends Nany a bolo which was used in the murder of Mike is
liable as an:
a. Principal c. Accomplice
b. Accessory d. Conspirator
92. Persons who aide the felons to hide away evidences or profit from the
fruits of the crime are said to be:
a. Principals c. Accomplices
b. Accessories d. Conspirators
99. Emil persuades Jude to steal from his boss is a principal by:
a. Direct participation c. Indispensable cooperation
b. Induction d. Instigation
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100. Which in the following enumeration is an example of an afflictive
penalty?
a. Fine c. Distierro
b. Arresto mayor d. Prision mayor
101. What would be the nature of action for a person over nine years of
age and under fifteen to incur criminal liability?
a. Act with discernment c. Show criminal intent
b. Show malice d. Act negligently
104. A form of protection rather than a penalty in cases of Art 247 of the
RPC.
a. Subsidiary penalty c. Suspension
b. Distierro d. Civil interdiction
105. The moving power which impels one to action for a definite result.
a. Intent c. Deceit
b. Motive d. Fault
110. Under this rule, crimes are not triable in the courts of that country,
unless their commission affects the peace and security of the territory or
the safety of the state is endangered.
a. French Rule c. Spanish Rule
b. American Rule d. English Rule
113. The foregoing are persons exempt from the operation of criminal law
by virtue of the principles of public international law, except;
a. Heads of states c. Consul
b. Ambassadors d. Charges d’ affaires
121. Which among the following circumstance where the right of the
accused may not be waived?
a. Right to cross examination
b. Right to confrontation
c. Right to be informed of the nature and cause of the charge against him.
d. All of the foregoing
122. Felonies contained in Book II of the Revised Penal Code covering Art.
114 to 365 are classified under how many different titles?
a. 12 c. 14
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b. 13 d. 15
129. Criminal law is binding to all persons who and stay in Philippine
territory, this characteristic is;
a. Territoriality c. Prospectivity
b. Generality d. Equality
130. Who among the following may not benefit from a retroactive effect of
criminal law where the new law establishes condition more lenient or
favorable to the accused?
a. A person convicted of committing rebellion
b. Habitual criminal
c. First time offender
d. A person convicted of a felony punished by death
135. Which among the following does not belong to this group?
a. Negligence c. Lack of foresight
b. Imprudence d. Intent
136. Crimes are punished under the law in effect or in force at the time of
their commission.
a. General c. Prospective
b. Territorial d. Preferential
141. Refers to those grounds where the acts committed is a crime but for
reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
a. Proximate cause c. Absolutory cause
b. Intervening cause d. Exempting circumstances
149. In order to commit the crime of rape, Dencio drunk several bottles of
San Miguel Beer Light, this circumstance is;
a. Mitigating c. Aggravating
b. Exempting d. Alternative
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II. CRIMINAL LAW (RPC BOOK 2)
2. Miriam left her .45 caliber at the table after cleaning it, her maid’s
son was able to get hold of it and played with it, the accidental discharged
killed the boy, Miriam may be held legally responsible for:
a. Homicide through reckless imprudence c. Homicide
b. Homicide through reckless negligence d. None of the foregoing
3. Dennis went out hunting with some friends, while hunting at night
he shot dead his companion Mike in the belief that he was a boar. What is
his criminal liability?
a. Homicide through reckless imprudence c. Homicide
b. Homicide through gross negligence d. Murder
4. Jong was not aware that his car brakes were defective, while cruising
along Tomas Morato Avenue, a boy crossed the street, Jong was unable to
stop his car in time, hitting the child and causing serious physical injuries.
Jong is liable for:
a. Physical injuries through imprudence c. Frustrated homicide
b. Physical injuries through negligence d. None of the foregoing
5. PO2 San Jose while engaged in hot pursuit, fired his pistol in the air
as a warning shot but instead killing a bystander is liable for:
a. Homicide through reckless imprudence c. Homicide
b. Homicide through reckless negligence d. None of the foregoing
12. A local sheriff while trying to enforce an eviction order was stabbed at
the back Mr. H killing him in the process, the former is liable for:
a. Homicide c. Direct assault
b. Murder d. Direct assault with murder
14. Allan together with his friends scattered human excrements on the
stairs and doors of their school may be held liable for:
a. Malicious mischief c. Other mischief under Art. 329
b. Grave scandal d. Unjust vexation
15. Zoilo punched his friend Pol while arguing with the latter; as a result
of the blow three incisors were lost. Zoilo may be held answerable for:
a. Physical injuries c. Less serious physical injuries
b. Slight physical injuries d. Serious physical injuries
16. An accused while raping a 21 year old lady stabbed her to death in
order to silence the latter, he may be guilty for:
a. Rape c. Rape and homicide
b. Murder d. Rape with homicide
17. A and B after robbing a local 7-11 store killed the store clerk to
dispose of any witness. They may be held liable for:
a. Robbery c. Homicide
b. Robbery and homicide d. Robbery with homicide
19. Teofila in the effort of trying to convince her co-employees to sell her
t-shirts told them that if they would not sell the goods, they will be
suspended from work, she may be liable for:
a. Grave threat c. Grave coercion
b. Light threat d. Light coercion
20. Renato was able to get hold of a ladies bag while walking in the
crowded street in Quiapo, however before absconding the crime scene he
was caught by an undercover cop, the crime of theft is:
a. Attempted c. Consummated
b. Frustrated d. None of the foregoing
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21. Totie shot Jose his brother in the abdomen, penetrating the latter’s
chest and liver, by reason of prompt medical attention the offended party
survived, what particular crime has been committed by Totie?
a. Attempted homicide c. Consummated serious physical injuries
b. Frustrated homicide d. Frustrated parricide
22. Jules aimed his pistol at his wife Alexandra with the intention to
shoot her, he then pressed the trigger but it jammed and no bullet was
fired, he is liable for what offense?
a. Attempted parricide c. Attempted murder
b. Frustrated parricide d. Attempted homicide
23. A truck loaded with stolen boxes of Lacoste T-shirts was on way out
of the guard station at the bodega surrounded by tall fence and high walls
when the guard discovered the boxes on the truck. What crime was
committed?
a. Attempted robbery c. Attempted theft
b. Frustrated robbery d. Frustrated theft
24. Ramil intended to kill Dennis by shooting the latter; however the
wound inflicted did not affect vital organs and only hit the victim’s right
arm due to Ramil’s warning before shooting him, what crime was
committed?
a. Attempted homicide c. Attempted murder
b. Frustrated homicide d. Frustrated murder
25. Refers to the obligation of obedience and fidelity which a person owes
the government under which they live, in return for protection they receive.
a. Loyalty c. Sovereignty
b. Allegiance d. Adherence
27. A policeman who arrests a person who was caught in act of punching
another slightly injuring the offended party must deliver the detained
person to proper judicial authority within how many hours?
a. 12 hours c. 24 hours
b. 18 hours d. 36 hours
28. SPO4 Antazo entered the dwelling of Ms. Recto against the latter’s
will to search for unlicensed firearms is liable for;
a. Violation of domicile c. Expulsion
b. Trespass to dwelling d. Abuse of authority
30. Eddie remarked that the Pope was Satan and that those who believe
in him are demons is liable for:
a. Interruption of religious worship c. Slander
b. Offending religious feelings d. Libel
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31. Ping a senator punched Joe a congressman, the latter filed criminal
charges against Ping for physical injuries; Ping was arrested by General
Berroya while going to congress for a special session, what crime was
committed by the arresting officer?
a. Violation of domicile c. Unlawful arrest
b. Violation on parliamentary immunity d. None
33. PO2 Candelaria asked for assistance while being mobbed for
arresting a popular criminal, three persons assisted him but they were
injured in the process, what crime was committed against the three
persons?
a. Direct assault c. Physical injuries
b. Indirect assault d. None of the foregoing
36. Nanette wrote Ricky’s name on the back of the treasury warrant
payable to the latter, as if Ricky has endorsed the check to her, then
presented it for payment, what crime was committed?
a. Forgery c. Utter
b. Import d. Counterfeiting
38. P/Insp. Boy Habagat who refrains from arresting Anjo for committing
murder in exchange for 88,000 pesos is guilty of;
a. Direct bribery c. Qualified bribery
b. Indirect bribery d. Corruption
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b. Illegal use of public funds d. Illegal use of public property
43. Andy punched Max on the eye which produced a contusion, what
crime was committed?
a. Slight physical injuries c. Serious physical injuries
b. Less serious physical injuries d. Maltreatment
45. Mario hunted and shot down a wild boar while inside a private farm
owned by Mr. Amoranto, the former may be liable for;
a. Theft c. Trespass
b. Robbery d. Qualified theft
46. Mr. J agreed to sell Mr. G first class rice and received from Mr. G the
purchase price thereof, but Mr. J delivered poor quality rice, Mr. J
committed;
a. Theft c. Abuse of confidence
b. Qualified theft d. Estafa
47. Pedro gave Eddie 3,500 pesos for payment of a Ralph Blue perfume,
however Eddie did not gave Pedro the perfume and instead absconded,
what crime was committed?
a. Estafa c. Robbery
b. Theft d. Malversation
48. X pawned his car to W, later pretending to have money for redeeming
the car X asked for it and rode away without paying the loan, X is liable
for:
a. Estafa c. Robbery
b. Theft d. Malversation
50. H who was very fond of M, kissed and embraced the latter and
touching the girl’s breast as a mere incident of the embraced is liable for;
a. Attempted rape c. Unjust vexation
b. Acts of lasciviousness d. Lewd conduct
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51. It requires the concurrence of two things, that there being an actual
assembly of men and for such purpose of executing a treasonable design
by force.
a. Aid or comfort c. Adherence to the enemy
b. Levying war d. All of the foregoing
53. A person who executes a false affidavit may be held liable for:
a. Forgery c. Falsification
b. Perjury d. False testimony
54. A threatened to kill B if the latter will not give him 2,000 pesos. What
crime has been committed by A?
a. Grave threat c. Kidnapping for ransom
b. Grave coercion d. Attempted murder
56. PO1 Mendoza, who without legal grounds detains Ms Sagun for being
ugly is liable for:
a. Illegal detention c. Kidnapping
b. Arbitrary detention d. Expulsion
60. Consists of acts which are offensive to decency and good customs,
which having been committed publicly, have given rise to public scandal to
persons who have witness the same.
a. Immoral doctrines c. Grave scandal
b. Slander d. Libel
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62. It is the unauthorized act of a public officer who compels a person to
change his residence.
a. Violation of domicile c. Trespass to dwelling
b. Arbitrary detention d. Expulsion
63. A person having knowledge of the plans to commit treason and fails
to disclose such information to the governor, fiscal or mayor is guilty of
what crime?
a. Treason c. Conspiracy to commit treason
b. Espionage d. Misprision of treason
68. This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking arms against
government to completely overthrow and supersede said existing
government.
a. Treason c. Coup d’ etat
b. Rebellion d. Sedition
71. Groups which are organized for the purpose of committing any crime
against the RPC or for other purposes contrary to public morals.
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a. Illegal assembly c. Sedition
b. Illegal association d. Rebellion
72. When a gathering of persons is held with the presence of armed men
and the purpose of the meeting is to commit any crime punishable under
the RPC, what crime is committed?
a. Illegal assembly c. Sedition
b. Illegal association d. Rebellion
75. X a PCCr student assisted SPO1 Anico who was being assaulted by
Mr. A while resisting arrest, Mr. A then kicked Mr. X. What was the crime
committed by Mr. A with respect to X?
a. Direct assault c. Resistance
b. Indirect assault d. Disobedience
76. Jason, a college student punched his gay teacher while on class may
be held liable for:
a. Direct assault c. Resistance
b. Indirect assault d. Subversion
78. Mr. K fired his pistol towards the sky during the celebration of his
birthday is liable for:
a. Illegal possession of firearms c. Alarm and scandal
b. Illegal discharge d. All of the foregoing
79. Poly who frequently introduces himself as an NBI agent under false
pretense may be held liable for:
a. Usurpation of authority c. Disobedience
b. Estafa d. Resistance
80. Lex having been convicted of estafa escaped from BJMP personnel,
what felony was committed ?
a. Delivering prisoners from jail c. Resistance
b. Evasion of service of sentence d. Disobedience
81. To settle his debt, Lucas imitated 500 peso, he is liable for:
a. Falsification of documents c. Forgery
b. Intercalation d. Rubric
83. Any other name of a person which publicly applies to himself without
authority of the law.
a. Alias c. Fictitious name
b. AKA d. True name
84. To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of persons to proper
judicial authorities, a person caught in the act of committing a felony
punishable by penalties which are correctional in nature must be delivered
to said authorities within how many hours?
a. 12 c. 36
b. 18 d. 48
86. PO2 Paras, forcibly entered the dwelling of Benjie who is a suspected
drug pusher, what crime was committed by the public officer?
a. Violation of domicile c. Trespass to dwelling
b. Arbitrary detention d. Expulsion
90. To expedite the processing of benefit claims from the GSIS a clerk
accepted 1,000 pesos from the Mr. H. , the clerk is liable for:
a. Bribery c. Indirect bribery
b. Qualified bribery d. Direct bribery
91. B wanted to kill A, he then executed his plan by ramming over the
latter with his automobile killing B instantly, what was the crime
committed?
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Murder d. Infanticide
92. Anne killed her husband Jojo by means of poison, she is liable for:
a. Parricide c. Homicide
c. Murder d. Infanticide
93. Pedro due to his addiction killed his child less than 3 days old, he is
guilty of what crime?
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a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Murder d. Infanticide
94. It is the violent expulsion of a human fetus from the maternal womb
of birth which results in death.
a. Infanticide c. Murder
b. Abortion d. Parricide
96. A public officer who refrains from arresting a person who has
committed a crime punishable by reclusion perpetua in exchange for
money.
a. Bribery c. Indirect bribery
98. A person who shall kill his father, mother or child shall be guilty of
what felony?
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Murder d. Infanticide
99. The unlawful killing of a child less than three years old.
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Murder d. Infanticide
100. A person fired his pistol while paramour of his father was walking
farther away from him killing the latter instantly is guilty of?
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Murder d. Infanticide
101. Romeo, having carnal knowledge with a prostitute less than 12 years
old is liable for:
a. Rape c. Seduction
b. Acts of lasciviousness d. Abduction
102. A private individual who detains another for the purpose of depriving
the latter of his liberty for more than three days is guilty of:
a. Illegal detention c. Serious illegal detention
b. Arbitrary detention d. Slight illegal detention
103. Jun who got into a dispute with Jeff, assaulted the latter for the
purpose of delivering his victim to the jailer is guilty of what crime?
a. Illegal detention c. Unlawful arrest
b. Illegal arrest d. Physical injuries
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104. Refers to a crime committed by any person who threatens another
with the infliction upon the person, honor, or property of the latter or of his
family of any wrong amounting to a crime.
a. Grave threat c. Grave coercion
b. Light threat d. Light coercion
108. A woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive the latter of its
use, is committing what crime?
a. Physical Injury c. Tumultuous affray
b. Duel d. Mutilation
109. What crime was committed by a Mike who bit off the ear of his
opponent while in a boxing match?
a. Mutilation c. Less serious physical injuries
b. Serious physical injury d. Slight physical injuries
112. Any person who, by means of violence shall seize anything belonging
to his debtor for the purpose of applying the same to the payment of a
debt, is committing:
a. Grave threat c. Grave coercion
b. Light threat d. Light coercion
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115. What crime was committed when a person burned the house of his
dead victim to hide the body of the crime?
a. Complex crime c. Arson with homicide
b. Murder d. Homicide and arson
116. PO3 Diokno was stabbed while walking along a dark alley, he died
on the spot and the perpetrator took his service pistol?
a. Murder c. Homicide and robbery
b. Robbery d. Robbery with homicide
117. It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the sake of causing
damage due to hate, revenge or other evil motive.
a. Swindling c. Malicious mischief
b. Destruction of property d. Chattel mortgage
118. What crime was committed by Tess a married person, having sexual
intercourse with Ody who is not her husband?
a. Adultery c. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Concubinage d. Seduction
119. Boy, a married man who allowed his paramour to live in their
conjugal dwelling is liable for what crime?
a. Adultery c. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Concubinage d. Seduction
120. Lewd acts committed upon persons of either sex not amounting to
rape by using force or intimidation.
a. Adultery c. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Concubinage d. Seduction
121. A person who ripped the dress of a woman and rubbed his penis over
the woman’s genital without taking off the panty is liable for what crime?
a. Rape c. Forcible abduction
b. Seduction d. Acts of lasciviousness
122. Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his girlfriend by
promising the latter with marriage, what crime was committed?
a. Seduction c. Abduction
b. Acts of lasciviousness d. None of these
124. Allan took several jewelry from a room in which he entered through
the window committed what crime?
a. Robbery c. Brigandage
b. Theft d. Estafa
126. G stole a Rolex watch from a locker by means of the key of the owner,
what crime was committed?
a. Theft c. Possession of pick locks
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b. Robbery d. Possession of false keys
127. A crime committed by more than three armed malefactors who form a
band for the purpose of committing robbery in the highway or kidnapping
persons for the purpose of extortion or to obtain ransom, or for any other
purpose to be attained by means of force and violence.
a. Robbery c. Brigandage
b. Kidnapping d. Theft
128. Committed by any person who, with intent to gain but without
violence or intimidation of persons nor force upon things, shall take
personal property of another without the latter’s consent.
a. Robbery c. Brigandage
b. Kidnapping d. Theft
129. Jolina a housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away the
furniture of her employer would be charged of what crime?
a. Theft c. Qualified theft
b. Robbery d. Estafa
130. Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the property
would be larger when surveyed is a crime of:
a. Estafa c. Usurpation
b. Chattel mortgage d. Altering boundaries or landmarks
133. Joe recruited several barrio mates to engage in the sex trade, what
crime was committed?
a. Prostitution c. Slavery
b. White slave trade d. None of the foregoing
134. A person who forced his girlfriend to elope with him is guilty of what
crime?
a. Forcible abduction c. Seduction
b. Consented abduction d. Qualified seduction
135. Dingoy was able to have carnal knowledge with Maria his girlfriend
while the latter was drunk, what crime was committed?
a. Acts of lasciviousness c. Qualified seduction
b. Rape d. None of these
136. Having carnal knowledge with a 16 year old girl with the use of deceit
constitutes what crime?
a. Seduction c. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Abduction d. Rape
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137. A public and malicious imputation of a crime, vice or defect.
a. Libel c. Slander
b. Slander by deed d. Incriminatory machination
140. Voluntary but without malice failing to do an act from which material
damage results by reason of inexcusable lack of precaution on the part of
the person performing the act.
a. Negligence c. Reckless imprudence
b. Imprudence d. Reckless negligence
141. The following are crimes over which Philippine Laws have jurisdiction
even if committed outside the country, except:
a. Espionage c. Treason
b. Piracy and Mutiny d. Rebellion
143. Elsa slapped Fely’s face in front of their co-employees, what crime was
committed by Elsa?
a. Slander by deed c. Malicious mischief
b. Unjust vexation d. Physical injury
146. In a fit of jealousy, Maria set fire on the “La Coste” shirt of her
boyfriend, Pedro. What crime did Maria commit?
a. Arson c. Destruction of private property
b. Physical injuries d. Malicious mischief
147. A with intention to kill B went to the house of the latter. B was found
lying in bed and A shot B three times in the head, without knowing that an
hour before, B died of a heart attack, what crime was committed?
a. Murder c. Impossible crime
b. Homicide d. Trespass to dwelling
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148. Crimes against religious worship are of two kinds, one is offending
religious feelings and the other is_______.
a. Interruption of religious worship c. Revelation of religious secret
b. Usurpation of powers d. None of these
149. A suspended city mayor who continues to exercise his powers and
duties of office may be liable for;
a. Sedition c. Abandonment of office or position
b. Prolonging performance of duties and powers d. Disobedience
152. The act of a person who shall orally threaten to do another any harm
not constituting a felony is committing;
a. Grave threat c. Grave coercion
b. Light threat d. Light coercion
153. X picked the pocket of Y, took Y’s wallet and walked away. Y
discovered that his wallet was taken ran after X, who was casually walking
a few meters ahead. Y confronted X to return his wallet, but X punched Y
and ran away. What crime was committed?
a. Theft c. Frustrated theft
b. Robbery d. Frustrated robbery
Case study 1:
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Questions:
Case Study 2:
Questions:
162. Assuming that X was drunk at the time of the committed the offense;
his drunkenness would be considered as:
a. Mitigating circumstance c. Alternative circumstance
b. Exempting circumstance d. Aggravating circumstance
163. Should the result of the blow of X was death to Y, the investigator on
case should concentrate and stress on:
a. Whether or not X was drunk
b. Whether or not there was really no intent to kill
c. Whether or not Y was also drunk
d. The Barangay court has no jurisdiction
Case Study 3:
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Dr. Cantada had frequently quarreled with his wife Veronica due to his
illicit relation with his secretary, he decided at the spur of the moment to
kill his wife after the latter slapped him. He mixed poison in her milk, but
when his wife drunk it, He employed his medical skills in extracting the
substance from her stomach thereby preventing her death.
Questions:
Case study 4:
Questions:
167. What was the criminal participation of C in the killing of his brother?
a. Principal by direct participation
b. Principal by induction
c. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Accomplice
170. Assuming that A took several jewelry from B, and gave it to his wife
who knew where it came from and the latter sold it for profit, what was the
criminal participation of the wife of A?
a. Principal c. Accomplice
b. Accessory d. None of the above
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1. Which among the foregoing may not be filed by the accused before
arraignment?
a. Motion to quash c. Bill of lading
b. Motion to suspend proceedings d. Bill of particulars
4. Which among the following may not be undertaken during the pre-
trial?
a. Marking of evidence c. Stipulation of facts
b. Examination of witnesses d. Plea bargaining
8. The following are valid venue for the application for search warrant,
except:
a. Any regional trial court
b. Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction the crime was committed
c. Any court within the judicial region where the crime was committed
d. Any court within the judicial region where the warrant may be
enforceable.
10. Within how many days after the prosecution has rested its case, may a
motion for leave to file demurrer to evidence be filed?
a. 5 days c. 15 days
b. 10 days d. 30 days
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11. Preliminary investigation is required before the filing of information or
complaint where the penalty for the offense is:
a. At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day c. Exceeding 6 years
b. At least 6 years d. Exceeding 4 years, 2 months
12. Which among the foregoing pleadings may be filed in a criminal case?
a. Cross claim c. Third party complainant
b. Counterclaim d. Counter-affidavit
13. When may the reservation of the right to institute a separate civil
action shall be made?
a. Before the presentation of evidence of the prosecution
b. Before the prosecution rests
c. Before arraignment
d. During the pre-trial conference
14. The following except one, are valid venues, where may petition for
suspension of criminal action by reason of a pending prejudicial question
in a civil proceeding:
a. Office of the prosecutor
b. The court where the criminal case is pending
c. The court where the civil case is pending
d. The court conducting preliminary investigation
15. The foregoing offenses shall only be prosecuted upon a complaint of the
offended party, her parents or grandparents except:
a. Rape c. Seduction
b. Abduction d. Acts of lasciviousness
16. In designating the offense, which among the following is not included in
the complaint or information?
a. Name of the offense c. Acts which constitute the offense
b. Mitigating circumstances d. Aggravating circumstances
17. Civil action for the recovery of civil damages arising from a criminal
offense is deemed instituted with the criminal action. This rule does not
apply in the following cases, except:
a. When the offended party institutes the criminal action
b. When the offended party waives the civil action
c. When the offended party institutes the civil action before the criminal
action.
d. When the offended party reserves the right to institute a separate civil
action.
21. Refers to the authority of the court to hear and decide cases.
a. Venue c. Jurisdiction
b. Criminal Procedure d. Jurisprudence
24. In the Metropolitan Trial Courts, the complaint may be filed with:
a. Office of the prosecutor c. Office of the judge
b. Office of the clerk of court d. Office of the Ombudsman
27. In crimes involving adultery and concubinage, who may file the
compliant?
a. The prosecutor
b. Any peace officer charged with enforcement of the law violated
c. The offended spouse
d. All of the foregoing
29. When may the offended party be allowed to intervene in criminal cases?
a. When he has not waived the civil action
b. When he has waived the civil action
c. When he has filed the civil action before filing the criminal case
d. When he has expressly reserved the right to institute a separate civil
action.
32. In fixing the amount of bail, which among the following is not
essential?
a. Age and health of the accused
b. Character and reputation of the accused
c. Probability that the accused will appear in the trial
d. None of the foregoing
33. If the crime charged is unclear, what motion may be filed before the
arraignment?
a. Bill of particular c. Motion to quash
b. Motion for new trial d. Motion to dismiss
40. A counsel de officio is generally given how many days to prepare for
trial?
a. 2 days c. 5 days
b. 3 days d. 15 days
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42. This system of criminal justice is conducted either at the initiative of
the public prosecutor or the offended party and the right to appeal is
limited to the defense.
a. Fixed c. Inquisitorial
b. Mixed d. Accusatorial
43. Defined as a method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution
of persons alleged to have committed a crime, and for their punishment in
case of conviction.
a. Criminal justice system c. Criminal procedure
b. Rules of court d. Rules of procedure
51. Which among the following may not be filed before the judgment
becomes final?
a. Motion to quash c. Motion for new trial
b. Motion for reconsideration d. Notice of appeal
58. The duty of the party to present evidence to establish his claim is
referred to as:
a. Burden of proof c. Bill of particulars
b. Burden of evidence d. Presentation of evidence
60. Which among the following is not covered by the rules on summary
procedures?
a. Violation of traffic laws
b. Violation of rental laws
c. Where the penalty does not exceed 6 months imprisonment
d. Where the penalty is more than six months imprisonment
62. The part of trial wherein the civil aspect of the case may be amicably
settled.
a. Plea bargaining c. Preliminary investigation
b. Hearing d. Pre-trial
65. In rape cases, who among the following may file a complaint?
a. Offended party
b. Peace officer
c. Public officer charged with enforcement of the law violated
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d. All of the foregoing
66. Who among the following may not conduct a preliminary investigation?
a. City or provincial fiscals and their assistants
b. Judges of the MTC’s
c. National and regional prosecutors
d. DOJ personnel
69. Refers to a security given for the temporary release of a person in the
custody of the law.
a. Bond c. Surety
b. Bail d. Insurance
72. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the first
instance is regarded as:
a. General jurisdiction c. Delegated jurisdiction
b. Original jurisdiction d. Appellate jurisdiction
83. Generally, after a plea of not guilty is entered, how many days are given
by law for the accused to prepare for his trial.
a. 2 days c. 4 days
b. 3 days d. 5 days
84. Refers to the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty of not
guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of proper penalty and civil
liability provided for by law on the accused.
a. Conviction c. Decision
b. Judgment d. Conclusion
87. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an accused
is:
a. Plea bargaining c. Motion to dismiss
b. Motion to quash d. Bill of particulars
89. Cases wherein the penalty does not exceed 6 months fall under the rule
on:
a. Civil procedure c. Summary procedure
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b. Criminal procedure d. Special procedure
92. Upon learning that a complaint or information has been filed without a
preliminary investigation, within how many days is allowed by the rules for
the accused to ask for a preliminary investigation?
a. 5 days c. 15 days
b. 10 days d. 30 days
93. If the judgment rendered by the trial court changes the nature of the
offense form a non-bailable to bailable, where can the bail application be
resolved?
a. Appellate court c. Regional Trial Court
b. Trial court d. Metropolitan Trial Court
95. Which among the following offense where bail may be applied?
a. Frustrated murder c. Parricide
b. Rape d. Murder
96. Refers to an offense under the law existing at the time of the
commission and application for admission to bail may be punished with
death.
a. Heinous crime c. Capital punishment
b. Special crime d. Capital offense
98. In the following instances the accused is allowed under the rules to
plead guilty, except:
a. At the arraignment c. After arraignment but before trial
b. Upon entering his plea d. During trial
99. When may the accused admitted to bail be allowed to question the
legality of his arrest?
a. Before trial c. Before the preliminary investigation
b. Before arraignment d. Before conviction
100. An accused who pleads guilty but offers exculpatory evidence will
cause an effect of:
a. He is making a conditional plea
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b. A plea of not guilty shall be entered for him
c. He shall be treated as guilty and will eventually be convicted
d. He will be treated as refusing his plea.
101. The following are requisites before a court can validly exercise
jurisdiction, except:
a. It must have jurisdiction over the investigation
b. It must have jurisdiction over the person of the accused
c. It must have jurisdiction over the subject matter
d. It must have jurisdiction over the territory where the offense was
committed.
106. Criminal cases where the penalty prescribed by law for the offense
charged does not exceed six months falls under the rule on:
a. Criminal procedure c. Civil procedure
b. Regular procedure d. Summary procedure
107. Under the Local Government Code of 1991, the Lupon of each
Barangay shall have authority to bring together the parties actually
residing in the same city or municipality for amicable settlement where the
offense committed is punished by imprisonment exceeding one year. This
is:
a. Partly true c. Absolutely true
b. Partly false d. Absolutely false
115. The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf of the
incapacitated victim with no known relative is:
a. Police power c. Habeas corpus
b. Power of eminent domain d. Doctrine of parens patria
116. Even if the offended party is a minor, she can initiate the prosecution
for the crime of seduction. This statement is:
a. Partly true c. Wholly true
b. Partly false d. Wholly false
117. The wife dies before she could institute a criminal action for
concubinage against her husband and his paramour. The case may:
a. Still be prosecuted c. No longer be prosecuted
b. Be prosecuted by the State d. Be prosecuted by the wife’s parents
120. The following are requisites for the issuance of a warrant of arrest,
except:
a. It must be issued upon probable cause to be determined personally by
the judge.
b. After examination under oath of the complainant and his witness
c. It must describe the person to be arrested
d. It must describe the place to be searched
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121. Which of the foregoing fall under the exclusive original jurisdiction of
the Metropolitan Trial Court, Municipal Trial Court and Municipal Circuit
Trial Court?
a. Violations of city and municipal ordinances
b. Probationable cases
c. Offenses punishable by prision mayor
d. Offenses which are afflictive in nature
122. The waiver of the right to appear by the accused has this effect.
a. There is a waiver of the right to present evidence
b. The accused waives his right to confrontation
c. The prosecution can present evidence if the accused fails to appear
d. Both A and B
127. This is used as the primary basis to determine the real nature of the
crime charged in an information or complaint.
a. Facts recited in the complaint or information
b. Evidence to be presented
c. Title at the charge sheet
d. Law specifically violated
128. The requisite for the waiver of a person under custodial investigation
is:
a. Waiver in writing
b. Voluntarily, knowingly and intelligently
c. With the counsel’s presence and assistance
d. All of these
129. Which of the following does not justify arrest without warrant?
a. Fresh pursuit
b. Continuing crime
c. Fugitives from justice
d. Arrest based on citizen complaint and police suspicion
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130. Condition that must be satisfied before the institution of a criminal
action in court which may be amicably settled in the Barangay court
under the Local Government Code of 1991.
a. Settlement has been repudiated
b. Confrontation between parties at the Lupon
c. Certification of no conciliation
d. Any of these
1. It means any waters on the sea coast which are without boundaries
of low-water mark.
a. International waters c. High seas
b. Interior waters d. Maritime zone
14. They should be objected to at the time they are being offered in court.
a. Oral evidence c. Expert evidence
b. Documentary evidence d. Testimonial evidence
18. When it prompts the witness to give an answer the examiner wants to
hear it is said to be:
a. Leading question c. Compound question
b. Misleading question d. General question
19. What did you observe after they got married is an example of a
a. Compound question c. Misleading question
b. Leading question d. General question
21. The following are the criteria used to determine whether or not a
child regardless of age may be considered as a competent witness, except:
a. Capacity of observation c. Capacity of communication
b. Capacity of recollection d. None of these
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22. What must be established, in addition to sexual intercourse in cases
of rape?
a. Use of force or intimidation by the offender
b. Resistance on the part of the victim
c. Sterility of the offender
d. All of the foregoing
25. Those evidences which results in the greatest certainty of the fact in
question?
a. Primary or best evidence c. Competent evidence
b. Secondary evidence d. Conclusive evidence
36. Refers to inferences which the law makes so preemptory that it will
not allow them to be overturned by any contrary proof.
a. Presumption c. Disputable presumption
b. Conclusive presumption d. Estoppel
40. Which among the following are not elements of a corpus delicti?
a. The accused need not necessarily be the doer of the act
b. Some person is criminally responsible for the act
c. That a certain result has been produced
d. None of the foregoing
43. Occurs when the evidence adduced proves the disputed fact.
a. Cumulative c. Circumstantial
b. Corroborative d. Relevant
46. Who among the following are automatically disqualified to take the
witness stand?
a. Sick persons c. Homosexuals and lesbians
b. Children d. Insane persons
47. Evidence which shows that a best evidence existed as to the proof of
the fact in question.
a. Real evidence c. Secondary evidence
b. Best evidence d. Res gestae
50. A duplicate receipt signed and carbon copied at the same time is in
terms of its evidentiary value is deemed as:
a. Duplicate c. Authentic
b. Original d. Genuine
56. In this sort of action, a person merely acknowledges certain facts but
does not admit his guilt.
a. Testimony c. Confession
b. Admission d. Extra-judicial confession
62. A degree of proof below that of proof beyond reasonable doubt, which
taken in its entirely is superior to that of another.
a. Best evidence c. Preponderance of evidence
b. Secondary evidence d. Weight of evidence
64. Which among the foregoing is not part of the judicial rule for
sufficiency of circumstantial evidence to convict an accused?
a. There is more than one circumstance
b. The facts from which the inference are derived must be proved
c. The combination of all the circumstance is such as to produce a
conviction beyond reasonable doubt.
d. It must be of judicial recognizance
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65. Minimum number of witnesses required in rape cases to secure a
conviction.
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. None
66. Presumption which the law makes so preemptory that it will not
allow them to be reversed by any contrary evidence.
a. Presumption c. Conclusion
b. Disputable presumption d. Conclusive presumptions
67. Logical necessity which rests upon a party at any particular time
during the trail to create a prima facie case in his own favor or to overthrow
one created against him.
a. Res gestae c. Burden of proof
b. Burden of evidence d. Estoppel
77. Those evidences which are admissible in court are held to be:
a. Relevant c. Competent
b. Material d. Direct
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78. Refers to an evidence of the same kind adduced to prove the same
fact.
a. Real c. Corroborative
b. Cumulative d. Circumstantial
79. Additional evidence of a different kind but tending to prove the same
fact.
a. Real c. Corroborative
b. Cumulative d. Circumstantial
80. Oral testimony given in open court.
a. Real evidence c. Testimonial evidence
b. Documentary evidence d. Admission evidence
81. Evidence delivered in open court wherein the witness states that he
does not know whether a fact did or did not occur.
a. Positive c. Direct
b. Negative d. Circumstantial
86. Cognizance of certain facts which judges may properly take as fact
because they are already known to them.
a. Cognizance c. Judicial knowledge
b. Judicial Admission d. Judicial Notice
87. One which assumes as true a fact not yet testified to by the witness,
or contrary to that which he has previously stated.
a. Leading c. Confusing
b. Misleading d. Res Gestae
89. When a witness affirms that a fact did or did not occur, such
testimony is said to be:
a. Relevant evidence c. Positive evidence
b. Material evidence d. Negative evidence
90. Which among the following may not be a means to impeach a judicial
record?
52
a. Want of jurisdiction in the court or judicial officer
b. Collusion between the parties
c. Fraud in the party offering the record
d. Alterations
96. Who among the following may be used to prove the handwriting of a
person in open court?
a. Secretary of the accused for 20 years
b. A questioned document examiner
c. Friend and co-employee of the accused for more than 20 years
d. Any of the foregoing
99. When can the adverse party object to any testimonial evidence?
a. After the testimony of the witness
b. After the direct examination of the witness
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c. During the cross examination
d. At any time and as soon as the grounds therefore become reasonably
apparent.
105. Who among the following may give intelligible answers as witnesses?
a. A registered voter c. A feeble minded person
b. A child of tender age d. A deaf-mute person
107. The following are means of impeaching a witness of the adverse party,
except:
a. In case of a hostile witness
b. By contradictory evidence
c. Evidence that his general reputation for truth or integrity is bad.
d. Inconsistencies of statements made with respect to the testimony.
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108. These are testimonies which are read and submitted as evidence
provided that the despondent is dead or cannot testify or outside the
country.
a. Deposition c. Testimonial evidence
b. Oral testimony d. Extra judicial statements
110. Res gestae may be admissible with the following requisites, except:
a. There must be a startling occurrence
b. The statement must be spontaneous.
c. The statements made must refer to the occurrence in question and its
attending circumstance.
d. It must exist previous to the controversy
55
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
56
I. POLICE ORGANIZATION AND ADMINISTRATION
1. The most common type of police organizational structure in the rural areas
is the:
a. Line c. Line and staff
b. Functional d. Functional line
6. It is the law or act that abolished the Integrated National Police and the
Philippine Constabulary.
a. RA 6975 c. RA 7610
b. PA 8551 d. RA 6713
8. Which of the various police laws has for its purposes the promotion of a
higher degree of efficiency in the organization, administration and operation of
local police agencies and to place the local police service on a professional
level:
a. RA 4864 c. RA 8551
b. RA 6975 d. PD 765
9. It is the presidential decree that the integrated cities and municipalities into
a single unit known as Metropolitan Police Force.
a. PD 421 c. PD 531
b. PD 482 d. PD 585
10. In this police law, the state, among other goals, shall bolster a system of
coordination and cooperation among the citizenry, local executives and the
integrated law enforcement and public safety agencies.
a. RA 4864 c. RA 8551
b. RA 6975 d. PD 765
13. A statute which provides for the organization and government of insular
constabulary.
a. Act 225 c. PD 765
b. RA 4864 d. RA 6975
15. This viewpoint stresses that punishment is the sole instrument of social
control.
a. Old concept c. Continental theory
b. Modern concept d. Home rule theory
21. Which of the following is not a principle of “Line and Staff” relationship?
a. Span of control c. Staff independence
b. Staff advise d. Limitation of staff economy
26. Except for one, listed functions are all operational tasks:
a. Patrol c. Traffic control
b. Investigation d. Inspection and audit
28. In strikes, the police and military line should be at least______ meters away
from the picket line.
a. 20 c. 40
b. 30 d. 50
29. Except for one, listed functions are all auxiliary tasks:
a. Crime laboratory c. Communication
b. Records d. Juvenile control
30. Which of the following functions are not classified as auxiliary service
task?
a. Records management c. Communications management
b. Property management d. Security management
31. During the Pre-Spanish Period, the function of policing was a job of the:
a. Guardia Civil c. Sultan
b. Barangay Headman d. Guardrilleros
32. Rural Philippine Police organized in each town in 1836 is known as:
a. Guardrilleros c. Politia
b. Guardia Civil d. Barangay police
59
35. Peace officers are treated as state servants and people have minimal share
in their duties or any direct connection with them. This reflected as:
a. Old concept c. Continental theory
b. New concept d. Home rule theory
36. Policeman depends for their effectiveness in their functions upon express
wishes of the community because they are considered as servants of the
people. This concept is described as:
a. Home rule theory c. Continental theory
b. Traditional theory on policing d. Old concept
37. Continuing Police Education and Training for PNP uniformed personnel is
a basic responsibility of:
a. National Police Commission c. Philippine Public Safety College
b. Philippine National Police d. National Police College
40. Transport Police Services is embraced in the general police function of:
a. Line c. Line-staff
b. Staff d. Secondary
44. Recognition and definition of a problem is the first step in planning. Which
of the following in not a further step in planning?
a. Delegation of responsibility
b. Determination of possible solutions
c. Collection and analysis of facts
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d. d. Selection of best solution.
48. The function of control can be divided into three parts. Which of the
following is not a part of control?
a. Initiation of activities c. Comparison of results with standards
b. Supervision of activities d. Corrective action
49. The most complex of the factors with which top management must deal
with is:
a. Men c. Materials
b. Money d. Mechanics
51. The staff officer of the Chief of Police is related to the latter as his:
a. Alta ego c. Administrative support
b. Extension d. Coordinator
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b. Communications Center usually prepares the original records of complaints
received
c. Communications should be coordination with records division
d. Training for records and communications is similar
55. Provision for police radio is primarily important because it increases the
speed of police action and observes it.
a. Provides a sense of security to patrolling officers
b. Makes possible more effective use of the patrol force
c. Attracts better men to the police service
d. Aids the police in obtaining public acceptance of its crime prevention
program
56. The smooth interchange of thoughts, ideals and opinions and the effective
communication within an organization requires that all the lines of
communication be essentially.
a. Upward movement c. Across-upward
b. Downward-across d. Upward ,downward & across
57. The most basic considerations in locating a police station within a fixed
political jurisdiction are:
a. Center of community progress
b. Convenience to public clientele
c. Near working center of police activities
d. Consistent within local zoning restrictions
71. What is the Civil Service eligibility equivalent of Master of Public Safety
Administration under Executive Order 400?
a. Career Service Professional Eligibility
b. Honor’s First Grade Eligibility for PPSC Scholar
c. Career Executive Service Officer Eligibility
d. Senior Officer Public Safety Eligibility
72. Except for one the following are practical methods of Police Supervisory
training:
a. Conference method c. Study method
b. Lecture method d. Role playing method
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76. For promotion to P/Inspector, the training required for permanent status
is:
a. Public Safety Officer Candidate Course
b. Public Safety Officer Supervisory Course
c. Public Safety Basic Officer’s Course
d. Public Safety Inspector’s Course
78. What is the highest Police career training given by the PPSC for permanent
appointment as Police Superintendent?
a. PS Officer Advance Course
b. PS Officer Advance Management Course
c. PS Officer Senior Executive Course
d. PS Officer Senior Supervisor’s Course
79. The PPSC thru the PNPA grants a bachelor’s degree for permanent
appointment as Inspector in the police, fire and jail service. This bachelor’s
degree is officially described as:
a. Bachelor of Science in Police Administration
b. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety
c. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety Management
d. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety Administration
80. What constitutive unit of the PPSC grants Master’s Degree in Public Safety
Administration?
a. Philippine National Police Academy
b. National Police College
c. National Public Safety College
d. National Public Safety Academy
81. The Philippine Public Safety College was created as an attached agency to
the DILG. The enabling congressional act is:
a. RA 6975 c. RA 7610
b. RA 8551 d. RA 6713
84. Women’s desk in all police stations nation-wide shall be established by the
___________ to administer and attend to cases involving crimes against
chastity, sexual harassment, abuses against women and children among
others.
64
a. PNP c. National Police Commission
b. Local city/ Municipal Mayor d. Sangguniang Panglunsod
85. The internal affairs services of the PNP created under RA 8551 as part of
the reform-reorganization movement in the PNP performs the following, except
for one:
a. Investigative-prosecutorial functions
b. Investigative & monitoring functions
c. Adjudicatory functions
d. Appellate functions
87. The following, except for one educational institution are initial constitutive
units of the PPSC on its creation in 1991.
a. PNPA
b. Jail Service Training Service Center
c. Philippine National Training Center
d. National Police College
88. What is the entry training for PNP permanent appointment in the initial
rank of Police Officer I?
a. On the job training for recruits
b. Basic police training for recruits
c. Basic orientation course
d. Police recruit candidate course
89. For permanent promotion to Senior Police Officer I or SPO2, what is the
career police training required?
a. Public Safety Officer Supervisor’s Course
b. Public Safety Junior Leadership Course
c. Public Safety Junior Supervisor’s Course
d. Public Safety Senior Leadership Course
90. The career training required for lateral entry as a professional in the rank
of Inspector or Senior Inspector, PNP is:
a. Public Safety Officer Candidate Course
b. Public Safety Officer Orientation Course
c. Public Safety Officer Inspector’s Course
d. Public Safety Basic Officer Course
91. That level of training that prepares the top that prepare the top
administrative personnel of the force maximizes/enhances decision-making
policy deliberating responsibilities.
a. Management Training
b. Total Quality Executive Training
c. Advanced Leadership Training
d. Proficiency Occupational Training
92. Under the police reform and reorganization law, a Field training Program
for all PNP uniformed members is required for permanency of their
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appointment consisting of 12 months. Basic areas of actual experience and
assignment during this period shall be on:
a. Patrol, traffic and investigation
b. Patrol, investigation and instructional duties
c. Patrol, investigation and auxiliary services
d. Traffic, investigation and staff duty
95. If the military service top officer’s corps has their National Defense College
of the Philippines for their highest educational program, what has the police
service have by way of identical educational program?
a. Philippine National Police Academy
b. Philippine Public Safety College System
c. National Police College
d. Police College of the Philippines
99. Except for one the following are identifiable as administrative service
function:
a. Police training
b. Police personnel management
c. Accounting, auditing and budgeting
d. Transportation management
102. Refers to the officer having the highest rank or grade according to their
date of appointment to that grade.
a. Superior officer c. Commanding officer
b. Sworn officer d. Ranking officer
104. A personnel of the police department who possess the power of arrest and
has an oath of office.
a. Superior officer c. Commanding officer
b. Sworn officer d. Ranking officer
105. Refers to those police officers whose ranks ranges from PO1 to SPO4.
a. Ordinary police units c. Commissioned officers
b. Non commissioned officers d. None of these
106. In the Philippine National Police four stars is the delegated insignia of;
a. Deputy director General c. Chief Superintendent
b. Director d. Director General
107. They constitute police officers from the Director General to police
inspectors.
a. Commanding officers c. Ranking officers
b. Superior officers d. Commissioned officers
111. The NAPOLCOM is a collegial body, whose members are appointed by the
president, it is composed of a chairperson and four regular commissioners, of
whom should be a woman, the ____ regular commissioners shall come from
the civilian sector.
a. Two c. Four
b. Three d. None of these
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114. Automatic deputation of local executives as NAPOLCOM representatives
shall be withdrawn in which of the following cases?
a. Frequent unauthorized absences and abuse of authority
b. Providing material support to criminal elements
c. Engaging in acts inimical to national security or which negate their
effectiveness of the peace and order campaign.
d. Any of the foregoing
115. Under the law, they may recommend the recall or re-assignment of the
chief of police, when the latter has been ineffective in combating crime or
maintaining peace and order in the municipality.
a. City mayors c. Governors
b. Municipal mayors d. Local peace and order council
116. Generally, a city or municipal mayor chooses the chief of police from a list
of five eligible coming from the;
a. Regional director c. NAPOLCOM
b. Provincial director d. DILG
117. Shall mean the power to direct, superintend, and oversee the day-to-day
functions of police investigation of crime, crime prevention activities, and
traffic control in accordance with the rules and regulations.
a. Employment c. Operational supervision and control
b. Deployment d. All of these
118. Refers to the utilization of units or elements of the PNP for purposes of
protection of lives and properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace
and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of criminal offenders and bringing the
offenders to justice, and ensuring public safety, particularly in the
suppression of disorders, riots, lawlessness, violence, rebellious and seditious
conspiracy, insurgency, subversion or other related activities.
a. Employment c. Operational supervision and control
b. Deployment d. All of these
119. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the
PNP within the province, city or municipality
a. Employment c. Operational supervision and control
b. Deployment d. All of these
121. Maximum period wherein a police officer may be suspended from service
by the Chief PNP.
a. 30 days c. 90 days
b. 60 days d. 180 days
122. Supervisors shall have the power to impose upon any member the
disciplinary punishment of dismissal from the service. He may also impose the
administrative punishment of admonition or reprimand; restrictive custody;
withholding of privileges; suspension or forfeiture of salary; demotion; or any
combination of the foregoing: Provided that, in all cases, the total period shall
not exceed sixty (60) days.
a. Chief of Police c. Regional directors
b. Provincial directors d. NAPOLCOM
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123. Which has exclusive jurisdiction over citizen’s complaint where the
offense is punishable by withholding of privileges, restriction to specified
limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof, for a
period exceeding thirty (30) days; or by dismissal.
a. City mayors c. Chief of Police
b. Municipal mayor d. PLEB
125. He is the designated Head if the Internal Affairs Service, who is appointed
by the president with the endorsement of the commission on appointment.
a. Chief PNP c. Inspector General
b. NAPOLCOM Chairman d. Judge Advocate General
128. Shall decide cases on appeal from decisions rendered by the PNP chief.
a. National Appellate Board c. NAPOLCOM
b. Regional Appellate Board d. PLEB
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2. Restriction for high powered firearms, prescribed that its number should
not exceed ___ percent of the total number of guards of a private security
agency.
a. 5 c. 15
b. 10 d. 20
4. Doors, floors, windows, roofs and walls constitute the second line of defense
usually referred to as:
a. Perimeter defense c. Storage system
b. Inside perimeter defense d. Clear zone
10. If utility openings such as air intakes, sewers, and exhaust tunnels have a
cross section of ninety-six inches or more, as a security consultant what
should be the appropriate recommendation?
a. It should be protected by filters and bar grills.
b. It should be closed immediately to avoid entry of persons with petit
physique.
c. It should be manned with an armed guard at all times
d. Sensors should be place on it to detect movements.
12. To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility what must be
constructed.
a. Full view fence c. Solid fence
b. Chain link fence d. Multiple fences
13. To prevent unauthorized persons from jumping from one fence to another
in case of multiple fences they should be installed at least _____ feet apart.
a. 6 feet c. 12 feet
b. 9 feet d. 15 feet
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14. As a security consultant you have noticed that windows of a particular
building has been constructed less than 18 feet from the ground and 14 feet
away from another building, what will be your recommendation to fortify said
facility?
a. The windows must be reinforced with steel grills.
b. A fence of at least 18 feet must be constructed around the building.
c. Screens should be installed to prevent petty thievery
d. A wall should be constructed around the building.
15. The simplest form of lock which uses a bolt containing a notch called
talon.
a. Warded locks c. Disc tumbler locks
b. Coded locks d. Cylinder locks
20. An inquiry into the reputation, integrity, character, morals and loyalty of
an individual to determine a person’s suitability for appointment or access to
classified matters.
a. National agency check c. Personnel Security Investigation
b. Background check d. Loyalty check
21. Refers to the working protective detail that provides close physical security
to the principal.
a. VIP security c. Close in security
b. Personal security d. Protective security
22. A vehicle always fronting the principal’s vehicle to neutralize any possible
threat.
a. Escort vehicle c. Decoy vehicle
b. Recon vehicle d. Shield vehicle
30. Usually installed at residences, it is also called night latch and is operated
by a key on the outside and a knob on the inside.
a. Cylinder lock c. Disc tumbler lock
b. Lever lock d. Code operated lock
31. Refers to a key that will open everything in a system involving two or
more master key groups.
a. Grand master key c. Sub master key
b. Master key d. Change key
32. A term used in England for lock pickers, safe combination crackers.
a. Padlock expert c. Peter pan
b. Peterman d. Grand master
34. A type of detection system wherein when the security has been breached,
the siren is sounded in remote stations located in the immediate vicinity of the
installation.
a. Central station system c. Proprietary alarm system
b. Local alarm system d. Local alarm by chance system
35. A metallic container use primarily for safekeeping usually anchored to the
building and should be at least 750 lbs.
a. Safe c. File room
b. Vault d. Depository
36. A heavily constructed fire resistant storage facility and is always part of
the building structure.
a. Safe c. File room
b. Vault d. Depository
39. A private security agency applying for a regular license to operate must
possess how many pieces of licensed firearms for guard duty purposes?
a. 50 c. 70
b. 60 d. 100
41. He exercises the power to revoke, for causes licenses issued to security
guards.
a. Chief, PNP c. NAPOLCOM Chairman
b. USec. for Peace and Order, DILG d. Secretary, DILG
42. Industrial establishments must establish the first line of physical defense,
it refers to:
a. Perimeter barriers
b. The building itself
c. Doors, locks and window barriers
d. Entry points where security guards are located
45. It refers to means and ways that train personnel and employees making
them security conscious.
a. Security promotion c. Security investigation
b. Security education d. Security seminar
51. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an
industrial compound to afford better observation and patrol movement is
known as_____________.
a. Protective zone c. Twilight zone
b. Clear zone d. Patrol lane zone
53. The government agency that issues licenses for private and government
security guards is?
a. PNP SOSIA c. PNP FEO
b. Municipal/City mayor's office d. PNP SAGSD
57. Today there are three categories of security guards belonging to the "Blue
Army”. One of those listed below does not belong to the group.
a. Body guards c. Company guards
b. Agency guards d. Government security guards
58. Whether to put up its own security guards organic to the firm or hire
contractual agency guards have their individual merits and disadvantages. To
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determine which type of guarding system an industrial firm will require,
management must consult________________.
a. A security agency owner
b. A police officer
c. A military intelligence officer
d. A security consultant not connected to or owning a security agency, or part
thereof
59. As a security officer, you can not prevent nor predict natural hazards like
storm earthquakes, floods and the like. In order to reduce the disastrous
effects of these natural hazards, you will__________________.
a. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan for these hazards for the firm
b. Not take any concern on such hazards
c. Alert your guards when hazards occur
d. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
62. There are many types of electronic and electric protective devices available
for security buildings, storehouses and compounds. One of the following is
true.
a. Electronic/electric devices eliminate human guards
b. Each building or compound requires particular electronic/electrical
protective devices
c. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the dealers of said devices
d. Electronic/electrical devices provide total protection for the place to be
safeguarded
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66. It is defined as a system of barriers placed between the matters protected
and the potential intruder.
a. Physical Security c. Personnel Security
b. Document Security d. Computer Security
67. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside the compound.
a. Local alarm system c. Proprietary system
b. Central Alarm system d. Auxiliary system
71. Classification of one who steals due to irresistible urge primarily because
of unexpected opportunity and little chance of detection.
a. Systematic pilferer c. Pickpocket
b. Ordinary pilferer d. Casual pilferer
72. They are installed between the prospective intruder and the target
installation.
a. Barriers c. Locks
b. Hazards d. Guards
73. For new applicants trying to acquire a security guard license, the
maximum age is;
a. 30 c. 40
b. 35 d. 50
74. A security consultant must have at least ___ years experience in the
operation and management of security business.
a. 5 years c. 15 years
b. 10 years d. 20 years
75. A regular license granted as private security license card is valid for;
a. 1 year c. 3 years
b. 2 years d. 5 years
76. A security unit operated and maintained by any government entity other
than the military or the police, which is established and maintained for the
purpose of securing the office or compound and/or extension of such
government entity.
a. Company Security Force c. Government Security Unit
b. Agency Security Force d. None of these
77. Refers to a security force maintained and operated by any private company
or corporation for its own security requirement only.
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a. Company Security Force c. Government Security Unit
b. Agency Security Force d. None of these
78. Refers to the association of all licensed security agencies and company
security forces.
a. PADPAO c. PNP SAGSD
b. PNP SOSIA d. PNP CSG
79. Under the law, the maximum ratio of a firearm to every security guard in
the employ of private security agencies is:
a. 1:1 c. 1:3
b. 1:2 d. 1:4
80. A private security agency must initially procure at least ___ pieces of
licensed firearms for use of its security guards.
a. 20 c. 50
b. 30 d. 70
81. The license or permit to own a firearm for security agencies is applied and
processed at:
a. PNP Civil Security Group
b. PNP Security Agencies and Guards Supervision Division
c. PNP Firearms and Explosives Office
d. Any of these
82. Refers to the merger with any person or a group of persons for the purpose
of organizing a branch, unit or subsidiary under separate control and
ownership.
a. Security corporation c. Merger system
b. Kabit System d. Illegal association
83. A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes and is deemed
pick proof since it is operated by utilizing combinations by means of a dial.
a. Lever lock c. Cylinder lock
b. Combination lock d. Code operated locks
84. A disc tumbler lock which is used in automobiles would afford delay of at
least;
a. 5 to 10 minutes c. 15 to 20 minutes
b. 10 to 15 minutes d. 20 to 30 minutes
86. For illumination of covered pathways and side walks it is wiser to install;
a. Fresnel lights c. Street lights
b. Search lights d. Flood lights
87. Vaults are storage devices which are usually designed to be at least ___
hours fire resistant.
a. 3 c. 9
b. 6 d. 12
89. This serves as a forum to resolve security problem and explain new rules
and regulations.
a. Refresher conference c. Security reminders
b. Training conference d. Debriefing
90. A positive effort to sell security or make the employees more involved in the
implementation of security measures.
a. Refresher conference c. Security reminders
b. Training conference d. Security promotion
2. Specific conditions and place that requires patrol officer’s special attention.
a. Hazards c. Uninhabited places
b. Attractive Nuisance d. Bars and night clubs
3. In his contact with the public a police officer on patrol should consider
primarily the;
a. Public attitude towards the police
b. Impression he creates
c. Character of persons in his beat
d. Time he stays in a particular area
5. The unit within the police department primarily responsible for taking direct
police intervention whenever a crime is committed.
a. Patrol c. Vice
b. Investigation d. Traffic
8. It is considered as the busiest shift for patrol duty and offers a wide variety
of challenges and activities.
a. Morning shift c. Midnight shift
b. Afternoon shift d. Grave yard shift
11. Majority of contracts between the public and police occur between the
citizen and:
a. Patrolman c. Traffic officer
b. Criminal Investigator d. Police supervisor
13. For maximum effectiveness, a member of the police force who is generalist
or “all around man” should be assigned to:
a. Patrol duty c. Community relations job
b. Criminal investigation duty d. Traffic enforcement duty
14. That unit in the police force best suited and is primarily responsible for
taking direct action when crime is committed is:
a. Patrol Division c. Criminalistic Division
b. Investigation Division d. Inspection Division
16. The best reason why patrol service is being considered backbone of the
police department is:
a. Patrol force provides service to a greater number of people at any time.
b. Patrol function is largely preventive in nature
c. Patrol function is very wide in scope
d. Patrol is the only service that carries out the basic police jobs
20. It has been considered as the most effective and efficient means of in
guarding, in terms of increasing community support and cooperation?
a. Foot patrol c. Helicopter and fixed wing aircraft patrol
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b. Automobile Patrol d. Motorcycle patrol
23. Which type of patrol would enable the police officers to have the advantage
of stealth and at the same time the element of surprise?
a. Motorcycle patrol c. Bicycle patrol
b. Automobile patrol d. Foot patrol
25. Ideal manning level of the Philippine National Police in relation to the
population is required the National Capital Region?
a. 1:1000 c. 1:500
b. 1:1500 d. 1:250
26. When patrol officers saturates a given area with additional units, walking
beats to increase the aura of police omnipresence, what particular patrol
operational tactics do they employ?
a. High visibility patrol c. Directed deterrent patrol
b. Low visibility patrol d. Split force patrol
27. Community Oriented Policing System widely applied in Metro Manila aims
to establish teamwork among the police and the persons residing in the
community, it is a concept which bent on accomplishing what particular goal?
a. Prevention of Criminal and Delinquent Behavior
b. Repression of Crimes
c. Participative Law Enforcement
d. All of the above
30. Maximum tolerable level, to indicate that the peace and order situation is
still within the control or within the capability of the police force to handle
a. 30 Index c. 40 index
b. 35 index d. 45 index
31. It refers to a fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty.
a. Post c. Beat
b. Route d. Line beat
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32. This type of patrol would afford police officers to cover vast area
particularly inaccessible remote areas at the least possible time without the
benefit of refueling in cases of long distance, which has to be traversed.
a. Automobile Patrol c. Helicopter patrol
b. Fixed Wing Aircraft patrol d. Foot patrol
33. Pete is a thief who is eyeing at the cell phone of Mary, SPO2 Jaen is
standing a few meters from Mary, The thief’s desire is not diminished by the
police presence but the _________for successful theft is:
a. Ambition c. Feeling
b. Intention d. Opportunity
35. When police officers are not bent on waiting for something to happen and
respond but instead utilizes some other means to effect crime prevention, the
focus is said to be a type of what kind of patrolling?
a. Reactive Patrol c. Proactive patrol
b. Patrol d. Police patrol
38. This kind of call requires the use of flashing light and the siren and may
violate traffic laws provided that extreme care is exercised.
a. Routine call c. Emergency call
b. Urgent call d. All of the above
39. Walking closest to the building at night is a tactic in patrol which makes
the policemen less visible during the night. Its purpose is:
a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a crime
b. To have sufficient cover
c. To attract less attention
d. For safety of the police officer
41. This is a patrol program designed to ensure law abiding citizens feeling of
security but the reaction of fear for would be violators.
a. Low visibility patrol c. Police Omnipresence
b. High visibility patrol d. Single office patrol
42. Police visibility in strategic locations and crime prone areas projects ____,
which is an effective crime prevention strategy.
a. Fear c. Omnipresence
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b. Discretion d. All of these
44. A crew complement of a mobile patrol division is organized into shifts for
each turn of duty.
a. One shift daily c. Daily 2 shift assignment
b. Daily 3 shift assignment d. Daily 4 shift assignment
46. They refer to conditions which possess a high potential for criminal attack
or cause any type of problem necessitating a demand for immediate police
service.
a. Hazards c. Uninhabited places
b. Attractive Nuisance d. Bars and night clubs
47. Any person, place, thing or condition which if allowed to exist may induce
an accident or cause the commission of a crime.
a. Hazards c. Uninhabited places
b. Attractive Nuisance d. Bars and night clubs
48. It evolved from the New Cops on the Block and Community Oriented
Policing System, wherein smaller police units are established and deployed
below the police station level.
a. Police Community Precinct c. Team policing
b. House Visitation d. Barangay Police
49. Usually performed by patrol units where a policeman routinely offer crime
prevention tips and organize community crime groups.
a. Police Community Precinct c. Team policing
b. House Visitation d. Barangay Police
50. A grass root approach undertaken to bring the people and the police closer
together in a more cooperative condition.
a. Police Community Precinct c. Team policing
b. House Visitation d. Barangay Police
51. Its distinct feature is establishing a neighborhood crime watch for the
purpose of encouraging the people to report all suspicious conditions in their
locality and the police to take greater responsibility and interest in preventing
and repressing crimes.
a. Police Community Precinct c. Team policing
b. House Visitation d. Koban
52. Which among the following is necessary for team policing to be successful?
a. Public cooperation c. Public support
b. Public trust d. All of these
53. They refer to a factor which influences patrol force deployment and
depends on how the public view the role of the police in the community.
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a. Type of crime and police problem experienced
b. Financial material and human resources
c. Zoning plan of the city
d. Community expectations
54. A patrol objective wherein the police perform a variety of duties in which
the possibility of legal sanction usually exists but not imposed.
a. Crime prevention c. Order maintenance
b. Law enforcement d. Criminal Apprehension
56. In performing this police objective, the police play a vital role in influencing
the quality of life in the community.
a. Crime prevention c. Order maintenance
b. Law enforcement d. Criminal Apprehension
57. Although police discretion is utilized by all patrol officers, this would help
limit police discretion.
a. Community values c. Rules and regulations
b. Public attitude d. Both A and B
4. Regarded as the most infamous double spy and was responsible for
approximately 500,000 deaths of Austrians, Hungarians and Russians in his
13 years career as the intelligence director of Hungary and Austria.
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a. Walsingham of England c. Steiber
b. Edward I d. Redl
13. Refers to the organized information available in the police records division.
a. Departmental intelligence c. Counter intelligence
b. Police intelligence d. Combat intelligence
14. An organized and relatively stable business which uses violence and threat
against competitors.
a. Criminal syndicates c. Organized crime
b. Criminal world d. Mafia
15. Refers to the social organization of criminals with its own social classes
and norms.
a. Criminal syndicates c. Organized crime
b. Criminal world d. Mafia
16. Regarded as the first person who first utilized the principles of intelligence.
a. Sun Tzu c. Abraham
b. Moses d. Alexander the Great
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17. A product resulting from the collection, analysis, integration, evaluation
and interpretation of all available information which concerns one or more
aspects of area of operation potentially significant to planning.
a. Assets c. Intelligence
b. Research d. Cryptography
18. Law which was enacted last June 19, 1947 which lead to the creation of
the National Bureau of Investigation.
a. RA 147 c. RA 6975
b. RA 157 d. RA 8551
21. An evaluation code of F4 would mean that the intelligence data is:
a. Unreliable, doubtfully true
b. Reliability unknown, doubtfully true
c. Unreliable, improbable report
d. Reliability unknown, improbable report
30. Established after World War II, it serves as a clearinghouse of records that
provides information from a police force of one country to another.
a. Federal Bureau of Investigation c. Scotland Yard
b. Central Intelligence Agency d. Interpol
32. Encrypted and coded messages are converted to intelligible language by;
a. Encoding c. Processing
b. Decoding d. Labelling
33. A philosopher who wrote the book the Art of War, which diverted world
philosophy regarding intelligence gathering from the traditional approach
which resorts to prophecy and dream to scientific methods of information
gathering and processes.
a. Alexander the Great c. Sun Tzu
b. Frederick the Great d. Moses
34. Former head of the Office of Strategic Service who gave vital military
intelligence which contributed to the end of World War II.
a. Donovan c. Walsingham of England
b. Redl d. Edward I
35. Agency vested with handling domestic intelligence in the United States.
a. Federal Bureau of Investigation c. Central Intelligence Group
b. International Police Organization d. Office of Strategic
Services
36. Its role is to provide law enforcement agencies with criminal intelligence
and information nationally and internationally about major criminals and
serious crimes.
a. International Police Organization
b. Office of Strategic Services
c. National Criminal Intelligence Service
d. Police National Computer
37. Since 1974, it gives information to police agencies of all registered vehicle
and their owners, and an index of more than five million criminal records.
a. International Police Organization
b. Office of Strategic Services
c. National Criminal Intelligence Service
d. Police National Computer
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39. Most dangerous kinds of informants because they may sell information to
the highest bidder.
a. Mercenary informants c. Rival elimination informants
b. Confidential informants d. Double cross informants
40. It would entail the recording or organization of raw materials so that they
may be readily compared with other items.
a. Collation c. Interpretation
b. Evaluation d. Deduction
51. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to form a logical picture or
theory.
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a. Integration c. Evaluation
b. Deduction d. Interpretation
52. It refers to any formula, device pattern or compilation of information
utilized in industry.
a. Proprietary information c. Trade secret
b. Intellectual property d. Secret Formula
53. This unit usually takes care of the publication of intelligence reports.
a. Administration Division
b. Evaluation and Distribution Division
c. Information Procurement Division
d. Intelligence Proper Unit
54. Established by Henry Peel in 1829, it was held as the premier institution
in gathering of information regarding the identity, activities of criminals as well
as obtaining evidences and effecting the arrests of the same.
a. FBI c. Scotland Yard
b. NBI d. INTERPOL
66. To what unit do police personnel belong when they infiltrate crowd and
gather information regarding criminal syndicates.
a. Intelligence c. Patrol
c. Investigation d. Any of these
67. This police activity increases the number of arrests of criminal syndicate
members.
a. Intelligence c. Patrol
b. Investigation d. Crime research
69. A _______ list contains a roll of citizens and officials who are cleared to
attend classified meetings.
a. Black c. Target
b. White d. Principal
70. They are documents classification wherein the loss or damage of which will
pose a threat to operations.
a. Class I c. Class II
b. Class III d. Class IV
71. This refers to duly processed intelligence reports not made available for
public consumption.
a. Vital/Top Secret documents c. Confidential documents
b. Secret Documents d. Restricted documents
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75. PO2 Mai Lap is deployed in bars and establishments usually frequented by
syndicate members for information gathering, his mission is classified as:
a. Social assignments c. Organizational assignments
b. Work assignments d. Community assignment
78. They are intelligence personnel who may no longer be used for undercover
work since their duties and responsibilities revolve around office work for the
intelligence community.
a. Social assignments c. Organizational assignments
b. Work assignments d. Community assignment
79. Defined as an art and science of making, devising and protecting codes
and ciphers.
a. Crypt c. Crypto-analysis
b. Intelligence d. Cryptography
81. This makes use of the computer binary code consisting of )’s and 1’s and
transforms 64 bit messages into 64 bit segments of cipher texts.
a. Data Encryption Standard c. Enigma
b. LUCIFER d. RSA
82. The forwarding address of agents for mail packages and other
communications.
a. White list c. Bigot list
b. Target list d. Accommodation address
85. This deals with the extended and utilization of natural and human
resources and industrial potential of a nation.
a. Economic Intelligence c. Domestic Intelligence
b. Geographical intelligence d. Industrial Intelligence
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86. Refers to the gathering of information pertaining to manufacturing
technique, processes from formulas which may be of great use and value.
a. Economic Intelligence c. Domestic Intelligence
b. Geographical intelligence d. Industrial Intelligence
87. The full measure taken by the state to free and protect its own society from
lawlessness, insurgency, terrorism and subversion.
a. Internal defense c. External defense
b. Departmental defense d. Institutional defense
88. This outlines the primary threat to national security hence occupies the
greatest attention and concern of intelligence operatives.
a. Bigot list c. Order of Battle
b. Black List d. Primary orders
90. Refers to the planned use of propaganda having the primary purpose of
influencing the opinions, attitudes, emotions and behavior of hostile groups.
a. Peace time contingency c. Psychological warfare
b. Psychological warfare consolidation d. Psychological operation
92. They are planned activity in peace and war directed towards enemy,
friendly and neutral audiences in order to create an attitude and behavior
favorable to the achievement of political and military objective.
a. Peace time contingency c. Psychological warfare
b. Psychological warfare consolidation d. Psychological operation
94. Refers to the area which separates the VIP or principal from attack.
a. Defense ring c. Buffer zone
b. Kill zone d. None of these
96. The protective personnel asked to conduct, inspect and survey on the area
of visit, performs coordination and make the required arrangement of the VIP
in a specific area is known as:
a. Advance party c. Route security
b. Destination security d. Convoy security
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97. In emergency situations which pose threats to the object of VIP protection,
the first duty of the agents assigned to the principal is:
a. Remove the VIP as quickly as possible from known or impending danger
b. Neutralize all probable threats.
c. To attempt to cover the VIP as closely as possible to shield him by placing
themselves between the VIP and any source of danger.
d. Call for back-up.
98. In the defense ring, the outer ring is composed of personnel deployed in:
a. Immediately outside the VIP’s door or close in
b. Inside quarters, residence, office
c. Sidewalks, stationed in front of quarters and covering all entrances
d. All of these
99. This personnel assigned to protect the VIP are posted as close in or placed
outside the VIP’s door.
a. Defense ring c. Middle ring
b. Outer ring d. Inner ring
100. The VIP limousine, wherein in the front seat the driver and
communication officer is detailed and at least not less than 5 security
personnel is assigned maintains a distance of ______ behind the lead car.
a. 4 to 5 cars length c. 6 to 7 cars length
b. 5 to 6 cars length d. 10 meters away
2. They are commodities which are durable in nature and when used do not
suffer any substantial alteration in form and size.
a. Personal property c. Non-expandable supplies
b. Expandable supplies d. Supplies
11. Obligation imposed by law and regulation on any morals of the personnel
for the proper use, care and maintenance of supplies entrusted to him.
a. Property accountability c. Personal responsibility
b. Property responsibility d. Responsibility
16. A superior officer may attain good professional relationship with his
subordinates by:
a. Being formal at all times c. Being mildly friendly to them
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b. Being lenient at all times d. Helping them in times of needs
17. A subordinate who does better work than other but constantly complains
about his status and work to other men, which affects the unit’s morale,
should be dealt with by:
a. Giving him work overloads to minimize communication with others.
b. Transferring him to other units.
c. Secretly conversed with by the superior officer him to secure cooperation
without giving him special considerations.
d. Reprimanded for insubordination.
18. A subordinate who frequently asks his superior officer regarding problems
with decisions making:
a. Has not fully assumed the authority entrusted to him.
b. Has not been given proper delegation of authority
c. Has poor decision making skills.
d. Looks upon his superior officer like a father asking for advice.
24. It is the apparent right or authority by which an officer justifies his acts
thru his police badge, certificate, writ or orders:
a. De facto authority c. Color of authority
b. Delegated authority d. Deputized authority
30. A police officer who demonstrates most serious lack of leadership qualities
is one who:
a. Seldom delegates authority to subordinate
b. Seldom asks others to do what he himself is not willing to do
c. Allows his men to hold group meetings to discuss their work
d. Frequently praises subordinates in the presence of others
32. The police organization unit that does the most jobs to coordinate and
relate together the other functional units in a policy agency is:
a. Personnel Division c. Criminalistic Division
b. Records Management Division d. Finance Division
33. Is the organization functions that synchronizes all operations and staff
activities
a. Planning c. Coordinating
b. Controlling d. Directing
34. The executive function that combines for its effectiveness, the use of
inspection, periodic reporting, following-up and the like:
a. Planning c. Coordinating
b. Controlling d. Directing
37. Control is implemented among others by inspection: This means that the
main function of inspection is:
a. Maintain discipline c. Insure uniformity of actions
b. Acquire information d. Supervisions
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38. In allocating authority in a police organization. Integration means:
a. Placing responsibility for final decisions to a Council
b. Providing administrator responsibility to refer all decisions to the chief
executive officer
c. Gathering into the hands of an administrator all administrative authority for
the agency
d. Delegating appropriate responsibility for each integral unit
39. Which of the following Procedures has least value to the officer charge with
responsibility for police functions.
a. Historical method c. Clinical method
b. Experimental control d. Case study method
41. One of the fundamental principles of leadership is “to know your men”, as
a newly appointed supervisor, you should:
a. Call a conference and compel full attendance of your subordinates.
b. Talk with all of them personally.
c. Study the personnel records of your new unit.
d. Organized an informal get together to be acquainted with them.
42. A subordinate who never fails to comply with policy manual, rules and
procedures, should be:
a. Re-assigned to do legal and research work.
b. Advised to use police discretion.
c. Held responsible for an intelligent compliance of the policy manual.
d. Ignored because he merely wants everybody to know that he is more
familiar with the rules than everybody else in the unit.
45. Refers to the overall gross worth and capability of an individual to assume
a higher post.
a. Time in grade c. Seniority in rank
b. Performance d. Potential
54. Among the police auxiliary functions hereunder listed, which function
should be excluded?
a. Record management c. Logistics management
b. Jail management d. Inspection management
56. In organizing for shifting hours of duty, the highest degree of efficiency is
obtained when there is provided the:
a. Smallest load fluctuation between shifts
b. Smallest load fluctuation within a given shift
c. Largest load fluctuation between shifts
d. Largest load fluctuation within a given shift
57. In a police department where 8 hour shifts are used, which of the following
standards provides the best to determine the breaking point for the watches?
a. Watches should be so broken that the need for patrol is at the minimum at
the breaking times.
b. Watches should be so broken that the need for patrol services tends to be
equal for all watches
c. Watches should be so broken that in each watch, the load is greater in the
first half than in the second half of the next watch
d. Watches be so broken to ensure maximum manpower at each shift
60. The bringing about of better understanding, confidence and acceptance for
a person or an organization is:
a. Human relations c. Community relations
b. Public relations d. Rapport
61. The best justification for having limits of authority and responsibility in an
organization like the police department is.
a. Some officers may be more competent than others
b. Some subordinates may be more educated than some of the officers
c. Responsibility is most properly mutual and interrelated
d. Overlapping authority will generally lead to conflicts
65. One of the following, which one is the best way of beginning a constructive
critique of the report of your subordinate
a. This is quite ok, but I tell you can make it better
b. You know you can do better work than this
c. You’ll never learn how to write better if you keep this up
d. This is partly right, now take it back and fix it
67. The main reason of letting the employee know about the personnel policy
of an organization is to:
a. Maintain morale and efficiency c. Induce their loyalty
b. Get them to accept the policies d. Work hard for promotion
68. Which of the following is the best method to handle patrolman’s grievances
request which you know cannot be granted
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a. Deny to request for not being timely
b. Explain why his request cannot be granted
c. Show him his request is reasonable
d. After due explanation, tell him to take it or leave it
69. A good attitude for a police supervisor to obtain the confidence of his men
is to:
a. Behave in a fatherly like attitude
b. Fraternize with all his subordinate
c. Make promises which can be fulfilled
d. Seek to know their problems before proposing a solution
70. Which of the following task of a supervisor may be best be delegated to one
of his subordinates under his subordinated:
a. Planning and scheduling
b. Assignment of Personnel
c. Keeping records and making reports
d. Cooperation/coordination with other supervisors/units
72. To keep policemen on their toes, the most desirable method for a police
supervisor to follow is:
a. Employment of “private eye and ear “
b. Application of disciplinary measures for violation of department rules and
regulations
c. Encourage initiate via delegation of responsibility to policemen
d. Conduct frequent test on their knowledge and alertness
73. The chief justification why competent superior officers attempt to develop
respect from, rather than fear on part of their men under supervision is:
a. Respect is based on the individual and fear is based on the organization as
a whole
b. Respect of superiors is a general incentive, whereas fear is a specific
incentive
c. Experience has shown that negative incentives are more effective than
positive incentives
d. Men who respect a superior are likely to give more than the minimum
required performance
74. When subordinates do not make complaints, this means supervisors are/
not:
a. Sufficiently approachable by their men
b. Devoting sufficient time checking on the men
c. Fault fingers
d. Pushing/inducing men sufficiently enough to maximum work output
75. The statement, “We ought to recognize that our interest is mutual and that
by working together, we can achieve common objective” is an approach by a
supervisor discussing regulations that is:
a. Good, because it promotes cooperation between officer and men
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b. Good, because it recognizes the status of the individual and avoids
favoritism
c. Poor, because such a method invites excessive criticism and disagreement
d. Poor, because appealing to the men is inviting to much familiarity
78. The “ups and downs” of police morale is most closely dependent on the:
a. Tightness of departmental discipline
b. Abilities of superior officers to lead/direct
c. Situation existing at emergencies
d. Day-today working conditions and personal relations
79. Subordinate personnel as a rule do not object to strict rules if, they
a. See that results improve departmental procedures
b. Are aware that the rules are enforced without favor or relationship
c. Believe the officer approves the regulation
d. See that the rules apply only to minor phases of work
81. Training service work offers courses to new officers and men of the
Philippine National Police. What is the primary objective of human resource
development?
a. To improve their methods and skills
b. For advancement of their technical expertise
c. To refine behavioral patterns for job performance
d. To professionalize law enforcement and police service
83. It refers to a quota allocated status change wherein the candidate must
satisfy all the mandatory requirements fixed for a certain grade.
a. Mandatory promotion c. Meritorious promotion
b. Special promotion d. Regular promotion
84. For new applicants to the Philippine National Police the age requirement
must not be less than 20 nor more than 30 years of age. However by way of
the waiver program what would be the maximum allowable age?
a. Over 30 years old c. Over 35 years old
b. Under 30 years old d. Under 35 years old
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85. As to the provisions of Republic Act 8551, the Philippine National Police
shall reserve ten percent (10%) for its annual recruitment, training and
educational quota for women. Until what year will said provision be
enforceable?
a. 2000 c. 2002
b. 2001 d. 2003
86. What particular law mandated the creation of the Philippine national
Police?
a. The New Police Act of 1998
b. The Philippine national Police Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998
c. The Philippine National Police Act of 1990
d. The Department of the Interiors and Local Government Act of 1990
89. Which particular agency of government is vested with the duty of handling
administrative control and supervision of the Philippine National Police?
a. Department of the Interiors and Local Governments
b. Internal Affairs Service of the PNP
c. Peoples Law Enforcement Board
d. National Police Commission
90. After the quota for recruitment has been set by the DPRM, a process of
encouraging applicant to seek employment in the Philippine National Police is
set. What is the next process after determining the most qualified applicants
for appointment as Uniformed or non-uniformed personnel of the PNP?
a. Training c. Staffing
b. Selection d. Placement
95. This record maintains the arrest and jail booking report for all persons
arrested.
a. Arrest and warrant records c. Identification records
b. Administrative records d. Arrest and booking records
98. This general plan of action emanates from the highest or top management
and is intended to set-up guidelines in the operation of the organization.
a. Originated policy c. Appealed policy
b. Imposed policy d. Procedures
99. It refers to the division of tasks of command among the officers of various
units.
a. Chain of command c. Delegation of authority
b. Command responsibility d. Personnel management
100. Any Philippine National Police uniformed personnel who are admitted due
to the said waiver program shall be given an appropriate period to satisfy the
accomplishment of the waived requirement particularly referring to education
and weight. What would be his/her status while the said requirements are
pending?
a. Regular uniformed personnel c. Permanent appointment
b. Conditional appointment d. Temporary Appointment
104. The art of influencing people in which the supervisor draws ideas and
suggestions from his subordinates by means of consultation and discussion.
a. Free-rein leadership c. Autocratic leadership
b. Democratic leadership d. None of these
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105. By this type of leadership, staff members are encourage to participate in
making decisions, goals and methods.
a. Free-rein leadership c. Autocratic leadership
b. Democratic leadership d. None of these
106. This refers to the ability to obtain from each member the highest quality
of service which he is capable of giving by which the supervisor assumes full
accountability for all the actions and seeks obedience from his subordinates
by issuing orders and commands.
a. Free-rein leadership c. Autocratic leadership
b. Democratic leadership d. None of these
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CRIMINALISTICS
104
I POLICE PHOTOGRAPHY
1. It is the inability to focus light passing through the center of the lens
and its edge at the same place on the film.
a. Aberration c. Spherical aberration
b. Chromatic aberration d. All of the foregoing
3. Looking at the object closely with one eye while the other is finding that
the object is not seen from the same angle and has apparently a different
position and shape.
a. Parallax c. Depth of field
b. Lock trough d. Focal distance
12. A camera used for surveillance must have a lens with focal length that
is:
a. Wide angle lens c. Telephoto lens
b. Normal lens d. Narrow angle lens
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13. When a material does not allow light to pass its medium it is said to be:
a. Transparent c. Opaque
b. Translucent d. All of these
15. In crime scene photography what is the sufficient lens type for interior
photographs?
a. Wide angle lens c. Telephoto lens
b. Normal lens d. Narrow angle lens
17. It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a predetermined
time interval.
a. View finder c. Light tight box
b. Shutter d. Holder of sensitized material
18. Its primary use in photography is focusing the light to the subject.
a. Light tight box c. Lens
b. Shutter d. View finder
19. It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is focused with a given
particular diaphragm opening.
a. Depth of field c. Focal distance
b. Hyper-focal distance d. Scale bed
20. It is the distance measured from the nearest to the farthest object.
a. Depth of field c. Scale bed
b. Hyper-focal distance d. Focal distance
24.In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal paper for printing?
a. Chloride paper c. Contact paper
b. Bromide paper d. Chloro-bromide paper
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26. A lighting condition wherein subject in open space casts a transparent
shadow.
a. Hazy c. Cloudy bright
b. Cloudy Dull d. Bright
30. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative
material.
a. Wide angle lens c. Long lens
b. Normal lens d. Telephoto lens
33. Attributed as the person who first discovered first true photography.
a. William Henry Fox Talbot c. Louis Jacques Daguirre
b. Thomas Wedgewood d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
34. Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at bright sunlight with
normal subject.
a. 1/30 f-8 c. 1/60 f-4
b. 1/125 f-11 d. 1/250 f-8
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36.The wavelength of electromagnetic energy expressed in milli-microns in
reference to visible light is:
a. 001 to 100 c. 400 to 700
b. 300 to 400 d. 700 to 1000
39. It is the film with the widest range of sensitivity to the various energies
of the electromagnetic spectrum.
a. Infra-red c. Orthochromatic
b. X-ray d. Panchromatic
40. The first use of photography in police work is in what particular field?
a. Crime prevention c. Surveillance work
b. Identification files d. Crime scene investigation
41. The chemical processing step wherein the latent image recorded on the
paper or film becomes visible.
a. Fixer c. Stop bath
b. Bleacher d. Developer
42. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use of microscope.
a. Microphotography c. Macrophotography
b. Photomicrography d. Photomacrography
43. The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of image refers to:
a. Hyper-focal distance c. Focusing
b. Focal distance d. Focal length
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49. Chemical used in developing to prevent fogging.
a. Potassium Bromide c. Sodium carbonate
b. Sodium Sulfite d. Boric Acid
55. A sheet of brass which has a chromium plated surface on one side
used for producing a highly glossy picture.
a. Platen c. Developer
b. Tripod d. Ferrotype plate
57. The tonal difference between the darkest and lightest portion of a
negative or print.
a. Degree c. Hue
b. Contrast d. Light
60. The inability of the lens to focus both horizontal and vertical plane at
the same time.
a. Aberration c. Coma
b. Astigmatism d. Distortion
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61. The simplest type of camera.
a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type
62. Using this camera, the entire coverage is seen behind the lens, the
image is reflected to the viewer and it enables the photographer to compose
and focus the objects being photographed.
a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type
63. This type of camera will eliminate parallax error and will work well with
all lenses, but difficult to focus under dim conditions.
a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type
64. In this type of camera the image being photographed can be seen in flat
surface as reflected by the mirror behind the viewing lens. The viewing
screen will help the photographer in the accurate composition of the object
to photograph as he looks into the camera at his waist level.
a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type
67. Usually this camera is made up of a lens located at the peephole of the
camera. More often the focusing system of this camera is in the view finder
itself.
a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type
68. This type of camera can provide an excellent focusing system especially
at dim light condition.
a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type
71. A devise used in determining the intensity of light that strikes the
object and affects the film.
a. Tripod c. Cable release
b. Flash unit d. Light meter
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72. A device used in photographing minute objects attached to the lens
board of a camera.
a. Extension tube c. Cable release
b. Flash unit d. Light meter
74. This filter is used in excessively bright light and would protect the
camera lens from accidental scratches and abrasions.
a. Contrast filter c. Neutral density filter
b. Correction filter d. Polarizing filter
75. The most dependable device that will measure the brightness of light.
a. Extinction meter c. Photo-electric meter
b. Light meter d. Flash unit
76. It refers to a lens which forms a real image on the opposite side of the
lens.
a. Positive lens c. Convex lens
b. Negative lens d. Concave lens
77. It is thinner on the middle than the edge and this lens forms a virtual
image on the same side of lens. Also known as a diverging lens because of
its power to swerve rays of light that passes through it.
a. Positive lens c. Convex lens
b. Negative lens d. Concave lens
78. The failure of the lens to produce a point image of an object point.
a. Astigmatism c. Coma
b. Curvature of field d. Distortion
79. A combination of two achromatic lens with almost the same focal
length.
a. Simple meniscus lens c. Anastigmatic lens
b. Rapid rectilinear lens d. Process lens
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3. Refers to as fingerprint pattern wherein the ridge flow from one side to
the other without recurving, and ridges rising in the center.
a. Plain arch c. Plain whorl
b. Tented arch d. Plain loop
4. A pattern in which the ridges flow from one circle to another without
recurving, usually forming a slight upward curve in the center having
resemblance of an arch.
a. Plain arch c. Plain whorl
b. Tented arch d. Plain loop
13. Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges are formed and
developed?
a. 3rd month of fetal life c. At birth
b. 6th month of infancy d. 3 months after birth
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14. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a loop, spiral or
rod.
a. Delta c. Ridge
b. Core d. Whorl
16. A British scientist who devoted his work to the study of fingerprint and
established his system of fingerprint classification in England.
a. Sir Francis Galton c. Samuel Clemens
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson
18. First chief of the Identification Bureau in Paris who was known for his
anthropometric measurement.
a. Alphonse Bertillon c. Samuel Clemens
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson
25. In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the subject’s hand is:
a. Necessary c. Optional
b. Unnecessary d. Excessive
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26. Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is;
a. Temporary c. Lasting
b. Permanent d. Stable
28. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the impression is held to
be:
a. Plain whorl meeting c. Arches
b. Loops d. Dependent on ridge tracings
31. In taking fingerprints _________ are rolled away from the body of the
subject.
a. All fingers c. Both thumbs
b. All fingers except the thumbs d. Both little fingers
33. Known for his rule which states that” No two individuals in the world
are exactly the same size and that human skeleton does not change after
20 years.
a. Darwin c. Galton
b. Mendel d. Bertillon
34. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint is to view the area:
a. Obliquely c. Directly
b. About half an inch distance d. About one inch distance
36. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops, with its
respective shoulder and deltas.
a. Double loop c. Central pocket loop
b. Accidental loop d. Whorl
37. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but has two deltas.
a. Accidental loop c. Whorl
b. Double loop d. Central pocket loop
38. What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from the thumb toward
the little finger?
a. Tented Arch c. Ulnar loop
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b. Radial loop d. Loop
39. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of
the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side where the
ridge has entered.
a. Tented arch c. Ulnar loop
b. Radial loop d. Loop
42. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form a single ridge is
called:
a. Enclosure ridge c. Short ridges
b. Dot ridges d. Resembling a loop
48. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on papillary ridges
as a means of identification.
a. Poroscopy c. Podoscopy
b. Edeoscopy d. Dactyloscopy
50. Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant or ridges from the
little finger toward the thumb.
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a. Ulnar loop c. Arch
b. Radial loop d. Whorl
51. To help identify a subject who is an alien, the most vital information to
be obtained at the Bureau of Immigration and Deportation is…
a. Educational attainment of the alien c. Occupation of the alien
b. Residence of the alien d. Port of entry of the alien
52. In tracing a suspected person at large in a criminal case, the least vital
among the following would be…
a. His appearance and how he dresses
b. Known associates and companions
c. His occupation or means of livelihood
d. Where the suspect hang’s out
53. What does the first two digit of a person’s Social Security Number
indicates?
a. The occupation of the member at the time of registration
b. The month of registration
c. The income bracket or group where the member belongs
d. The region where the member originally registered
55. In reporting a missing person, which among the following is the most
vital information necessary to locate the said person?
a. Clinical or medical history of the person
b. Personal traits and habits
c. Mental attitude and condition at the time of the disappearance
d. Physical description
58. That part of the fingerprint wherein we find the core and delta.
a. Bifurcation c. Type lines
b. Pattern area d. None of these
59. Refers to innermost ridges that run parallel, diverge and surround or
tend to surround the pattern area.
a. Delta c. Core
b. Divergence d. Type lines
60. A smooth spreading apart of two ridges which have been running
parallel or nearly parallel.
a. Island c. Divergence
b. Dot d. Convergence
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61. A small ridge attached to another ridge.
a. Island c. Bifurcation
b. Dot d. Appendage
62. In ridge counting of loops, which among the following is not counted?
a. Delta c. Intervening ridges
b. Core d. Both A and B
63. When the trace is whorls is on the outside or core outside of right delta
three or more ridges, the trace is determined to be;
a. (I) Inner c. (M) Meet
b. (O) Outer d. None of these
64. Represents the total numerical value of the even numbered fingers plus
one over the total number numerical value of the odd numbered fingers
plus one.
a. Primary c. Key
b. Secondary d. Final
65. In the classification, this is always shown in capital letters with the
right hand over the help.
a. Primary c. Key
b. Secondary d. Final
67. If all fingers are amputated or missing at birth, the classification will
be;
a. M 32 W MMM c. M 30 W MMM
M 32 W MMM M 30 W MMM
b. M 31 W MMM d. None of these
M 31 W MMM
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III FORENSIC CHEMISTRY AND TOXICOLOGY
1. The most reliable and delicate test for the determination of the presence
of blood by means of an optical instrument.
a. Precipitin test c. Microscopic test
b. Spectroscopic test d. Florence test
3. A test used if the powder particles of nitrates and nitrites are deeply
embedded in the clothing, the visible result of which is the fact that
nitrates are converted to a dye.
a. Walker’s test c. Microscopic test
b. Diphenylamine test d. Spectroscopic test
5. A reliable test which is used to identify and compare ballpoint pen ink.
a. Spot test c. Paper chromatography
b. Chemical test d. Dissolution test
8. Simon’s reagent and shabu combined will yield what visible result?
a. Yellow c. Green
b. Blue d. Red
11. A person who fired a gun would be positively identified when DPA
solution is used with the visible result of:
a. Blue specks c. Orange brown specks
b. Bluish fluorescence d. Green specks
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13. Which among the foregoing is not usually used specimen in DNA
typing?
a. Hair c. Blood
b. Bones d. Semen
17. A man of average built would normally have how many quarts of blood?
a. 6 quarts c. 8 quarts
b. 7 quarts d. 9 quarts
18. It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises about 65% of the
blood.
a. Platelets c. Leucocytes
b. Fibrin d. Plasma
20. Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it is decomposed and
stained with contamination.
a. Benzidine test c. Phenolphthalein test
b. Van Deen’s Test d. Precipitin test.
21. Stage of blood examination wherein the actual proof that subject is
definitely blood.
a. Preliminary test c. Precipitin test
b. Confirmatory test d. Blood typing and grouping
26. Restriction enzymes are used to cut out sequences of DNA having
different________.
a. Length c. Weight
b. Width d. Height
27. How may different bases are associated with the make-up of DNA?
a. Two c. Four
b. Three d. Five
30. The base sequence of T-G-C-A can be paired with the base sequence of
________ to complete a double helix configuration.
a. A-C-G-T c. G-T-A-C
b. C-A-G-T d. A-T-G-C
31. When gunpowder explodes, this would determine the approximate time
of firing the gun?
a. Soot c. Gases
b. Nitrates and nitrites d. Metallic fragments
33. A fiber which burns rapidly and the fumes turns blue litmus to red, it
is:
a. Cotton c. Fiber glass
b. Silk d. Steel wool
37. Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and its effects.
a. Emetics c. Alkaloids
b. Antidotes d. Tetanics
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38. Which among the following exhibits bluish fluorescence when exposed
to u.v. light?
a. Blood c. Saliva
b. Semen d. Urine
41. Study which deals of poisons, their origin, physical and chemical
properties, physiological action, treatment and method of detection.
a. Forensic Chemistry c. Posology
b. Toxicology d. Forensic Medicine
42. A substance which when introduced into the body is absorbed in the
blood stream and acting chemically is capable of producing noxious effect.
a. Drugs c. Poison
b. Dangerous drugs d. Antidotes
44. When a substance acts directly upon the spinal cord producing
immobility or stiffness to the parts to which they are attached, it is
classified as:
a. Corrosives c. Narcotics
b. Irritants d. Tetanics
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50. Refers to that branch of science which treats of the form and quantity
of medicine to be administered within a certain period.
a. Pharmacy c. Toxicology
b. Posology d. Pharmacology
54. Which of the following is not an accurate test for the presence of
alcohol in the human body?
a. Saliva test c. Fecal test
b. Harger breath test d. Drug test
55. A disturbance produced by poison on that part with which the poison
came into contact.
a. Acute c. Remote
b. Local d. Combined
56. A material which is used to which is used to improve the quality of the
paper.
a. Sizing material c. Gelatin
b. Rosin d. Starch
63. Highly irritant poison which causes local destruction of tissues and
causes nausea.
a. Corrosives c. Tetanics
b. Irritants d. Asthenics
65. A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity.
a. Lime c. Glass
b. Soda d. Gel
67. This test is used to detect the presence of semen particularly in stained
clothing.
a. Microscopic test c. Florence test
b. Barberio’s test d. Ultraviolet test
69. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test is utilized?
a. Accelerated aging test c. Opacity examination
b. Bursting strength test d. Microscopic examination
70. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by decaying body.
a. Chloride c. Carbon dioxide
b. Ammonia d. Hydrogen sulfide
73. An incendiary device made of glass bottle filled with gasoline or any
inflammable mixture with a piece of absorbent cotton for a fuse or wick.
a. Tear gas c. Molotov bomb
b. Molotov Cocktail d. RDX
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76. Earliest substance used for writing.
a. Leaves c. Linen
b. Paper d. Egyptian papyrus
79. For radial cracks it states that stress lines on radial crack will be at
right angle to the rear side.
a. RFC rule c. Flotation
b. 3 R’s rule d. Immersion
8. It has for its characteristics as, bright scarlet in color, with high oxygen
content and leaves the blood vessel with pressure.
a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood d. Human blood
9. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content and usually does not spill far
from the wound.
a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood d. Human blood
10. This blood contains a high number of deodorleins bacillus, it does not
clot and has acidic reactions.
a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood d. Human blood
15. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin due to the
rupture of blood vessels as a result of the application of a blunt force.
a. Contusion c. Hemorrhage
b. Shock d. Hematoma
17. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the instrument which
caused it.
a. Defense wound c. Patterned wound
b. Self-inflicted wound d. Mutilated wound
18. Pulverization of the body into ashes with the use of intense heat.
a. Exhumation c. Charring
b. Cremation d. Pounding
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19. Prescribed depth of a grave under P.D. 856, Section 19 of the Code of
Sanitation.
a. At least ½ meters deep c. At least 1 and ½ meters deep
b. At least 1 meters deep d. At least 2 meters deep
21. A significant difference between the male and female skull is that in
males, the supercialiary ridges are ______ than compared with females.
a. Less sharp c. More pointed
b. Sharper d. Smoother
26. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from a dead body in
how many days?
a. 7 c. 21
b. 14 d. 28
27. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within
how many days from death?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
35. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how many hours
when the blood has already clotted or diffused to different parts of the body
wherein the discoloration is permanent and darker in color?
a. 12 hours c. 36 hours
b. 24 hours d. 48 hours
37. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years c. 30 years
b. 20 years d. 40 years
39. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in
the blood vessels of the most dependent portions of the body and starts 20
to 30 minutes after death and is completed by 12 hours.
a. Rigor mortis c. Maceration
b. Primary flaccidity d. Livor mortis
40. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents after meals.
a. 2 to 3 hours c. 4 to 5 hours
b. 3 to 4 hours d. 5 to 6 hours
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42. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body temperature is
about:
a. 10 to 15 F c. 20 to 25 F
b. 15 to 20 F d. 25 to 30 F
45. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it will
endanger one’s life.
a. Non-mortal wound c. Trauma
b. Mortal wound d. Coup injury
51. A physical injury which is found at the site and also the opposite site of
the application of force.
a. Extensive injury c. Contre coup injury
b. Coup injury d. Coup and contre coup injury
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54. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what wound would be
exhibited?
a. Punctured wound c. Lacerated wound
b. Hack wound d. Incised wound
56. The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows ACGT, A stands for
what?
a. Adenine c. Adenum
b. Adenide d. Adenoid
57. In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what sample should be
obtained for DNA testing?
a. Fingernails c. Skeleton
b. Hair d. Teeth
59. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years c. 30 years
b. 20 years d. 40 years
62. This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to 30 minutes and is
characterized by the relaxation of the muscles and loss of their natural
tone.
a. Stage of primary flaccidity c. Cadaveric spasm
b. Post mortem rigidity d. Secondary flaccidity
63. Approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA testing.
a. Minimum of 2 weeks c. Minimum of six weeks
b. Minimum of 4 weeks d. Minimum of eight weeks
66. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels or has
diffused to different parts of the body.
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a. Diffusion lividity c. Rigor mortis
b. Clotting of the blood d. Hypostatic lividity
68. DNA, is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is regarded as the
fingerprint of life. What does it stands for?
a. Deonatural acid c. Deoxyribunucleic acid
b. Dynamic natural anti-body d. Deoxyribunucliec acid
70. Body fluids routinely tested because they are good sources of cells.
a. Saliva and tears c. Urine and semen
b. Semen and saliva d. Semen and blood
71. Human being’s tissue attached to the body which may undergo DNA
testing.
a. Hair c. Skin
b. Bone d. Fingernails
72. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive action of its bacteria
and enzyme.
a. Primary flaccidity c. Cadaveric spasm
b. Post mortem rigidity d. Putrefaction
76. A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to mucous secretion of
the respiratory track after death.
a. “Cutis anserina” c. Champignon d’ ocume
b. Washerwoman d. Cadaveric spasm
78. A type of burn produced as a result of the body coming into contact
with a moving object.
a. Thermal burn c. Radiation burn
b. Friction burn d. Electrical burn
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79. A condition of a woman who has had one ore more sexual experience
but not had conceived a child.
a. Moral virginity c. Physical virginity
b. Demi-virginity d. Virgo-intacts
83. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton, which part is not
used?
a. Skull c. Sternum
b. Pelvis d. Tibia
84. A serious burn involving skin, nerves, muscles and bones, considered
as the most severe burn causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes
in the body and massive infection.
a. Sunburn c. 2nd degree burn
b. 1st degree burn d. 3rd degree burn
85. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5 minutes would die,
the cause of death would be:
a. Stupor c. Asphyxia
b. Stroke d. Exhaustion
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91. It applies to disease or trauma kills, wherein there is no chance for
complication or sequelae to develop.
a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death
b. Immediate or primary cause of death
c. Cardio-respiratory arrest
d. Nocturnal death
93. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that death has occurred
more than 24 hours hence are useful to proximate the time of death.
a. Flies c. Bees
b. Earthworms d. Butterflies
96. After death, the metabolic process inside the body ceases, heat is no
longer produced and the body slowly loses its temperature.
a. Algor mortis c. Cadaveric spasm
b. Rigor mortis d. Suspended animation
99. Characterized by no breathing and heart action, chill in the body and
non-existent reflexes.
a. Death c. Suspended animation
b. Coma d. Rigor mortis
100. The larger the area of contact between the forces applied on the body,
the lesser is the damage inflicted to the body.
a. Kinetic energy c. Time
b. Vital reaction d. Area of transfer
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V. POLYGRAPHY
6. Which among the following statement is not among the limitations of the
Polygraph?
a. It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent
b. It is admissible as evidence
c. It is an aid and not a substitute for investigation
d. It is a scientific diagnostic instrument which records responses
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12. In this examination stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the
subject who in turn is instructed to answer as quickly as possible.
a. Word association test c. Truth serum
b. Psychological stress evaluator d. Water therapy
15. This test is not concerned with the answer whether it is yes or no, what
is relevant is the time of response in relation to delay the answer.
a. Word association test c. Truth serum
b. Psychological stress evaluator d. Water therapy
16. A test undertaken when the subject is not aware of the details of the
offense for which he is under scrutiny.
a. Guilt complex c. Peak of tension
b. Silent answer d. Narrative
17. When response and control questions are consistently similar this is
administered.
a. Guilt complex c. Peak of tension
b. Silent answer d. Narrative
19. It is based on the maxim “in vino veritas”, meaning in wine there is
truth.
a. Hypnotism
b. Narco-analysis
c. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage
d. Administration of truth serum
24. For male subjects, what is the amount of air pressure is to be utilized
in the system on cardio or vent.
a. 30 mm c. 90 mm.
b. 60 mm d. 120 mm
25. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep considered fit for
polygraph examination.
a. 5 c. 7
b. 6 d. 8
26. Type of question related to the facts of the case and is answerable by
NO.
a. Relevant question c. General question
b. Irrelevant question d. Immaterial question
31. This component drives the chart paper under the recording pen
simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches per minute.
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Galvanograph
b. Keymograph d. Pneumograph
32. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of the subject.
a. Finger electrode plate c. Rubber convoluted tube
b. Diacritic notch d. Keymograph
33. This component record changes of the subject’s blood pressure and
pulse rate.
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Galvanograph
b. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph
35. This component records the changes in the breathing of the subject.
a. Cardisphygmograph c. Galvanograph
c. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph
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36. Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to deceive
others.
a. Black lie c. Red lie
b. White lie d. Yellow lie
37. Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question.
a. Reaction c. Specific response
b. Normal response d. Positive response
42. Test undertaken when both relevant and control questions are similar
in degree and consistency.
a. Guilt complex test c. Peak of tension
b. Silent answer d. None of the above
45. Did you hide Senator Lacson in your beach resort? Is an example of
interrogation in lie detection which is:
a. Control question c. Relevant question
b. Irrelevant question d. Leading question
46. Developed the systolic blood pressure method for detecting deception.
a. William Marston c. John Larson
b. Harold Burtt d. Leonard Keeler
47. He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure changes were
signs of deception.
a. William Marston c. Leonard Keeler
b. Harold Burtt d. John Larson
49. Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin reflex.
a. Angelo Mosso c. Lombroso
b. Veraguth d. Vittorio Benussi
52. Practiced even by the Roman Catholic Church in 1150 AD this Indian
practice of ordeal based on the premise that a person conscious of their
crime and fearful of punishment from God would feel a suffocating
sensation on their throat thus preventing them from swallowing the object
of the ordeal.
a. Bread chewing ordeal c. Rice chewing ordeal
b. Cheese chewing ordeal d. All of these
53. A form of trial undertaken when the accused is asked to fast for twelve
hours and then asked to swallow a small amount of rice and drink a dark
colored water, if this acts as an emetic the accused rejects all the rice, he is
then pronounced innocent.
a. Red hot iron ordeal c. Red water ordeal
b. Rice Chewing ordeal d. Balance ordeal
54. Practiced in the early 600 B.C. this is undertaken by determining the
veracity of the statement of the accused by placing him on a scale of
balance and in the other scale a counter balance. He is then asked to go
down while exhortation on the scale is given, when the accused is placed
on the scale and found to be lighter than before he is acquitted.
a. Boiling water ordeal c. Donkey’s Tail ordeal
b. Balance ordeal d. Red hot iron ordeal.
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58. If a Yes answer is given by the subject, the examiner marks this on the
chart.
a. X c. +
b. XX d. –
59. Conducted immediately after the completion of the first test while blood
pressure cuff is still deflated. This is used to stimulate lying subjects into
specific responses to the subsequent relevant questions and to afford the
lying subject an opportunity to try to distort the Polygraph examination
tracings which would eventually result in exposing his deception.
a. Silent Answer Test c. Mixed Questions Test
b. Card Test d. Guilt Complex Test
3. A result of wear and tear, corrosion, erosion which affects the normal
operation of a firearm.
a. Factory defect c. Individual intentional characteristics
b. Precipitate d. Individual accidental characteristics
7. A test used to determine the distance from the bullet hole at which the
gun was fired.
a. Triangulation c. Alphanothylamine test
b. Photo-micrographic test d. Diphenylamine test
9. To link a shell with a shotgun that fired it, in the laboratory examination
it should be given:
a. Wadding c. Pellets
b Cap d. Wads
12. It is produced when the muzzle is held against the target or body when
fired.
a. Smudging c. Contact burn
b. Tatooing d. Contact wound
13. In the effort to identify the shell with the revolver which fired it, which
among the following is essential?
a. Marks of the breechblock c. None of these
b. Marks of the firing pin hole d. Both A and B
14. In shots fired from an automatic pistol, the shell in most cases….
a. Will be found on the scene of the crime
b. Will remain in the chamber
c. Will be rarely found in the scene of the crime
d. Will be usually disposed by the perpetrator
15. When booking a fired bullet, the mark used to identify it is placed on.
a. Its base c. Its side and base
b. Its side d. Its nose
16. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are usually classified as:
a. Flare guns c. Matchlock
b. Zip guns d. Freakish device
17. The most reliable of all individual characteristics, when fired cartridges
are concerned.
a. Extractor marks c. Chamber marks
b. Ejector marks d. Breechface marks
19. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily barrel or its lands
have been worn down would produce what kind of markings?
a. Slippage marks c. Rifling marks
b. Skid marks d. Shearing marks
22. The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles at the same time it
leaves the muzzle of the firearm to the time it hits the target.
a. Interior ballistics c. Terminal ballistics
b. Exterior ballistics d. Posterior ballistics
23. The science which deals with the effect of the impact of the projectile
on the target.
a. Interior ballistics c. Terminal ballistics
b. Exterior ballistics d. Posterior ballistics
25. Applied to a shot gun which indicates bore diameter is equal to the
diameter of the lead ball whose weight in pound is equal to reciprocal
gauge index.
a. Caliber c. Shot
b. Gauge d. Charge
26. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a single round lead
ball.
a. Shotgun c. Musket
b. Rifle d. Pistol
28. Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the bore against the force of
the charge.
a. Breechblock c. Ejector
b. Breechface d. Extractor
30. Refers to the channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel.
a. Rifling c. Groove
b. Land d. Cannelure
32. Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore due to sliding
friction when the bullet passes through it.
a. Erosion c. Corrosion
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b. Rusting d. Decomposition
33. Distance that the rifling advances to make one complete turn.
a. Pitch of rifling c. Trajectory
b. Choke d. Recoil
35. Most common individual characteristic that are visible on the base
portion of then fired cartridge.
a. Firing pin impression c. Extractor marks
b. Ejector marks d. Chamber marks
40. This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the firing of the
cartridge.
a. Hammer c. Trigger
b. Ejector d. Firing pin
43. A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to prevent leading.
a. Jacketed bullet c. Metal point bullet
b. Metal cased bullet d. Plated bullet
44. The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting the target
sideways.
a. Key hole shot c. Hang fire
b. Ricochet d. Misfire
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46. Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions in forensic ballistics.
a. 3 test bullets/shells c. 5 test bullets/shells
b. 4 test bullets/shells d. 6 test bullets/shells
47. It refers to the placement of the right and left specimen in side by side
position.
a. Drag marks c. Juxtaposition
b. Positively matched d. Pseudomatch
50. Refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after striking
a resistant surface.
a. Mushroom c. Ricochet
b. Key hole shot d. Misfire
51. Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel from what particular
part?
a. From land to land c. From groove to groove
b. From land to groove d. From groove to land
56. Raised portion between the grooves found inside the barrel.
a. Land c. Gauge
b. Caliber d. Rifling
58. A lead type bullet is usually fired from what particular firearm?
a. Rifle c. Pistol
b. Revolver d. Sub-machinegun
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59. It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore.
a. Rifling c. Ogive
b. Breaching d. Swaging
61. Ballistics was derived from the Greek word ____ which means to throw.
a. Ballo c. Ballien
b. Ballista d. Any of these
63. Placed in the barrels of the firearm to impart a spin on the bullet that
pass through it.
a. Lands c. Rifling
b. Grooves d. All of these
64. The modern method of rifling which uses a hardened steel rod with
several cutting rings spaced down the rod.
a. Button rifling c. Polygonal rifling
b. Broach rifling d. Electrochemical rifling
65. The most common method of rifling used today, wherein the grooves
are formed in the barrel under very high pressure forming the rifling in the
barrel which hardens and polishes the inside of the barrel.
a. Button rifling c. Polygonal rifling
b. Broach rifling d. Electrochemical rifling
67. Part of exterior ballistics which refers to the sound created at the
muzzle end of the barrel.
a. Muzzle energy c. Muzzle noise
b. Muzzle blast d. Range
68. A type of rimmed cartridge wherein the diameter of the rim is greater
than the diameter of the body of the cartridge case.
a. Rimmed type c. Belted type
b. Semi-rimmed type d. Rebated type
69. A type of firearm which the pressure upon the trigger both cocks and
release the hammer.
a. Automatic c. Double action
b. Single action d. Slide action type
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VII. QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS
4. A person who alters by any means, the letters, figures, words or signs
contained in any bank or Treasury note is liable for:
a. Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. All of the foregoing
9. Instruments whose origin are known and proven; which are used in
comparison with a questioned document.
a. Simulated documents c. Standard documents
b. Falsified documents d. Forged documents
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12. A city mayor executed a document in his legal capacity as a local
executive, that document is classified as:
a. Public document c. Private document
b. Official document d. Commercial document
14. A man who is unable to write may use this to legally signify a
signature.
a. Crude x c. Thumb mark
b. Cross mark d. Both A and B
22. Jose Pidal in trying to alter his own signature to hide his identity is
using:
a. Natural writing c. Cursive writing
b. Disguised writing d. System of writing
25. A person executing a signature while his arm is steadied and assisted
produces a:
a. Guided signature c. Scribble
b. Normal signature d. Handwriting signature
29. The introductory backward stroke added to the start of many capital
letters and which can also be seen occasionally in introductory strokes of
small letters.
a. Embellishment c. Buckle knot
b. Beard d. Hitch
31. Visible record in the writing stroke of the basis movement and manner
of holding the writing instrument.
a. Line quality c. Baseline
b. Rhythm d. Writing pressure
37. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skillful type of forgery.
a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery
b. Disguised forgery d. Simple forgery
47. A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier than the rest of
its outline.
a. Off its feet c. Clogged type face
b. Twisted letter d. Rebound
56. The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity of paper money.
a. Quality or sharpness of the engraving
b. Color of the seal
c. Wet strength of the paper
d. Watermarks
57. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but made inferior or
superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine coin.
a. Priceless coin c. False coin
b. Mutilated coin d. All of these
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a. Pica c. Proportional spacing machine
b. Elite d. Adding machine
65. Widening of the ink stroke due to added pressure on a flexible pen
point.
a. Shading c. Shading
b. Pen pressure d. All of these
67. It is the process of making out what is illegible or what has been
effaced.
a. Decipherment c. Obliteration
b. Collation d. Comparison
70. The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a person from his
handwriting.
a. Questioned Document Examination c. Graphology
b. Polygraphy d. Psychology
72. A defect in typewriters due to the wear and tear of the type block in
which some letters lean to the left or right of their correct slant.
a. Off its feet c. Twisted letter
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b. Clogged type face d. Rebound
73. And angle or inclination of the axis of the letter relative to the baseline.
a. Foot c. Staff
b. Slant d. Hitch
80. For signing mail, receipts and other insignificant documents such as
signatures executed by celebrities to their fans.
a. Complete c. Careless scribble
b. Cursory d. Informal
150
CRIME DETECTION, PREVENTION AND INVESTIGATION
151
I. CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION
2. This is where the techniques and principles of both physical and natural
science are applied and practiced to analyze crime-scene evidence.
a. Forensics laboratory c. SOCO
b. Crime laboratory d. Chemistry laboratory
4. Refers to the uniqueness of some item of evidence made possible by the fact
that no things in nature are exactly the same.
a. Criminalistics c. Instrumentation
b. Individualization d. Reconstruction of the crime scene
5. A U.S. Army colonel who refined the techniques of bullet comparison and
established the use of a comparison microscope, which is indispensable tool to
modern firearms examiner.
a. Sherlock Holmes c. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Albert Osborne d. Calvin H. Goddard
11. He was the person credited to have devised the first scientific system of
personal identification by means of anthropometry, which is a method of
taking a series of body measurements.
a. Mathieu Orfila c. Francis Galton
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b. Alphonse Bertillon d. Leone Lottes
12. He developed the fundamental principle of document examination and was
responsible for the acceptance of documents as scientific evidence by the
courts.
a. Mathieu Orfila c. Albert Osborne
b. Alphonse Bertillon d. Leone Lottes
13. A public prosecutor and later a judge in Graz, Austria who applied
scientific discipline to the field of criminal investigation.
a. Mathieu Orfila c. Hans Gross
b. Alphonse Bertillon d. Edmond Locard
14. He perpetuated his belief that when a criminal came into contact with a
person or object, a cross transfer of evidence occurred and was responsible for
giving specific technical contribution to criminal investigation.
a. Mathieu Orfila c. Hans Gross
b. Alphonse Bertillon d. Edmond Locard
15. The primary tools in criminal investigation necessary to establish the guilt
of the accused in a criminal action.
a. Information, interrogation and instrumentation
b. Intent, motive and circumstantial evidence
c. Confession, admission and criminalistics
d. Investigation, criminalistics and prosecution
16. A public officer when not being authorized by judicial order, shall enter a
dwelling against the will of the owner thereof is committing:
a. Legal entry c. Trespassing
b. Violation of domicile d. Illegal entry
19. Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are committed in many
places.
a. Local crime c. Transitory crime
b. Local action d. Transitory action
23. A search method in which the searchers follow each other in the path of
the coiled beginning form the outside proceeding toward the center.
a. Zone method c. Spiral method
b. Wheel method d. Strip method
24. Taking into custody the property described in the search warrant as a
result of a proper search, which is to be utilized as evidence in a case.
a. Seizure c. Safekeeping
b. Detention d. Confiscation
26. When the subject is in prone position what type of search should be
implemented.
a. Kneeling search c. Floor search
b. Standing search d. Wall search
27. This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the arrest. To discover
weapons or evidences and determine the identity of the suspects.
a. Preliminary search of a person c. Standing search
b. Wall search d. Floor search
28. Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an automobile, which
has been stolen and abandoned.
a. Dashboard c. Steering wheel
b. Door handles d. Rear view mirror
29. Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to the law enforcers in
order to get more information from them than he gives.
a. Double-crosser informant c. False informant
b. Mercenary informant d. Self aggrandizing informant
31. Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are committed in one
place.
a. Local crimes c. Transitory crimes
b. Local action d. Transitory action
32. The number of persons who handle the evidence from the scene of the
crime and between the time of the commission up to final disposition of cases.
a. Time of custody c. Time of disposal
b. Time of disposition d. Chain of custody
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33. A declaration made under the consciousness of an impending death.
a. Part of res gestate c. Dying declaration
b. Confession d. Admission
39. Compilation of known criminals available from police files and records.
a. Rouge gallery c. Police blotter
b. General photograph d. Modus operandi files
42. To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an interrogation room must be:
a. With no windows or views c. It must be sound proof
b. There should only be one door d. All of the foregoing
43. In this type of interrogation the investigator must have great knowledge of
the case and is preferable when the subject is not the talkative type.
a. Narrative type c. Stern type
b. Question and answer type d. Simple interrogation
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46. “A” wanted to kill “B”. the former pointed his gun to the latter, as “A”
pressed the trigger, the gun jammed and “B” managed to escape. This is an
example of:
a. Attempted felony c. Consummated felony
b. Frustrated felony d. Impossible crime
48. The method of determining and finding the best way to remedy the
specific cause or causes of the complaint or grievance refers to:
a. Cross examination c. Investigative procedures
b. Grievance procedures d. Criminal procedures
51. It is an art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and
provides evidence of his guilt through criminal proceeding.
a. Information c. Instrumentation
b. Interrogation d. Interrogation
56. This sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest physical surroundings.
a. Finished sketch c. Sketch of locality
b. Sketch of details d. Sketch of grounds
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58. Such articles and evidences which assists the investigator in locating the
suspect.
a. Physical evidences c. Associative evidences
b. Material evidences d. Tracing evidences
59. Objects or substances which are essential part of the body of the crime.
a. Corpus delicti c. Material evidences
b. Physical evidences d. Associative evidences
62. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained areas are usually
encircled. What is the primary objective?
a. To show points of interest c. To avoid contamination
b. To have proper markings d. To prevent alterations
68. It is the physical possibility that the suspect could have committed the
crime.
a. Motive c. Opportunity
b. Intent d. Deceit
70. Employed where a general impression of the subject’s habit and associate
are required.
a. Surveillance c. Rough shadowing
b. Loose tail shadowing d. Close tail shadowing
71. More advantageous because it permits immediate changes of men and less
likely to be recognized.
a. One man shadow c. Three man shadow
b. Two man shadow d. ABC method
72. In this method of search, the searchers proceed slowly at the same pace
along the path parallel to one side of the rectangle. At the end of the rectangle,
the searcher turns and proceeds back along new lanes but parallel to the first
movement.
a. Zone method c. Spiral method
b. Strip method d. Wheel method
73. In this method, the area to be searched is divided into quadrant and each
searcher is assigned in each quadrant.
a. Zone method c. Spiral method
b. Strip method d. Wheel method
74. The surroundings of the crime scene must be photograph to show the
relative location and distances.
a. Environmental photograph c. Overview
b. Physical reconstruction d. Over-all photograph
75. Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No scale, proportion ignored
and everything is approximate.
a. Sketch c. Rough sketch
b. Draft d. Finished sketch
80. Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty of a person taken into
custody.
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a. Protective custody c. Police restraint
b. Detaining for questioning d. All of these
81. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime scene as well as the
objects, what naturally occurred and what were the circumstances of the
crime.
a. Crime scene c. Mental reconstruction
b. Physical reconstruction d. Reconstruction of the crime
84. Articles which are found in connection with the investigation and aid in
establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which
the crime was committed.
a. Tracing evidence c. Associative evidence
b. Corpus delicti d. Physical or material evidence
86. First action of the police unit upon arrival at the scene of homicide.
a. Cordon the area c. Verification of death
b. Prevent contamination of evidence d. Conduct initial investigation
91. Stage where the law enforcer focus on a particular suspect who had been
invited or taken into custody or otherwise deprived of his/her freedom of
action where a process of interrogation is undertaken to illicit incriminating
statements.
a. Investigation c. Custodial investigation
b. Interrogation d. Inquest
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92. In informal and summary investigation conducted by a public prosecutor
in criminal cases involving persons arrested and detained without the benefit
of a warrant for the purpose of determining whether or not said persons
should remain under custody an correspondingly be charged in court.
a. Investigation c. Custodial investigation
b. Interrogation d. Inquest
93. This investigation technique when used will establish cooperation since
the complainant and witnesses will pin point the subject as the one who
committed the crime.
a. Pleading to a lesser offense c. Split pair method
b. Line-up method d. Revered line-up method
94. Also known as bluff method it is undertaken when there are two or more
culprits and stating to the subject that the others have already confessed and
directly linked him/her with the commission of a crime.
a. Pleading to a lesser offense c. Split pair method
b. Line-up method d. Revered line-up method
96. Generally indicates the dimensions and shape of crime scenes and which
are used as interview aids.
a. Sketch c. Outline sketch
b. Rough sketch d. Detailed sketch
99. When firearms, Blood, glass and other similar physical evidences is in
police custody, what type of crime scene reconstruction is used by the
investigator on case?
a. Specific incident reconstruction c. Specific event reconstruction
b. Specific physical evidence reconstruction d. All of these
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II. ARSON INVESTIGATION
1. This type of fire has for its fuel normal combustible materials.
a. Class A fire c. Class C fire
b. Class B fire d. Class D fire
3. The collection of debris at the origin of the fire should include all __________
materials.
a. Solid c. Porous
b. Liquid d. Non-porous
9. In handling class D fires, which among the following may not be used?
a. Dry powder, ABC chemical c. Water
b. Baking soda d. Sand
11. Which among the following is commonly used to put out Class C fires?
a. CO2 c. Water
b. Sand d. Baking soda
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13. A fire which uses flammable liquid as fuel is classified as:
a. Class A fire c. Class C fire
b. Class B fire d. Class D fire
17. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of its reaction
with other elements promotes a rapid drop in temperature of the immediate
surrounding.
a. Dust c. Pyrolisys
b. Oxidizing material d. Cryogenic
19. The temperature at which a flammable liquid form a vapor air mixture that
ignites.
a. Ignition temperature c Fire point
b. Kindling temperature d. Flash point
20. Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air must be heated in
order to initiate or cause a self-contained combustion without the addition of
heat from outside sources.
a. Boiling point c. Fire point
b. Ignition temperature d. Flash point
24. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of the material with
unit temperature gradient.
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a. Conduction c. Radiation
b. Thermal conductivity d. Oxidation
25. A means of heat transfer when energy travels trough space or materials as
waves.
a. Conduction c. Radiation
b. Convection d. Fission
26. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a motive.
a. Providential fire c. Intentional fire
b. Accidental fire d. None of the foregoing
27. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in the case of Ong
Chat Lay 60 P 788.
a. Arson c. Accidental fire
b. Providential fire d. None of the foregoing
31. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire gases
within a building or structure under natural conditions.
a. Free radicals c. Thermal balance
b. Pyrolysis d. Thermal imbalance
32. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive capabilities
are developed.
a. Initial phase c. Free burning phase
b. Incipient phase d. Smoldering phase
34. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combustible portion of the
ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is characterized by a sudden burst or
shooting forth light and flames.
a. Flashover c. Thermal balance
b. Backdraft d. Thermal imbalance
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a. Flashover c. Thermal balance
b. Backdraft d. Thermal imbalance
36. Which among the following is the primary objective in investigating fires?
a. To determine its cause c. To determine liable persons
b. To prevent recurrences d. All of these
40. Most important part of the fire triangle for it is what burns.
a. Fuel c. Oxygen
b. Heat d. Gas
44. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor as a result of
combustion.
a. Fire c. Heat
b. Flame d. Smoke
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46. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been contained.
a. Backdraft c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
b. Flashover d. Falling debris
47. Color of smoke produced accompanied by red flames indicates the burning
of what material?
a. Rubber c. Asphalt singles
b. Nitrogen products d. Chlorine
48. Which among the following is commonly used in fire resistant materials?
a. Asbestos c. Asphalt
b. Diamond d. Cotton
51. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the room or
throughout the structure.
a. Accelerant c. Trailer
b. Plants d. Wick
57. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry materials with
sufficient air forms lamp black commonly known as:
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a. Black bone c. Soot
b. Used petroleum d. Black iron
58. The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume electrical
current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.
a. Overloading c. Wire tapping
b. Jumper d. Arcing
59. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01 % of the assessed value
of the building:
a. Schools c. Hospitals
b. Department stores d. Single family dwellings
60. An enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as
from the base to the top of the building.
a. Standpipe system c. Vertical shaft
b. Sprinkler system d. Flash point
61. Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of not
less than four hours with structural stability to remain standing even if the
adjacent construction collapses under fire conditions:
a. Post wall c. Fire wall
b. Fire trap d. Firewood
64. The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light of
combustion.
a. Oxidation c. Smoldering
b. Flash point d. Fire
65. A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with all in the proper
proportion and ignited will cause an explosion.
a. Dust c. Fire trap
b. Fire lane d. Fire hazard
66. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction takes place.
a. Endothermic reactions c. Oxidation
b. Exothermic reactions d. Combustion
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b. Blue d. Red
69. Refers to the amount of heat released during complete oxidation whereby
the organic fuel is converted to water and carbon dioxide.
a. Heat of combustion c. Fuel value
b. Calorific value d. All of these
71. Refers to gases that remain when the products of combustion are cooled
to normal temperature.
a. Fire gases c. Oxidation gases
b. Combustion gases d. Flame
74. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern or fingerprint of
fire is developed.
a. Incipient phase c. Free burning phase
b. Initial phase d. Smoldering phase
75. Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the flame and carbon
monoxide builds up in volume.
a. Incipient phase c. Free burning phase
b. Initial phase d. Smoldering phase
77. When greenish yellow flames are seen in the fire, what material is being
burned?
a. Petroleum products c. Asphalt shingles
b. Chorine of manganese d. Potassium
78. When this constitutes most of the combustible material in the fire it
produces bright reddish yellow flames.
a. Petroleum products c. Asphalt shingles
b. Calcium d. Potassium
79. When black smoke with red and blue-green flames is visible in the fire, it
indicates that this material is burning.
a. Petroleum products c. Asphalt shingles
b. Chorine of manganese d. Potassium
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10. A French inspired method wherein it is aimed at preventing
prostitution to be engaged in clandestine manner and accepting its existence
and the improbability of eradicating prostitution.
a. Aversion method c. School of total repression
b. School of regulatory control d. Napoleon method
15. A medical service rendered to a patient which deals with the physical
and physiological complications arising from drug abuse.
a. Rehabilitation c. Therapy
b. Treatment d. All of these
19. An alkaloid of opium after morphine which has limited use as a pain
killer and more popularly used as a cough syrup and is quite addictive.
a. Heroine c. Codeine
b. Cocaine d. Shabu
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22. Obtained from a female poppy plant known as “Papaver Somniferum”
derived from a Greek word which means juice.
a. Marijuana c. Cocaine
b. Opium d. Shabu
23. Named after the Greek God of dreams, it is obtained from opium.
a. Heroin c. Hasish
b. Morphine d. Cocaine
24. The most powerful derivative from the Papaver Somniferum, it has no
medicinal value.
a. Opium c. Morphine
b. Heroin d. Cocaine
25. Also known as pot, grass, weed, dope, Thai stick or Acapulco gold it
resembles dried parsley mixed with stems and seeds, and is either eaten or
smoked.
a. Marijuana c. Shabu
b. Hasish d. THC
28. A drug which takes the form of capsules, pills and tablets, taken
orally and sometimes injected, its common names are speed, Pep pills,
Footballs, Shabu and Uppers.
a. Amphetamine c. Methamphetamine
b. Hallucinogens d. Stimulants
29. Known commonly as smack, horse, junk, brown sugar, black tar, it is
a powdered substance which may either be injected, smoked or taken orally.
a. Heroin c. Mescaline
b. Cocaine d. Opium
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33. A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which contains
alcohol.
a. Liquor c. Booze
b. Wine d. Vodka
34. Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of ill refute whereby
the business of prostitution is conducted.
a. Operator c. Mama
b. Banker d. Pimp
36. The procurement and transportation of women from far flung places
for immoral purposes.
a. White slavery c. Organized crimes
b. Prostitution d. All of the foregoing
39. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the means with which
to carry on the gambling game.
a. Maintainer c. Banker
b. Conductor d. Gullible person
43. Penalty provided for by law which punishes white slave trade.
a. Prision correccional c. Reclusion temporal
b. Prison mayor d. Reclusion perpetua
45. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to maintain the same
effect.
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a. Tolerance c. Poly drug abuse
b. Physical dependence d. Drug experimenter
46. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent Cannabis
Sativa.
a. Marijuana c. Opium
b. Hashish d. Morphine
47. Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning sleep, what is
the other term given to narcotics?
a. Opium c. Morphine
b. Opiates d. Heroin
50. Who among the following acts as the chairman of the DDB?
a. Secretary of Justice c. Secretary of Education
b. Secretary of National Defense d. Secretary of Health
54. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical name is
“Methy Dioxy Methamphetamine”.
a. Chomper c. Shabu
b. Ecstacy d. Heroin
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58. A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among persons who
have paid or agreed to pay a valuable consideration for the chance to obtain a
prize.
a. Gambling c. Lottery
b. Sport d. All of these
67. A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock owners and other
bettors.
a. Promoter c. Banker
b. “Cristo” d. Gambler
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69. The process of undergoing or producing gradual chemical change
which later becomes sour or alcoholic.
a. Distillation c. Ionization
b. Fermentation d. Purification
71. This degree of intoxication causes reddening of the face, but no sign
of incoordination and difficulty of speech.
a. Slight inebriation c. Drunk
b. Moderate inebriation d. Coma
76. The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world originated
is located specifically in:
a. Thailand-Burma-China border
b. Laos-Thailand-China border
c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border
d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border
78. A drug obtained from the leaves of coca, a South American shrub. It
is a central nervous system stimulant.
a. Marijuana c. Cocaine
b. Shabu d. Opiates
79. A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly upon chance or
hazard.
a. Gambling c. Tupada
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b. Sports d. Bingo
80. Study reveal that the reason why “Marijuana” is difficult to control is
that:
a. The big demand
b. The plant can be easily cultivated
c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the country
d. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously
82. Drugs that produce persistent memory loss, speech difficulties and
self-inflicted injuries.
a. Hallucinogens c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Narcotics
83. Most abused form of tranquilizers, taken orally and comes in tablets.
a. Valium c. Miltown
b. Serax d. Equanil
84. Its effects are similar to that of alcohol, can produce calmness and
relaxed muscles.
a. Hallucinogens c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Narcotics
86. One who originally use any narcotic substance for reason of curiosity,
peer pressure or other similar reasons.
a. Drug dependant c. Polydrug abuse
b. Drug addict d. Drug experimenter
89. Opium which is derived from the Greek word meaning juice, is
derived from what plant?
a. Papaver somniferum c. Erythroxylon coca
b. Cannabis sativa d. Indian hemp
91. Cocaine, Amphetamine, Caffeine and nicotine are drugs that affect the
central nervous system causing alertness, cub hunger and make the user
awake. They are classified as:
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a. Hallucinogens c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Barbiturates
92. They are drugs which cause distortion of perception of time and space its
common forms are marijuana, Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), Ecstacy,
PCP, Peyote and Psilocybin.
a. Hallucinogens c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Barbiturates
93. Are drugs that cause the body system of the user to relax, to which
narcotics, barbiturates, tranquilizers, inhalants, solvents and alcohol belong.
a. Hallucinogens c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Barbiturates
94. Which among the following is a factor that contributes to the effects of
drugs in the body system of the user?
a. Amount of drug taken c. Mood of the user
b. Environment where the drug is taken d. All of these
97. Refers to any act of knowingly planting, growing, raising, or permitting the
planting, growing or raising of any plant which is the source of a dangerous
drug.
a. Clandestine laboratory c. Controlled delivery
b. Chemical diversion d. Cultivate or culture
98. A place where any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and
essential chemical is administered, delivered, stored for illegal purposes,
distributed, sold or used in any form.
a. Dive c. Resort
b. Den d. All of these
101. Under RA 9165, any person charged for any violation of the
comprehensive dangerous drugs act regardless of the imposable penalty shall
not be allowed to avail of the provision on plea-bargaining. This statement is;
a. Partly False c. False
b. Partly True d. True
104. For the purpose of establishing adequate drug rehabilitation center in the
country, the PAGCOR is mandated by law to provide ______ million a month to
the PDEA and the DDB.
a. One c. Four
b. Two d. Five
106. Any substance that directly alters the normal functioning of the central
nervous system.
a. Dangerous drugs c. Regulated drugs
b. Prohibited Drugs d. Psychoactive drugs
107. Refer to the combined effects of the abused drugs taken by the user.
a. Tolerance c. Withdrawal sickness
b. Synergistic effects d. All of these
109. Also known as horse, brown sugar, junk, mud, black tar, smoke.
a. Codeine c. Heroin
b. Opium d. Methadone
3. When a traffic officer halts a driver for traffic violation, the remark “do you
know why I called your attention” should be avoided, mainly because:
a. It implies corruption
b. It is a leading question
c. It is a presumption that it is a false arrest action
d. It invites a denial on the part of the traffic law violator.
6. This represents the ratio of traffic arrests, citations and warnings to the
frequency of traffic accidents.
a. Enforcement tax c. Non-index crime
b. Crime Index d. Crime rate
8. It refers to the practice of traffic law enforcers to hide in places where they
await traffic violations.
a. In the hole enforcement c. Fair play enforcement
b. Traffic tolerance d. None of these
10. Statistically it is considered as the most common reason for public utility
vehicular accidents.
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a. Not observing the proper distance and following too close.
b. Unnecessary speed
c. Recklessness
d. Discussion regarding fare
13. To best determine the proper distribution of personnel the best criterion
would be the number of:
a. Fatal accidents c. Accidents involving negligence
b. Reported accidents d. Amount of traffic using the public road
18. In Metro Manila the responsibility for developing traffic program primarily
rest with:
a. Department of Transportation and Communication
b. Land Transportation Office
c. Metro Manila Development Authority
d. Land Transportation Franchising Regulatory Board
19. In the Independence Day parade, a traffic officer is instructed not to allow
vehicles to cross the route where the parade is to pass, however an ambulance
vehicle with an injured passenger is about to cross the route, the traffic law
enforcement officer should:
a. Direct the driver to the nearest short cut without passing the route
b. Follow the order not to allow any vehicle to cross the route
c. Stop the parade to allow the ambulance to cross the street
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d. Call his superior office for the prompt decision.
20. It has been observed that the intersection of Lacson and Dimasalang has
more traffic accidents than any other area in your jurisdiction, the traffic law
enforcement officer assigned in that area should be advised to:
a. Park near the intersection within view of passing vehicles to act as
deterrent.
b. Park near the intersection hidden from view to surprise traffic law violators
c. Give an extra attention to the particular intersection but cruise all areas
within his jurisdiction.
d. Park his vehicle in the center of the intersection to help control and direct
traffic flow.
21. Foremost among the preliminary action when the officer receives a call
regarding the occurrence of an accident.
a. Number of injured c. Name of the victim
b. Seriousness of the injury d. When and where the accident occurred
26. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection at the same time who
shall yield the right of way as a general rule.
a. The driver on the left c. The faster vehicle
b. The driver on the right d. The slower vehicle
28. Agency which regulates and prescribes transport routes for public utility
vehicles.
a. LTFRB c. DOTC
b. LTO d. MMDA
30. Number of days which constitutes the physical cycle or man’s cycle of
strength.
a. 21 c. 28
b. 23 d. 33
32. It is an accident wherein one or more person was seriously injured or has
died as a result of the mishap. In traffic accident investigation how is it
classified?
a. 1 c. 4
b. 2 d. 5
35. It is the place and time at which the normal person could perceive the
unusual or unexpected condition or movement.
a. Point of no escape c. Perception of hazards
b. Point of possible perception d. All of these
37. In cases wherein a vehicle on the traffic way suddenly stopped due to
engine failure. What would be then duration period of the validity of the
citation given by the enforcer?
a. 2 days c. 72 hours
b. 1 days d. 7 days
39. It is defined as telling the drivers and pedestrians when, how and where
they may or may not move or stand at a particular place.
a. Traffic supervision c. Traffic control
b. Traffic direction d. All of these
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41. Prohibitive signs and restrictive signs shall have:
a. Green background with white and black symbols.
b. White background with black symbols and red border
c. Red background with white symbols and red border
d. Blue background and white symbols.
42. It refers to any motor vehicle accident occurring on a place other than
traffic way.
a. Motor vehicle traffic accident
b. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
c. Non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
d. Non motor vehicle traffic accident
43. What are physical channels within the roadway, which are constructed to
establish physical channels thru which vehicular traffic is guided without the
use of signals?
a. Traffic Signs c. Pavement markings
b. Traffic Islands d. Traffic signals
44. A term used to denote any vehicle used for commercial purposes without
any franchise.
a. Tricycle c. Mega taxi
b. FX d. Colorum
46. Common cycle length is used at each intersection and the GO indications
are given independently in accordance to the time schedule designated o
permit a continuous movement of vehicles along the street at a designed
speed.
a. Flexible progressive system c. Simulated system
b. Simple progressive system d. Alternative system
47. All signals along a given street always show the same indication at the
same time.
a. Flexible progressive system c. Simulated system
b. Simple progressive system d. Alternative system
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51. In hit and run accident investigation, what should be the initial step or
phase in the investigative process?
a. Gather the evidences
b. Establish the identity of the persons involved
c. Cordon the area
d. Check the victims for injuries
52. Common type of thing carried away in cases of burglary and hit and run
vehicular accident.
a. Glass c. Hair
b. Blood d. Metal
53. All lines, patters, words, colors or other gadgets EXCEPT signs set into the
surface or applied upon or attached to the pavement or curbing officially place
for the purpose of regulating traffic is called.
a. Pavement markings c. Traffic signs
b. Traffic islands d. Traffic engineering
54. Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other than fatal to one or
more persons.
a. Non-fatal injury accident c. Fatal accident
b. Traffic accident d. Property damage accident
55. Refers to traffic signs intended to warn road users of special obligations.
a. Danger warning signs c. Informative signs
b. Regulatory signs d. Mandatory signs
56. It includes pedestrians, pedal cyclist, drivers and passengers utilizing the
public roads.
a. Road users c. Traffic system
b. Road user system d. Enforcement system
59. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking for defects in the
behavior of the motorist, pedestrian, vehicles and roadway condition.
a. Apprehension c. Adjudication
b. Defection d. Prosecution
61. The theory which asserts that man exhibits a constant variation of life
energy and mood state.
a. Biorhythm c. Right of way
b. Last clear chance d. None of the foregoing
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62. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces in contact
is known as:
a. Attribute c. Contact damage
b. Traffic jam d. Coefficient of friction
63. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or
otherwise to avoid hazard.
a. Final position c. Start of evasive action
b. Point of possible perception d. Point of no escape
64. Key to determining which traffic unit first tried to prevent the motor
vehicle accident, this marking is made while the wheel is still turning.
a. Pavement markings c. Scuff marks
b. Skid marks d. All of these
65. As a rule, traffic control devices and aids have elementary requirements
before they are installed on the roadway, which among the following is not
considered as a requirement for such devices?
a. They should compel attention
b. They should convey meaning which are simple and easy to
understand
c. They should command respect
d. They should not allow time for proper response
66. If a traffic law enforcer would decide to arrest a traffic law violator, what
would not be his basis for such action?
a. The offense is serious
b. Detention is necessary to avoid continued violation
c. There is a reasonable doubt that the person will appear in the court.
d. The offender would attend the hearing
68. They are objects commonly left at the scene of the collision involved in
accidents.
a. Debris c. Skid marks
b. Scuff marks d. Hazards
70. It is the last part of the enforcement process wherein penalties are imposed
by the court to parties found guilty of an offense pertaining to traffic law
violations.
a. Adjudication c. Penalization
b. Apprehension d. Prosecution
71. The greatest advance in land transportation after the sled was the _____
and originated in the Tigris Euphrates valley about 3,500 B.C.
a. Feeder roads c. Wheel
b. Roads d. The harness
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72. The credit of having invented the internal combustion engine was given to
a Frenchman named;
a. Napoleon Bonaparte c. Nicolas Otto
b. Etiene Leonir d. Gottlieb Daimler
73. The Romans brought road building to its peak of perfection in ancient
times, hence the saying “all roads, lead to _______.”
a. Forum c. Paris
b. Coliseum d. Rome
74. Refers to the main road as conduit system with a right of way ranging from
20 meters to 120 meters.
a. Provincial roads c. City roads
b. National roads d. Municipal roads
75. Linkages between two municipalities with a right of way from 15 meters to
60 meters.
a. Provincial roads c. City roads
b. National roads d. Municipal roads
77. A modern urban system of roadway above street level for free flow of traffic.
a. Expressway c. Skyway
b. Subway d. Major collector road
79. For private vehicles a green sticker is issued, for hire vehicles yellow, red
for government vehicles and _____ for diplomatic vehicles.
a. Pink c. Black
b. Blue d. Orange
80. For open country roads with no blind corners the maximum allowable
speed is 80 km/h for passenger vehicles and motorcycles, 50 km/h for trucks
and buses; for through streets clear of traffic 40 km/h and 20 km/h
respectively; for city and municipal streets 30 km/h and for through crowded
streets approaching intersections at blind corners passing school zones the
maximum allowable speed is ___ km/h for both passenger cars, motorcycles as
well as trucks and buses.
a. 10 c. 20
b. 15 d. 25
V. COURT TESTIMONY
1. The relevance of the study of practice court is to criminology is:
a. Acquaintance with court room conduct and trial procedures
b. Familiarization with court personnel and legal forms
c. Train criminologist how to testify effectively and properly
d. All of the above
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a. To protect the judge c. To protect the accused
b. To serve as a witness d. To act as an expert witness
3. This occurs when the judge enters the court room and the clerk or bailiff
announces his presence.
a. Roll call of cases c. Arraignment
b. Call to order d. Order of trial
12. A procedure wherein the case number is called and the litigants
represented by counsel should signify their readiness for trial.
a. Witness oath c. Roll call of cases
b. Call to order d. Marking of exhibits
16. When an objection has been made to the testimony of the witness and the
judge orders that it be sustained, the witness:
a. Is allowed to continue and answer
b. Is not allowed to answer the question directed by counsel
c. Is instructed to sit down
d. Is instructed to get out of the witness stand
17. The question, “when did you first meet the accused” is an example of a:
a. Direct examination c. Re-direct question
b. Cross examination d. Re-cross examination
18. After the evidence of the defense is presented, the next step for the order of
trial is:
a. Evidence for the prosecution c. Sur-rebuttal evidence
b. Rebuttal evidence d. Cross examination
19. It is usually used to test the credibility of the witness and leading
questions may be allowed.
a. Direct examination c. Re-direct examination
b. Cross examination d. Re-cross examination
20. It is used to establish facts wherein leading questions are not allowed.
a. Direct examination c. Re-direct examination
b. Cross examination d. Re-cross examination
22. An attorney whose name must appear in the permanent record or file of
the case.
a. Attorney at law c. Counsel de officio
b. Attorney ad Hoc d. Attorney of record
23. The counsel on either side of the litigated action who is charges with the
principal management and direction of party’s case.
a. Attorney in fact c. Lead Counsel
b. Attorney ad Hoc d. House counsel
24. Literally it means a friend of the court, a person with strong interest in or
views on the subject matter of an action but not a party to it.
a. Attorney in fact c. Counsel de officio
b. Amicus Curiae d. House counsel
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VI. POLICE REPORT WRITING
9. They refer to directives which usually affect the status of individuals such
as promotions, appointments, relief from duty, leave of absence, demotions
and separation.
a. Letter orders c. Office orders
b. Special orders d. Standing operating procedures
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b. Proper noun d. Consonant
13. In police investigative report writing, it is a must that you write it in the:
a. First person c. Third person
b. Second person d. Fourth person
19. Circumstance pertaining to the moral in order which adds disgrace and
suffering to the material injury caused by the crime.
a. Ignominy c. Unkindness
b. Cruelty d. Brutality
20. An act of any person who with intent to gain for himself or for another
shall buy, receive, possess, conceal, sell or dispose of any article, object or
property which he knows or ought to know to have been derived from the
proceeds of a crime.
a. Robbery c. Estafa
b. Theft d. Fencing
22. Report undertaken and submitted for solved cases or those classified as
closed.
a. Initial report c. Final report
b. Progress report d. Police report
23. Magnitude
a. Size c. Strength
b. Degree d. Duration
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24. Refers to the act of persuading the would be defendant into committing the
offense.
a. Entrapment c. Unlawful arrest
b. Detention d. Instigation
28. Mental capacity to distinguish what is right and wrong and to realize the
consequences of one’s unlawful acts.
a. Discernment c. Liability
b. Understanding d. Culpability
29. Scurrilous
a. Vulgar c. Rude
b. Discreet d. Cruelty
31. The correct choice of word selecting the exact precise objective words to
convey a meaning.
a. Exclamation point c. Vocabulary
b. Diction d. Exclamation point
35. In police investigative report writing, one must make use of what part of
speech to avoid redundancy?
a. Adverb c. Pronoun
b. Adjective d. Predicate
36. Hypothetical
a. Provable c. Exaggerated
b. Assumed d. Temporary
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37. Temerity
a. Fear c. Arrogance
b. Rashness d. Force
38. Macho
a. Angry c. Stubborn
b. Assertive d. Heroic
40. Subside
a. Undermine c. To yield
b. Decrease d. Descend upon
41. Also known as face sheets they are completed when the preliminary
investigation results in the conclusion that a crime occurred.
a. Clearance report c. Crime report
b. Arrest report d. Evidence report
42. A report which details the events which took place in the apprehension of
a person.
a. Clearance report c. Crime report
b. Arrest report d. Evidence report
44. When the police respond to calls which is not crime related, they are to
accomplish this report.
a. Clearance report c. Crime report
b. Incident report d. Evidence report
45. A daily activity report is used to detail the location of the activity, its
nature; time spent and number of persons contacted is also known as;
a. Clearance report c. Daily activity report
b. Arrest report d. Evidence report
46. The first sentence immediately at the beginning which is known as the
main subject.
a. Police sentence c. Introductory sentence
b. Topic sentence d. None of these
48. A type of correspondence that offices and members of the police force
subscribe to.
a. Routing slip c. Format
b. Action form d. All of these
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CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS AND HUMAN RELATIONS
193
I. INTRODUCTION TO CRIMINOLOGY
7. It was advocated by Karl Marx, William Bonger, George Vold and Ralf
Dahrendorf during the year 1848. It centers on the view that capitalist
system emphasizes competition and wealth and produces and economic
and social environment in which crime is inevitable.
a. Classical theory c. Positivist theory
b. Marxist/Conflict theory d. Sociological theory
8. It started around the year 1810, whose core idea is the fact that mental
and degeneracies are the causes of crime.
a. Classical theory c. Positivist theory
b. Marxist/Conflict theory d. Sociological theory
9. The sociological theory which started in the year 1897 contends that:
a. People choose to commit crime after weighing the benefits and costs of
their actions.
b. Crime is a function of class struggle
c. Some people have biological and mental traits that make them crime
prone.
d. A person’s place in the social structure determines his/her behavior.
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10. Acts of violence or intimidation designed to frighten people considered
undesirable because of religion, sexual orientation, ethnic origin or race.
a. Hate crimes c. Discriminatory crimes
b. Class crimes d. Oppressive crimes
12. It holds that offenders adhere to conventional values while drifting into
periods of illegal behavior, in order to drift; they must overcome moral and
legal values.
a. Neutralization theory c. Rational theory
b. Clinical theory d. Modern theory
14. A term that used to describe motorists who assault each other.
a. Road rage c. Predation
b. Reactive hate crime d. Anarchy
15. The killing of a large number of people over time by an offender who
seeks to escape detection.
a. Road rage c. Hate crime
b. Continuing crime d. Serial murder
17. Crimes that violate the moral order in which there is no actual target
and society as a whole is considered the victim.
a. Hate crimes c. Serial crimes
b. Violent crimes d. Victimless crimes
18. Crimes that is committed when members of a group are prevented from
achieving their fullest potential because of status bias.
a. Hate crimes c. Crimes of repression
b. Violent crimes d. Discriminative crimes
19. The study of criminal behavior involving research on the links between
different types of crimes and criminals.
a. Criminal typology c. Criminology
b. Crime typology d. All of the foregoing
26. The study of victimology, which deals on the role of the victim in the
commission of a crime is also referred to as:
a. Crime target c. Criminal ecology
b. Criminal anthropology d. Criminal psychology
27. Jose a 16 year old child, usually commits petty crimes as a form of
rebellion brought about by communication gap, disrespect and conflict
with his parents may be classified as a:
a. Environmental delinquent c. Psychiatric delinquent
b. Emotional maladjusted delinquent d. Juvenile delinquent
28. This specific theory of criminal law argues that crime is essentially a
morbid and mental phenomenon and as such it cannot be solely treated by
the application of abstract principles of jurisprudence.
a. Classical Theory c. Neo-classical theory
b. Positive Theory d. Modern theory
29. This explains that crime is a result of free will of men; but committed
due to some compelling reasons that prevailed upon the person to commit
a crime.
a. Classical School of Thought c. Positive School of Thought
b. Neo Classical School of Thought d. Italian School of Thought
30. This School of Thought advocated that criminals are essentially born.
a. Classical School of Thought c. Positive School of Thought
b. Neo Classical School of Thought d. Clinical School of Thought
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32. This theory in the causes of crime states that crime may be caused by
one or more factors, while in other instances caused by another set of
factors.
a. Single theory c. Multiple factor theory
b. Unitary cause theory d. Eclectic theory
34. The study of the relationship between facial features and human
conduct of a person in relation to his crimes.
a. Craniology c. Physiognomy
b. Phrenology d. All of the above
35. Claimed that the shape of the head of criminals is different from that of
non-criminals.
a. Lavator c. Casare Becarria
b. Cesare Lombroso d. Franz Joseph Spurzheim
38. Persons of mixed type physique tend to commit what particular crimes?
a. Deception and fraud c. Petty thievery
b. Violence d. Offenses against decency
39. Sheldon noted that this type of physique have relatively predominant
muscles, bone and motor organs of the body.
a. Endomorphic c. Ectomorphic
b. Mesomorphic d. Viscerotonic
40. They are skinny and slender type persons who commit petty thievery.
a. Pyknik c. Asthenic
b. Athletic d. Mixed
42. Relatively predominance of the skin and its appendages which includes
the nervous system, lean fragile and delicate bodies.
a. Endomorphic c. Ectomorphic
b. Mesomorphic d. Romotonic
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44. Claimed that crime is an expression of the mental content of an
individual.
a. Healy c. Cyril Burt
b. Bromberg d. Abrahamsen
47. Stated that the cause of delinquency is the faulty development of the
child during the first few years of his life.
a. Aichorn c. Bromberg
b. Healy d. Abrahamsen
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56. It was maintained that a person pursues a criminal behavior to the
extent that he identifies himself with a real or imaginary person from
whose perspective his criminal behavior seems acceptable.
a. Differential identification theory
b. Imitation suggestion theory
c. Differential social disorganization
d. Conflict of culture theory
57. Argues that delinquency and crime patterns are learned and adopted.
a. Differential identification theory
b. Imitation suggestion theory
c. Differential social disorganization
d. Conflict of culture theory
59. Explains human behavior and the experiences which helps determine
the nature of a personality as a reacting mechanism.
a. Giandell index to criminality c. Criminogenoc process
b. Crime rate d. Human behavior
61. This forms part of man’s physical organization between his sensory
stimuli on one hand and his motor activity on the other.
a. Ego c. Super ego
b. Id d. Spirit
62. Explains that the person before committing a crime is likely to feel
unhappy, resentful and unsatisfied.
a. Need frustration c. External inhibition
b. Internal inhibition d. Contact with reality
63. Refers to the balance of “gain and loss” that a person may experience if
he commits a given crime.
a. Situational crime potential c. Contact with reality
b. Potential satisfaction d. Need frustration
64. Extent to which a person can learn from his past experiences,
especially his mistakes, to the extent to which he can evaluate accurately
the present situation and foresee the consequences of his action to the
future.
a. Situational crime potential c. Contact with reality
b. Potential satisfaction d. Need frustration
66. Persons whose mentality may be compared to that of a 2 year old child.
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a. Idiots c. Feeble-mindedness
b. Imbeciles d. Moral defectiveness
74. The attempt to correlate the frequency of crime between parents and
children or siblings.
a. Melancholia c. Logomacy
b. Megalomania d. Biometry
78. A stab B at the back, killing the latter instantly, it was committed at
Sales Street, Manila and A left for Laguna to escape captivity for his felony.
What type of crime did he commit?
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a. Extinctive Crime c. Static crime
b. Acquisitive Crime d. Continuing crime
79. The theory of criminal law which is based on human free will and the
purpose of the penalty is retribution is referred to as the?
a. Classical Theory c. Positivist Theory
b. Neo Classical Theory d. Neo-Positivist Theory
80. G wanted to kill AJ, G shot AJ while the latter was walking to school as
a result AJ died, the act was to be classified as a:
a. Attempted felony c. Consummated felony
b. Frustrated felony d. All of the above
82. It is considered as the maximum penalty for any crime under the
Philippine Penal Law?
a. Death by lethal injection c. Reclusion temporal
b. Reclusion perpetua d. Prision mayor
84. Which among the following is not considered an origin of criminal law?
a. Criminal law originated from tort(quasi-deli) or private wrong
b. Criminal law originated from the local process of a disorganized
society
c. Criminal law originated from development of customs, usage and
traditions
d. Criminal law originated from conflict of interest between different
social groups
88. It refers to crimes, which occur with sufficient regularity, and is used
as the basis in determining the peace and order situation in a particular
locality.
a. Simple crimes c. Index crimes
b. Complex crimes d. Non-index crimes
91. Ballistics is the study of firearms and bullets. Who has been recognized
as the Father of Ballistics?
a. Col. Calvin H. Goddard c. Hans Gross
b. Albert Osborn d. Cesare Lombroso
93. When we refer to the fact that our penal laws is applicable equally to
all persons what particular principle of criminal law do we refer?
a. Territoriality c. Extra-territoriality
b. Generality d. Prospectivity
95. It has been said that the victim plays an important role in the
commission of crimes. What do we refer to the study that focuses on such
part of the victim in crimes?
a. Criminal Psychology c. Victimology
b. Criminal Psychiatry d. Criminal Ecology
96. In its narrower sense, criminology is the scientific study of crimes and
criminals. Which among the following is not considered part of its extended
scientific study?
a. Investigation of the nature of criminal law and its application
b. Analysis of the causation of crimes
c. Crime prevention
d. Control and rehabilitation of offenders
98. When the offender has used his free will and intended to commit a
certain crime while being sane, he has committed what type of crime?
a. Rational crime c. Instant crime
b. Irrational crime d. Blue collar crime
105. Crimes which occur per 100,000 population per month. It is the
theoretical basis which determines peace and order situation.
a. Index crimes c. Crime rate
b. Non index crime d. Crime statistics
108. Lowest form of criminal career. They lack organization and require
limited skill.
a. Ordinary criminals c. Acute criminals
b. Professional criminals d. Chronic criminals
109. Persons who violate the law because of the impulse of the moment, fit
of passion or anger or extreme jealousy.
a. Normal criminals c. Chronic criminals
b. Ordinary criminals d. Acute criminals
111. Murder, assault, forcible, rape and child molesting are crimes which
are sociologically classified as:
a. Occasional proper crimes c. Conventional crimes
b. Violent personal crimes d. Occasional crimes
112. Shoplifting, auto theft, vandalism and forgery may be considered as:
a. Occasional proper crimes c. Conventional crimes
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b. Violent personal crimes d. Occasional crimes
119. They are persons who continue to commit criminal acts as opposed to
most criminal offenders who discontinue their antisocial activity.
a. Chronic offenders c. Recidivists
b. Career criminals d. Both a and B
122. The first written criminal code developed in Babylonia about 2000
B.C.
a. Code of Kalantiao c. Sumakawel Code
b. Code of Hammurabi d. Codico Penal
123. This approach made use of social statistics that were being developed
in Europe in the early 19 th century that provided important demographic
information on the population, including density, gender, religious
affiliations and wealth. Many of the relationships between crime and social
phenomena identified then still serve as basis for criminology study.
a. Cartoraphic School of criminology c. Sociological criminology
b. Conflict Criminology d. Marxist Criminology
126. The best known and most widely cited source of official criminal
statistics.
a. Interpol c. Uniform Crime Report
b. Victimization Survey d. FBI
127. Crime is a function of free will and personal choices and punishment
is a deterrent to crime.
a. Internal forces c. Multiple forces
b. Situational forces d. Socialization forces
128. Criminology, which is the study of crimes and criminals was derived
from what field of study?
a. Forensics c. Sociology
b. Law d. Penology
2. Public officers and employees who serve with the highest degree of
integrity, loyalty, responsibility and efficiency manifests:
a. Love of country c. Allegiance to the constitution
b. Allegiance to the government d. Public office is a public trust
5. Acts and omissions not involving moral turpitude, but affecting the
internal discipline of the PNP, such as simple negligence and misconduct,
frequent absences, gambling prohibited by law, tardiness and
insubordination.
a. Serious offense c. Felony
b. Grave offense d. Minor offense
11. It refers to the sum total of dealings of the police with the people it
serves.
a. Police relations c. Police public relations
b. Police community relations d. Human relations
12. Designed to bridge any communication gap between the police and the
people.
a. Public information program c. Mass communication
program
b. Civic action program d. Public relations program
14. Involves local officials and the citizenry in the preservation of peace and
order.
a. Barangay police c. People’s Law Enforcement Board
b. COPS on the block d. Integrated Police Advisory Council
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15. Consist of moral and legal precepts which govern the relationship of
man in all aspects of life.
a. Public relations c. Police community relations
b. Human relations d. Civic action program
16. In terms of its use in effective supervision, discipline is considered as:
a. Authority c. Training
b. Control d. Regulation
20. Reason why a police officer must always wear his uniform securely
buttoned.
a. Loose clothing is shabby.
b. A complete uniform gets women’s attention
c. It is a minor offense
d. A neat appearance will command respect
21. It concerns those actions that pertain to one’s duties towards his
neighbors and himself.
a. Moral virtue c. Responsibility
b. Dignity d. Discipline
33. It can be said that the best public relations between the police and the
public exist when the public attitude is one of:
a. Formal acceptance c. Confidence, approval and respect
b. Taut acceptance d. Due approval
34. The most important medium to determine public attitudes between the
police and the public is the:
a. Radio and Television c. Individual policeman
b. Print Mass Media d. Public Relations Officer
47. A program which makes the policeman a friend and partner of the
people.
a. Public relations c. Police community relations
b. Human relations d. Civic action program
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48. Includes all rights enjoyed by individual as provided for under the
constitution and international law.
a. Rights c. Privileges
b. Human rights d. Justice
53. A habit which inclines man to act in a way that harmonizes with his
nature.
a. Ethics c. Virtue
b. Value d. Dignity
57. Virtue which inclines the will to give everyone his due and respect every
person’s rights.
a. Morality c. Prudence
b. Justice d. Judgment
58. Regulates those actions that involve the rights that exist between
private individuals.
a. Justice c. Distributive justice
b. Commutative justice d. Legal justice
59. Regulates those actions in which an individual claims his rights from
society.
a. Justice c. Distributive justice
b. Commutative justice d. Legal justice
64. Lack of sufficient fitness and ability for the adequate of official duties of
a law enforcement officer by reason of vices and vicious habits.
a. Misconduct or malfeasance c. Neglect of duty or nonfeasance
b. Misfeasance d. Malfeasance
67. A police office on the field and while engaged in the performance of his
duties is not permitted to engage in useless and idle conversation which
refers to:
a. Humiliating any person
b. Vexing
c. Engaging in casual talk with others outside the organization
d. Gossip and idle talk.
68. An essential duty for police officers to ensure that the constitutional
rights of an arrested person is respected.
a. Civil liberties c. Human rights
b. Miranda Doctrine d. Due process
72. Most common and basic form of showing respect for uniformed
personnel.
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a. Salute c. Gun Salute
b. Hand salute d. All of these
74. A set of norms and standards practiced by PNP members during social
and other functions.
a. Tradition c. Courtesy
b. Social Decorum d. Ceremony
76. Bodies of beliefs, stories, customs and usages handed down from
generation to generation with the effect of an unwritten law.
a. Tradition c. Courtesy
b. Social Decorum d. Ceremony
77. PNP members during a new year’s call pay a visit to;
a. Local officials c. Commanders
b. PNP members d. Family and friends
79. It signals the end of an official day’s work, where PNP members salute
the lowering of the flag.
a. Flag retreat c. Half mast
b. Honor ceremony d. None of these
80. When a PNP member visits his superior due to relief or reassignment it
is considered as:
a. Promotion call c. Courtesy of the Post
b. Exit call d. None of these
81. The host unit extends hospitality to visiting personnel who pays respect
to the command or unit.
a. Promotion call c. Courtesy of the Post
b. Exit call d. None of these
84. To give due recognition and congratulations this form of courtesy call is
undertaken by peers of a PNP member for such deserved accomplishment.
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a. Promotion call c. Courtesy of the Post
b. Exit call d. None of these
85. Honor ceremonies are given during arrival and departure of VIP’s,
dignitaries and uniformed members of the PNP and AFP and their
equivalent rank whose rank is _____________ or higher unless waived.
a. Superintendent c. Chief Superintendent
b. Senior Superintendent d. Director
88. To sacrifice life and limb for the sake of the people they pledge to serve
is a manifestation of:
a. Loyalty c. Patriotism
b. Discipline d. Valor
89. The binding spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the
police organization.
a. Loyalty c. Patriotism
b. Camaraderie d. Valor
2. Refers to persons below 18 years of age or those over but unable to fully
take care of themselves from neglect, abuse, cruelty, exploitation or
discrimination due to some physical defect or mental disability or
condition.
a. Minor c. Wards
b. Youth d. Children
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4. A condition or act which may cause suffering emotional or physical
harm on the part of the child.
a. Physical injury c. Psychological injury
b. Cruelty d. Child abuse
5. A harm done to a child’s intellectual functions which causes a change in
behavior, awareness and emotional response.
a. Cruelty c. Child abuse
b. Physical injury d. Psychological injury
13. Aside from the child, who may file a complaint against any violation of
R.A. 7610?
a. Parents or guardians
b. Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3 rd degree of consanguinity.
c. Barangay Chairman, Officer of DSWD or at least any three responsible
citizen.
d. All of the foregoing
14. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon any knowledge of
a child who have been treated or suffered from abuse.
a. Report the incident to the family
b. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority
c. Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery of abuse
d. File a case in court in behalf of the child
15. A teacher upon learning that a child under his/her supervision has
been a victim of abuse shall:
a. Report the incident to the family
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b. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority
c. Report the incident to the DSWD, whether oral or written
d. File a case in court in behalf of the child
19. Refers to a person whose behavior results with repeated conflict with
the law.
a. Juvenile c. Delinquent
b. Habitual criminals d. Recidivist
27. If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18 years of age at the
time of the commission of the crime, he is often referred to as?
a. Socialized delinquent c. Youth offender
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b. Criminal d. Truant
28. Not a mere creature of the state but regarded as its most important
asset.
a. Family c. Child
b. Women d. Youth
40. Shall refer to any organization whose members are 21 years or older.
a. NGO c. Youth organization
b. Civic organization d. Youth association
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41. Shall mean local government together with society of individuals or
institutions.
a. Family c. Community
b. School d. All of the foregoing
42. Criminal liability attached to parents who neglect parental duties.
a. Imprisonment from 1 month to 2 months
b. Imprisonment from 2 to 6 months
c. Imprisonment from 6 months to 1 year
d. Imprisonment from 1 year to 3 years.
43. What do we call a child whose basic needs have been deliberately
unattended?
a. Abandoned child c. Neglected child
b. Dependent child d. All of the foregoing
45. Refers to anti social act which deviates from normal pattern of rules
and regulations.
a. Juvenile delinquency c. Quasi recidivism
b. Recidivism d. Delinquency
46. A child deserted with no proper care from his/her parents or guardian
a. Abandoned child c. Neglected child
b. Dependent child d. All of the foregoing
48. A place of residence whose primary function is to give shelter and care
to pregnant women and their infants.
a. Rehabilitation center c. Foster homes
b. Hospital d. Maternity home
49. Family home type which provide temporary shelter from 10 to 20 days
for children under observation by the DSWD.
a. Nursery c. Receiving homes
b. Maternity homes d. Shelter care institution.
50. A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide short term resident care
for youthful offenders.
a. Child caring institution c. Nursery
b. Detention home d. Foster home
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53. Is one that provides twenty-four resident group care service for the
physical, mental, social and spiritual well-being of nine or more mentally
gifted, dependent, abandoned, neglected, handicapped or disturbed
children, or youthful offenders.
a. Child caring institution c. Shelter home
b. Detention home d. Nursery
56. This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with I.Q.s from about 75
to about 89. The members of this classification are only slightly retarded
and they can usually get by in regular classes if they receive some extra
help, guidance and consideration.
a. Trainable group c. Educable group
b. Borderline or low normal group d. Custodial group
57. The members of this group consist of those with I.Q.s from about 25 to
about 50; one who belongs to this group shows a mental level and rate of
development which is 1/4 to 1/2 that of the average child, is unable to
acquire higher academic skills,
a. Trainable group c. Educable group
b. Borderline or low normal group d. Custodial group
58. This group's I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about 75, and the intellectual
development is approximately 1/2 to 3/4 of that expected of a normal child
of the same chronological age.
a. Trainable group c. Educable group
b. Borderline or low normal group d. Custodial group
59. Refers to children who, although not afflicted with insanity or mental
defect, are unable to maintain normal social relations with others and the
community in general due to emotional problems or complexes.
a. Mentally ill c. Handicapped
b. Emotionally disturbed d. Disabled
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62. Under the law, a child less than 15 years of age may be allowed to work
for not more than twenty hours a week provided that the work hour shall
not be more than ____ hours in any given day.
a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 8
66. A series of activities which are designed to address issues that caused
the child to commit an offense. It may take the form of an individualized
treatment program which may include counseling, skills training,
education, and other activities that will enhance his/her psychological,
emotional and psycho-social well-being.
a. Diversion c. Rehabilitation
b. Intervention d. Probation
67. System dealing with children at risk and children in conflict with the
law, which provides child-appropriate proceedings, including programs and
services for prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration and
aftercare to ensure their normal growth and development.
a. Criminal justice system c. Criminal procedure
b. Juvenile justice system d. Restorative justice
69. Offenses which discriminate only against a child, while an adult does
not suffer any penalty for committing similar acts. These shall include
curfew violations; truancy, parental disobedience and the like.
a. Child offense c. Delinquency
b. Status offense d. All of these
70. Police enforcers who have taken into custody a child in conflict with
law, under the juvenile justice act is mandated to turn over said child to
the custody of the Department of Social Welfare and Development or any
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accredited Non-Government Organization immediately but not later than
____ hours after apprehension.
a. 8 c. 24
b. 12 d. 36
1. P/Insp. Tan while on his way home heard a scream for help coming from
a certain house, no unusual disturbance was observed, he should;
a. Enter the residence cautiously to investigate
b. Call for back before entering the premises
c. Report the matter to the nearest police block
d. Call for public assistance before entering the house
3. SPO2 Javier discovered a fire at 3:00 am on the third floor of a six storey
building. What should be his first action?
a. Call the police headquarters
b. Call for the fire bureau for an emergency response
c. Try to call for public assistance
d. Enter the premises and try to save the persons trapped inside
7. A child molester.
a. Transvestite c. Masochist
b. Peeping tom d. Pedophile
8. Ariel who usually gets sexual stimulation and gratification with another
man manifests what deviant sexual behavior?
a. Lesbianism c. Homosexuality
b. Fetishism d. Pedophilia
9. Noel who likes to engage in sexual intercourse with his pet dog, exhibits:
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a. Homosexuality c. Necrophilia
b. Bestiality d. Incest
10. Joy and Joey are brothers and sisters who fell in love with each other;
their relationship is prohibited by law because this is an abnormality
involving.
a. Homosexuality c. Necrophilia
b. Bestiality d. Incest
11. You are the first to respond to a call wherein a dead body is found at
the crime scene with several onlookers, as a rule you are not allowed to
express your opinion, why?
a. No useful purpose will be served
b. You do not know the cause of death
c. The killer may be around
d. Your opinion may influence the negotiator
12. While regulating traffic at a school intersection during break time, you
were notified that a homicide had occurred a few blocks away, what would
be your initial action?
a. Call an ambulance
b. Request for an investigator
c. Go to the scene after notifying headquarters and the school
administration
d. Call the funeral parlor for service.
13. A person approached you and told you that a dead man is on the
street, what would be your course of action if you are the policeman
concerned.
a. Verify the statement c. Ask him to notify station
b. Obtain the informer’s name d. Call for an investigator
14. One of the following tasks of supervisory work that may be successfully
delegated.
a. Discipline
b. Reporting to chief
c. Checking completed work
d. Responsibility for accomplishing mission
20. If one unit head is constantly bogged down with detail work. And
investigation revealed that this overload did not take place under same
conditions but different predecessors, what is the logical reason for such
overload?
a. The division has incompetent supervisors
b. The division has too many supervisors
c. He assigns to much important work to his subordinates
d. He failed to implement proper delegation
27. Mike after tasting an unripe mango grimaced this sensation is said to
be:
a. Olfactory c. Auditory
b. Cutaneous d. Gustatory
36. In hostage taking situations which among the following may never be
negotiated?
a. Money c. Food
b. Firearm d. Transportation
39. A police officer regulating traffic sees an injured boy hit by a car, what
should be his first action?
a. Call an ambulance
b. Administer first aid
c. Arrest the driver
d. Remain at his post and request some persons to make the emergency
call
40. A doctor violated traffic law, what should the officer do in case the
physician informs him that he is on his way to administer emergency
treatment.
a. Follow the physician to the hospital
b. Forget the citation
c. Go by normal procedures
d. Take the address of both the physician and patient and allow him to
continue.
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41. One’s ability to compromise is an example of this human interaction?
a. Parent ego state c. Child ego state
b. Adult ego state d. All of the foregoing
43. If stimulus and response pattern from one ego state to another are
parallel, human transaction is said to be:
a. Complimentary c. Compensatory
b. Non complimentary d. All of the foregoing
44. Jun angry at his girlfriend’s continuous nagging, boxed a nearby tree;
this manifests what particular aggressive reaction?
a. Displacement c. Scapegoating
b. Free floating anger d. Isolation
45. This study which deals with criminal behavior is a necessity for police
officers to assess the difference in abnormal and normal behavior to enable
them to make important judgment in a specific situation.
a. Criminal dynamics c. Criminal psychiatry
b. Criminal psychology d. Criminal psychiatry
48. Ricky always worried when his brother Jay goes home late at night
manifests what particular human interaction?
a. Parent ego stage c. Child ego state
b. Adult ego stage d. Non of the above
49. A person defending himself from harm, exhibits what type of human
behavior?
a. Habitual c. Symbolic
b. Instinctive d. Complex
50. Jose after an argument with his wife went to a bar to talk with friends
uses what compromise reaction?
a. Sublimation c. Substitution
b. Over compensation d. Isolation
51. Jimmy who enjoys slapping a sexual partner while engaged in sexual
intercourse has an abnormal sexual behavior called:
a. Masochism c. Sadism
b. Exhibitionism d. Voyeurism
54. Ms. Aquino who likes to wear male underwear, uses male perfume and
wears attire for men is a:
a. Masochist c. Transvestite
b. Exhibitionist d. Lesbian
55. JJ works at a local funeral parlor, more often than not while working
with the body of a deceased female he usually engage in sexual intercourse
with the corpse. This act constitutes;
a. Bestiality c. Transvetism
b. Necrophilia d. Fetishism
57. A prisoner who takes hostages has for his intent and motive;
a. Revenge c. Economic gain
b. Escape d. Vindication
59. Who among the following hostage takers is deemed to the easiest to
deal with?
a. Professional criminals c. Escapees
b. Terrorist d. Psychotic individual
60. Who among the foregoing poses more complexity and difficulty in
hostage negotiations?
a. Professional criminals c. Escapees
b. Terrorists d. Psychotic individuals
63. This period starts with the victim’s recognition that she/he is going to
be a sufferer of a criminal offense.
a. Anticipatory phase c. Post traumatic recall phase
b. Impact phase d. Re-constitution phase
68. These are assumptions about how things could be possibilities for
change, opportunities for personal growth and social progress.
a. Value assumptions c. Reality assumptions
b. Possibility assumptions d. All of these
2. Mandated by law to bring to justice all criminal cases for action and
prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt.
a. Prosecution c. Corrections
b. Courts d. Tribunal
3. A body of civil authority tasked to maintain peace and order, enforce the
law, protect life, liberty and property and ensure public safety.
a. Police c. Prosecution
b. Court d. Corrections
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6. Law which created the National Bureau of Investigations.
a. RA 6975 c. RA 157
b. RA 8551 d. RA 147
10. It is mandated by law to operate against fake and pirated VHS, VCD,
CD and DVD format tapes.
a. Video Gram Regulatory Board c. BIR
b. MTRCB d. Intellectual Property Office
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16. Refers to a court which is created by law to amicably settle disputes
between neighbors within a particular community.
a. Barangay court c. Municipal circuit trial court
b. Municipal trial court d. Court of appeals
18. Directly under the supervision of the Department of Justice, its most
important function in the Criminal Justice System is to maintain and
recognize the rule of law through the speedy delivery of services
particularly in the prosecution and investigation of all crimes.
a. National Prosecution Service c. Sandigan Bayan
b. Tanod Bayan d. Ombudsman
19. Refers to all disciplines involved in the study of crimes and criminals.
a. Criminology c. Crime prevention
b. Criminological enterprise d. Crime control
21. The political will of the state to punish criminals in accordance with
law.
a. Crime control c. Crime prevention
b. Crime deterrence d. All of the foregoing
26. In making arrests under rule 113, Sec 5, par 3(fugitives from justice) of
the rules of court, what is the duty of the arresting officer?
a. Deliver the person to the nearest jail
b. Deliver the person to the nearest police station
c. Deliver the person to the custody of the prosecutor
d. Either a and b
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27. When an offense has in fact been committed, and he has personal
knowledge of facts indicating that the person to be arrested has committed
it; this contemplates warantless arrest involving:
a. Hot pursuit c. Caught in the act
b. Fresh pursuit d. Both a and b
28. Refers to all the systems and interplay of activities in the community
which addresses all the negative factors affecting security, health and
welfare of the public in natural calamities, disaster, famine, criminality,
drought and epidemics.
a. Crime control c. Crime prevention
b. Crime deterrence d. Social defense
29. A blueprint for a responsive and well suited anti crime machinery that
shall operate its strategic purposes.
a. Crime control c. National Anti Crime Strategy
b. Crime prevention d. Social defense
33. They are referred to as the initiator of the criminal justice system.
a. Police c. Courts
b. Prosecution d. Corrections
35. Tasked for the treatment of national prisoners, which is under the
Department of Justice.
a. Bureau of Corrections c. BJMP
b. Bureau of Prisons d. Board of Pardon and Parole
37. Highest court of the land with 1 chief justice and fourteen associate
justices who may sit en banc or in division of 3, 5 and 7 members.
a. Supreme court c. Tanod Bayan
b. Court of Appeals d. SandiganBayan
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38. Persons authorized by law to issue warrants of arrests.
a. Judges c. Police
b. Prosecutor d. Warden
39. Most vital component of the criminal justice system due to its massive
membership.
a. Police c. Corrections
b. Courts d. Community
42. The course of action or process whereby accusations are brought before
the court of justice to determine the guilt of the accused.
a. Trial c. Corrections
b. Prosecution d. Criminal Justice System
43. Under this law, the uniform system of preliminary investigation was
established giving the complainant and respondent in a preliminary
investigation the right to confront each other and their witnesses.
a. RA 5188 c. RA 5180
b. RA 5189 d. BP 129
45. The investigating fiscal must resolve the case within ___ days from its
termination giving the parties copies of his resolution.
a. 5 c. 15
b. 10 d. 30
47. The court of last resort, all the justices are appointed by the president
from a list submitted by the ______ to fill up any vacancy within 90 days.
a. Department of Justice c. Congress
b. Judicial and Bar Council d. Commission on Appointments
50. Created by law to hear cases involving civil aspects of our Muslim
brothers.
a. Regional Trial Courts c. Shari’a Courts
b. Court of Appeals d. Inferior Courts
51. Under the legal system in the Philippines as provided by Article VIII
Section 15 of the 1987 Constitution, the Supreme Court must decide or
resolve a case or matter within the period from date of submission;
a. 24 months c. 3 months
b. 12 months d. 1 month
52. Under the legal system in the Philippines as provided by Article VIII
Section 15 of the 1987 Constitution, the Court of Appeals must decide or
resolve a case or matter within the period from date of submission;
a. 24 months c. 3 months
b. 12 months d. 1 month
53. Under the legal system in the Philippines as provided by Article VIII
Section 15 of the 1987 Constitution, the Regional Trial Courts must decide
or resolve a case or matter within the period from date of submission;
a. 24 months c. 3 months
b. 12 months d. 1 month
57. As a general rule, if the penalty is less than 1 year imprisonment and
the opposing parties are neighbors, co workers, the complainant must file
the action before;
a. Inferior Court c. Lupong Tagapamayapa
b. Municipal Circuit Trial Court d. Barangay Court
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60. RA 6981. Otherwise known as the “ _______________” to encourage ,
protect and give support to persons who may have witnessed a crime to
participate in the legal system by giving their testimonies in court for the
proper prosecution of cases in order to secure justice to those aggrieved by
the commission of crimes.
a. Juvenile Justice Act
b. Witness Protection Security and Benefit Act
c. Judiciary Reorganization Act
d. Uniform System of Preliminary Investigations.
5. Ceiling for emergency expenses shall not exceed ____ for activities that
cannot be delayed of the annual agency expenditure program for supplies
and materials.
a. 4% c. 10%
b. 5% d. 15%
12. The failure to comply with increase in base pay would be attributed to:
a. Low tax collections
b. Low budget
c. Deficient release of budget from the national treasury
d. Graft and corruption
17. Time in grade requirement for promotion from Supt. to Sr. Supt.
a. 2 years c. 4 years
b. 3 years d. 5 years
21. More often than not PNP members are confused with what particular
rank they are supposed to address themselves, this is due to the fact that
for a long time they have been acquainted with using old military ranks
instead of their civilian rank, General Sipsip Matapat of the PNP is
supposed to be addressed as;
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a. Sir c. Senior Superintendent
b. Chief Superintendent d. Superintendent
23. In crime scenes, it is common that the public or the “UZISEROS” who
are curious onlookers troop and flock the area numbering more than the
police personnel who are supposed to process it; hence to protect the
integrity of the evidences it is wise to;
a. Cordon the area c. Sanitize the area
b. Evacuate the area d. All of these
24. Ideally there should be at least three rings or cordon to protect the
integrity of the crime scene, the outermost cordon is to ward off the curious
onlookers, the middle should be occupied by the press, police personnel,
government officials, the innermost would allow entrance only to;
a. SOCO team c. Commanding officer
b. Police Investigator d. Both A and B
25. They are policemen who are honest to a fault and straightforward. They
are willing to take extreme positions on ethical issues due to their idealism.
They are referred to as;
a. Angels c. Rouges
b. White Knights d. Straight Shooters
26. Although honest individuals, these policemen are willing and ready to
hide the corrupt practices of their comrades for the sake of “hiya”, “utang
na loob” and “pakikisama” which is the top three “Pinoy” values.
a. Angels c. Rouges
b. White Knights d. Straight Shooters
27. They are police officers who engage in minor type of corruption as they
present themselves.
a. Grass Eaters or Vegetarian Cop c. Rouges
b. White Knights d. Straight Shooters
28. They are police officers who actively seek out corruption opportunities
and engaged in both minor and major patterns of corruption.
a. Angels c. Rouges
b. Meat Eaters or Carnivorous Cops d. Straight Shooters
29. They are policemen who are considered as having all deviant behaviors
of a corrupt law enforcer.
a. Angels c. Rouges
b. White Knights d. Straight Shooters
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32. Considered to be a part of police working environment, this lying is a
deceptive ploy to allow discreet police operations.
a. Accepted lying c. Deviant lying
b. Tolerated lying d. Dishonesty
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CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
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I. JAIL AND PENAL MANAGEMENT
1. It is effected by the use of stocks and pillery, docking stool, branding and
shaving off the hair of the offender.
a. Corporal punishment c. Shaming
b. Public humiliation d. Both B and C
4. It believes that punishment gives a lesson to the offender, and that it holds
crime commission in check.
a. Retribution c. Protection
b. Atonement d. Deterrence
7. He made the first attempt to explain crime, wherein he noted in his book
“Nicomedian Ethics” that punishment is a means of restoring balance between
pleasure and pain.
a. Aristotle c. Lombroso
b. Becarria d. Hentig
9. Its main advantage was it was easy to administer and eliminated arbitrary
sentence.
a. Classical School c. Positivist School
b. Neo-Classical School d. Modern Clinical School
10. It admits that minors and certain adults are incapable of committing
crimes.
a. Classical School c. Positivist School
b. Neo-Classical School d. Modern Clinical School
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12. Country which first established prison facilities.
a. England c. United States of America
b. France d. Spain
16. It is a training school type of institution program, social case work and
extensive use of parole.
a. Elmira Reformatory c. Auburn System
b. Borstal d. Pennsylvania System
19. A warden who limits his role to consider policy matters and major
problems, his responsibility is centered on:
a. Decision Making c. Public Relations
b. Personnel Program d. Executive Leadership
21. During the primitive days, this punishment was given to criminal offenders
by means of flogging, mutilation, maiming, disfiguration:
a. Corporal punishment c. Public humiliation
b. Death d. Shaming
22. Modern justification for punishment which concludes that society will be
best protected if criminal offenders are rehabilitated.
a. Reformation c. Expiation
b. Protection d. Retribution
23. People would tend to believe that by putting the offender in prison, society
is safeguarded from further criminal depredation.
a. Reformation c. Expiation
b. Protection d. Retribution
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24. He asserted that criminals are not free moral agents, but are products of
traits and circumstances.
a. Ferri c. Lombroso
b. Garofalo d. Becarria
26. Established agricultural colonies for delinquent boys and his reformation
system is based on re-education rather than force.
a. Manuel Montesinos c. Sir Walter Crofton
b. Domets of France d. ZR Brockway
28. He introduced the Elmira, a new institutional program for boys from 16-30
years of age. This system was based on parole and indeterminate sentence and
referred to as the forerunner of modern penology.
a. Manuel Montesinos c. Domets of France
b. Sir Walter Crofton d. ZR Brockway
29. For minimum security institution, the purpose of fencing the surrounding
is:
a. To keep away the civilian population from entering the institution.
b. It is designed to prevent escapes.
c. It is designed for agricultural purposes.
d. It is designed to facilitate open view of the surrounding.
30. Inmates placed under a super security facility are considered as:
a. Incorrigibles c. Escape artists
b. Chronic trouble makers d. All of the foregoing
31. It is regarded as the most important program that aide in the rehabilitation
of prisoners.
a. Recreational program c. Educational program
b. Religious program d. Employment of prisoners
33. Person who are deemed instrumental in the reformation of prisoners due
to their daily contact with the inmates.
a. Chaplain c. Psychologist
b. Warden d. Prison guards
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35. It is a relationship in which one endeavors to help another understand and
solve his problems of adjustment.
a. Preventive Discipline c. Counseling
b. Communication d. All of the above
37. He opened the Borstal prison, considered as one of the best reformatory
institutions for young offenders.
a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise c. Zebulon Reed Brockway
b. Sir Walter Crofton d. Macanochie
40. A person who is sentenced to serve imprisonment for not more than six
months.
a. Municipal prisoner c. Provincial prisoner
b. City prisoner d. Insular prisoner
41. Which among the following is not among the classification of prisoners
under Presidential Decree 29?
a. Municipal Prisoners c. Insular prisoners
b. Provincial Prisoners d. Detention prisoners
43. It has been noted as the best reform institution for young offenders?
a. Pennsylvania system c. Elmira Reformatory
b. Auburn System d. Borstal Institution
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47. It is considered as the highest income earner among the Philippine
Correctional Institution.
a. Iwahig Penal Colony c. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
b. Davao Penal Colony d. Sablayan Prison and Farm
48. This states that incarceration should establish in the convicts the will to
lead law abiding and self-supporting lives after their release in prison.
a. United Nations Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment of prisoners.
b. Indeterminate sentence Law
c. Prison Law
d. Probation Law
49. Nobody can assume the suffering for a crime committed by others.
a. Justice c. Deterrence
b. Expiation d. Personal
53. Who among the Italian advocates of the Positive theory wrote the book "
Theory of the Imputability and Denial of the Free will".
a. Ferri c. Lombroso
b. Garofalo d. Becarria
56. It enables the prisoner to roam outside the prison for a minimum period
per day to make work out arrangement for his release.
a. Pre release leave c. Leave for work
b. Individual or group counseling d. Granting greater freedom
58. Considered as the most persistent problem in almost all prison facilities
which contribute to failure of the reformation programs.
a. Idleness c. Riots
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b. Deplorable conditions d. Escapes
59. All persons in custody shall, before final conviction, be entitled to bail as a
matter of______________.
a. Right c. Preference
b. Privilege d. Choice
62. An advocate of the classical school of penology who claimed that society
must reward those who accept responsibility and punish those who do not.
a. Bentham c. Lombroso
b. Becarria d. Ferri
63. It starts from the admissions report of individual inmates and serves as
the basis in granting parole.
a. Admissions Summary c. Misconduct Report
b. Behavior Report d. Cumulative Case Summary
64. Issued by the court to a correctional facility indicating the basis for the
confinement of a prisoner.
a. Mittimus c. Bail
b. Detention order d. Probation order
66. Country wherein the last recorded burning at stake was made.
a. Germany c. England
b. USA d. France
68. A code which adopted the principle an eye for an eye a tooth for a tooth.
a. Code of Kalantiaw c. Bible
b. Hammurabi’s code d. French Code
69. Year when the League of Nations adopted the “Standard Minimum Rules
for the Treatment of Prisoners.”
a. 1932 c. 1936
b. 1934 d. 1938
70. Year when the first International Prison Congress was Held in London.
a. 1870 c. 1876
b. 1872 d. 1880
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71. It refers to an act of grace of the chief executive which grants general
pardon to certain class of offenders, but requires concurrence of congress.
a. Amnesty c. Commutation
b. Pardon d. Reprieve
72. The temporary stay in the execution of the court, ordered by the president
verdict to enable review of the merits of the case.
a. Appeal c. Reprieve
b. Pardon d. Commutation
73. It is a change in the court’s verdict made by the president which lowers the
degree of penalty imposed by the court.
a. Amnesty c. Commutation
b. Pardon d. Reprieve
77. A law which mandated that offenders as punishment would have served a
portion of their sentence in institutions and thereby released to undergo
probation.
a. Huber Law c. PD 968
b. Split Sentence Law d. Indeterminate Sentence Law
78. A method undertaken to allow prisoners opportunity for normal sex life.
a. Visitation c. Sodomy
b. Masturbation d. Conjugal visit
79. Most common form of sexual perversion in prison and jail facilities.
a. Homosexuality c. Pseudo marriages
b. Masturbation d. Sodomy
80. A writ issued by the court ordering the confinement of person so named in
penal institutions.
a. Probation order c. Detention order
b. Bail d. Commitment order
81. For a maximum security facility how high should the walls be
constructed?
a. 8 to 12 feet c. 18 to 20 feet
b. 12 to 14 feet d. 18 to 25 feet
85. It refers to the formulation for the tentative rehabilitation program of the
convict.
a. Diagnosis c. Execution of Treatment Program
b. Treatment Planning d. Re-classification
87. It is part of the classification wherein the prisoners are examined and
tests are administered to check on the physical and mental condition of the
prisoners.
a. Diagnosis c. Execution of treatment program
b. Treatment Planning d. Re-classification
91. Its main objective is to prevent unnecessary custodial risk and prevent
physical and moral contamination from one group to another.
a. Diversification c. Discipline
b. Segregation d. Classification
92. Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the quarantine unit at
the Reception and Diagnostic Center.
a. 2 days c. 4 days
b. 3 days d. 5 days
94. Calls the attention of inmates for certain misconduct or positive traits
manifested while serving sentence.
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a. Post sentence report c. Misconduct report
b. Behavior report d. Admissions summary
95. A written report detailing particular inmate and the violations incurred
with reference to the rule book.
a. Post sentence report c. Misconduct report
b. Behavior report d. Admissions summary
96. The most challenging problem that confronts the administrators of penal
institution worldwide.
a. Over crowding c. Sex problems
b. Unsanitary conditions d. Lack of funding
100. It paved the way for exempting law violators from their criminal liability
by reason of insanity.
a. People Vs. Vera c. Sursis
b. M’Naghtan Case (1843) d. Furlough
102. Upon the assumption of the IPPC’s work, the United Nations preferred to
identify its activities and programs under the broader concept of:
a. Social offense c. Social justice
b. Social defense d. Juvenile justice
109. Type of prison labor where products from the prison are mainly used by
the government.
a. Public account system c. Price per piece system
b. Lease system d. State use system
111. It was made as an alternative for corporal punishment and death penalty.
a. Transportation of prisoners c. Parole
b. Imprisonment d. Probation
114. It is regarded as one of the finest open penal institution in the world.
a. Iwahig Penal Colony c. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
b. Davao Penal Colony d. Sablayan Prison and Farm
115. A person held in custody for the violation of a law or ordinance and has
yet not been convicted is a:
a. Detention prisoner c. Provincial prisoner
b. Municipal prisoner d. Insular prisoner
116. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three (3) years
is a –
a. City prisoner c. National prisoner
b. Detention prisoner d. Municipal prisoner
117. They are prisoners who may be allowed to work outside the fence of the
institution under guard escorts. Generally they are employed as agricultural
workers
a. Super- security prisoners c. Medium security prisoners
b. Maximum security prisoners d. Minimum security prisoners
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119. The basis of this school in penology is human free will.
a. Classical school c. Positivist School
b. Neo Classical school d. Italian school
124. It calls for segregation of boys and girls under 18 from the older group.
a. Diversification by sex c. Segregation
b. Diversification by age d. Diversification by degree of custody
127. The housing units are of cell type blocks and prisoners are not allowed to
work outside.
a. Super Security Facility c. Medium Security Institution
b. Maximum Security Institution d. Minimum Security Institution
129. In this institution, inmates may be allowed to work outside under guard
supervision.
a. Super Security Facility c. Medium Security Institution
b. Maximum Security Institution d. Minimum Security Institution
130. The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment of offenders
prescribes that penal facilities should not exceed ____ inmates.
a. 1000 c. 1500
b. 1200 d. 2000
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131. A prison should be diversified by institution.
a. Diversification by sex c. Segregation
b. Diversification by age d. Diversification by degree of custody
132. Ideally the reception diagnostic center should house new inmates within
the first _____ days of their commitment to prison.
a. 30 c. 90
b. 60 d. 120
135. An RDC member who diagnose the attitude, behavior and peculiarities of
an inmate.
a. Psychiatrist c. Sociologist
b. Psychologist d. Chaplain
137. It consists of giving rules and regulations and explaining the rules to the
new prisoners.
a. Admissions c. Segregation
b. Classification d. Orientation Procedures
142. Which among the following are reasons or purpose of confinement in our
prison systems of convicted criminal offenders?
a. To segregate the offender from society.
b. To rehabilitate the offender so that upon his return to society ha shall be a
responsible and law abiding citizen.
c. To punish the criminal offender
d. Both A and B
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143. Under the Bureau of Corrections manual, an inmate refers to a national
prisoner or those sentenced by a court to serve a maximum term of
imprisonment of more than three years or to a fine of not more than one
thousand pesos, the term inmate shall also refer to a detainee. This statement
is:
a. True c. Partly True
b. False d. Partly false
147. Ideally, a newly confined inmate should remain at the RDC for
psychiatric, sociological, vocational, educational, religious and psychological
examinations for a period not exceeding ___ days.
a. 30 c. 60
b. 55 d. 75
149. An inmate who has been either previously committed for three or more
times as a sentenced inmate, except those imprisoned for non-payment of a
fine and those who had been reduced from a higher class.
a. Colonist c. Third class inmate
b. Second class inmate d. First class inmate
150. One whose character and credit record for work while in detention earned
assignment to this class.
a. Colonist c. Third class inmate
b. Second class inmate d. First class inmate
152. An inmate who has been a first class inmate for at least 1 year may be
promoted to this class.
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a. Colonist c. Third class inmate
b. Second class inmate d. First class inmate
154. Who among the following inmates may not be allowed to view the remains
of a dead immediate family member?
a. Minimum security c. Maximum security
b. Medium security d. None of these
157. Prison labor is allowed provided the inmate must be able and willing to
work at least 8 hours except on;
a. Saturdays c. Legal Holidays
b. Sundays d. Both B and C
160. Telephone calls is permitted for inmates for a period not exceeding 5
minutes every ____ days.
a. 30 c. 90
b. 60 d. 120
161. Visiting days for immediate relatives of inmates is allowed from Sundays
to Thurs from 9:00 am to ______ pm.
a. 3 c. 6
b. 5 d. 7
162. There shall be 3 shifts for guards with each guard having a duty of 8
hours. ___ of the guards in each shift shall be detailed on reserve duty for a
period of 8 hours prior to entrance duty.
a. ½ c. 1/4
b. 1/3 d. 1/5
163. When a riot or escape alarm is sounded, either by siren bell or gun fire,
all inmates arte ordered to;
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a. Lie flat on the ground c. Arms and legs spread out
b. Face ground d. All of these
164. This is the initial wave of anti riot assault contingent who shall be armed
with wicker shields, protective headgear, gas masks and night sticks to
disperse the rioter and get their leaders.
a. 1st group c. 3rd group
b. 2nd group d. None of these
165. A back up force equipped with tear gas guns and gas grenades.
a. 1st group c. 3rd group
b. 2nd group d. None of these
166.These are guards who are trained in the proper handling and use of
firearms, they shall provide cover fire.
a. 1st group c. 3rd group
nd
b. 2 group d. None of these
167. If escorting an inmate a guard shall keep distance of not less than ____
paces from his charge.
a. 10 c. 30
b. 15 d. 45
168. For escort duties there shall be ___ guards for every inmate.
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
169.When the death penalty was still enforced by means of lethal injection
four guards keep a death watch, the convict is confined in an individual cell
____ hours prior to the scheduled time of execution which is usually 3:00 in
the afternoon.
a. 6 c. 24
b. 12 d. 36
171. An inmate who is not covered by _____ shall not be required to work but
he may be made to polish his cell and perform other works as may be
necessary for hygienic or sanitary reasons.
a. Agreement c. Privilege
b. Certification d. None of these
172. Close confinement in cells shall not exceed ___ days in any calendar
month.
a. 5 days c. 10 days
b. 7 days d. 15 days
173.In mess hall and dining area for purposes of precaution, the prescribe
utensil for inmates shall be mage of;
a. Wood c. Paper
b. Plastic d. Carton
174. On Fridays and Saturdays, visitation privileges are cancelled due to;
a. Inspection by members of the custodial force c. Weekly mustering
b. Wash day d. All of these
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175. For inspections by the custodial force the ratio is 1 guard for every ____
inmates.
a. 5 c. 9
b. 7 d. 10
1. The first probation law was passed in the year 1878, in.
a. Chicago c. England
b. Massachusetts d. Pennsylvania
2. The purpose of this meeting is to evaluate the inmate’s readiness for early
release.
a. Pre-release treatment c. Classification meeting
b. Pre-parole interview d. Admissions meting
4. When prisoners are used for repair of buildings, roads, bridges and flood
control, this type of prison labor is:
a. Lease System c. Publics Works Systems
b. Contract System d. Public Account System
6. Under this system, a contractor supplies raw materials and pays the state
for the amount of work or output produced by the prisoner.
a. Lease System c. Price-Piece System
b. Contract System d. Public Account System
7. When a contractor merely engages prison labor and the state retains control
of the prisoner, the prison labor is classified as:
a. Lease System c. Public Works System
b. Contract System d. Public Account System
252
11. It is an integral part in prisoner’s rehabilitation which serves as an outlet
for human expression and a form of release from one’s inherent desire to
create.
a. Music c. Arts and Crafts
b. Sports d. Drama and literary activities
12. It helps in the improvement of the prisoner in the cultural and practical
aspect of social living.
a. Recreational program c. Sports Activities
b. Arts and Crafts d. Library service
13. Which among the following is not a part of an ideal medical service in a
prison facility?
a. Medicine and Surgery c. Dentistry
b. Psychiatry d. None of these
14. A mild form of punishment which is enough deterrence for prisoners with
clean record who wants to be considered for early release.
a. Counsel and reprimand c. Loss of privilege
b. Solitary confinement d. Loss of good time
16. It aims to obtain clear case description and social history as well as help in
solving immediate family problems of the inmate.
a. Casework c. Counseling
b. Case method d. Individualized treatment
20. Inmates who have attained the status of __________ is allowed by law to
live with their families, it is a common practice in Sablayan, Iwahig and Davao
Prison and Penal Farm.
a. Trustees c. Parolees
b. Colonists d. Both A and B
26. Nature of conditional pardon given to inmates in which the recipient must
accept it before it takes effect, and the pardonee is under obligations to comply
imposed therein.
a. Contract c. Punishment
b. Privilege d. Act of Grace
27. In the practice and procedure of probation, who is considered as the most
important person?
a. Probationer c. Chief Probation Officer
b. Probation officer d. Probation Aides
28. Unit within the probation office charged with the task of selecting
defendants for probation.
a. Investigation division c. Custodial division
b. Supervision division d. RDC
32. In the Philippines the members of the Board of Pardon and Parole is
a. Full time board c. Governmental agency
b. Part time board d. NGO
33. This is prepared by the prison’s classification committee for the purpose of
indicating what is essential for the best interest of the future parolee and
contains an appraisal of the prisoner’s personality and need for adjustment
upon return to society.
a. Pre-release Progress Report c. Parole Referral Summary
b. Pre-Board Summary d. Post Sentence investigation Report
254
34. It is used by the parole board as a guide in determining the prisoner’s
eligibility for parole and preparing his parole program.
a. Pre-release Progress Report c. Parole Referral Summary
b. Pre-Board Summary d. Post Sentence investigation Report
36. This is a method of helping parolees by which the parole office performs
referral services.
a. Manipulative technique c. Case work technique
b. Executive technique d. Guidance and counseling technique
38. A security facility, usually operated by the police for temporary detention
of persons held under custodial investigation.
a. Lock-up c. Ordinary jail
b. Work house jail d. Detention center
39. Frank an inmate is unable to sleep and eat while serving his sentence due
to loneliness and despair should undergo:
a. Rehabilitation c. Corrections
b. Guidance d. Counseling
41. Maximum term of office for those appointed as members of the Board of
Pardon and Parole.
a. 3 years c. 5 years
b. 4 years d. 6 years
43. Under the Indeterminate sentence law, who acts as chairman of the board
of pardon and paroles?
a. DILG Secretary c. PNP Chief
b. DOJ Secretary d. Chief Justice
46. Under rules and methods employed by probation, what is the maximum
number of minor violations that would result in the revocation of the probation
order?
255
a. 5 violations c. 3 violations
b. 4 violations d. 2 violations
49. Under our laws when will probationer report to his designated probation
officer?
a. Upon initial interview
b. Upon the completion of the PSIR
c. Upon court order
d. Within 72 hours after probation order has been granted
50. A US law which allowed convicts to be gainfully employed during the day
while residing in prison.
a. Huber Law c. Split Sentence Law
b. Harbard Law d. Furlough Law
51. It refers to the continuing relationship between the probationer and the
probation officer.
a. Initial Interview c. Supervision
b. Post Sentence Investigation d. Orientation
54. Within how many days should the request for outside travel shall be filed
by the probationer to the probation office, prior to the date of his intended
departure?
a . 5 days c. 15 days
b. 10 days d. 30 days
55. It refers to the note given to police agencies which signifies that the
probationer is under the supervision of his designated probation officer.
a. Chrome Card c. Flash Sheet
b. Kardex Card d. Field Sheet
56. The maximum period of probation when the sentence is not more than one
year.
a. 6 years c. 2 years
256
b. 4 years d. 1 years
57. When will the court deny application for probation of a petitioner?
a. Petitioner is a foreigner
b. Petitioner is a drug dependant
c. Petitioner violates the condition
d. Petitioner can be treated well in an institution
59. Under PD 603, should a juvenile offender become incorrigible during his
reformation period; he is brought to the court for____.
a. Release c. Probation
b. Pronouncement of judgment d. Pardon
60. It refers to the relation between CPPO and the SPPO and the Probationer.
a. Supervision c. Executive supervision
b. Courtesy supervision d. Administrative supervision
61. The probationer is not exempted from the legal effects of his punishment
upon final discharge.
a. Penalty c. Civil liability
b. Fine d. Criminal liability
64. Sponsored House Bill 393, “An Act establishing Adult Probation in the
Philippines.”
a. Juan Ponce Enrile c. Ferdinand E. Marcos
b. Teodulo C. Natividad d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr.
65. A procedure by which prisoners are selected for release on the basis on
individual response and progress.
a. Probation c. Pardon
b. Parole d. Amnesty
68. This decree mandated the disqualification of the petitioner’s application for
probation is an appeal is perfected.
a. PD 603 c. PD 1990
257
b. PD 968 d. PD 1257
70. The preliminary form filed up by the probationer within 72 hours after the
release of his probation order.
a. Work Sheet c. Flash Sheet
b. Filed notebook d. Chrome Card
78. The law that suspends the sentence of minor offenders whose ages ranges
from (9) years to under (18) years and places them in rehabilitation centers.
a. PD 603 c. PD 968
b. PD 923 d. PD 1202
82. It refers to a disposition after which the defendant after conviction and
sentence is released, subject to the conditions imposed by the court.
a. Parole c. Pardon
b. Probation d. Amnesty
84. Signed into law R.A. 968, an Act establishing Probation in the Philippines.
a. Ramon Bagatsing Sr. c. Ferdinand E. Marcos
b. Teodulo C. Natividad d. Juan Ponce Enrile
86. A Boston shoe maker who advocated in behalf of alcoholics and youthful
offenders and known as the father of probation.
a. Matthew Devenport Hill c. John Augustus
b. Edward Savage d. Alexander Rice
87. In the year 1887, this former Boston Chief of Police was appointed as the
first probation officer in the whole world.
a. Matthew Devenport Hill c. Alexander Rice
b. Edward Savage d. John Augustus
88. What particular law established probation in the Philippines for the first
time?
a. PD 968 c. Act 4221
b. RA 968 d. RA 4221
89. Formerly, pardon was applied to a member of the ________, who committed
crimes and occasionally to those convicted of offenses against the monarchy.
a. Rebellious family c. Mendicant family
b. Royal family d. Indigent family
90. Celebrated case which paved the way for the abolition of the first probation
law.
a. People Vs. Vera, 37 O.G. 164 c. Vera Vs. People, 376 OG. 164
b. People Vs. De Vera, 376 O.G. 16 d. De Vera Vs. People, 376 O.G. 164
92. Within how many days after verdict must a petitioner file his application
for probation?
a. 10 days c. 30 days
b. 15 days d. 60 days
259
93. Maximum number of probationers under supervision of a probation aide?
a. 3 c. 7
b. 5 d. 9
97. After receiving the PSIR, within how many days must a judge decide
whether to grant or deny probation?
a. 5 days c. 30 days
b. 15 days d. 60 days
100. A person placed under probation for the maximum period imposed by
law would have to report to his probation officer how many times per month?
a. Once c. More than twice
b. Twice d. All of the above
103. Refers to those who are confined in correctional facilities awaiting verdict
on their cases.
a. Probationers c. Parolees
b. Detention prisoners d. Accused
260
105. This states that incarceration should establish in the convicts the will to
lead law abiding and self-supporting lives after their release in prison.
a. United Nations Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment of prisoners.
b. Indeterminate sentence Law
c. Prison Law
d. Probation Law
108. Probation proceeds on the theory that the best way to pursue its goal is
to orient the criminal sanction toward the ______________ sentencing.
a. Individual setting c. Prison setting
b. Community setting d. None of these
109. Its purpose it to bring update case history of the prisoner and verify
parole plan or work and residence.
a. Pre-parole investigation c. Admissions Summary
b. Reclassification d. Parole investigation
261
ANSWER KEY
262
18. A 48. A 78. C 108.D 138. D 168. C
19. B 49. A 79. A 109.B 139. D 169. D
20. C 50. C 80. B 110.C 140. C 170. B
21. B 51. B 81. C 111.C 141. D
22. A 52. B 82. A 112.D 142. D
23. D 53. B 83. C 113.C 143. A
24. A 54. B 84. B 114.C 144. A
25. B 55. B 85. B 115.D 145. D
26. B 56. B 86. A 116.C 146. D
27. A 57. D 87. A 117.C 147. C
28. A 58. C 88. D 118.A 148. A
29. A 59. C 89. C 119.B 149. B
30. B 60. C 90. D 120.C 150. A
Criminal Procedure
Evidence
1. C 21. D 41. B 61. D 81. B 101.C
2. C 22. A 42. D 62. D 82. C 102.B
3. B 23. D 43. C 63. A 83. D 103.D
4. B 24. B 44. C 64. D 84. D 104.A
5. A 25. A 45. A 65. A 85. C 105.A
6. A 26. B 46. D 66. D 86. D 106.D
7. B 27. B 47. C 67. B 87. B 107.A
8. B 28. D 48. B 68. B 88. C 108.A
9. D 29. B 49. D 69. A 89. C 109.C
10. D 30. D 50. B 70. A 90. D 110.D
11. A 31. D 51. B 71. C 91. C
12. B 32. A 52. B 72. D 92. D
13. A 33. D 53. B 73. D 93. D
14. B 34. D 54. C 74. A 94. D
15. C 35. D 55. A 75. A 95. D
16. A 36. B 56. B 76. B 96. D
17. D 37. D 57. C 77. C 97. D
18. A 38. B 58. D 78. B 98. C
19. D 39. D 59. A 79. C 99. D
263
20. A 40. D 60. D 80. C 100.C
264
Intelligence and Secret Service
III. CRIMINALISTICS
Police Photography
1. C 14. A 27. C 40. B 53. D 66.D 79.B
2. B 15. A 28. B 41. D 54. D 67.A 80.A
3. C 16. D 29. A 42. B 55. D 68.A
265
4. A 17. B 30. A 43. A 56. B 69 D
5. A 18. C 31. D 44. D 57. B 70.C
6. A 19. B 32. B 45. C 58. B 71.D
7. B 20. A 33. D 46. B 59. B 72.A
8. A 21. D 34. B 47. C 60. B 73.A
9. B 22. A 35. B 48. A 61. A 74.C
10. B 23. B 36. C 49. A 62. B 75.C
11. B 24. B 37. A 50. C 63. B 76.A
12. C 25. D 38. C 51. D 64. C 77.B
13. C 26. A 39. A 52. D 65. D 78.A
Forensic Chemistry:
1. B 21. B 41. B 61. C
2. D 22. C 42. C 62. B
3. A 23. B 43. B 63. A
4. C 24. C 44. D 64. D
5. C 25. A 45. D 65. C
6. B 26. A 46. B 66. B
7. C 27. C 47. A 67. C
8. B 28. C 48. A 68. B
9. C 29. A 49. A 69. B
10. B 30. A 50. B 70. D
11. A 31. B 51. D 71. A
12. C 32. A 52. A 72. A
13. B 33. A 53. C 73. B
14. C 34. A 54. D 74. C
15. B 35. A 55. B 75. B
16. B 36. A 56. A 76. D
17. A 37. B 57. A 77. B
18. D 38. B 58. C 78. B
19. B 39. A 59. D 79. B
20. A 40. B 60. B 80. C
Forensic Medicine:
1. B 21. A 41. B 61. C 81. B
2. C 22. A 42. D 62. A 82. B
3. C 23. A 43. D 63. C 83. D
4. A 24. A 44. A 64. C 84. C
5. D 25. B 45. B 65. C 85. C
6. C 26. A 46. D 66. B 86. A
7. C 27. C 47. A 67. B 87. D
266
8. A 28. C 48. B 68. C 88. D
9. B 29. A 49. D 69. A 89. A
10. C 30. A 50. B 70. D 90. D
11. B 31. A 51. D 71. A 91. B
12. B 32. A 52. B 72. D 92. A
13. C 33. A 53. C 73. B 93. A
14. A 34. D 54. A 74. D 94. A
15. A 35. A 55. B 75. A 95. B
16. A 36. D 56. A 76. A 96. A
17. C 37. B 57. C 77. A 97. C
18. B 38. D 58. C 78. B 98. C
19. C 39. B 59. A 79. D 99. B
20. B 40. A 60. A 80. D 100. D
Polygraphy:
Forensic Ballistics:
1. D 11. A 21. A 31. A 41. B 51. A 61.A
2. D 12. D 22. B 32. A 42. A 52. D 62.A
3. D 13. D 23. C 33. A 43. A 53. A 63.C
4. B 14. A 24. B 34. D 44. D 54. A 64.B
5. D 15. A 25. B 35. A 45. A 55. B 65.A
6. C 16. B 26. C 36. A 46. A 56. A 66.D
7. C 17. D 27. A 37. D 47. C 57. A 67.B
8. B 18. B 28. A 38. A 48. B 58. A 68.A
9. A 19. A 29. D 39. C 49. C 59. B 69.C
10. C 20. B 30. C 40. D 50. C 60. C 70.A
Questioned Documents:
1. C 14. D 27. A 40. C 53. C 66. C 79. D
2. B 15. A 28. C 41. A 54. C 67. A 80. C
3. B 16. A 29. D 42. D 55. B 68. A
4. C 17. D 30. C 43. D 56. A 69. A
5. D 18. A 31. A 44. C 57. C 70. C
6. D 19. C 32. A 45. A 58. C 71. A
7. D 20. D 33. B 46. B 59. D 72. C
8. B 21. A 34. A 47. A 60. A 73. B
9. C 22. B 35. B 48. A 61. A 74. A
10. C 23. C 36. D 49. B 62. B 75. A
11. A 24. B 37. C 50. A 63. D 76. B
12. B 25. A 38. A 51. A 64. D 77. A
13. A 26. B 39. D 52. D 65. B 78. A
267
IV. CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION AND PRVENTION
Arson Investigation:
Vice Control:
268
11. B 31. C 51. C 71. A 91. B
12. B 32. D 52. D 72. D 92. A
13. A 33. B 53. D 73. B 93. C
14. A 34. A 54. B 74. A 94. D
15. B 35. D 55. A 75. A 95. D
16. A 36. A 56. B 76. C 96. B
17. D 37. A 57. A 77. A 97. D
18. B 38. D 58. C 78. C 98. D
19. C 39. A 59. B 79. A 99. B
20. D 40. C 60. C 80. A 100. D
Practice Court:
Criminal Sociology
1. A 21. D 41. B 61. A 81. C 101. C 121. A
2. B 22. A 42. C 62. A 82. A 102. A 122. B
269
3. C 23. B 43. B 63. B 83. B 103. D 123. A
4. B 24. B 44. A 64. C 84. B 104. A 124. B
5. A 25. A 45. D 65. C 85. D 105. C 125. D
6. A 26. A 46. B 66. A 86. B 106. C 126. C
7. B 27. A 47. A 67. D 87. B 107. B 127. B
8. C 28. B 48. B 68. B 88. C 108. A 128. C
9. D 29. B 49. C 69. A 89. A 109. D 129. A
10. A 30. C 50. B 70. D 90. A 110. B 130. B
11. C 31. A 51. B 71. D 91. A 111. B
12. A 32. D 52. B 72. C 92. B 112. A
13. A 33. B 53. C 73. B 93. B 113. D
14. A 34. C 54. D 74. D 94. C 114. B
15. D 35. D 55. A 75. C 95. C 115. B
16. A 36. D 56. A 76. A 96. C 116. D
17. D 37. A 57. B 77. B 97. D 117. D
18. C 38. D 58. D 78. A 98. A 118. D
19. B 39. B 59. C 79. A 99. B 119. D
20. C 40. C 60. B 80. C 100. A 120. C
Ethics
1. A 16. A 31. D 46. C 61. C 76. A
2. D 17. D 32. B 47. C 62. C 77. C
3. C 18. C 33. C 48. B 63. A 78. C
4. C 19. D 34. C 49. B 64. C 79. A
5. D 20. D 35. A 50. D 65. A 80. B
6. B 21. A 36. C 51. A 66. C 81. C
7. B 22. C 37. C 52. D 67. D 82. D
8. D 23. C 38. D 53. C 68. D 83. A
9. B 24. A 39. B 54. D 69. D 84. A
10. C 25. C 40. A 55. A 70. A 85. C
11. B 26. B 41. B 56. D 71. D 86. C
12. A 27. B 42. A 57. B 72. A 87. C
13. C 28. C 43. D 58. B 73. C 88. D
14. D 29. C 44. B 59. C 74. B 89. B
15. B 30. A 45. A 60. D 75. C 90. B
Juvenile Delinquency
1. D 11. B 21. B 31. B 41. C 51. B 61. D
2. D 12. B 22. A 32. A 42. B 52. B 62. B
3. D 13. D 23. B 33. B 43. C 53. A 63. B
4. D 14. C 24. A 34. A 44. D 54. D 64. B
5. D 15. C 25. B 35. C 45. A 55. D 65. B
6. A 16. A 26. B 36. B 46. A 56. B 66. B
7. A 17. B 27. C 37. B 47. A 57. A 67. B
8. A 18. C 28. C 38. D 48. D 58. D 68. D
9. A 19. C 29. A 39. C 49. C 59. B 69. B
10.A 20. C 30. A 40. B 50. B 60.A 70. A
270
5. D 17. D 29. B 41. B 53. C 65. A
6. B 18. D 30. D 42. C 54. C 66. B
7. D 19. A 31. D 43. A 55. B 67. D
8. C 20. D 32. B 44. A 56. B 68. B
9. B 21. B 33. A 45. B 57. B 69. B
10. D 22. A 34. A 46. A 58. B 70. D
11. A 23. C 35. A 47. D 59. A
12. C 24. D 36. B 48. A 60. B
271
18. A 38. A 58. A 78. D 98. B 118. A 138. C 158. B
19. A 39. C 59. A 79. A 99. A 119. A 139. A 159. D
20. B 40. A 60. C 80. D 100. B 120. D 140. D 160. C
272