LAW

LEGAL GK QUESTION BANK

Choose the correct alternative :

1. Free Consent is defined under Section _____ of Indian Contract Act.

a) 14 b) 24
c) 17 d) 9

2. Which of the following shall make a contract void?

a) Vitiated consent
b) Unlawful object
c) Sane state of mind in an insane person
d) All of the above.

3. Which of the following is not an “insurance intermediary”?

a) Insurance Brokers
b) Insurance Surveyors
c) Loss Assessors
d) None of these.

4. Committee on progressive development of International Law and its codification is also

known as:
a) Committee of Seventeen b) Forum for realizing International Law
c) G-20 Associates d) Association for International Law Reforms

5. Vide which resolution of UN General Assembly was International Law Commission

established?
a) Resolution 178 b) Resolution 174 (11)
c) Resolution 33 (4) d) Resolution 96 (8)

6. Supreme Court of India laid down the indicators for interpreting ‘other authorities’ under
Article 12 of the Indian Constitution in:
a) Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib
b) Shankari Prasad v. State of Rajasthan
c) R.D. Shetty v. International Airport Authority of India
d) Central Inland Water Corporation v. S.C. Sinha

7. What is COMPAT?
a) Consumers Malpractice Prohibition Act
b) Competition Appellate Tribunal
c) Companies’ Association for Transactions
d) Commission for Prohibition of Atrocities in Trade

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8. Parliament can legislate on state matter in national interest under:
a) Article 393, Constitution of India b) Article 249, Constitution of India
c) Article 324, Constitution of India d) Article 248, Constitution of India

9. What provision of Indian Constitution guarantees protection against retrospective application

of criminal law?
a) Article 20 (2) b) Article 20 (1)
c) Article 31-C d) Article 62

10. Pick the odd one out with respect to Article 19 (2) of Indian Constitution:
a) Public Interest b) Security of State
c) Public Order d) Defamation

11. Supreme Court has formulated the test of ___________ for the purpose of interpreting
‘other authorities’ under Article 12, Constitution of India.
a) Sovereign authorities b) Instrumentality of State
c) Ejusdem Generis d) Direct Action of State

12. Which of the following is not state for the purpose of Article 12, Constitution of India?
a) Board of Control for Cricket in India
b) Cinema Hall Organizers
c) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
d) None of these.

13. Which of the following statements is not true about Intellectual Property?
I. Patents are included in Intellectual Property Rights.
II. Intellectual Property Law is the law of evidence pertaining to patents and determine
the validity.
III. All copyrights are registered for a certain period of time.
a) II only b) II and III
c) I and II d) I, II and III

14. Standing committee to recommend apmendment to Section 66-A of Information Technology

Act, 2000 was headed by:
a) P. Karunakaran b) Nandini Satpathy
c) R. Deka d) Dr. Ajay Kumar

15. Who amongst the following was not a member of Justice J.S. Verma Committee?
a) Gopal Subramaniam b) Mukul Rohtagi
c) Leila Seth d) None of these.

16. Constituent Assembly of India met for the first time on:
a) 8th October,1944 b) 9th December, 1946
c) 16th September, 1947 d) 22nd January, 1947

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17. The historic day on which the basic structure doctrine for Indian Constitution was adopted
is:
a) 24th April, 1973 b) 16th March, 1972
c) 22nd June, 1982 d) 19th August, 1976

18. Which amongst the following is not a Fundamental Right in India?

a) Right to freedom of speech and expression
b) Right to Equality
c) Right to Privacy
d) None of these.

19. Injury caused by negligent throw of a ball shall come within the ambit of:
a) Malfeasance b) Misfeasance
c) Nonfeasance d) Differs from case to case

20. Theory of naturalism for understanding International Law was propounded by:
a) Grotius b) Austin
c) Froster d) Socrates

21. Are International Customs a source of International Law?

a) Yes, subject to the evidence of general practice.
b) Yes, subject to its acceptances by the ICJ
c) Yes, subject to the consent of nations in conflict.
d) No.

22. What is Dualism?

a) Two-tier system of justice administration under International Law
b) Theory recognizing International Law and Municipal Law as distinct
c) Theory recognizing the international identity of a state as different from its
sovereign authority
d) Operations of ‘peacekeeping’ and ‘peacemaking’ as exhibited by the United
Nations

23. Universal Declaration of Human Rights is contained in:

a) Article 68, U.N. Charter
b) Article 47, Statute of ICJ
c) Rule 47, U.N. Rules on Prohibition of Slavery
d) Regulation 14, U.N.I.C.E.F. Regulations

24. International Law is a:

a) Soft law b) Law without jurisdiction
c) Law without sanctions d) All of the above.

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25. Can Fundamental Rights be waived off?
a) Yes, as per Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
b) Yes, as per the decision of Supreme Court in R.D. Shetty v. State of Rajasthan
c) No, as per the decision of Supreme Court in Basheshar Nath v. Commissioner
Income Tax
d) No, as per Article 32 of the Indian Constitution

26. The Supreme Court in E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu propounded for:
a) Expanding the horizons of right to equality
b) Establishment of Universal Adult Franchise
c) Establishment of Lok Adalats to trickle down justice
d) None of these.

27. After which landmark judgment of the Supreme Court was Article 15 (4) added to
Indian Constitution?
a) R.K. Shukla v. V.P. Shrivastava
b) Basheshar Nath v. Commissioner Income Tax
c) Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra
d) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan

28. Constitutional validity of death penalty was discussed by the court in:
a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Punjab
b) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
c) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
d) Mithu v. State of Punjab

29. In Mithu v. State of Punjab, Section ____ of Indian Penal Code was declared
unconstitutional.
a) 302 b) 306
c) 303 d) 309

30. Pick the odd one out with respect to amendments to Indian Constitution:
a) Article 47 b) Article 4
c) Article 239-A d) Article 169

31. Which of the following cannot be a copyrighted work?

a) A music video made by school children
b) Newly developed architecture technique
c) New interpretation of a religious text
d) All of the above.

32. The principles of higher transparency and simplified procedures were laid down
for company law by:
a) Justice Triveni Committee Report
b) M.D. Singh Committee Report
c) J.J. Irani Committee Report
d) D.R. Antulay Committee Report

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33. What is meant by jus gestionis?
a) Commercial acts of a nation
b) Actions pursuant to a good faith gesture by a nation
c) Actions of a nation based on public policy and welfare
d) Illegal acts of a nation

34. Forum Prorogatum means:

a) Conferring jurisdiction to the International Court of Justice by virtue of a statute
b) Conferring jurisdiction to the International Court of Justice by a special legislation
passed by the parliament of the state
c) Conferring jurisdiction to the International Court of Justice after institution
of proceedings with the consent of party
d) Conferring jurisdiction to the International Court of Justice by a special resolution
passed at the United Nations annual meeting

35. A company is incorporated under Section _____ of Companies Act, 2013.

a) 7 b) 11
c) 24 d) 3

36. Who is the natural guardian of an adopted minor son as per Hindu Law?
a) Adoptive father b) As designated by law
c) Adoptive mother d) Real father

37. Appellate Civil Jurisdiction is conferred in the Supreme Court by:

a) Article 145, Constitution of India
b) Rule 33, Supreme Court Rules
c) Article 133, Constitution of India
d) Article 300-A, Constitution of India

38. Which of the following is not an objective for establishment of United Nations?
a) Maintenance of international peace and security
b) Promotion of equality and fraternity amongst nations
c) International cooperation to resolve problems of global concern
d) Promotion of trade and commerce amongst member nations

39. The principles on which United Nations is based are contained in:
a) Article 7, Montreal Convention
b) Article 2, U.N. Charter
c) Article 43, Constitution of Federation of States
d) None of these.

40. Report of Mandal Commission was challenged before the Supreme Court of India
in:

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a) State of Maharashtra v. Abdul Latif Shaikh
b) Ashok Sancheti v. Liela Roy
c) Ashok Kumar Aggarwal v. Union of India
d) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

41. Which case established that Fundamental Rights can also be enjoyed by companies
formed by citizens of India?
a) Bennett Colemon & Co. v. Union of India
b) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India
c) Bharat Heavy Industries Ltd. v. State of Gujarat
d) State of Madhya Pradesh v. Gaurav Pathak

42. In which case the Supreme Court of India acknowledged the freedom of press?
a) Francis Mullin Ltd. v. Union of India
b) Sakal Papers (P) Ltd. v. Union of India
c) Romesh Thapar v. Union of India
d) Trisha Singhania v. Union of India

43. Who is the chairperson of Competition Commission of India?

a) Ashok Chawla b) Vinay Mehta
c) Ramesh Sharma d) None of these.

44. Which of the following is not a part of the basic structure of Indian Constitution?
a) Article 31 b) Article 21
c) Article 136 d) Article 32

45. Parliamentary privileges are extended to state legislatures by the virtue of:
a) S. 11, Legislatures’ Act b) A. 194, Constitution of India
c) Both (a) and (b). d) Neither (a) nor (b).

46. Doctrine of ‘Pith and Substance’ means:

a) Every law should be seen in its substance and severed from other laws.
b) Substance of a law is not severed from other laws.
c) Substance of a law is the determining factor for legislative competence.
d) None of these.

47. Anticipatory bail is granted under Section ____ of Code of Criminal Procedure.
a) 438 b) 434
c) 437 d) 442

48. Number of judges in Supreme Court of India is:

a) 27 b) 31
c) 9 d) 17

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49. What is meant by the de facto recognition of a state in International Law?
a) State is existent legally and recognized by U.N.
b) State is recognized factually by other states.
c) There is no fact to suggest that the state does not exist and hence it is
recognized.
d) None of these.

50. Volenti Non Fit Injuria is a defence under:

a) Hindu Law of Inheritance b) Law of Torts
c) Law of Piracy and Hijacking d) Law of Crimes

51. Doctrine of blowing Hot and Cold means:

a) A person cannot be both angry and happy at the same time.
b) A person cannot both claim a benefit and exit the attached liability at the
same time.
c) A person can be both hot and cool exhibiting features of dualism.
d) A person cannot cause a loss to another for his own benefit.

52. What is meant by Escheat Succession in Hindu Law?

a) Succession by perceiving a fraud
b) Succession before lawful division of property
c) Succession to the Government
d) Succession to the illegitimate child of a deceased

53. Pick the odd one out:

a) Restitution of property b) Expulsion of trespasser
c) Re-entry of land d) Abatement of nuisance

54. Pick the odd one out with regard to U.S. Constitution:
a) Press b) Religion
c) Double Jeopardy d) Petition

55. Sitting of Cyber Appellate Tribunal is at:

a) Mumbai b) Chennai
c) New Delhi d) Dehradun

56. Ministry of Home Affairs in India is held by:

a) Sushma Swaraj b) Rajnath Singh
c) Narendra Modi d) Varun Gandhi

57. What is the theme of Law Day 2016?

a) LGBT b) Miranda: More than words
c) HIV d) Media Trial

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58. A contract is discharged by:
a) Impossibility of performance b) Breach of contract
c) Waiver of performance d) All of the above.

59. Mithun asked Ramesh for lending his horse for a consideration of 700 INR per day.
Ramesh responded with a telegram stating that the consideration should be 800
INR. The contract is:
a) Valid but unenforceable b) Voidable
c) Valid and enforceable d) None of these.

60. Which of the following events nullifies a communication?

a) Revocation before communication is received by the promisee.
b) Revocation before communication is transmitted to the promisee.
c) Revocation before the acceptance is received by the promisor.
d) Revocation before the acceptance is transmitted to the promisor.

61. Pick the odd one out:

a) Piracy b) Hijacking
c) Genocide d) Slaughter

62. Supreme Court of India is established under:

a) Article 145, Constitution of India
b) Article 124, Constitution of India
c) Rule 27, Supreme Court Rules
d) Indian High Courts Act

63. Jurisdiction of a High Court u/s 9 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act is:
a) Original b) Appellate
c) Ordinary Original d) Extraordinary Appellate

64. What was Justice Mudgal Committee concerned with?

a) Spot fixing probe in IPL b) Contracts of players in ISL
c) Offences Against the State d) Offences of Currency Counterfeiting

65. Ab extra: From the beginning :: Ab initio: ________.

a) From the beginning b) From outside
c) From another territory d) From another person

66. Ratio in jure aequitas integra means:

a) Reason in law is perfect equity
b) Rationale of a judgment shall be integrated
c) No rationale shall be valid in law if not integrated
d) A person cannot question the reason if it is integrated

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67. Res Integra means:
a) A matter untouched
b) Integrated matter
c) Reasons of a judgment shall be integrated
d) None of these.

68. Ubi jus ibi remedium est means:

a) Where there is a remedy, there is a right.
b) Where there is a wrongful act, there must be a remedy.
c) Where there is no wrongful act, remedy may exist.
d) Where there is a right, there is a remedy.

69. Voluntas in delictis non exitus spectator means:

a) In offences the intent and not the outcome is looked at
b) In offences the intent and not the reason is looked at
c) In offences the intent and not the motive is looked at
d) In offences the intent and not the physical action is looked at

70. Which of the following is not covered within the purview of RTI Act, 2005?
a) Judicial Actions b) Administrative Actions
c) Quasi-judicial Actions d) None of these.

71. Exemption from taxes in respect of religious affairs is ensured by:

a) Article 27, Constitution of India b) S. 42, Income Tax Act
c) Both (a) and (b). d) Neither (a) nor (b).

72. Punishment for the offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder is contained
in:
a) S. 302, Indian Penal Code b) S. 304 (2), Indian Penal Code
c) S. 187, Indian Penal Code d) S. 299, Indian Penal Code

73. SARFAESI Act stands for

a) Sphere Retaliation Forces and Establishment of Security in India Act
b) Special Retaliation Forces and Establishment of Security in India Act
c) Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of
Security Interest Act
d) None of these.

74. Tribunals are established under:

a) S. 32, Tribunals of India Act
b) Article 323-A, Constitution of India
c) Article 50, Constitution of India
d) Both b) and c).

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75. Piracy is recognized as a universal crime by:
a) Montreal Convention, 1971
b) Treaty of Shipments and Merchants, 1988
c) U.N. Convention on the Law of the Sea
d) Article 14, U.N. Charter

76. What provision of Indian Constitution prohibits forced labour?

a) Article 24 b) Article 23
c) Article 17 d) Article 27

77. National Legal Services Act, 1987 is in pursuance of :

a) Article 48, Indian Constitution b) Article 34, Indian Constitution
c) Article 47, Indian Constitution d) Article 39-A, Indian Constitution

78. What provision of Indian Constitution defines State?

a) Article 12 b) Article 17
c) Article 4 d) Article 22

79. The term of a patent under patents act is:

a) 20 years from the date of application
b) 20 years from the date of grant of license
c) 15 years from the date of grant of license
d) 20 years from the date of application minus period of pre-grant opposition

80. What is a debenture?

a) Debt security convertible to preference share.
b) Security acknowledging debt.
c) Debt security convertible to an equity share.
d) None of these.

81. Which of the following is not amongst the powers of Central Sales Tax Appellate
Authority?
a) Enforcing the attendance of any person during hearing of an appeal.
b) Issuing commissions for the examinations or witnesses.
c) Staying the operation of certain orders.
d) None of these.

82. Institution of Supreme Court of India was created by:

a) Regulating Act, 1773 b) Indian Councils Act, 1814
c) Judicial Plan, 1772 d) Judicial Plan, 1774

83. Sitting of TRAI is at:

a) New Delhi b) Bangalore
c) Hyderabad d) Gurgaon

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84. Family Courts Act was enacted in:
a) 1987 b) 1984
c) 1942 d) 1993

85. Principle of utility as the tool to frame laws was given by:
a) Austin b) Karl N. Llewyn
c) Karl Marx d) Jeremy Bentham

86. What is meant by right to consular access?

a) Right to contact the local embassy.
b) Right to access records of other sovereign with consent.
c) Bona fide access of sovereign records based on good conscience.
d) Right to conduct research and development for access to databases in
territory.

87. Pick the odd one out:

a) Citizenship b) Domicile
c) Tenancy d) Nationality

88. Inclusion of Jat community in Central OBC category has been held to be invalid
by the court in the case of :
a) Ram Singh v. Union of India
b) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
c) Risha Chamariya v. Palaghar Schools Association
d) Panchsheel Priyadarshini v. Khushboo Rani

89. Forceful Narco-analysis of an accused in a trial is:

a) Invalid as per the ruling of Supreme Court of India in Selvi v. State of Karnataka
b) Invalid as per Article 20 (3) of the Indian Constitution
c) Both a) and b).
d) Neither a) nor b).

90. Which of the following is not ‘law’ for the purpose of Article 13, Indian Constitution?
a) Draft Notification
b) Regulations formed under an Act
c) Rules of a government body
d) Constitution of India

91. What is Doctrine of Severability?

a) No law before the passing of Indian Constitution can be held to be constitutionally
invalid.
b) Every law can be held unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.
c) A law is invalid only to the extent of inconsistency with the Constitution of
India.
d) Laws of severe punishments are not subject to Indian Constitution.

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92. Sale of property is performed under Section __ of Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
a) 54 b) 37
c) 91 d) 105

93. Cognizable offence is defined under:

a) S. 3 (1), Code of Civil Procedure
b) S. 2 (c), Code of Criminal Procedure
c) S. 2 (e), Code of Criminal Procedure
d) S. 2 (l), Code of Criminal Procedure

94. Abolition of death penalty for murder cases has been provided in:
a) 250th Report of Law Commission of India
b) 262nd Report of Law Commission of India
c) 230th Report of Law Commission of India
d) 268th Report of Law Commission of India

95. Salus populi est suprema lex means:

a) Population makes the supreme law.
b) Democracy has the superiority.
c) Protection of people is the supreme law.
d) Protection of law shall be supreme for the people. “Hence, (c).”

96. What is restitution of conjugal rights in a marital relationship?

a) Restoration of custody of child with the mother
b) Restoration of custody of male child with the father
c) Restoration of co-inhabitance of the spouse
d) Restoration of the property rights accrued before marriage

97. Every right is accompanied by:

a) Penalty b) Duty
c) Remedy for its breach d) Imprisonment for its breach

98. Which of the following is not a reasonable restriction of fundamental right to trade
and profession?
I) Imposing ban on publication of obscene books.
II) Prohibiting slaughter of all kinds of animals.
III) Imposing ban on trade of old vintage cars.
a) II and III. b) II only.
c) I and II. d) I, II and III.

99. Who is the Minister of Law and Justice in India?

a) D.V. Sadananda Gowda b) Radha Mohan Singh
c) Manohar Parrikar d) P.L. Punia

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100. National Company Law Tribunal is established under:
a) Companies Act, 2013
b) MRTP Act, 1969
c) Companies Act, 1956
d) Companies (Settlements of Debts) Rules, 2008

101. Pick the odd one out with respect to nationality under International Law:
a) Deprivation b) Renunciation
c) Extradition d) Release

102. What is statelessness in International Law?

a) A person deprived of his/her nationality
b) States unrecognized in the international community
c) States unrecognized by United Nations
d) States whose recognition has been revoked by United Nations owing to bad
conduct

103. In India, Extradition is wholly governed by:

a) Extradition Act, 1962 b) International Treaty on Extraditions
c) Both (a) and (b). d) Neither (a) nor (b).

104. Public Interest Litigation emerged in the case of:

a) Ratlam Cotton Mills v. Union of India
b) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India
c) Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti v. State of West Bengal
d) Maithli Devi v. State of Bombay

105. Does right to life include Right of an individual to die?

a) No, as per the judgment of Supreme Court of India in Palvinder Kaur v. State
of Punjab.
b) Yes, as per the judgment of Supreme Court of India in Gian Kaur v. State
of Punjab.
c) Yes, as per the judgment of Supreme Court of India in Palvinder Kaur v.
State of Punjab.
d) No, as per the judgment of Supreme Court of India in Gian Kaur v. State
of Punjab.

106. “Intelligible Differentia” as per Indian Constitution means:

a) Constitution of India is intelligent enough to understand the difference amongst
different intellectuals.
b) Right to Equality can be violated if the action is overall intelligent.
c) The grounds for making classes amongst people shall be reasonable.
d) No person shall be differentiated or discriminated with for his poor intelligence.

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107. Article 16 (2), Indian Constitution does not include ______ as a ground for discrimination.
a) Domicile b) Residence
c) Gender d) Caste

108. Article 22 (2) of Constitution of India does not apply to:

a) People detained under preventive detention laws
b) Alien enemies
c) Both (a) and (b).
d) Neither (a) nor (b).

109. In a conflict between Article 15 and Article 29 of Constitution of India:

a) Article 29 prevails
b) Provisions are harmoniously construed
c) Article 15 prevails
d) None of these.

110. What is a ‘bailable offence’?

a) Offence in which arrest cannot be made by the police
b) Offence in which bail is a matter of right for the accused
c) Offence in which bail cannot be granted to the accused
d) Offence in which only magistrate can grant bail

111. Arrange the following judicial posts in the ascending order of their seniority:
A. District Judge
B. Chief Judicial Magistrate
C. Metropolitan Magistrate
a) ABC b) CAB
c) CBA d) ACB

112. Legal Aid Committee, 1972 was chaired by:

a) Justice H.R. Khanna b) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
c) Justice H.L. Dattu d) Justice A.N. Ray

113. Committee for Implementation of Legal Aid Services was chaired by:
a) Justice A.P. Shah b) Justice G.B. Patnaik
c) Justice P.N. Bhagwati d) Justice H.R. Khanna

114. Qui non improbat, approbat means:

a) He who disapproves need to bring evidence.
b) He who does not disapprove, approves.
c) He who approves, does not disapprove.
d) He who approves, shall bring evidence.

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115. What is meant by ‘dividend’?
a) Profit issued to a preference shareholder by the company
b) Divided liability of a shareholder in a company
c) Profit issued to an equity shareholder by the company
d) Difference between total liability of the company and the liability of a shareholder

116. Pick the odd one out:

a) Alien Enemy b) Bankrupt
c) Registered Company d) Unborn child

117. Member states of United Nations are:

a) 197 b) 245
c) 193 d) 202

118. What is pledge?

a) Oath taken before a magistrate before testimony.
b) Bailment of goods as security for repayment of money.
c) Transfer of ownership as security for repayment of money.
d) Consumption of goods on failure to repay money.

119. The maximum number of members of IRDA at a particular time can be:
a) 7 b) 10
c) 8 d) 6

120. If X murders Y in U.S.D., a country where murder is no offence, and an extradition

treaty exists between the two countries, X can be prosecuted in India for:
a) Murder
b) Man Slaughtering
c) Laws of Extradition
d) X cannot be prosecuted.

121. Under what provision of Universal Declaration on Human Rights is ‘right to asylum’
recognized?
a) Schedule V b) Article 14
c) Article 77 d) Article 21

122. Passive euthanasia has been held to be valid in the case of:
a) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
b) Arup Bhaiyyan v. State of Assam
c) Aruna Ramchandran Shaubag v. Union of India
d) Saurabh Mandal v. Union of India

123. In which case Supreme Court of India incorporated ‘due process of law’ in Constitution
of India?

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a) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
b) Shantanu Moitra v. Central Board of Film Certification
c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
d) Rudra Sen Chaudhary v. State of Andhra Pradesh

124. Untouchability is prohibited under the Indian Constitution by:

a) Article 17 b) Article 20
c) Article 84 d) Article 77

125. Article 18, Indian Constitution intends to:

a) Put untouchability to end
b) Stop retrospective application of criminal law
c) Abolition of titles
d) End of discrimination in matters of public employment

126. What is meant by discharge of an offence?

a) Acquitting the accused for lack of evidence
b) Acquitting the accused for non-filing of charge sheet
c) Acquitting the accused for misapplication of law
d) Acquitting the accused for serving the full term while trial was going on

127. How many Information Commissioners are appointed at present in India?

a) 8 b) 11
c) 5 d) 3

128. Liberty: Privacy :: Life: _______.

a) Health b) Money
c) Housing d) Farming

129. Freedom of Press: United States :: Right to Efficient Governance: _________.

a) England b) South Africa
c) Ireland d) Australia

130. Section 377, Indian Penal Code was alleged to be violative of:
a) Article 21, Constitution of India
b) S. 4, LGBT Bill 2012
c) Article 39, Constitution of India
d) S. 11, LGBT Bill 2012

131. Punishment for the offence of rape is contained in:

a) Section 376, Indian Penal Code
b) Section 375, Indian Penal Code
c) Section 378, Indian Penal Code
d) Section 377, Indian Penal Code

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132. In how many zones are the meetings of Copyright Board held?
a) 7 b) 5
c) 11 d) 13

133. Pick the odd one out with regard to Reserve Bank of India:
a) Bhopal b) Bangalore
c) Lucknow d) Mumbai

134. APTEL has its seating at:

a) New Delhi b) Pune
c) Varanasi d) Chandigarh

135. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is established under:

a) Article 37, Constitution of India
b) Article 338, Constitution of India
c) Article 157, Constitution of India
d) Article 48, Constitution of India

136. The present governor of Reserve Bank of India is:

a) Mahesh Chawla b) Y.V. Reddy
c) Raghuram Rajan d) D. Subbarao

137. Is cheque a negotiable instrument?

a) Yes, under S. 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act
b) Yes, under S. 13 of Negotiable Instruments Act
c) Yes, under S. 2 (h) of Cheques Act
d) No

138. Securities Appellate Tribunal has its seating at:

a) New Delhi b) Mumbai
c) Pune d) Chennai

139. Labour Courts are established under:

a) Consumer Protection Act, 1986
b) Workmen Compensation Act, 1975
c) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
d) Jurisdiction to Labour Courts has been provided in all of these acts.

140. Pick the odd one out with respect to jurisdictional immunities under International
Law:
a) Consent b) Criminal Liability
c) Tortuous Liability d) Contracts of employment

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141. Investigation about alleged contravention of Competition Act, 2002 is done by:
a) Director General b) Local Magistrate
c) Chief Judicial Magistrate d) Investigating Officer, Local Police

142. Freedom of movement throughout the territory of India is contained in:

a) Article 19 (1) (e), Constitution of India
b) Article 19 (1) (d), Constitution of India
c) Article 19 (5), Constitution of India
d) Article 19 (4), Constitution of India

143. Maintenance can be claimed under Section ___________ of Code of Criminal Procedure.
a) 138 b) 125
c) 147 d) 133

144. Decriminalization of attempt to suicide has been recommended by:

a) Ministry of Health
b) Centre for Mental Health, All India Institute of Medical Sciences
c) 210th Report, Law Commission of India
d) 225th Report, Law Commission of India

145. What is the meaning of term ‘Mofussil’?

a) Parts of territory outside the three presidency towns
b) Presidency towns other than Bombay, Calcutta and Madras
c) Collective name for the area of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa in British India
d) None of these.

146. Air India Ltd. is headquartered at:

a) New Delhi b) Bangalore
c) Chennai d) Mumbai

147. Who is the senior most civil servant of India?

a) National Security Adviser
b) Personal Assistant to the Prime Minister
c) Cabinet Secretary of India
d) Attorney General of India

148. Pick the odd one out:

a) Soli Sorabjee b) Mukul Rohatgi
c) Ranjit Kumar d) M.C. Setalvad

149. Central Bureau of Investigation is established under:

a) Delhi Special Police Establishment Act
b) Central Bureau of Investigation Act
c) Special Task Forces (Amendment) Act
d) None of these.

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 LAW
150. Transgender day of Remembrance is celebrated on:
a) 27th December b) 4th August
c) 20th November d) 15th June

151. Provisions for establishment of a Debt Recovery Tribunal are contained in:
a) Recovery of Debt Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993
b) Recovery of Debt against Nationalized Banks, 1993
c) Money Lenders’ Act, 1974
d) None of these.

152. Competition Appellate Tribunal has its seat at:

a) Varanasi b) New Delhi
c) Mumbai d) Lucknow

153. Pure theory of law was propounded by:

a) Roscoe Pound b) Robert Jones
c) Hans Kelsen d) H.R. Maine

154. The contiguous zone of India in the seas exists till:

a) 24 nautical miles b) 17 nautical miles
c) 12 nautical miles d) 19 nautical miles

155. The PIL for issuance of directives related to Uniform Civil Code was recently filed
by:
a) A.K. Upadhyay b) Gopal Subramaniam
c) Subramaniam Swamy d) Arun Jaitley

156. Guiding principles to exercise jurisdiction under Article 136 of Constitution of India
has been laid down:
a) Pritam Singh v. State
b) Hindustan Unilever Ltd. v. Union of India
c) Navjot Sandhu v. NCT of Delhi
d) Suresh Koshal v. Union of India

157. New interpretation of law penal in nature:

a) Applies to pending cases
b) Applies to pending cases and extends to cases already decided
c) Applies to future cases only
d) Cannot be entertained

158. Pick the odd one out:

a) Article 20 (2) of the Indian Constitution
b) S. 300, Code of Criminal Procedure
c) S. 26, General Clauses Act
d) S. 151, Code of Civil Procedure

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159. The doctrine of ‘rarest of rare’ for exercise of discretion is applied by the judge
in cases of:
a) S. 302, Indian Penal Code b) Capital Punishment
c) TADA d) All of the above.

160. Sub modo means:

a) Notwithstanding anything b) Within limits
c) Beyond statutory prescription d) None of these.

161. Who can claim divorce on ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage under Hindu
Marriage Act?
a) Both husband and wife
b) Husband only
c) Wife only
d) Breakdown of marriage is no explicit ground for divorce.

162. A Muslim woman is entitled after divorce for maintenance:

a) Till second marriage
b) During Iddat Period
c) Till procurement of a source of income
d) All of the above.

163. Film star Sanjay Dutt was convicted under:

a) Section 34. Indian Penal Code b) Section 120-B, Indian Penal Code
c) Section 3, TADA d) Section 5, Arms’ Act

164. FERA stands for:

a) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
b) Foreign Exchange Restrictions Act
c) Free Exchange Regulation Act
d) Foreign Exchange Reconstruction Act

165. The Pensions’ Act, 1871 was enacted to:

a) Extend to all classes of workers the benefits of pension
b) Consolidate and amend the law relating to pensions
c) Control the number of suits in lieu of pensions
d) Make the scheme of One Rank One Pension applicable

166. The concept of qualitative utilitarianism can be attributed to:

a) J.S. Mill b) Jeremy Bentham
c) Garry Stewart d) None of these.

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 LAW
167. The landmark case related to sexual harassment at workplace is:
a) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
b) Ramesh Patil v. State of Haryana
c) Mehboob v. State
d) Jyoti Kumari v. NCT of Delhi

168. Maintenance under Section 125, Code of Criminal Procedure can be availed by
a Muslim women after the decision in:
a) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
b) Daniel Latifi v. Union of India
c) Shrioman Sinha v. Bajid Altaf
d) None of these.

169. R.C. Cooper v. Union of India is famously known as:

a) SARFAESI Case b) Bank Nationalization Case
c) Cooper Industries Scam Case d) Due Process of Law Case

170. Who among the following people shall not be entitled to the benefit of protection
against double jeopardy under Article 20 (2) of the Indian Constitution?
a) A person murdering another, serving 6 month imprisonment for theft in another
case.
b) A person serving life imprisonment for murder punished with death penalty
for another murder.
c) A person murdering another, acquitted and prosecuted again on reopening
of the case.
d) All of the above.

171. Judgment should be delivered in:

a) Language of the court
b) Language understood by the prosecutor
c) Language understood by the defence counsel
d) Language of the accused

172. Pick the odd one out:

a) Jadish Tytler Committee b) Poti Rosha Committee
c) Nanavati Commission d) Marwah Commission

173. Quid pro quo means:

a) Monetary consideration
b) Consideration, something for something
c) Barter consideration
d) Professional transactions without considerations

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174. The offence of Voyeurism is punishable under Section ______ of Indian Penal Code.
a) 354A b) 354C
c) 354E d) 354D

175. Is state of Baluchistan eligible to become a member of United Nations?

a) No, because it has not ratified the U.N. Charter.
b) No, because it is not a state.
c) No, because it is not peace-loving state.
d) All of the above.

176. Which of the following organizations is the intelligence arm of Indian Armed Forces?
a) Intelligence Bureau
b) Research & Analysis Wing
c) Armed Forces Special Survey Team
d) Directorate of Military Intelligence

177. National Policy of India as to Narcotic Drugs gets its origin in:
a) The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985
b) Article 47, Constitution of India
c) Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
d) Narcotic Drugs Convention, 1971

178. National Martyr’s Day is celebrated every year on:

a) 21st August b) 30th January
c) 15th July d) 11th September

179. Can a juvenile be prosecuted jointly with a non-juvenile?

a) Yes, if the intention is common under S. 34, Indian Penal Code
b) Yes, if the charges are joined under Code of Criminal Procedure
c) Yes, if the juvenile is an accomplice under S. 133, Indian Evidence Act
d) No.

180. DRT stands for:

a) Debt Recovery Tribunal
b) Dispute Resolution Tribunal
c) Dematerialized Redemption Tribunal
d) Domestic Reimbursements Tribunal

181. The landmark case from which the concept of negligence seems to have emerged
is:
a) Hill v. Tupper b) Donoghue v. Stevenson
c) Bolton v. Stone d) Dickson v. Reuter

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 LAW
182. The limit of Exclusive Economic Zone was determined to be ___________ nautical
miles at
___________.
a) 14, UN Convention on Law of Seas, 1982
b) 150, UN Convention on Law of Seas
c) 200, UN Convention on Law of Seas
d) 80, UN Convention on Exclusive Economic Zone, 1992

183. Agreements between competitors at the same stage of production are known as:
a) Horizontal Agreements b) Cartel Agreements
c) Vertical Agreements d) Dominant Agreements

184. Pick the odd one out:

a) Article 17, Constitution of India
b) Article 20, Constitution of India
c) Article 14, Constitution of India
d) Article 18, Constitution of India

185. 86th Constitutional Amendment:

a) Inserted Article 21-A to the Indian Constitution
b) Removed education of children as a fundamental duty
c) Both (a) and (b).
d) Neither (a) nor (b).

186. Evidentiary burden of proof:

a) Is always with prosecution
b) Shifts regularly
c) Is always with the party procuring evidence
d) None of these.

187. A division bench comprises of:

a) Two judges b) Four judges
c) Seven judges d) Three judges

188. Reforms for Banking Industry were suggested by:

a) Narsimham Committee b) Mandal Commission
c) Mirza Aziz Committee d) Malimath Committee

189. Which of the following is not true about the Judicial Committee of Privy Council?
a) Matters were to be heard by not less than three members of the committee
b) No dissenting judgment were to be made by any of its members

23 LEGAL GK
LAW
c) Reports to be given in an advisory format
d) Bound by its previous decisions

190. Which of the following is not included in iddat period under Muslim Law?
a) Period of three menstrual courses after the date of divorce
b) Period of seven months after pregnancy of the divorced woman
c) Period of three lunar months for women not subject to menstruation
d) Period between the date of divorce and termination of pregnancy

191. Compassionate Appointment is a:

a) Right b) Settlement
c) Remedy d) Privilege

192. Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed under:

a) Section 13, Central Audits Act, 1951
b) Article 148, Constitution of India
c) Article 52, Constitution of India
d) None of these.

193. Gambling Law of India is contained in:

a) Article 37, Constitution of India
b) Public Gambling Act
c) Morally Deteriorating Activities (Prevention) Act
d) Gambling Activities (Prohibition) Act

194. Theory of social engineering was propounded by:

a) Iherring b) Roscoe Pound
c) T.J. Raymond d) J.S. Mill

195. What is meant by ‘ought’ law?

a) The justice which is served by law
b) Law as it should be
c) Law as it is
d) Law as it tends to be

196. Rajya Sabha Select Committee on GST is chaired by:

a) Bhupendra Yadav b) Arun Jaitley
c) Parmod Bakshi d) Anil Desai

197. The number of judges at the International Court of Justice are:

a) 22 b) 15
c) 27 d) 14

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 LAW
198. The number of judges required to constituted the quorum of International Court of
Justice are:
a) 9 b) 4
c) 11 d) 8

199. National Judicial Appointments Commission has been held constitutionally

____________ in the case of ____________.
a) Valid, Supreme Court Advocates on Record Assn. v. Union of India
b) Invalid, Supreme Court Advocates on Record Assn. v. Union of India
c) Valid, Delhi Bar Assn. v. Union of India
d) Invalid, Delhi Bar Assn. v. Union of India

200. Under Article 22 (2) of the Indian Constitution, no person can be detained beyond:
a) 48 hours b) 7 days
c) 24 hours d) 3 days

201. Supreme Court Rules are formulated under:

a) Article 136, Constitution of India
b) Article 145, Constitution of India
c) Article 133, Constitution of India
d) Article 124, Constitution of India

202. Article 21-A of Constitution of India vests in every _____ right to _______.
a) Citizen, livelihood b) Citizen, shelter
c) Child, education d) Child, shelter

203. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty?

a) Respecting the national flag of India
b) Providing to the nation services of defence whenever required
c) Promoting trade and commerce of the country
d) Cultivating scientific temperament

204. Appeal against the decision of a single judge of High Court lies before:
a) Constitutional bench of High Court
b) Division bench of High Court
c) Full bench of Supreme Court
d) Division bench of Supreme Court

205. Which of the following is not a kind of punishment of crimes under Muslim Law?
a) Harem b) Tazeer
c) Hadd d) Kasi

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206. Who was T.B. Macaulay?
a) The chairman of first law commission of India
b) The prime man behind drafting of Indian Penal Code
c) The Chairman of Society of Public Instructions
d) All of the above.

207. Law on Evidence in India was codified by:

a) Jeremy Bentham b) James Fitzjames Stephen
c) A.V. Dicey d) T.B. Macaulay

208. What is Doctrine of Alternative Danger?

a) No person can invite an alternate danger.
b) If there is an alternative to danger, plaintiff not choosing it shall not be
compensated.
c) If a risk is to be taken by plaintiff consequential to defendants’ act, the same
shall be compensated.
d) None of these.

209. Does right to personal liberty include right to speedy trial of an accused?
a) Yes, under Article 21 of Constitution of India.
b) Yes, as per the decision of Supreme Court of India in Katar Singh v. State
of Punjab.
c) Yes, as per the decision of Supreme Court of India in Hussainara Khatoon
v. State of Punjab.
d) All of the above.

210. 26th November is celebrated as National Law Day because:

a) Constitution of India came into force on this day.
b) Constituent Assembly started to draft the Constitution on this day.
c) Constitution of India was enacted on this day.
d) Constitution of India was assented to by the Queen on this day.

211. Dishonour of cheques is an offence under:

a) Section 124, Cheque’s Act
b) Section 138, Negotiable Instruments Act
c) Section 42, Indian Contract Act
d) All of the above.

212. Which of the following is not true about Juvenile Justice Board?
A. It comprises of three members.
B. There shall be a woman metropolitan magistrate presiding over the board.
C. The board comprises of two social workers.
a) B and C b) C only
c) B only d) A and C

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 LAW
213. Liability of a surety is:
a) Higher than that of principal debtor
b) Equal to that of principal debtor
c) Co-extensive with that of principal debtor
d) Less than that of principal debtor

214. International Military Tribunal was established in pursuance of:

a) Moscow Declaration b) Rio Summit
c) Delhi Declaration d) Dhaka Declaration

215. The concurring opinion in Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala was delivered
by:
a) Justice H.R. Khanna b) Justice A.N. Ray
c) Justice Chandrachud d) Justice M.L. Roy

216. Finance Commission of India is constituted under Article ____ of Constitution of

India.
a) 280 b) 247
c) 262 d) 273

217. What is the difference between review and appeal?

a) Review is filed before the same court.
b) Review is filed before another district court of similar jurisdiction.
c) Appeal is filed before the Supreme Court of India.
d) None of these.

218. Pick the odd one out with regard to Bombay High Court:
a) Nagpur b) Pune
c) Aurangabad d) Mumbai

219. What is a ‘uterine blood relation’ under Special Marriage Act, 1954?
a) Siblings with same father b) Siblings with same grandparents
c) Siblings with same mother d) Siblings with same parents

220. Pick the odd one out:

a) Assault b) Battery
c) Conversion d) False imprisonment

221. Performance of an assigned duty in a criminal manner by an employee makes him

liable under:
a) Law of torts b) Law of crimes
c) No liability d) None of these.

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222. Arrange the following police posts in the order of increasing seniority:
A. Inspector General of Police
B. Director General of Police
C. Senior Superintendent of Police
D. Inspector of Police
a) DABC b) CBDA
c) DCAB d) CADB

223. What is Corporate Governance?

a) Governing the corporations
b) Ideology of self-governance of corporations with regulatory framework of the
Government
c) Appointment of a separate government for corporations
d) None of these.

224. Special Leave to Appeal is instituted in circumstances of:

a) Grave miscarriage of justice
b) Procedural inequality
c) Arbitral disposal of appeal by the High Court
d) Sanction for Special Leave by the High Court

225. Pick the odd one out:

a) Article 131, Constitution of India
b) Article 133, Constitution of India
c) Article 136, Constitution of India
d) Article 134, Constitution of India

226. Anthropological school of law is attributable to:

a) H.R. Maine b) Roscoe Pound
c) Bandustan Chatterjee d) Alex Joseph

227. Which of the following is not true about literal rule of interpretation?
a) It always ends the ambiguity and absurdity in law.
b) It generates certainty in the content of law.
c) It is closely related to the school of positivism.
d) It is the primary rule of interpretation.

228. What is meant by Res Gestae?

a) Things done b) Things planned
c) Things intended d) Things apprehended

229. Which of the following incomes is not exempted under Income Tax Act?
a) Agricultural income
b) Share of profit from the firm

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 LAW
c) Receipts from life insurance policies
d) Allowances of Judicial Officers

230. Wealth Tax is levied on:

a) Income of an individual
b) Annual gratuity obtained by an individual
c) Assets of an individual
d) All of the above

231. What is meant by “judicial legislation”?

a) Advice of judges taken before legislative formation.
b) Forming of law by judges through decisions.
c) Appointment of judges on legislative posts.
d) Legislature ratified by judiciary.

232. An arrested person has:

a) Right to remain silent
b) Right to know reasons for arrest
c) Right to be presented before the magistrate without delay
d) All of the above.

233. Which of the following is not an ingredient for the offence of theft under Indian Penal
Code?
a) Dishonest intention b) Without consent
c) Possession of owner d) Moveable property

234. Pick the odd one out with respect to U.N. Security Council:
a) United Kingdom and Northern Ireland
b) China
c) Italy
d) France

235. What is meant by ‘natural law’?

a) Law of nature such as gravitation.
b) Law of justice, equity and good conscience.
c) Law of Gods.
d) All of the above.

29 LEGAL GK