Preamble

1. The Constitution came in to effect on

a) 15th August, 1947
b) 26th January, 1950
c) 15th August, 1948
d) 26th January, 1948

2. Preamble is the
a) Opening statement to the Constitution
b) Disclaimer for the Constitution
c) Key to open the minds of the framers of the Constitution
d) Lock to keep all the ideals safe

3. Which of the following ideals are not part of the preamble

a) Justice
b) Equality
c) Liberty
d) Freedom

4. Which of the following two characteristics were added to the preamble later on through
an amendment
a) Socialist and Secular
b) Democratic and Republic
c) Socialist and Sovereign
d) Sovereign and Secular

5. What is the true meaning of Secular

a) All religions are equal in the eyes of the Government
b) Special importance to a religion related to minority
c) Particular religions are encouraged by the Government
d) Government does not allow any religion

6. The preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from
a) The Government
 b) The Supreme Court
c) The people of India
d) The Union of India

7. Which of the following describes India to be secular

a) Fundamental Rights
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Preamble
d) Second Schedule

8. The preamble of the Indian Constitution does not contain

a) Fraternity
b) Equality
c) Justice
d) Adult Franchise

9. Which of the following shows that India is an independent country with no external
control
a) Secular
b) Democratic
c) Sovereign
d) Republic

10. Which of the following shows that India’s electoral system works on a single vote for
each citizen
a) Secular
b) Democratic
c) Sovereign
d) Republic

Citizenship
11. X is studying in United States of America and his parents have acquired the Citizenship
of India and are living in territory of India for past 35 years. X has acquired the Overseas
 Citizenship. X wants to contest himself in the elections for office of President of India
through ABC Party. Decide:
a) X can contest for election for the post of President of India
b) X cannot contest for election for the post of President of India
c) X has to study in India for contesting election for President of India
d) None of the above.

12. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming Citizen of India?
a) Birth
b) Acquiring Property
c) Descent
d) Naturalization

13. Which articles are correctly matched with their provision?

i) Article 7 - Persons migrated to Pakistan but later returned
ii) Article 6 - Persons migrated from Pakistan
iii) Article 9 - Persons of Indian origin residing outside India
a) i, iii
b) i, ii
c) ii, iii
d) All of the above

14. In how many ways does Citizenship Act, 1955 provide for the acquisition of Indian
citizenship after the commencement of Indian Constitution?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

15. Which of the following is a competent authority to regulate citizenship in India?

a) Supreme Court of India
b) Parliament
c) Home Minister of India
d) Ministry of External Affairs
16. Citizenship provisions under the Constitution is contained in
a) Article 12-13
b) Article 14-19
c) Article 37- 38
d) Article 5 -11

17. Which of the following article under constitution talks about losing Indian Citizenship
when a citizenship of foreign state is acquired
a) Article 6
b) Article 7
c) Article 8
d) Article 9

18. Right to Life is available for

a) Citizens
b) Non-citizens
c) Citizens and Non-citizens
d) None of the above

19. In how many ways do Citizenship Act, 1955 provide for the acquisition of Indian
citizenship after the commencement of Indian Constitution?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

20. If any new territory becomes a part of India, who shall notify the persons of that territory
to be citizens of India?
a) Government of India
b) Government of State
c) Government of neighboring country
d) None of the above.

Fundamental Rights (Article 12- 18)

21. Which part of the constitution deals with fundamental rights?
a) Part III
b) Part II
c) Part IV
d) Part V

22. Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right?

a) Right to Equality
b) Right to Property
c) Right to Freedom
d) Right against exploitation

23. Equality before law and Equal protection of law have been guaranteed under
a) Article 12
b) Article 21
c) Article 14
d) Article 13

24. Fundamental Rights are included in articles

a) 15-24
b) 12-36
c) 36-51
d) 52-62

25. Which fundamental right is concerned with abolition of social distinctions

a) Right to equality
b) Right against exploitation
c) Right to life and liberty
d) Cultural and education rights

26. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste sex or place of birth is a
fundamental right classifiable under
a) Right to freedom of religion
b) Right to equality
 c) Right against exploitation
d) None of these

27. Which article was added to the constitution of India recognizing right to education for
children between the age of six and fourteen as a fundamental right in 2002
a) Article 19 A
b) Article 21 A
c) Article 14 A
d) Article 24 A

28. Which of the following is a political right?

a) Right to work
b) Right to education
c) Right to vote
d) Right to freedom of expression

29. Which of the following articles deals with positive discrimination?

a) Article 12 and article 13
b) Article 12 and article 15
c) Article 12 and article 16
d) Article 15 and article 16

30. Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes ‘untouchability’?

a) Article 14
b) Article 15
c) Article 16
d) Article 17

31. Which of the following articles contain right to equality?

a) 16 – 19
b) 15 – 20
c) 16 – 23
d) 14 – 18
32. Which of the following article abolishes title?
a) Article 14
b) Article 16
c) Article 17
d) Article 18

DPSP
33. The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of the
country is
a. Directive principle
b. Fundamental duty
c. National Policy
d. Both Directive Principle and Fundamental Duty

34. ‘Directive Principles of State Policy are the conscience of the Constitution which embody
the social philosophy of the Constitution’ was described by
a. Granville Austin
b. A.V Dicey
c. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
d. Jawahar Lal Nehru

35. Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental for:

a. Upliftment of Backward classes
b. Protection of individual rights
c. Administration of justice
d. Policy making by the State

36. The framers of the Constitution borrowed the concept of directive Principles from
a. Government of India Act, 1935
b. Constitution of Ireland
c. Constitution of the United States
d. Constitution of Germany

37. The term ‘equal pay for equal work’ is a

 a. Directive Principle of State Policy
b. Statutory provision in Labour Law
c. Fundamental right
d. Constitutional right

38. If the Directive principles of State Policy are infringed

a. There is remedy in Court
b. There is no remedy by judicial proceedings
c. There is remedy in Lok Adalat
d. There is remedy in Court of Executive Magistrate

39. The object of Directive Principles of State Policy aims at

a. Embodiment of the concept of a welfare State
b. Supremacy of executive
c. Embodiment of judicial activism
d. Parliament is supreme body

40. Directive principles are

a. Justiciable as fundamental rights
b. Justiciable but not as fundamental rights
c. Not justiciable, yet fundamental to Governance
d. Irrelevant to the Governance

41. Directive Principles of State Policy aim at

a. Ensuring individual liberty
b. Ensuring strengthening of country’s independence
c. Providing a social and economic base for genuine democracy in the country
d. Achievement of all of these objectives

42. Which of the following is not true regarding Directive Principles of State Policy, where
the State shall endeavor to
a. Promote international peace and security
b. Encourage settlement of international dispute by International Court of
Justice
 c. Foster respect for international law
d. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations

43. Consider the following statements:

Directive principles of State Policy are:
I. Directives in the nature of ideals of the State
II. Directives influencing and shaping the policy of the States
III. Non justiciable rights of the citizens.
Which of the following is/are correct:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3

44. One of the main objectives of Directive Principles of State Policy is

a. Total prohibition
b. Prevention of cow slaughter
c. Protection of environment and wild life
d. Prevention of gambling

45. Which one is a correct statement

a. Fundamental Rights are superior to the Directive Principles
b. Directive principles are superior to Fundamental Rights
c. There is no relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
d. None of the mentioned

Parliamentary and Federal form

46. The division of one of the following is not a characteristic feature of federal form of
government:
a) Power
b) Territory
c) Population
d) Sex ratio
47. Matters on which both the Central Government and the State Governments can make
laws upon are enumerated in:
a) State List
b) Union List
c) Concurrent List
d) Synchronous List

48. Who can make laws pertaining to the Armed Forces?

a) Central Government
b) State Governments
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

49. Federal Form of Government is present in

a) UK
b) China
c) People’s Republic of Japan
d) USA

50. The form of Government existing in India is:

a) Pure Federalism
b) Quasi Federal form
c) Unitary Form
d) Confederalism

51. How many executive heads are there in a Parliamentary form of Government?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

52. How many executive heads are there in a Presidential form of Government?
a) 1
b) 2
 c) 3
d) 4

53. There exists complete separation of powers (independent functioning of Executive,

Legislature and Judiciary) in
a) Parliamentary Form
b) Presidential Form
c) Both
d) Neither of them

54. The Citizens elect both Legislature as well as Executive in

a) Parliamentary Form
b) Presidential Form
c) Both
d) Neither of them

55. In India, the executive power of the Union is bestowed on

a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Council of Ministers
d) Defence Minister

56. The executive action of the Government is expressed to be taken in the name of:
a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Both
d) Home Minister

57. In a Parliamentary Form of Government, as in India, the real power is enjoyed by:
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Council of Ministers
d) Defence Minister
58. Parliamentary Form of Government exists in:
a) Russia
b) Brazil
c) Sri Lanka
d) UK

59. Presidential Form of Government exists in:

a) Japan
b) India
c) Canada
d) USA

60. Federal form of Government and Parliamentary form of Government cannot co-exist.
a) True
b) False

SEPARATION OF POWERS

61. What are the three organs of the State/ Government in India
a) Legislature, Executive and the Judiciary
b) Law making body, Law implementing body and Law creating body
c) House of Commons, House of Lords and Council
d) Senate, Supreme Court and Cabinet

62. What is the nature of the state if there is no division of powers?

a) United front
b) Political success
c) Tyranny
d) Democracy

63. Legislature in India is divided into __________

a) Union Legislature and State Legislature
b) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
c) Upper House and the Lower House forming the Parliament
 d) House of Commons and Council

64. Prime Minister forms a part of the Legislature. Choose the right option
a) True. Prime Minister's function is passing of bills
b) False. Prime Minister forms the executive
c) True. Prime Minister leads the Legislature
d) False. Prime Minister forms the judiciary

65. President has legislative powers. Choose the right statement from the given options.
a) True. President is a part of the Legislature.
b) False. President cannot have legislative powers.
c) True. It is an exception to separation of powers.
d) False. President clearly has only executive powers.

66. Who emphasized on the separation of powers in the State in our country?
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b) B. N. Rau
c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
d) C. Rajagopalachari

67. Separation of powers help in ________

i. Transparency and accountability in the system
ii. Abuse of powers
iii. Independent functioning
iv. Corruption
a) i and ii
b) ii and iv
c) i and iii
d) iii and iv

68. You are an IFS officer. Which organ under the separation of powers doctrine, do you
belong to?
a) Judicial power
b) Legislative power
 c) Executive power
d) All of the above

Elections
69. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of the Election Commission?
a) Prime Minister
b) Chief Justice of India
c) President
d) Vice President

70. What is the tenure of office of the Chief Election Commissioner?

a) 5 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier
b) 6 years or 60 years, whichever is earlier
c) 6 years or 65 years, whichever is earlier
d) 5 years or 60 years, whichever is earlier

71. Currently, there are how many Commissioners in the Election Commission?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

72. Which Article in the Indian Constitution provides for the setting up of an Election
Commission?
a) Article 324
b) Article 128
c) Article 256
d) Article 378

73. Which articles of the constitution provide for an electoral system in India
a) Articles 124 to 128
b) Articles 256 to 259
c) Articles 324 to 329
d) Articles 274 to 279
74. Which of the following is not a feature of the electoral system in India?
a) Communal electorate
b) Universal adult franchise
c) Electoral roll system
d) Disqualification on the grounds of corrupt practices

75. Who limits the number of election commissioners to be appointed to the election
commission?
a) Chief Election Commissioner
b) Prime Minister
c) President
d) None of the above

76. Who is the current Chief election Commissioner?

a) Om Prakash Rawat
b) Kiran Bedi
c) Sunil Arora
d) Ashok Lavasa

77. What is the role of the Election Commission of India?

a) To conduct free and fair elections
b) To implement norms and the model code of conduct for free and fair elections
c) To supervise paid news and political parties
d) All of the above

78. Who can remove the Chief Election commissioner of India?

a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Parliament
d) Chief Justice of India

79. A candidate can be disqualified on the grounds of

a) Corrupt practices
 b) Certain election offences
c) Unsound mind
d) All of the above

80. Which of the following statements is wrong with regard to the Election Commission of
India?
a) The body comprises of a chief election Commissioner and other two election
Commissioners
b) The chief Election Commissioner and the other two election Commissioners are
elected by the President
c) They enjoy a tenure of 6 years or age of 65 years, whichever falls early
d) None of the above
81. The elections to the Lok Sabha is held once in every
a) 3 years
b) 6 years
c) 4 years
d) 5years

82. The framers of the Constitution of India felt the need to set up an election commission
a) To conduct free and fair elections
b) To control, regulate and supervise the election process in India.
c) To uphold the democratic feature of the nation by conducting periodic elections
d) All of the above

83. The functions of the Election Commission is to:

a) Control
b) Regulate
c) Superintendence
d) All of the above

Executive
84. What is the function of the Executive branch?
a) To enact and make laws
b) To enforce and implement the laws
 c) To interpret the law
d) Both (a) and (b)

85. Who is the “Head of the State”?

a) The Prime Minister
b) The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
c) The President
d) The Vice President

86. How is the President of India elected?

a) Direct election
b) Indirect election by the MPs
c) Indirect Election by MLAs of the States
d) Both (b) & (c)

87. Who appoints the Attorney General of India?

a) The Prime Minister
b) The President
c) The Chief Justice of India
d) The Council of Ministers

88. Who can declare emergency in India?

a) The Prime Minster and the Council of ministers
b) The President
c) The Parliament
d) The President and the Vice President

89. Who is a part of the executive in India

a) Police force
b) Education minister
c) Executive Magistrate
d) Member of Parliament

90. Which of these is a power/function of the Prime Minister?

 a) To nominate the members for the Council of Ministers to the President.
b) To grant pardons.
c) To represent the nation in the absence of the President
d) To declare emergency.

91. Who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces in India?

a) The Prime Minister
b) The Commander-in-chief
c) The President
d) The Minister of Defence

92. What is the Term of the President of India to hold office?

a) 5 years and he/she is eligible for re-election
b) 3 years and he/she is eligible for re-election
c) 5 years and he/she is not eligible for re-election
d) 4 years and he/she is not eligible for re-election

93. The Prime Minister-

a) Is the head of the majority party in the Rajya Sabha
b) Can only be a member of the Lok Sabha
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Is the head of the majority party in the Lok Sabha

94. Who appears on behalf of the Government of India in cases in the Supreme Court?
a) The National Security Advisor
b) The Attorney General of India
c) The Solicitor General of India
d) Either (a) or (c)

95. Who is the nominal head of the States?

a) The Chief Minister
b) The Chief justice of the State
c) The Chief Minister and council of Ministers
d) The Governor
96. In the Union Government, who is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha under
Article 75(3) ?
a) The Judges of the Supreme Court
b) The President and Prime Minister
c) The Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
d) None of the above

97. In India, The President can be removed by –

a) The Parliament
b) The Chief Justice of India
c) The Rajya Sabha
d) The Prime Minister and Council of Ministers

98. Which of these is a function of the Prime Minister and council of Ministers?
a) To aid and advise the President
b) To coordinate the policies of the Government
c) To appoint the Governors of all the States
d) Both (a) & (b)

Legislature
99. Members of the Lok Sabha hold term for a period of
a) 5 years
b) 6 years
c) 4 years
d) None of the above

100. The minimum age to be eligible for election to the Lok Sabha is
a) 30 years
b) 25 years
c) 35 years
d) No minimum age

101. Who elects the members of the Rajya Sabha

 a) Citizens of India
b) Elected members of Legislative Council
c) Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies
d) All of the above

102. In the Rajya Sabha, the president can appoint how many representatives
a) 15
b) 10
c) 2
d) 12

103. Which of the following can amend a money bill

a) Rajya sabha
b) Lok Sabha
c) Both of the above
d) President

104. Which of the following is not an eligibility criteria for election to the Lok sabha
a) Mentally sound
b) Must not be an insolvent
c) 25 years of age (at least)
d) Must be a graduate

105. Who presides over a joint sitting of the Parliament

a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
b) President
c) Chairman of Rajya sabha
d) Both 1 and 2

106. Which of the following is not a session of the Lok Sabha

a) Monsoon Session
b) Budget Session
c) Spring Session
d) Winter Session
107. Who decides whether a bill is a money bill or not
a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
b) Members of Lok Sabha
c) President
d) Assent of all of the above is needed

108. Which of the following is not a power of the President of India

a) Pocket veto
b) Suspensive veto
c) Qualified veto
d) Absolute veto

Judiciary
109. Who is the Chief Justice of India?
a) P Sathashivam
b) A.K Roy
c) Y V Chandrachud
d) Deepak Mishra

110. Which of the following can exercise the advisory jurisdiction?

a) The High court of Karnataka
b) The Supreme Court of India
c) All high courts in the country
d) None of the above

111. How many judges are there in the Supreme Court of India
a) 100
b) 90
c) 30
d) 0

112. Who is the Chief Justice of High Court of Karnataka?

a) Dinesh Maheshwari
 b) Ram Jethmalani
c) Nani Palkhiwala
d) Ramesh Ranganath

113. Which article does the writ jurisdiction of High court lie under?
a) Art 223
b) Art 226
c) Art 34
d) Art 190

114. What gives the power to the High Court or the Supreme Court to declare any law
‘Void’?
a) Power to enforce fundamental rights
b) Power of Judicial Review
c) Extraordinary Jurisdiction
d) Writ Jurisdiction

115. What is a constitutional Bench?

a) Bench comprising of 3 judges
b) Bench comprising of more than 5 judges
c) A single judge Bench
d) None of the above

116. Who is called the ‘guardian/protector of the Indian Constitution’?

a) The legislature
b) The executive
c) The Police
d) The Judiciary

117. Which of the following is at the Apex Court in a state?

a) Supreme Court
b) High Court
c) Court of District Judge
d) Court of Sessions Judge
118. Where was the first High court in India set up?
a) Calcutta
b) Bombay
c) Madras
d) Delhi

Basic structure
119. In which landmark case was the Doctrine of Basic Structure propounded?
a) Minnerva Mills v Union of India
b) KM Nanavati v State of Bombay
c) Shankari Prasad Singh v Union of India
d) Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala

120. Which of the following is not a basic feature?

a) Right to Equality
b) Right to Life
c) Independence of Judiciary
d) Powers given to Police

121. The 1st Amendment of the Constitution introduced a Schedule which had an effect of
immunizing laws from judicial scrutiny. Which one was it?
a) I
b) IV
c) IX
d) XII

122. Can the preamble to the Constitution be amended?

a) Yes, it can be amended completely
b) Yes, it can be amended subject to basic structure
c) No, it cannot be amended as it is not a part of the Constitution
d) No, as it is a part of basic structure

123. Which is the case where the largest ever bench of 13 judges was set up?
 a) IC Golaknath v State of Punjab
b) KM Nanavati v State of Bombay
c) Keshavananda Bharati v State of Kerela
d) Sajjan Singh v State of Punjab

124. In relation to the statement “Supremacy of the Constitution”, which of the following
statement is true?
a) Constitution is not supreme
b) It is written in the text of Constitution
c) It is one of the principles of Constitution
d) It is enshrined under a separate law

125. Under which Article, can the Constitution be amended?

a) Article 45
b) Article 311
c) Article 368
d) Article 21

126. On which of the following ground did the government contest the judicial scrutiny of
amendments?
a) Done in the exercise of Constituent Power
b) Done in the exercise of Executive Power
c) Done in the exercise of Legislative Power
d) Done in the exercise of Administrative Power

127. Which of the following is not true?

a) Basic Structure is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution
b) Basic Structure reflects the ethos of the Constitution
c) Secularism is a basic feature
d) Basic Structure emerges from the amending article

128. If an amendment appears to violate the Basic Structure, which of the following shall
happen?
a) Nothing will happen
 b) Amendment will automatically cease to operate
c) Amendment will be valid
d) Amendment will cease to operate after being struck down by courts

Emergencies
129. Which part of the Constitution contains provisions regarding emergency?
a) Part 3
b) Part 4
c) Part 9
d) Part 18
130. How many different types of emergencies are prescribed in the constitution?
a) 11
b) 14
c) 3
d) 9

131. Which set of provisions deal with the different types of emergencies?
a) 332 – 338
b) 339- 348
c) 352 – 360
d) 361- 369

132. Who has the power to proclaim an emergency?

a) Chief justice of India
b) Finance minister
c) President
d) Prime minister

133. How many times has a national emergency been declared in India?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 110
134. What is the time period prescribed for a national emergency under the Constitution?
a) 6 months
b) 3 months
c) 2 months
d) 1 year

135. What is the essential ground required to declare a state emergency?

a) War
b) Break down of Law and order
c) Financial distress
d) Failure of constitutional machinery

136. By what majority can a proclamation of emergency be passed in the Parliament?

a) 1/4
b) 1/3
c) 1/2
d) 2/3

137. Both houses of Parliament need to approve the proclamation of emergency?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only Lok Sabha
d) Only Rajya Sabha

138. What can the president order the State Legislature to do when a financial emergency is
proclaimed?
a) Replace the Finance Minister of the state
b) Reduce salaries of government servant
c) Order banks to stop lending loans
d) None of the above

Additional Questions
139. Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits the State to discriminate against citizens on the
grounds only of
 a) Religion
b) Caste
c) Sex
d) All of the above

140. Article 19 of the Constitution provides

a) Freedom of speech and expression
b) Right to life
c) Right to equality
d) None of the above

141. The limit imposed on ‘investigative journalism’ primarily flows from

i. The right to reputation
ii. The right to privacy
iii. The law of contempt of Court
a) Only iii
b) Only ii and iii
c) Only i and iii
d) i, ii and iii

142. The State cannot make special provisions for which one of the following under Article
15 of the Constitution
a) Women and Children
b) Socially and educationally backward classes
c) Scheduled castes
d) Economically backward

143. Which part of the Constitution elaborates the concept of welfare State?
a) Preamble
b) Fundamental Rights
c) Fundamental duties
d) Directive principles of State Policy

144. The power to dissolve the Lok Sabha is vested with

 a) President of India on the advice or resignation of Prime Minister
b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
c) Council of Ministers
d) Governors of states
145. An ordinary bill can originate in either House. It becomes a law when
a) It is passed by both Houses and gets Presidential assent
b) As soon as it is passed by both Houses
c) As soon as it is passed by the House it originated from
d) As soon as the other House validates it

146. The right to life in terms of freedom from pollution is derived from
a) Article 12
b) Article 14
c) Article 19
d) Article 21