QUESTION BANK

UC20CE101: CONSTITUTION OF INDIA, CYBER LAW AND

PROFESSIONAL ETHICS
Q. QUESTIONS
No.
1. ‘Power of Parliament to modify the rights conferred by this part in their application to
forces etc.’ is the basis of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

a) Article 32 b) Article 33 c) Article 34 d) Article 35

2. Article 36 of the Indian Constitution says “In part IV, unless the context otherwise
requires, ‘the State’ has the same meaning as in Part III”. Which of the following
statements regarding the definition of ‘the State’ is/are found to be correct?
I. Since this Article adopts the definition of ‘state* in Article 12, of the Indian Constitution it
would include courts and statutory tribunals, so that they cannot overlook the objectives of
the Directives.
II. Any statutory corporation which answers the tests of a state instrumentality or agency
even though it may not be a ‘public utility undertaking’ is bound to act in consonance with
the Directive Principles.

a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) None of them

3. In which of the following respects the Directive Principles differ from the
Fundamental Rights?

a) The Directives are not enforceable in the courts and do not create any justiciable rights
in favor of individuals
b) The Directives require to be implemented by legislation, and so long as there is no law
carrying out the policy laid down in a Directive, neither the state nor an individual can
violate any existing law or legal right under the color of following a Directive
c) The Courts are not competent to compel the Government to carry out any Directive or to
make any law for that purpose
d) All of them
4. Which of the following interpretations of the Constitution regarding the utility of
Directives is/are found to be correct?
I. Even though the implementation of a Directive Principle may cause hardship to a few
individuals, it should be upheld in the larger interests of the community.
II. In view of the absolute prohibition of consumption of liquor in Article 47, there cannot be
any fundamental right to manufacture and sell intoxicating liquor.
a) I and II b) Neither I nor II c) Only I d) Only II

5. Which kinds of justice have been mentioned in Article 38 in Part IV of the Indian
Constitution?
a) Social b) Economic c) Political d) All of them

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6. According to Article 39 of the Indian Constitution the State shall, in particular, direct
its policy towards securing:

I. That the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of
livelihood.
II. That the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so
distributed as best to subserve the common good.
III. That there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

a) I, II and III b) II and III c) I and III d) I and II

7. Which of the following directives has been given the Supreme Court for the welfare
of the children according to clauses (e), (f) of Article 39 of the Indian Constitution?

a) The Children should not be employed in hazardous jobs in factories for manufacture of
match boxes and fire works

b) Positive steps should be taken for the welfare of such children as well as for improving
the quality of their life

c) The employer of children below 14 years must comply with the provisions of the child
labour Act providing for compensation, employment of their parents/ guardians and their
education

d) All of them

8. ‘Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases’ is an essence

of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

a) Article 40 b) Article 41 c) Article 39 d) Article 42

9. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Right to education is/are found to be correct?

I. The duty of the State, under this directive is not only to establish educational institutions
but also to effectively secure the right to education, by admitting students to the seats
available at such institutions, by admitting candidates found eligible according to some
rational principle.

II. Even though this right is not a fundamental right and is not judicially enforceable as such,
once the State, by legislative or administrative actions, provides facilities for education, its
action must conform to the standard of equality and rationality underlying Article 14 of the
Indian Constitution.

a) Only I b) Only II c) I and II d) None of them

10. Living, wage etc. for workers have been mentioned in which of the following Article of
Indian Constitution:

a) 41 b) 43 c) 43A d) 42

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11. ‘Uniform Civil Code for the citizens’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of
the Indian Constitution?

a) Article 43 b) Article 43A c) Article 44 d) Article 45

12. Which of the following Articles says “The State shall endeavor to provide early childhood
care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years”?

a) Article 44 b) Article 45 c) Article 43A d) Article 46

13. According to Article 47 of the Indian Constitution, it is the duty of the state to raise the level
of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health. Which of the following
statements regarding public health is/are correct?

I. Article 47 makes improvement of public health a primary duty of the State.

II. In case of need, the local authority should approach the State Government to grant loan
or aid, and the latter should supply the money required in view of primary duty of the ‘State’
under Article 47.

a) I and II b) Only II c) Only I d) None

14. In which of the following situations shall the duties of Chairman be performed by the Deputy
of Legislative Council?

a) When the office of chairman is vacant

b) During the absence of the chairman from any sitting of the council
c) (A) and (B)
d) None of them

15. Which of the following Articles is associated with Fundamental Duties?

a) Article 50 b) Article 51 c) Article 49 d) Article 51A

16. Fundamental Duties was added in the Constitution by which of the following
Amendment Acts:

a) 40th Amendment Act b) 42nd Amendment Act c) 48th Amendment Act

d) 44th Amendment Act

17. Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties is/are found to be correct?
I. Fundamental Duties are not enforceable by mandamus or any other legal remedy.
II. If the state seeks to promote any of these duties, that can be done only through methods
permitted by and in consonance with the constitution.

a) I and II b) Only I c) Only II d) Neither I nor II

18. Which of the following directions has/have been issued by the Supreme Court to the
Central Government to take a number of steps to improve the environment?

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 a) To direct all educational institutions throughout Indian to give weekly lessons in the first
ten classes, relating to the protecting and improvement of the natural
b) To get books written for the said purpose and to distribute them free of cost
c) To introduce short term courses for training up teachers who teach this subject
d) All of them

19. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a
President of India?

a) Article 51 b) Article 51A c) Article 52 d) Article 53

20. Which of the following statements regarding Executive Power of the Union is/are found to
be correct?

I. The executive power of the union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised
by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the
constitution.
II. Without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision, the supreme command of
the Defence Forces of the union shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof
shall be regulated by law.

a) I and II b) Neither I nor II c) Only I d) Only II

21. In the exercise of its executive power, a Government may do any act provided:

I. it is not an act assigned by the constitution to any other authority or body such as the
Legislature or the Judiciary or the Public Service Commission.
II. it is not contrary to the provision of the Constitution or of any law.
III. the powers required for carrying out a policy are not available from the existing law.

Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?

a) All are incorrect b) All are correct c) I and II d) I and III

22. By-laws are certain authorized rules, orders and constitutions of corporation:

a) For the governing of their members made by common assent

b) For cases to which the public law doth not extend
c) Either (A) and (B)
d) Both (A) and (b)

23. In which of the following questions will the Judiciary not enter or involve?

a) Political Questions b) Policy involving Questions c) Ether (A) or (B) d) Both (A) and
(B)

24. The election to the Parliament is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian
Constitution?

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 a) Article 52 b) Article 53 c) Article 54 d) Article 53(1)

25. The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of:

a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament

b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States
c) The members of State legislative Assemblies, councils and All M.P.’s
d) Both (A) and (B)

26. The main object of Article 54 of the Indian Constitution is

a) To prescribe qualifications required for electors to elect the President

b) To fix the time for the election to fill the vacancy before the expiration of the term of the
outgoing president
c) To prevent the holding of the election before expiration of that term by reason of
dissolution of the legislative Assembly of a state
d) All of them

27. Which of the following method is adopted for the election of the President of India?

a) Direct b) Indirect c) Proportional Representation d) Both (A) and (C)

28. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution describes the term of the office of
the President?

a) Article 55(1) b) Article 56 c) Article 54 d) Article 55

29. The term of the office of President can be terminated pre-maturely by which of the
following?

a) The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice President, resign
his office
b) The President may, for violation of the constitution, be removed from office by
impeachment
c) The President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office
until his successor enters upon his office
d) All of them
30. The ‘Eligibility for re-election’ of President is the basis of the Indian Constitution.

a) Article 56 b) Article 57 c) Article 58 d) Article 54

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31. Which of the following are the qualifications to be the President of India?

a) Citizen of India
b) Completion of the age of 35 years
c) Having qualifications for election as a member of the House of People
d) All of them

32. In order to prove the incurring of disqualification of the election of President, which of the
following conditions must be satisfied?

a) A permanent office b) Income or profit accrued from that office c) The candidate held
that office d) All of them

33. Which of the following conditions of Presidents’ office is/ are found to be correct?

I. The President shall not be a member of either house of Parliament.

II. The President shall not hold any other office of profit.
III. The emoluments and allowance of the President shall not be diminished during his term of
office.

a) I, II and III b) Only II c) I and III d) II and III

34. Who among the following administers the oath to the President of India?

a) Governor b) Vice President c) Speaker d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

35. When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charges shall be
preferred by of Parliament.

a) Lok Sabha b) Rajya Sabha c) Either House d) None of them

36. Which of the following statements regarding mandatory time limit of Presidential election
according to Article 62 of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?

I. The election of the President must be completed within the time fixed by the Article and there
is no provision for extension of this time limit.
II. Because of the rigidity of the time limit, the election must be held and completed before the
expiration of the outgoing President, notwithstanding the fact that at the time of such election,
the Legislative Assembly of a state has been dissolved.

a) Only I b) Only II c) Neither I nor II d) I and II

37. The Vice President shall be the chairman of the council of states and shall not
hold any other office of Profit.

a) Ex-officio b) Permanent c) Deputy d) Regular

38. When the President is unable to discharge his functions owing to absence, illness or any other
cause, shall discharge his functions until the date on which the President
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 resumes his duties.

a) Speaker b) Vice President c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court d) Prime Minister

39. An electoral college which elects the Vice President of the country consists of:

a) Elected members of both houses of Parliament

b) Elected members of both houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies
c) Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies and Legislative councils
d) All of them

40. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is associated with the term of office of
Vice President?

a) Article 65 b) Article 67 c) Article 68 d) Article 65

41. Vice President of India addresses his letter of resignation to the:

a) President b) Prime Minister c) Speaker d) Chief Justice of India

42. Who among the following administers the oath to Vice President of India?

a) Prime Minister b) Attorney General c) Speaker d) President

43. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?

I. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice
President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be
final
II. Subject to the provisions of this constitution, Parliament may be by law regulate any matter
relating to or connected with the election of a President or Vice President
III. The election of a person as President or Vice President shall not be called in question on
the ground of the existence of any vacancy for whatever reason among the members of the
Electoral College electing him

a) I and II b) I, II and III c) II and III d) I and III

44. The Police Power of the State cannot be

a) Absolute b) Arbitrary c) Oppressive d) All of them

45. Subject to the provisions of the constitution, according to Article 73, of the Indian Constitution
the executive power of the Union shall extend:

I. To the matters with respect to which Parliament has power to make laws.
II. To the exercise of such rights, authority and jurisdiction as are exercisable by the
Government of India by virtue of any treaty or agreement.

Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?

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 a) I and II b) Only I c) Only II d) None of them

46. Freedom of Residence under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is available in which of the
following clauses?

a) Clause (1) (e) b) Clause (1) D d) Clause (1) B d) Clause (1) C

47. Which of the following statements regarding Council of Ministers is/are found to be correct?

I. Council of Ministers shall be headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President
who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.
II. The question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President
shall not be inquired into in any court.

a) Only I b) Only II c) Neither I nor II d) I and II

48. Which of the following can be used to interpret the Articles 74-75 of the Indian Constitution?

a) Canadian Constitution b) British Conventions c) Ideology of French Revolution

d) Irish Conventions

49. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister in the Council of Ministers shall not
exceed of the total number of members of the House of the people.

a) 15% b) 10% c) 20% d) 1/4th

50. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of “Collective Responsibility” is/are
correct?

I. All members of a Government are unanimous in support of its policies and exhibit that
unanimity on public occasions although while formulating the policies, they might have differed
in the Cabinet meeting.
II. The Ministers, who had an opportunity to speak for or against the policies in the cabinet are
thereby personally and morally responsible for its success and failure.

a) Only I b) Only II c) I and II d) None of them

51. Consider the following statements:

The Indian Constitution is

(1) unwritten Constitution
(2) written Constitution
(3) largely based on Government of India Act, 1935

a) 2 and 1 are correct b) 2 and 3 are correct c) 1 and 2 are correct d) 1 and 3 are correct.

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52. Democracy and federalism are essential features of our Constitution and basic feature of its
structure. This observation was made in S.R. Bommai case by:

a) J. A.M. Ahmadi b) J. J.S. Verma c) J. P.B. Sawant d)J. S.R. Pandian.

53. The text of the Preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure:

a) fundamental rights to all individuals

b) fundamental duties to citizen of India
c) dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation
d) security of service to Government Servant.

54. In Tinsukia Electricity Company v. State of Assam, the Supreme Court pointed out that the
term ‘Socialist’ used in the Preamble to the Constitution of India, means State whose basic
policy is to:

a) prohibit concentration of wealth and distribute equitability the natural resources

b) prohibit equitably the natural resources
c) distribute equitably the natural resources
d) prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the living standard of people.

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55. The Preamble to the Constitution of India secures “Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity” to:

a) all persons b) those who reside within the territory of India c) all citizens
d) those citizens who reside within the territory of India.

56. ‘Justice, social, economic and political’ is:

a) guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India

b) guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the Supreme Court of India
c) an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India
d) a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into account making enactments.

57. Consider the following statements with reference to the term ‘secularism’:

1. Secularism means that the State has no recognized religion of State

2. Secularism means that the State treats all the religions equally
3. Secularism means that the State regulates the relation of man with God.

Which of these statements are correct –

a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3

58. The concept of Directive Principle of State policy is borrowed from:

a) Germany b) France c) Ireland d) USA.

59. India has borrowed the scheme of federation i.e. ‘Union of States’ from which country:

a) USA b) Russia c) Ireland d) Canada.

60. Which of the following said that “In any event, whatever system of Government we may
establish here must fit in with the temper of the people and be acceptable to them”:

a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar c) D. D. Basu d) M. V. Pylee.

61. Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of the citizens under the
Constitution of India?

a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighboring countries

b) To protect monuments of national importance
c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
d) To know more and more about the history of India.

62. By which amendment Act ‘Unity of the Nation’ was substituted by ‘Unity and integrity of
the Nation’ in the Preamble of the Constitution:
a) Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976
b) Forty-fifth Amendment Act, 1980
c) Forty-fourth amendment Act, 1979
D. None of the above.
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63. Who among the following said that “The new Constitution establishes, indeed a system
of Government which is at the most quasi-federal, almost devolutionary in character; a
unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than the federal state with unitary
features”:

a) Dr. K.C. Wheare

b) Subash Kashyap
c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

64. is the Preamble a part of the Constitution:

a) It is the part of the Constitution

b) It is not the part of the Constitution
c) Still this question is to be decided by the court
d) None of the above.

65.
Which of the following feature is not borrowed from United Kingdom:

a) The Cabinet system of Government

b) The Parliamentary type of Government
c) Bicameral Parliament
d) Written Constitution.

66.
The feature ‘power of judicial review’ is borrowed from which of the following country:

a) UK
b) USA
c) Canada
d) Ireland.

67.
Which of the following Articles describe about the person voluntarily acquiring
citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens:

a) Article 5
b) Article 7
c) Article 8
d) Article 9.

68. The expression ‘every person’ in Article 5 includes:

a) a prisoner
b) member of armed forces
c) persons living within the territory of India

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 d) all of the above.

69.
Under the Indian Constitution it was held in the case Pradeep v. Union of India:

A. there is only one domicile of the country

B. there are two domicile of the Union as well as of the State
C. in case of Jammu & Kashmir, there are two domiciles one of the Union and other of the
State
D. both (a) & (c).

70.
Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain persons
who have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following provision is
incorrect?

a) he or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in India as defined in the
Government of India Act, 1935
b) such person has so migrated before 19 July, 1948.
c) such person has so migrated on or after the 19 July, 1948, he has been registered as a
citizen
d) such person has got married in India.

71.
The Fundamental rights secured to the individual are:

a) limited to the State action only

b) meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons
c) meant to protect persons against the police action
d) all of the above are correct.

72.
The term ‘other authorities’ as given under Article 12 includes:

a) such bodies as are functioning as agents of the Executive Government only

b) all authorities are created by the Constitution or statute and persons on whom powers are
conferred by law
c) none of the above
d) all of the above.

73.
Which of the following are included in the concept of ‘the State’ under Article 12:

a) Railway Board and Electricity Board

b) ONGC
c) University
d) All of the above.

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74. Article 12 of the Constitution defines ‘State’ for the purpose of enforcement of
fundamental rights. Against which of the following writs cannot be issued for the
enforcement of fundamental rights:

a) High Court
b) Income Tax Tribunal
c) Delhi Municipal Corporation
d) Port Trust.

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75. In the light of the definition of State as including other authorities, which of the
following are not States:

a) Google
b) Gram Panchayat, Phoolpur
c) Town Area Committee, Ambala
d) Punjab Legislative Assembly.

76. Which of the following is not State for the purpose of Article 12 of the Constitution?

a) Facebook
b) Government of Karnataka
c) Union of India
d) IRCTC

77.
Under Article 13(1) pre-Constitution laws:

a) become completely void

b) not void
c) become void (from the date of the commencement of the Constitution) insofar as they are
inconsistent with the fundamental rights
d) None of the above.

78. Article 13(2) states that

a) Means law amending the Constitution

b) does not include a law amending the Constitution
c) states that the State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental
rights
d) None of the above.

79.
In Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala it was held that:

a) Under the amended Article 368, all provisions of the Constitution including those enshrined
fundamental rights could be amended
b) No provision of the Constitution can be amended
c) Fundamental Rights have the primacy and supremacy than any of the provisions of the
Constitution
d) None of the above.

80. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to:
a) All persons living within the territory of India
b) All Indian citizens living in India
c) All persons domiciled in India
d) All persons natural as well as artificial.

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81. Under Article 16 of the Constitution, right to be “considered” for promotion is a
fundamental right:
I. Provided the employee is within the zone of consideration.
II. Provided it is not the mere “consideration” for promotion that is important but the
“consideration” must be “fair” according to established principles governing service
jurisprudence.

Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?

a) Both are correct

b) Only I
c) Only II
d) Both are incorrect

82. Which of the following is the thrust of Article 17 of the Indian Constitution?

a) To liberate the society from blind and ritualistic adherence and traditional beliefs
b) To establish a new and ideal society
c) Both (A) and (B)
d) Neither (A) nor (B)

83. Which of the following rights are conferred to Indian citizens under protection of
certain rights regarding freedom of speech etc.?

a) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms

b) Right to form associations or unions
c) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India
d) All of them

84. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?

I. The rights conferred by Article 19 the Indian Constitution are not available to any person who
is not and cannot be a ‘Citizen of India’.
II. A person cannot complain of the infringement of any of the rights conferred by Article 19, if
his citizenship of India has been validly terminated by law made by Parliament in pursuance of
the power conferred by Article 11.
III. The National Awards are violative of the principles of equality.

a) I and II
b) I, II and III
c) II and III
d) I and III

85.
Which of the following statements regarding Freedom of Speech and expression is/are
found to be correct?

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 I. This freedom means the right to express one’s convictions and opinions freely, by word of
mouth, writing, printing, picture or electronic media or in any other manner.
II. It would include not only the freedom of the press, but the expression of one’s ideas by any
visible representation such as by gestures and the like.

a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I and II
d) None of them

86. Which of the following constitutes a restriction upon the freedom of the Press?

I. The right to publish includes the right to publish not only its own views but also those of its
correspondents.
II. The right to circulate refers to the matter to be circulated as well as the volume of circulation.
III. To require a newspaper to reduce its space for advertisements would directly affect its
circulation since it would be bound to raise its price.

a) I and II
b) I, II and III
c) II and III
d) I and III

87. Clause (1) B of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is associated with which of the
following?

a) Right to freedom of expression

b) Freedom of assembly
c) Freedom to form association
d) Freedom to practice any profession

88. Right to Freedom of Association is guaranteed by which of the following clauses?

a) 19 (1) A
b) 19 (1) B
c) 19 (1) C
d) 19 (1) D

89. Right to Freedom of Association is the ordinary right which is enjoyed by all citizens to
form associations. This right states that:

I. The word ‘form’ includes not only the right to start an association but also to continue it, or
refuse to be a member of an association, if he so desires.
II. It also includes the right that composition of a society shall not be so altered by law as to
introduce members other than those who voluntarily joined to form the society, without the
consent of members of the original association.

Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?

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 a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II

90. Which one of the following is a Human Right as well as an enumerated Fundamental
Right under the Constitution of India?

a) Right to information
b) Right to Education
c) Right to work
d) Right to Housing

91. Which article of the Indian constitution includes fundamental duties to the Indian
Citizens?

a) Article 50A
b) Article 50B
c) Article 51A
d) Article 51B

92. India is a republic because:

a) The head of the state is not a hereditary monarch.

b) Constitution rests on the people’s will
c) The leader of the majority party becomes the Prime Minister
d) None of the above
93. Which of the following statement is true?

1) Constitution of India does not accept strict separation of power

2) Constitution of India does accept strict separation of power
3) Constitution of India prescribes for independent judiciary
4) Preamble of the Indian Constitution is enforceable in the court of law

a) 1,4,2
b) 1,3
c) 1,2,4
d) 1,3,4

94. Which one of the following is an essential characteristic of Indian Constitution?

a) An agreement between independent units to surrender partially there authority in their,

common interest and voting in an union and retating the residue of constituent authority.

b) Supremacy of the constitution which cannot be altered except by the component units

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 c) Distribution of powers between union and regional units, each units sphere vested with
power, coordinate and independent of other and neither with power to unilaterally alter the
distribution

d) Supreme authority of the courts to interpret the constitution and invalidate action violative of
constitution.

95. Sovereignty lies in

a) Parliament in India
b) People of India
c) Constitution of India
d) Preamble to the Constitution of India

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96. Which of the following is correctly matched?

a) Republic: Head of the state is hereditary monarch.

b) Sovereign: Constitution rests on the people’s will.
c) Democratic: Constitution does not recognize legal supremacy of another country.
d) Secular: State is without religion of its own.

97. Directive Principles of State Policy is not enforceable but:

1) These principles are fundamental in governance of the country,

2) It is the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws
3) Laws, include all normative exercise of power including the decision making
4) Are subsidiary to fundamental rights

Choose the correct one:

a) 1,2
b) 1,2,3,4
c) 1,2,3
d) 1,2,4

98. Constitution of India was adopted on:

a) 25th November, 1949

b) 24th November 1950
c) 15th August, 1947
d) 26th November 1949
99. Which of the following fundamental rights cannot be suspended during proclamation
of emergency:

a) Article 20 & 21
b) Article 16 & 19
c) Article 18 & 28
d) Article 15 & 14
100 Proclamation of emergency” means:

a) Whereby the security of India or any of part of the territory is threatened by war or external
aggression or armed rebellion
b) Emergency arising out of failure of the constitutional machinery
c) Financial Emergency
d) All of the above

101. Which of the following Article deals with amendment of Indian Constitution:

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 a) Article 362
b) Article 368
c) Article 367
d) Article 363

102. The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it:

a) Uses value loaded words

b) Contains the real objective and philosophy of the Constitution makers
c) It is a source of power and limitation
d) It gives an exhaustive list of basic features of the constitution.

103. A Judge of Supreme Court can be removed from his office:

1) On the ground of misbehavior or incapacity,

2) President’s power is exercisable only after an address of each house of parliament,
supported by majority of the membership of that house and a majority of not less than 2/3 of
the members of that house present and voting
3) No judge can be removed without an address presented to the President by Parliament in
the same session.
4) Judge of Supreme Court can be moved by Chief Justice of India

Which one is Correct:

a) 1,2,3
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,2
d) 1,2,4

104. New Delhi is the seat of Supreme Court, the Court may sit in such other place as:

a) The Chief Justice may decide,

b) The President may decide,
c) The Chief Justice of India may with the approval of president from time to time decides
d) The Prime Minister of India decides

105. Supreme Court consists of:

a) Chief Justice and 25 other judges

b) Chief Justice and 18 other judges.
c) Chief Justice and 15 other judges
d) Chief Justice and 12 other judges

106. President of India can be impeached for

a) Violation of Constitution of India

20
 b) Violation of International Obligation
c) Violation of Legal Rights
d) All of the Above

107. Which one of the following is not a qualification for election as president?

1) He must have completed the age of 35 years

2) He must be qualified for election as a member of house of people
3) He must not be more than age of 65 years
4) He mut not be an acting minister either for union or for any state

Choose the correct one:

a) 1,2
b) 3,4
c) 2,4
d) 1,4

108 The president shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which:

a) He enters upon his office

b) He takes oath
c) He addresses the parliament
d) The election results are declared

109. Which among the following parts of constitution of India, includes the concept of
welfare states?

a) Preamble
b) Fundamental rights
c) Directive principles
d) Fourth Schedule
110. In which among the following parts of Constitution of India are enshrined the
Fundamental Duties?

a) Part III
b) Part IIIA
c) Part IVA
d) Part IV
111. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the

(a) Prime Minister (b) Vice- President (c) Chief Minister (d) Chief Justice
112. The President gives his resignation to the

(a) Chief Justice (b) Parliament (c) Vice President (d) Prime Minister
113. Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the emoluments of the
President?

(a) They can be reduced during a Financial Emergency.

(b) They are shown separately in the budget.
21
 (c) They are charged on the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) They do not require any parliament sanction
114. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India?

(a) Chief of the Army

(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chief of the Air Force
115. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Citizens of India
116. The first woman Governor of a state in free India was

(a) Mrs. Indira Gandhi

(b) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
(c) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(d) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani
117. Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is

(a) 23 years (b) 21 years (c) 35 years (d) 30 years

118. In case a President dies while in office, the vice President can act as President for a
maximum period of

(a) 1 years (b) 3 months (c) 6 months (d) 2 years

119. The Union Council of Ministers consists of

(a) Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State and Deputy Ministers

(b) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Cabinet Ministers
120. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India before he enters upon the
office?

(a) Chief Justice (b) Speaker (c) Vice President (d) Prime Minister
121 Who, among the following, has the final right to sanction the expenditure of public
money in India?

(a) Speaker (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) Parliament

122. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor?

(a) He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.

(b) He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed.
(c) He should be a citizen of India.
(d) He must have completed the age of 35 years
123. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?

(a) Either House of Parliament (b) Any Vidhan Sabha (c) Only Lok Sabha (d) Rajya Sabha

22
124. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to

(a) Prime Minister (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Legislative Assembly (d) Governor
125. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post?

(a) Once (b) 3 times (c) 2 times (d) Any number of times
126. Who among the following has the power to form a new state within the Union of India?

(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) Supreme Court
127. Under whose advice the President of India declares Emergency under Article 352?

(a) Chief Ministers of all states (b) Prime Minister (c) Cabinet (d) Council of Ministers
128. Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice President is
available?

(a) Senior most Governor of a State

(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Auditor General of India
129. The President's Rule in a State can be continued for a maximum period of

(a) 2 years (b) 1 year (c) 6 months (d) 2 1/2 years

130. When a financial emergency is proclaimed

(a) Union budget will not be presented

(b) Salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced
(c) Repayment of government debts will stop
(d) Payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed
131 Which of the following is correct regarding the Governor of a State?

(a) All of the above

(b) He can recommend to the President to impose President's Rule in the State.
(c) No money bill can be introduced in the State Legislature without his prior permission.
(d) He has the power of issuing ordinances when the legislature is not in session
132 Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's rule promulgated on any state
in India?

(a) 326 (b) 370 (c) 380 (d) 356

133. The President may for violation of the Constitution be removed from the office by

(a) The Prime Minister

(b) The Electoral College consisting of members of Parliament and the State Legislatures.
(c) Impeachment
(d) A no- confidence vote
134 The President's Rule in a state means that the state is ruled by

(a) A caretaker government

(b) The Chief Minister nominated by the President
(c) The Governor of the State
(d) The President directly
135. How many types of Emergency have been visualized in the Constitution of India?

23
 (a) Four (b) Three (c) One (d) Two

136 In India, political parties are given recognition by

(a) Election Commission (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) President (d) Law Commission

137. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution?

(a) About 6 months in 1949

(b) About 2 years since Aug 15, 1947
(c) Exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948
(d) About 3 years since Dec 9, 1946
138. Which of the following is correct regarding the Indian Constitution?

(a) It is completely based on British Constitution.

(b) It is original
(c) It is made only on the basis of Government of India Act, 1935
(d) It is a mixture of several Constitutions.
139 Judicial Review function of the Supreme Court means the power to

(a) Review the functioning of judiciary in the country

(b) Undertake periodic review of the Constitution.
(c) Examine the constitutional validity of the laws
(d) Review its own judgement
140 Judges of the High Court are appointed by the

(a) Chief Justice of the High Court (b) President (c) Governor (d) Chief Justice of India
141 The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is

(a) 62 years (b) 60 years (c) 65 years (d) 58 years

142 The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court are appointed by the

(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

(b) Chief Minister of the concerned state
(c) Governor of the concerned state
(d) President
143 Judicial Review signifies that the Supreme Court

(a) Can impeach the President

(b) Can declare a state law as unconstitutional
(c) Can review cases decided by the High Courts.
(d) Has final authority over all cases
144 The total number of High Courts in India at present is

(a) 15 (b) 21 (c) 16 (d) 18

145 The Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed from office by the

(a) President on request of Parliament

(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
146 Which of the following is enforceable in a court of law?
24
 (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Fundamental Duties (c) Directive Principles (d) Preamble
147 Which is the highest court of appeal in India?

(a) Supreme Court (b) President (c) High Court (d) Privy Council
148 Who decides the number of Judges in a High Court?

(a) Governor of the State (b) Parliament (c) President (d) State Government
149 The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President

(a) In consulation with the Judges of the supreme court and the High Court
(b) Alone
(c) In consulation with the Governor
(d) In consulation with the Judges of the supreme court alone
150. Which of the 3 words were added LATER to the Preamble?

a) Justice, Liberty, Equality

b) Socialist, Republic, Justice
c) Sovereign, Fraternity, Political
d) Secular, Socialist, Integrity

151 Which of the following is not a type of cyber-crime?

a) Data theft
b) Forgery
c) Damage to data and systems
d) Installing antivirus for protection

152 Cyber-laws are incorporated for punishing all criminals only.

a) True
b) False

153 Cyber-crime can be categorized into types.

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 6

154 Which of the following is not a type of peer-to-peer cyber-crime?

a) Phishing
b) Injecting Trojans to a target victim
c) MiTM
d) Credit card details leak in deep web

155 Which of the following is not an example of a computer as weapon cyber-crime?

a) Credit card fraudulent
b) Spying someone using keylogger
c) IPR Violation
d) Pornography

156 Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals?

a) Unauthorized account access
25
 b) Mass attack using Trojans as botnets
c) Email spoofing and spamming
d) Report vulnerability in any system

157 In which year India’s IT Act came into existence?

a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003

158 What is the name of the IT law that India is having in the Indian legislature?
a) India’s Technology (IT) Act, 2000
b) India’s Digital Information Technology (DIT) Act, 2000
c) India’s Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000
d) The Technology Act, 2008

159 What is the full form of ITA-2000?

a) Information Tech Act -2000
b) Indian Technology Act -2000
c) International Technology Act -2000
d) Information Technology Act -2000

160 The Information Technology Act -2000 bill was passed by K. R. Narayanan.
a) True
b) False

161 Under which section of IT Act, stealing any digital asset or information is written a
cyber-crime.
a) 65
b) 65-D
c) 67
d) 70

162 What is the punishment in India for stealing computer documents, assets or any
software’s source code from any organization, individual, or from any other
means?
a) 6 months of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 50,000
b) 1 year of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 100,000
c) 2 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 250,000
d) 3 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 500,000

163 What is the updated version of the IT Act, 2000?

a) IT Act, 2007
b) Advanced IT Act, 2007
c) IT Act, 2008
d) Advanced IT Act, 2008

164 In which year the Indian IT Act, 2000 got updated?

a) 2006
b) 2008
c) 2010
d) 2012

165 What type of cyber-crime, its laws and punishments does section 66 of the Indian
IT Act holds?
a) Cracking or illegally hack into any system
26
 b) Putting antivirus into the victim
c) Stealing data
d) Stealing hardware components

166 Which of the following is an Anti-Virus programme ?

a). Norton
b). K7
c). Quick Heal
d). All of these

167 All of the following are examples of real security and privacy threats except
a) Hackers
b) Virus
c) Spam
d) Worm
168 Viruses are ….
a) Man made
b) Naturally occur
c) Machine Made
d) All the options

169 Firewall is a type of

a) Virus
b) Security threat
c) Worm
d)None of the options

170 Unsolicited commercial E mail is known as

a) Spam
b) Malware
c) Virus
d)Spyware
171 Which of the following is not an external threat to a computer or computer network

a) Ignorance
b) Torgan Horses
c) Adware
d) Crackers
172 Which of the following is a class of computer threat ?
a) Phishing
b) Soliciting
c) DoS Attacks
d) Stalking

173 A licence allows a user to use a copyrighted material

a) True
b) False

174 The use of the Internet or other electronic means to stalk or harass an individual, a
group of individuals, or an organization is termed:
a) Cyberspace
b) Cyber
stalking
c)
27
 Pornography
d) None of
these
175 Which of the following is a cybercrime?
a) Hac King
b) Worm Attack
c) Virus Attack
d) All the above.

176 Refers to email that appears to have been originated from one source when it was
actually sent from another source

a) Email bombing
b) Email spoofing
c) Email Spamming
d) None of these.

177 By hacking web server taking control on another person’s website called as web ..........

a) Spoofing
b) Hijacking
c) Spamming
d) None of these.

178 Section 66F of IT Act deals with

a) Cyber stalking
b) Email bombing
c) Child pornography
d) Cyber terrorism
179 Act of attempting to acquire information such as usernames, passwords, and credit
card details by masquerading as a trustworthy entity is called
a) email bombing
b) Spamming
c) Cyber stalking
d) Phishing
180 Use of electronic messaging systems to send unsolicited bulk messages are called
a) email bombing
b) Spamming
c) Cyber stalking
d) Phishing

181 The practice of making a transmission appears to come from an authorized user.
a) Hacking
b) Spoofing
c) Spamming
d) Spamdexing
182 Section 66C of IT Act deals with
a) Cyber stalking
b) Email bombing
c) Child pornography
d) Punishment for Identity Theft
183 Section-66E of IT Act deals with
a) Punishment for violation of Privacy.
b) Spamming
c) Cyber stalking
d) Phishing
28
184 This is a program in which malicious or harmful code is contained inside
apparently harmless programming or data.
a) War dialer
b) Spam trap
c) Trojan horse
d) Email
185
This is a document that states in writing how a company plans to protect the
company's physical and IT assets.
a) Data Encryption Standard
b) Security policy
c) Public key certificate
d) Access control list
186 Which of the following describes e‐commerce?
a) Doing business electronically
b) Doing business
c) Sale of goods
d) All of the above
187 Which of the following is part of the four main types for e‐commerce?
a) B2B
b) B2C
c) C2B
d) All of the above
188 Which segment do eBay, Amazon.com belong?
a) B2Bs
b) B2Cs
c) C2Bs
d) C2Cs
189 Which type of e‐commerce focuses on consumers dealing with each other?
a) B2B
b) B2C
c) C2B
d) C2C
190
Which type deals with auction?
a) B2B
b) B2C
c)C2B
d)c2c

191 Which segment is eBay an example?

a) B2B
b) C2B
c) C2C
d) None of the above
192 In which website Global Easy Buy is facilitated?
a) Ebay.com
b) Amazon.com
29
 c) Yepme.com
d) None of these
193 The best products to sell in B2C e‐commerce are:
a) Small products
b) Digital products
c)Specialty products
d) Fresh products
194 Which products are people most likely to be more uncomfortable buying on the Internet?
a) Books
b) Furniture
c) Movies
d) All of the above
195 Which products are people most likely to be comfortable buying on the Internet?
a) Books
b) PCs
c) CDs
d)All of the above
196 Digital products are best suited for B2C e‐commerce because they:
a) Are commodity like products
b) Can be mass‐customized and personalized
c) Can be delivered at the time of purchase
d) All of the above
197 The solution for all business needs is
a) EDI
b) ERP
c) SCM
d) None of the above
198 All of thefollowing aretechniques B2Ce‐commercecompanies usetoattractcustomers,
except:
a) Registering with search engines
b) Viral marketing
c) Online ads
d) Virtual marketing

199 Which is a function of E‐commerce

a) marketing
b) advertising
c) warehousing
d) all of the above
200 Which is not a function of E‐commerce
a) marketing
b) advertising
c) warehousing
d) none of the above
201 Which term represents a count of the number of people who visit one site, click on an ad, and are
taken to the site of the advertiser?
a) Affiliate programs
30
 b) Click‐through
c) Spam
d) All of the above

202 WhatisthepercentageofcustomerswhovisitaWebsiteandactuallybuysomethingcalled?
a) Affiliate programs
b) Click‐through
c) Spam
d) Conversion rate

203 What are materials used in production in a manufacturing company or are placed on the shelf for
sale in a retail environment?
a) Direct materials
b) Indirect materials
c) EDI
d) None of the above

204 What are materials that are necessary for running a modern corporation, but do not relate to the
company's primary business activities?
a) Direct materials
b) Indirect materials
c) EDI
d) None of the above

205 What are ballpoint pens purchased by a clothing company?

a) Direct materials
b) Indirect materials
c) EDI
d) None of the above

206 What is another name for?

a) Direct materials
b) Indirect materials
c) EDI
d) None of the above

207 What is the process in which a buyer posts its interest in buying a certain quantity of items, and sellers
compete for the business by submitting successively lower bids until there is only one seller left?
a) B2B marketplace
b) Intranet
c) Reverse auction
d) Internet

208 What are plastic cardsthe size ofa credit cardthat contains an embedded chip on whichdigital
information can be stored?
a) Customer relationship management systems cards
b) E‐government identity cards
31
 c) FEDI cards
d) Smart cards

209 Most individuals are familiar with which form of e‐commerce?

a) B2B
b) B2C
c) C2B
d) C2C

210 Whichform of e‐commerce currently accountsfor about 97% of all e‐commerce revenues?
a) B2B
b) B2C
c) C2B
d) C2C

211 Which of the following are advantages normally associated with B2B e‐commerce?
a) Shorter cycle times
b) Reduction in costs
c) Reaches wider audiences
d) all of the above

212 If the threat of substitute products or services is low it is a(n):

a) Disadvantage to the supplier
b) Advantage to the buyer
c) Advantage to the supplier
d) None of the above

213 The threat of new entrants is high when it is:

a) Hard for customers to enter the market
b) Hardforcompetitors toenterthe market
c) Easy forcompetitors toenterthemarket
d) Easy for customers to enter the market
214 If it is easyfor competitors to enter the market, the threat of new entrants is considered:
a) High
b) Low
c) More
d) Less

215 An industryisless attractive for suppliers whentherivalryamongexistingcompetitors is:

a) High
b) Low
c) More
d) Less

216 Unique value auction is mainly applies to?

a) New products
b) Second hand products
32
 c) Engineering products
d) None of the above

217 Paisapay is facilitated in

a) eBay.co.in
b) amazon.com
c) flipkart.com
d) none of the above

218 Which of the following is a useful security mechanism when considering business strategy and IT?
a) encryption
b) decryption
c) firewall
d) all the above

219 Which of the following is not related to security mechanism

a) encryption
b) decryption
c) e‐cash
d) all the above

220 A product or service that customers have come to expect from an industry, which must be offered
by new entrants if they wish to compete and survive, is known as a(n)?
a) Switching costs
b) Loyalty programs
c) Entry barriers
d) Affiliate programs

221 Which of the following statements accurately reflect the impact of technology?
a) Technology has caused buyer power to increase
b) Technology has lessened the entry barriers for many industries
c) Technology has increased the threat of substitute products and services
d) all of the above

222 A business cannot be all things to all people. Instead, a business must:
a) Identify target customers
b) Identify the value of products/services as perceived by customers
c) all of the above
d) None of the above

223 How the transactions occur in e‐commerce?

a) Using e‐medias
b) Using computers only
c) Using mobile phones only
d) None of the above

33
224 Which type of products is lesser purchased using ecommerce?
a) automobiles
b) books
c) softwares
d) none

225 Abusinesscompetinginacommoditylikeenvironmentmustfocusonwhichofthefollowing?
a) Price
b) Ease / speed of delivery
c) Ease of ordering
d) all of the above

226 Which of the following refers tocreating products tailored to individual customers?
a) customization
b) aggregation
c) Direct materials
d) Reverse auction

227 Materials used in the normal operation of a business but not related to primary business
operations are called what?
a) Supplies
b) Direct materials
c) Indirect materials
d) Daily stuff

228 Amazon.com is well‐known for which e‐commerce marketing technique?

a) Banner ads
b) Pop‐up ads
c) Affiliate programs
d) Viral marketing

229 Whatisthe name givento aninteractivebusiness providing acentralized market where many buyers
and suppliers can come together for e‐commerce or commerce‐related activities?
a) Direct marketplace
b) B2B
c) B2C
d) Electronic marketplace

230 Whichform of e‐marketplacebringstogetherbuyersandsellers frommultiple industries, often for

MROmaterials?
a) horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Integrated
d) Inclined

231 Which form of e‐marketplace brings together buyers and sellers from the same industry?
a) Horizontal
34
 b) Vertical
c) Integrated
d) Inclined

232 Which type of add appears on a web page?

a) pop‐under ad
b) Pop‐up ad
c) Banner ad
d) Discount ad

233 What type of ad appears on top of a web page?

a) pop‐under ad
b) pop‐up ad
c) bannerad
d) discount ad

234 What type of ad appears under a web page?

a) pop‐under ad
b) pop‐up ad
c) bannerad
d) discount ad

235 Which, if any, of the following types of ads are people most willing to tolerate?
a) pop‐under ad
b) pop‐up ad
c) bannerad
d) none of the above

236 Which of the following is an Internet‐based company that makes it easy for one person to pay
another over the Internet?
a) electronic check
b) electronic bill presentment and payment
c) conversion rates
d) financial cybermediary

237 Which of the following is a method of transferring money from one person's account to
another?
a) electronic check
b) credit card
c) e‐transfer
d) none of the above

238 An electronic check is one form of what?

a) e‐commerce
b) online banking
c) e‐cash
35
 d) check

239 If you need to transfer money to another person via the internet, which of the following
methods could you use?
a) financial cybermediary
b) electronic check
c) electronic bill presentment and payment
d) all of the above

240 Which of the following permits thetransmission of abill, along with payment of that bill, to be
conducted over the Internet?
a) financial cybermediary
b) electronic check
c) electronic bill presentment and payment
d) all of the above

241 Acombination ofsoftware andinformation designedto providesecurity and information for

payment is called a what?
a) digital wallet
b) pop up ad
c) shopping cart
d) encryption

242 Whatisthenamefordirectcomputer‐to‐computer transfer of transactioninformation

contained in standard business documents?
a) internet commerce
b) e‐commerce
c) transaction information transfer
d) electronic data interchange

243 Which of the following is used in B2B to pay for purchases?

a) e‐commerce
b) financial electronic data interchange
c) electronic data exchange
d) electronic checks

244 Public key encryption uses multiple keys. One key is used to encrypt data, while another isused to
decrypt data. The key used to encrypt data is called the key, while the key used to
decrypt data is called the key.
a) encryption, decryption
b) private, public
c) encryption, public
d) public, private

246 Secure Sockets Layers does which of the following?

a) creates a secure, private connection to a web server
36
 b) encrypts information
c) sends information over the internet
d) all of the above

247 Whenatransactionisprocessedonline,howcanthemerchantverifythecustomer'sidentity?
a) use secure sockets layers
b) use secure electronic transactions
c) use electronic data interchange
d) use financial electronicdata interchange
248 The practice of forging areturn address on an e‐mail so that therecipient is fooled into
revealing private information is termed?
a) hacking
b) cracking
c) dumpster diving
d) spoofing

249 What is a model of a proposed product, service, or system?

a) Prototyping
b) Prototype
c) Proof‐of‐concept prototype
d) Selling prototype

250 Whatisaninternalorganizational Internetthatisguardedagainstoutsideaccessbyaspecial

security featurecalledafirewall (whichcanbesoftware, hardware, oracombinationofthe two)?
a) Client/server network
b) Intranet
c) Extranet
d) Thin client

251 Whatisanintranet thatisrestricted toan organization and certainoutsiders, suchascustomers and

suppliers?
a) Client/server network
b) Intranet
c) Extranet
d) Thin client

252 What is a detailed process for recovering information or an IT system in the event of a
catastrophic disaster such as a fire or flood?
a) Disaster recovery plan
b) Hot site
c) Cold site
d) Disasterrecoverycostcurve
253 What is a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place where the
knowledge workers can move after the disaster?
a) Disaster recovery plan
b) Hot site
37
 c) Cold site
d) Disasterrecoverycostcurve
254 Whatisaseparateandfully equippedfacility wherethecompanycanmoveimmediatelyafter the
disaster and resume business?
a) Disaster recovery plan
b) Hot site
c) Cold site
d) Disasterrecoverycostcurve
255 Whatcharts(1) the costtoyourorganizationofthe unavailability of information andtechnology and (2)
the cost to your organization of recovering from a disaster over time?
a) Disaster recovery plan
b) Hot site
c) Cold site
d) Disasterrecoverycostcurve
256 Which factor determines when your ITsystem will beavailablefor knowledge workers to
access?
a) Availability
b) Accessibility
c) Reliability
d) None of the above

257 Which factor determines who hasthe right to access different types of IT systems and
information?
a) Availability
b) Accessibility
c) Reliability
d) Scalability

258 Which factorensuresyour ITsystemsarefunctioningcorrectly andprovidingaccurate

information?
a) Availability
b) Accessibility
c) Reliability
d) Scalability
259 Which factor represents how well your system can adapt to increased demands?
a) Availability
b) Accessibility
c) Reliability
d) Scalability

260 Which factor represents a system's ability to change quickly?

a) Flexibility
b) Performance
c) Capacity planning
d) Benchmark

38
261 What is a set of conditions used to measure how well a product or system functions?
a) Flexibility
b) Performance
c) Capacity planning
d) Benchmark

262 Whatdeterminesthefuture ITinfrastructurerequirementsfornewequipmentandadditional network

capacity?
a) Flexibility
b) Performance
c) Capacity planning
d) Benchmark

263 What automates business processes?

a) Workflow
b) ASP
c) Workflow system
d) EIP

264 What defines all of the steps or business rules, from beginning to end, required for a process to run
correctly?
a) Workflow
b) EIP
c) Workflow system
d) SLA

265 What sends work assignments through an e‐mail system?

a) Database‐based enterprise information portal
b) Messaging‐based enterprise information portal
c)Database‐based workflow system
d) Messaging‐based workflow system

266 Which will not harm computer resources

a) firewall
b) Virus
c) Trojan horse
d) None of the above

267 Which is not a function of ERP?

a) Warehousing
b) sales
c) scheduling
d) None of the above

268 Which is a function of ERP?

a) Warehousing
b) sales
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 c) scheduling
d) all of the above

269 Which of the following is the primary characteristic of an intranet?

a) Peopleoutsidetheorganization canaccessit
b) Peopleinsidetheorganizationcan'taccessit
c) People outside the organization can't access it
d) None of the above

270 Which conceptsuggests thatdifferent applications andcomputersystemsshouldbeableto

communicate with one another?
a) Integration
b) Web services
c) Scalability
d) Interoperability

271 Which service encompasses all technologies used to transmit and process information on an
across a network?
a) Interoperability
b) Scalability
c) Benchmarking
d) Web services

272 Which process can prevent data from lose due to computer problems or human errors?
a) backup
b) recovery
c) benchmarking
d) data cleansing

273 Which process is used toreinstall data froma copy when the original data has been lost?
a) backup
b) recovery
c) benchmarking
d) data cleansing

274 What describes a process of continuously measuring results and comparing those results to
optimal performance so that actual performance may be improved?
a) Performance
b) Capacity planning
c) Benchmarking
d) Data cleansing

275 Who protects system from external threats?

a) firewall
b) EDI
c) ERP
d) Script kiddies
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276 Whatissoftwarethatcomeshiddeninfreedownloadablesoftwareandtracksyour online
movements, mines the information stored on your computer, or uses your computer's CPU and
storage for some task you know nothing about?
a) Web log
b) Clickstream
c) Anonymous Web browsing service
d)None of the above

277 ERP stands for

a) Enterprise resolution planning
b) Enterprise reverse planning
c) Enterprise resource planning
d) None of the above

278 Which is not a component of ERP?

a) Legacy systems
b) Bolt on applications
c) Operational database
d) Cybersoft

279 Which is not a function of ERP?

a) Human resource management
b) financial
c) warehousing
d) None of the above

280 Whatis atype of virus thatspreads itself, not just from file to file, but from computer to
computer via e‐mail and other Internet traffic?
a) Computer virus
b) Worm
c) Denial‐of‐service attack
d) None of the above

281 1. What floods a Web site with so many requests for service that it slows down or crashes?
a. Computer virus
b. Worm
c. Denial‐of‐service attack
d. None of the above

282 What harnesses far‐flung computerstogether by way of the Internet or a virtual private network to share
CPU power, databases, and database storage?
a) Computer virus
b) Worm
c) Denial‐of‐service attack
d) None of the above
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283 Whatconsists of theidentification ofrisks or threats, theimplementationofsecurity measures, and the
monitoring of those measures for effectiveness?
a) Risk management
b) Risk assessment
c) Security
d) None of the above

284 Whatistheprocessofevaluating ITassets, their importancetotheorganization, andtheir

susceptibility to threats, to measure the risk exposure of these assets?
a) Risk management
b) Risk assessment
c) Security
d) None of the above

285 What is the process of making a copy of the information stored on a computer?
a) Backup
b) Anti‐virus
c) Firewall
d) Biometrics

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