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TEST 01

(President vs Governor + FR’s)

Time Allowed : 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 50

1.According to the Supreme Court, is the 'Rule of Law' as embodied in Article 14 a 'basic feature' of
the Indian Constitution?

a) Yes, and it can be destroyed by a constitutional amendment.

b) No, it is not a basic feature.

c) Yes, and it cannot be destroyed by an amendment.

d) It is only a basic feature in certain circumstances.

2.Which aspect of the 'Rule of Law' concept, as propounded by A.V. Dicey, is NOT applicable to the
Indian system?

a) Absence of arbitrary power

b) Equality before the law

c) Primacy of the rights of the individual

d) All three aspects are applicable to the Indian system

3.What is the significance of reasonable classification under Article 14?

a) It allows for arbitrary and artificial distinctions

b) It permits discrimination based on wealth and social status

c) It ensures that equals are always treated alike

d) It allows for classification based on intelligible differential and substantial distinction

4. Consider the following statements about the powers and functions of the President and the
Governor of India:

1. The President appoints the attorney general of India, while the Governor has no role in this
appointment.

2. Both the President and the Governor appoint the vice-chancellors of universities in states.

3. The President acts as the chancellor of central universities, whereas the Governor does not have a
similar role in state universities.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one


(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None of the above

5. With reference to the President and the Governor in India, consider the following statements:

1. During a President's rule in a state, the Governor enjoys extensive executive powers as an agent of
the President.

2. The Governor, like the President, can seek information relating to the administration of affairs
from the Chief Minister.

3. Both the President and the Governor can appoint the chief election commissioner and election
commissioners of states

How many of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None of the above

6. Regarding the financial powers of the Governor and the President in India, consider the following
statements

1. The Governor is responsible for ensuring that the state budget is presented before the state
legislature, a role similar to that of the President at the central level.

2.The Governor has the authority to constitute a finance commission for the state, similar to the
President's power for the Centre.

3. No demand for a grant in the state legislature can be made without the Governor's
recommendation, a power that is not mirrored by the President at the central level.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None of the above

7. Regarding the appointment powers in the judiciary of India, consider the following statements

1. The Governor makes appointments to the judicial service, Including district judges in consultation
with the state High Court and the State Public Service Commission.
2. The Governor appoints district judges in consultation with the president.

3. The President is involved in the appointment of district judges but not session and civil judges.

How many of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None of the above

8. Regarding the assent to bills by the President and Governor, consider the following statements

1. The Governor has the option to reserve a money bill for the consideration of the President.

2. Once a money bill is reserved by the Governor for the President's consideration, the Governor's
role in its enactment ends.

3. The President is bound to give his assent to a money bill reserved by the Governor.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None of the above

9. With reference to the ordinance-making power in India, consider the following statements:

1. An ordinance issued by the President has the same force and effect as an act of Parliament,
similar to the Governor's ordinance which has the same effect as an act of the state legislature.

2. The President can promulgate ordinances on subjects within the Union List only, while the
Governor can do so for subjects within the State List.

3. Ordinances issued by both the President and the Governor cease to operate after six weeks from
the reassembly of the respective legislatures.

many of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None of the above


10. What does Article 14 of the Indian Constitution primarily aim to establish?

a) Economic equality among citizens

b) Social equality among citizens

c) Equality of legal status, opportunity, and justice

d) Equal distribution of resources

11. Article 361-A provides protection in which of the following scenarios?

(a) Reporting false information about Parliament proceedings in a blog.

(b) Publishing a substantially true report of State Legislature proceedings in a newspaper.

(c) Broadcasting exaggerated accounts of Parliamentary proceedings on television.

(d) Publishing a true report of a confidential committee meeting of Parliament

12. Members of Parliament and State Legislatures are not liable for court proceedings in respect of:

(1) Financial decisions made outside parliamentary sessions.

(2) Speeches delivered and votes cast within Parliament or its committees.

(3) Comments made on social media about parliamentary proceedings.

(4) Speeches and votes in the State Legislature or its committees.

Which of the following statements are true?

a) 1 & 3

b) 2 & 4

c) 3 & 4

d) 1, 2 & 4

13. Consider the following:

(1) Article 31-C overrides Article 14 when it comes to laws implementing Directive Principles in
Article 39(b) and (c).

(2) Article 14 can be invoked to challenge laws under Article 31-C.

(3) The Supreme Court held that Article 14 is subordinate to Article 31-C.

(4) Article 31-C relates to economic policies unrelated to Article 14.

Which of the following statements correctly describe the relationship between Article 31-C and
Article 14 of the Indian Constitution?
a) 1 & 3

b) 2 & 4

c) 3 & 4

d) 1 & 4

14. Consider the following:

(1) Foreign tourists accused of minor offenses.

(2) Foreign sovereigns and diplomats from criminal and civil proceedings.

(3) Representatives of international NGOs.

(4) UNO and its agencies under diplomatic immunity.

Which of the following entities enjoy legal immunities in India?

a) 1 & 2

b) 2 & 4

c) 1 & 4

d) 3 & 4

15. Which of the following types of laws cannot be subjected to judicial review under Article 13 for
being inconsistent with the fundamental rights?

(1) Permanent laws enacted by Parliament.

(2) Ordinances issued by the President.

(3) Customary laws without legislative backing.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) None of the above

16. Under which Articles do the Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to declare laws
unconstitutional for violating fundamental rights?

(A) Article 32 for the Supreme Court and Article 226 for the High Courts.

(B) Article 32 for both the Supreme Court and High Courts.

(C) Article 226 for the Supreme Court and Article 32 for the High Courts.

(D) Article 36 for the Supreme Court and Article 42 for the High Courts.
17. As per Article 13, which of the following cannot be challenged for violating fundamental rights?

(1) A new tax introduced by an executive order.

(2) An international treaty signed by the government.

(3) A custom prevalent in a community for centuries.

(4) A bye-law created by a local municipal corporation.

18. According to the Kesavananda Bharati case, under what condition can a constitutional
amendment be declared void?

(A) If it is passed without a two-thirds majority in the Parliament.

(B) If it violates a fundamental right forming part of the Constitution's 'basic structure'.

(C) If it is not ratified by more than half of the State Legislatures.

(D) If it is related to the modification of Article 368.

19. Consider the following:

(1) They can be enforced against both State and private actions.

(2) They are only enforceable against the arbitrary action of the State.

(3) They include both rights that restrict State power and those that confer privileges on individuals.

(4) They are absolute and cannot be curtailed under any circumstances.

20. Which of the Above statements are true regarding the fundamental rights in the Indian
Constitution?

a) 1, 3

b) 1, 2

c) 2, 4

d) 3, 4

21. Regarding the enforcement of fundamental rights, which of the following is/are true?

(A) Individuals can approach the Supreme Court directly for their enforcement.

(B) Fundamental rights can only be enforced through High Courts.

(C) The Supreme Court defends and guarantees fundamental rights but does not enforce them.
(D) Violations of fundamental rights can be challenged in any lower court.

22. The Parliament's power to amend fundamental rights is characterized by which of the following?

(A) Fundamental rights can be amended by an ordinary legislative process.

(B) Any amendment to fundamental rights must preserve the 'basic structure' of the Constitution.

(C) Fundamental rights are sacrosanct and cannot be amended.

(D) Amendments to fundamental rights require ratification by a majority of state legislatures.

23. Consider the following statements:

(1) They are permanent and unchangeable aspects of the Constitution.

(2) Some fundamental rights are negative, placing limitations on the State's authority.

(3) All fundamental rights are positive, providing certain privileges to individuals.

(4) They can be curtailed or repealed only through a constitutional amendment.

Which of the above mentioned statements correctly describe the nature of fundamental rights in
India?

a) 1 & 4

b) 2 & 3

c) 1 & 3

d) 2 & 4

24. Under what circumstances can an aggrieved person directly approach the Supreme Court for a
violation of fundamental rights?

(A) Only after exhausting all remedies in lower courts.

(B) Directly, without necessarily going through the High Court.

(C) Only in cases involving the violation of Article 21.

(D) When the violation involves actions of the Central Government.

25. What are the key characteristics of fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution?

(i) They are available against the arbitrary action of the state.

(ii) Some of them are against the actions of private individuals.

(iii) They are primarily negative in character, limiting the authority of the State.
(iv) They are non-justiciable, preventing individuals from seeking legal remedies.

(v) They are defended and guaranteed by the High Courts.

(vi) Aggrieved persons must always go through the High Courts before approaching the Supreme
Court.

(vii) They are sacrosanct and cannot be amended or repealed.

(viii) Parliament can curtail or repeal them through an ordinary legislative act.

(ix) Amending fundamental rights does not impact the 'basic structure' of the Constitution.

Select the correct combination of statements from the options below:

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (vi), (vii), (viii)

(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi), (ix)

(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)

(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (vii), (viii), (ix)

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