Vivekananda School of Law and Legal Studies (VSLLS)

Subject: Constitutional Law-II

MCQ Question Bank June 2021

Unit-1

1. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the fundamental rights? 

A) Part I

B) Part II

C) Part III

D) Part IV

Ans : C) Part III

2. Which article Indian constitution prevents the state from making discrimination?

A) Article 12

B) Article 14

C) Article 15

D) Article 17

Ans : C) Article 15

3. Which article of Indian Constitution confers the freedom of speech and expression? 

A) Article 14

B) Article 17

C) Article 19

D) Article 22
 Ans : C) Article 19

4. How many articles deals with the fundamental rights of Indian Constitution? 

A) 21

B) 23

C) 24

D) 30

Ans : C) 24

5. Who is the guardian of fundamental rights?

A) President of India

B) Loksabha

C) Supreme Court of India

D) PrimeMinister of India

Ans : C) Supreme Court of India

6. By whom writs can be issued for the enforcement of fundamental rights? 

A) the supreme court

B) the president

C) the parliament

D) the Prime Minister

Ans : C)  the parliament

7. Clause (4) of Article 13 of the Indian Constitution says, “Nothing in this Article shall
apply to any amendment of this Constitution made under Article 368 of the Indian
Constitution”. Clause (4) has been inserted by which of the following Amendment
Acts?
I. 22nd Amendment Act
II. 21st Amendment Act
 III. 24th Amendment Act
IV. 23rd Amendment Act
Ans. III

8. Article 18 of the Indian Constitution gives the provision of ‘Abolition’ of Titles’.

Which of the following are the provisions under Abolition of Titles?
I. No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be
conferred by the state
II. No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign state
III. No person who is not a citizen of India shall, while he holds any
office of profit or trust under the State, accept without the consent of
the President any title from any foreign state
IV. All of them
Ans. IV

9. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides ‘Protection of

certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.’ to Indian citizens?
I. Article 18 (2)
II. Article 18 (1)
III. Article 19
IV. Article 20
Ans. III

10. Fundamental Rights under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution are conferred on:
I. Indian citizens
II. All persons living within Indian Territory
III. Foreigners also
IV. All of them
Ans. I

11. Which of the following statements regarding nature of the rights that are guaranteed
by Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is confined to what are known
as civil rights as distinguished from political rights such as the right
to vote or to hold any political office, or the privileges of a chamber
of the legislation.
II. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution refers to what are known as
natural or common law rights as distinguished from rights which are
created by a statute and must be exercised subject to conditions
imposed by it.
III. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution does not include the right to life.
A.I and II
B.II and III
 C.I and III
D.I, II and III
Ans. D

12. In determining the substantive reasonableness, the Court has to take into consideration
various factors. Which of the following points have to be satisfied in order to adjudge
the restriction to be ‘reasonable’?
I. The restriction must have a rational connection with the object
sought to be achieved by the law
II. The restriction imposed must not be in excess of the mischief sought
to be prevented or the object sought to be achieved by the law
III. Both (A) and (B)
IV. Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. III

13. Which of the following principles and guidelines should be kept in mind for
considering the constitutionality of a statutory provision upon a challenge on the
alleged vice of unreasonableness of the restriction imposed by it?
I. The restriction sought to be imposed on the Fundamental Rights
guaranteed by Article 19 of the Indian Constitution must not be
arbitrary or of an excessive nature so as to go beyond the
requirement of felt need of the society and object sought to be
achieved
II. There must be a direct and proximate nexus or a reasonable
connection between the restriction imposed and the object sought to
be achieved
III. No abstract or fixed principle can be laid down which may have
universal application in all cases
IV. All of them
Ans. IV

14. Which of the following statements regarding Freedom of the Press is/are found to be
correct?
I. This freedom cannot be claimed by a newspaper or other publication
run by a non-citizen.
II. The freedom of Press, under our Constitution, is not higher than the
freedom of an ordinary citizen is subject to the same limitations as
are imposed by Article 19(2) of the Indian Constitution and to those
limitations only.
A.Both are correct
B.Both are incorrect
C.Only I
D.Only II
Ans. A
15. Which of the following Amendment Acts empowers the Court to adjudge the
reasonableness of a restriction imposed even on the right guaranteed by Article 19(1)
A of the Indian Constitution?
I. First Amendment Act
II. Second Amendment Act
III. Third Amendment Act
IV. Fourth Amendment Act
Ans. I
16. Clause (1) B. of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the freedom of
citizens to meet with each other in any number provided the assembly is
I. Peaceable
II. Unarmed
III. Large
IV. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. IV

17. Which of the following statements regarding Freedom of Association is/are found to
be correct?
I. The right guaranteed by 19 (1) C is an ordinary right which is
enjoyed by all citizens to form associations.
II. It has no reference to a right which is conferred by a particular statute
to act as a member of a body which is the creation of the statute
itself.
A. I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D.Neither I nor II
Ans. A

18. Which of the following restrictions on Freedom of Association is/are considered to be

unreasonable?
I. Government cannot make it obligatory for every employee to
become a member of an association sponsored by the Government
II. A restriction on this freedom which may remain in force for an
indefinite period at the pleasure of the executive authorities is an
unreasonable restriction
III. Where those who have a right to form an association will be kept
away and the society shall be run by a group of persons nominated
by the Government, there is a virtual deprivation of the right to
association
IV. All of them
Ans. IV
19. By which of the following clauses, the right to Freedom of movement is granted to
Indian citizens?
I. Article 19(1) C
II. Article 19(1) B
III. Article 19(1) A
IV. Article 19(1) D
Ans. IV

20. Surveillance is needed for the legitimate purpose of prevention of crime and its
process must necessarily be confidential. In which of the following situations the
court may interfere in the police surveillance?
I. Where it is sought to be used for a purpose other than the detection
of crime.
II. Where the surveillance is as excessive as to squeeze out the
fundamental freedoms of all citizens or to offend the dignity of the
individual.
A.Only I
B.Only II
C.I and II
D.Neither I nor II
Ans. C

21. Which of the following statements regarding Freedom of Residence is/are found to be
correct?
I. Since the rights under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution are
available only to a citizen, a person cannot complain of the
infringement of his right under the sub clause (1) (e) if his citizenship
has been terminated by a law made by Parliament, under Article 11.
II. It is not available to a foreigner.
A.Neither I nor II
B.I and II
C.Only I
D. Only II
Ans. B

22. Which of the following expression is/are employed under Article 19(1) (g) of the
Indian Constitution?
I. Profession
II. Occupation
III. Trade and Business
IV. All of them
Ans. IV
23. Who headed the committee on fundamental and minority rights appointed by the
constituent assembly?

A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

B) BR Ambedkar

C) JB kripalani

D) Justice Sapru

Ans : A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

24. Part III of the Indian Constitution deals with which of the following terms?
I. Citizenship
II. Union Government
III. Fundamental Duties
IV. Fundamental Rights

Ans. IV
25. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. The fundamental rights cannot be taken away by any legislation.
II. Legislation can only impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of
the right.

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. None of above

Ans. C
26. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. All laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of
this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of this part,
shall to the extent of such inconsistency, be void. (Article 13(1) Indian Constitution)

II. The state shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred
by this part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the
contravention, be void.

I. I and II
II. both are incorrect
 III. only I
IV. only II

Ans. I
27. Clause (4) of Article 13 of the Indian Constitution says, “Nothing in this Article shall
apply to any amendment of this Constitution made under Article 368 of the Indian
Constitution”. Clause (4) has been inserted by which of the following Amendment
Acts?
I. 22nd Amendment Act
II. 21st Amendment Act
III. 24th Amendment Act
IV. 23rd Amendment Act

Ans. III

28. Who, among the following, can challenge the constitutionality of a law?
I. No one but whose rights is directly affected by a law can raise the question of the
constitutionality of the law.

II. A person who is not possessed of a fundamental right cannot challenge the validity of
a law on the ground that it is inconsistent with a fundamental right.

III. A person who challenges the constitutionality of a statute must show that he is
sustaining some direct injury as the result of enforcement of the statute.

I. I and II
II. I, II and III
III. II and III
IV. I and III

Ans. II
29. Clause (4) of Article 13 the Indian Constitution which were inserted by the
24th Amendment Act, 1971, states that a Constitution Amendment Act, passed
according to Article 368, Indian Constitution is a law within the meaning of Article
13 and would, accordingly be void if it contravenes a fundamental right. This
amendment was declared void in which of the following cases?
I. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
II. Edward Mills Co. ltd. v. State of Ajmer
III. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
IV. Ghulam Sarwar v. Union of India

Ans. III
30. Which of the following equalities is/are included in the Right to Equality?
I. Equality before Law
 II. Equal Protection of Laws
III. Equal Pay for equal work
IV. All of them

Ans. IV

31. Which of the following is an essential part of rule of law and independence of
Judiciary?
I. Judicial Review
II. Impartial appointment of Judges
III. Impeachment
IV. Original Jurisdiction

Ans. I
32. Where there is a conflict between law and equity, it is the ____ which has to prevail?
I. Law
II. Equity
III. Both (A) and (B)
IV. None of them

Ans. I
33. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is considered as the heart
of the Constitution as it confers right to life as well as right to choose?
I. Article 19
II. Article 21
III. Article 14
IV. Article 15

Ans. II

34. Under right to equality, prohibition or discrimination on grounds of religion, race,

caste, sex or place of birth is the basis of which of the following Articles of the Indian
Constitution?
I. Article 14
II. Article 16
III. Article 15
IV. Article 15(2)

Ans. III
35. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?
I. Discrimination on the ground of residence will be invalid under Article 14 of the
Indian Constitution where it is not founded on a reasonable classification.
 II. ‘Residence’ cannot be a ground for disqualifying a person for appointment under
a state, unless Parliament so prescribes under Article 16(3).

i. Only I
ii. Only II
iii. None of them
iv. Both I and II

Ans. iv

36. A Scheduled Caste is not a ‘caste’ within the meaning of that word in Article. 15(1)
and 16(2) of the Indian Constitution. It has a special meaning, namely, a caste as
notified by the________ under Article 366 (25) of the Indian Constitution having
regard to their abysmal backwardness.
I. Parliament
II. Governor
III. President
IV. Supreme Court

Ans. III

37. In making reservations for the backward classes, the state cannot ignore the _____ of
the rest of the citizens.
I. Civil Rights
II. Political Rights
III. Economic Rights
IV. Fundamental Rights

Ans. IV

38. ‘Equality of opportunity in matter of public employment’ is the basic content of

which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
I. Article 16
II. Article 17
III. Article 15(2)
IV. Article 16(4)

Ans. I

39. By which amendment of the constitution, the Word ‘Socialist’ was incorporated in the
preamble of the constitution?

(A) 24th Amendment

 (B) 25th Amendment

(C) 42nd Amendment

(D) 44th Amendment

Ans: C. 42nd Amendment

40. Which one of the following committees recommended the inclusion of fundamental
duties in the Indian Constitution?

(A) Swarn Singh Committee

(B) Barua Committee

(C) Sikri Committee

(D) Ramaswamy Committee

A. Swaran Singh Committe

41. Clause (1) and (2) of Article 16 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality of
opportunity to all citizens in the matter of appointment to any office or of any other
employment under the state. However, clauses (3)-(5) lay down the following several
exceptions to the rule of equality.
I. Though any citizen of India, irrespective of his residence, is eligible for any office or
employment under the Government of India [Clause (2)] residence may be laid down
as a condition for particular classes of employment under a state or any local authority
therein, by an Act of Parliament in the behalf [Clause (3)].

II. The State (as defined in Article 12) may reserve any post or appointment in favor of
any backward class of citizens who, in the opinion of the State, are not adequately
represented in the services under the state [Clause (4)].

Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?

I. I and II
II. Only I
III. Only II
IV. None of them

Ans. I
 42. Which one of the following Fundamental Right is available in rem?

A. Right against exploitation

B. Right to freedom

C. Right to equality

D. Right to constitutional remedies

Ans. A

43. Which of the following statements is incorrect.

A. The concept of Fundamental Rights are borrowed from American Constitution where
they are found in the Bill of Rights.

B. If Fundamental Rights are violated the aggrieved individual can approach the
Supreme Court of India directly.

C. The Supreme Court of India can issue the Writs in defence of Fundamental rights as
well as for other rights outside Part III of the constitution.

D. Fundamental Rights include individual & group rights are common to most liberal
democracies.

Ans. C

44. With respect to the Fundamental Rights, consider the following statements:

(i) Right to Property was deleted from the list of fundamental rights by the 44th Amendment
Act, 1978.

(ii) Right to Elementary Education is available to the citizens of India only.

(iii) Article 19 protects the citizen’s right to move in and out of the country.

Which of the given statements is not correct?

A. a. 1 and 2 only

B. b. 2 and 3 only
 C. c. 1 and 3 only

D. d. All of the above

Ans: B

45. Which of the following fundamental right does not fall under the category of ‘Right to
Freedom ’:

A. Freedom of Profession

B. Freedom to manage religious affairs

C. Protection of life and personal liberty

D. Freedom of speech & expression

Ans: B

46. In which part of the Indian Constitution, the Fundamental rights are provided?

A. Part II

B. Part III

C. Part V

D. Part IV

Ans. B

47. The Supreme Court of India formulated the doctrine of eclipse in

a) Bhikaji Narain Dhakras Vs State of M.P.

b) Bashesharnath Vs Income Tax Commissioner.

c) State of W.B. Vs Anwar Ali Sarkar

d) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India

Answer: (A)

48. In which following cases Doctrine of waiver was discussed and was held as not
recognised in the Indian Constitution?

a) Bhikaji Narain Dhakras Vs State of M.P.

b) Basheshar Nath v. CIT

c) Keshavan Madhava Menon v/s State of Bombay

d) None of the above

Answer: B

49. Equality is antithetic to arbitrariness. It is a dynamic concept with many aspects and
dimensions and it cannot be “cribbed cabined and confined” within traditional and
doctrinaire limits. This new approach regarding equality was developed by the Supreme
Court in which of the following case:

a) Maneka Gandhi v Union of India

b) E.P. Royappa v State of Tamil Nadu

c) Chiranjit Lal Chowdhury v Union of India

d) None of the above

Answer: B
50. Article 14 prohibits class legislation, but it does not forbid reasonable classification for
the purposes of legislation. Which case is not related to the same doctrine?

a) Chiranjit Lal Chowdhury v Union of India

b) Ram Krishan Dalmia v Justice S.R. Tendolkar

c) Kathi Raning Rawat vs. State of Saurashtra

d) All of the above

Answer: D

51. After which of the following Supreme Court decisions was the special provision for
socially and educationally backward classes in Art. 15 was introduced by an Amendment
in the Constitution?

a) M.R Balaji v. State of Mysore

b) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan

c) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India

d) Indira Sawney v. Union of India

Answer: B

52. Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of

a) Religion, race and caste only.

b) Religion, caste and sex only.

c) Religion, caste, sex and place of birth only.

d) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

Answer: (D)
53. Provision related to Reservation in the Constitution falls in the following category:

a) Enabling provision for State

b) Fundamental right of Citizen

c) Directive Principle of State policy

d) None of the above

Answer: A

54. Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added to the Constitution by

a) The Constitution First Amendment Act.

b) The Constitution Second Amendment Act

c) The Constitution Fourth Amendment Act.

d) The Constitution Sixth Amendment Act.

Answer: (A)

55. Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in
favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the

a) 75th Amendment to the Constitution of India.

b) 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.

c) 77th Amendment to the Constitution of India.

d) 78th Amendment to the Constitution of India.

 Answer: (C)

56. “Creamy Layer” rule excluding the well placed members of a case from reservation was
first laid down in the case of:

a) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India

b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

c) Indira Sawney v. Union of India

d) Minerva Mills v. Union of India

Answer: C

57. Untouchability Offence Act 1955 was renamed as “The Protection of Civil Rights Act
1955” in (a) 1972

(b) 1977

(c) 1976

(d) 1955

Answer: C

58. The freedom of speech and expression and the freedom to practice any profession or
carry on any trade, business or occupation over the medium of internet enjoys
constitutional protection under Article 19(1) (a) and Article 19(1)(g).

a) The Secretary, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting v Cricket Association of

Bengal

b) Bennett Coleman & Co. v. Union of India

c) R. P. Ltd. v. Proprietors Indian Express Newspapers, Bombay Pvt. Ltd.

d) Anuradha Bhasin v. Union Of India And Ors.

Answer: D

59. Freedom of Speech and Expression is subject to certain limitations provided in:

a) Article 19(6)

b) Article 19(2)

c) Article 19 (3)

d) Article 19 (4)

Answer: B

60. Dr. Ambedkar termed Article 32 of the Indian Constitution as the “Heart and Soul of the
Indian Constitution”. Which one of the following fundamental right it contains?

A. Right to freedom

B. Right to constitutional remedies

C. Right to elementary education

D. Right to freedom of religion

Answer: B

Unit-2

61. Which Amendment Act delete the right to property from part 3 of the constitution of
India? 
 A) 42nd amendment

B) 44th amendment 

C) 73rd amendment

D) 74th amendment

Ans : B) 44th Amendment

62. During whose Prime Ministership right to property eliminated from the list of
fundamental rights? 

E) Charan Singh

F) Rajiv Gandhi

G) Indira Gandhi

H) Morarji Desai

Ans : D) Morarji Desai

63. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution the right to compulsory
acquisition of property was mentioned before its deletion?
I. Article 30(1)
II. Article 31
III. Article 32
IV. Article 30(2)
Ans. II

64. Which of the following clauses is/are covered under Article 20 of the Indian
Constitution?
I. No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in
force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence.
II. No person shall be prosecuted and punished (of the same offence more than
once.
III. No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against
himself.
i.Only I
ii.II and III
iii.I and III
iv.I, II and III
 Ans. iv

65. Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution is about “accused’s immunity from being
compelled to be a witness against himself”. This clause gives protection:
i. To a person accused of an offence
ii. Against compulsion to be a witness
iii. Against himself
iv. All of them
Ans. IV

66. Which of the following is/are an essential ingredient of the clause (3) of Article 20 of the
Indian Constitution?
v. Compulsion
vi. Confession
vii. Prohibition
viii. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. I

67. Which of the following statements regarding protection of personal liberty is/are found to
be correct?
I. The object of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is to prevent encroachment
upon personal liberty by the Executive save in accordance with law and in
conformity with the provisions thereof.
II. Before a person is deprived of his life or personal liberty the procedure
established by law must be strictly followed and must not be departed from to
the disadvantage of the person affected.
i. I and II
ii. Only I
iii. Only II
iv. None of above

Ans. i

68. The protection of the Article 21 extends to which of the following?

ix. Citizens
x. All persons
xi. Foreigners
xii. Persons under imprisonment
Ans. II

69. Which of the following can be included in Right to life under Article 21 of the Indian
Constitution?
I Right of a person not to be subjected to bonded labour or to unfair conditions of labour.
II. Right of a bonded labourer to rehabilitation after release.
 III. Right to a decent environment and a reasonable accommodation.
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
Ans. A

70. In which of the cases, domiciliary visit by the Police without the authority of a law, was
held to be violative of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution assuming that a right of
privacy was a fundamental right derived from the freedom of movement guaranteed by
Article 19 (1) d of the Indian Constitutional as well as personal liberty guaranteed by
Article 21?
i. Kharak Singh v. State of U.P
ii. Govind v. State of M.P
iii. Neera Mathur v. L.I.C
Ans. i

71. Which of the following statements regarding reasonableness of a penal law is/are found to
be correct?
I. A procedure which was ‘arbitrary, oppressive or fanciful’ was no ‘procedure’ at all.
II. A procedure which was unreasonable could not be said to be in conformity with
Article 14, because the concept of reasonableness permeated that Article in toto.
i. I and II
ii. Only I
iii. Only II
iv. None of them
Ans. i

72. ‘Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases’ is mentioned in which of the
following Articles of the Indian Constitution?
v. Article 21
vi. Article 21A
vii. Article 22
viii. Article 22A
Ans. ii

73. Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct?

I. The person arrested has a right to consult a legal advisor of his own choice, ever since
the moment of his arrest and also to have effective interview with the lawyer out of the
hearing of the police, though it may be within their presence.
II. The right extends to any person who is arrested, whether under the general law or
under a special statute.
i. Only I
 ii. Only II
iii. I and II
iv. None of them
Ans. iii

74. Which of the following is mentioned in clause (2) of Article 22 of the Indian
Constitution?
i. The right to consult legal practitioner
ii. Right to be defended by a legal practitioner
iii. Right to be produced before the nearest magistrate
iv. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. iii

75. The right to make a representation against the order of detention is the most cherished and
valuable right conferred upon a detenu under Article_______________ of the Indian
Constitution and if there has been any infraction of such right the detenu is entitled to be
released.
i. 22(2)
ii. 22(3)
iii. 22(4)
iv. 22(5)
Ans. iv

76. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour comes under which of the
following fundamental rights?
i. Right to freedom
ii. Right against exploitation
iii. Right to education and culture
iv. Right to constitutional remedies
Ans. ii

77. ‘Labour or service exacted by Government or a person in power without giving

remuneration for it’ is termed as:
i. Forced labour
ii. Begar
iii. Unemployed
iv. None of them
Ans. ii
78. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states. ‘No child below the
age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any
other hazardous employment?
i. Article 22
ii. Article 22(2)
iii. Article 23
iv. Article 24
Ans. iv

79. Right to Freedom of Religion’ is contained in which of the following Articles of the
Indian Constitution?
i. Article 25-28
ii. Article 29-30
iii. Article 32
iv. Article 19-22
Ans. i

80. Nothing in Article 25 of the Indian Constitution shall affect the operation of any existing
law or prevent the state from making any law:-

I. Regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity

which may be associated with religious practice.
II. Providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious
institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
Which of the above statements is/are found to correct?
i. Both are incorrect
ii. Both are correct
iii. Only I
iv. Only II
Ans. ii

81. Under Article 26 of the Indian Constitution, subject to public order, morality and health
every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right:
i. To establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purpose
ii. To manage its own affairs in matters of religion
iii. To own and acquire movable and immovable property
iv. All of them
Ans. iv

82. Which of the following statements regarding Right of religious denomination under is/are
found to be correct?
I. This Article does not take away the right of the State to acquire property belonging
to a religious denomination.
II. This Article does not create rights in any denomination or a section which it never
had.
III. Article 25(1) states that all persons are entitled to freedom of religion.
i. I and II
ii. II and III
iii. I, II and III
iv. I and III
Ans. iii

83. ‘Freedom as to attendance at religions instruction or religious worship in certain

educational institutions is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian
Constitution?
i. Article 27
ii. Article 27(1)
iii. Article 28
iv. Article 26
Ans. iii

84. Articles 29-30 of the Indian Constitution confers which of the following distinct rights?
i. Right of any section of citizens to conserve its own language, script or culture
ii. Right to all religious or linguistic minorities to establish and administer educational
institutions of their choice
iii. Right of an educational institution not to be discriminated against in the matter of state aid on
the ground that it is under management of a minority
iv. All of them
Ans. iv

85. . Which of the following conditions for the applications of clause (1) of Article 30 of the
Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
In order to claim the benefit of Article 30 (1), the community must show (I) that it is a
religious or linguistic minority and (II) that the institution was establish by it. (III) If an
institution has been brought into being by a minority community it matters not if the
funds have been supplied by a single individual or by the community at large, or whether
members outside that community are also taking advantage of the institution.
i. Only I
ii. Only II
iii. Both I and II
iv. None of them
iii

86. The right to administrator may be said to consist of which of the following rights?
I. To choose its managing or governing body.
II. Not to be compelled to refuse admission to students.
III. To use its properties and assets for the benefit of the institution.
i. I and II
ii. I and III
iii. I and III
iv. I, II and III
Ans. iv
 87. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution the right to compulsory
acquisition of property was mentioned before its deletion?
i. Article 30(1)
ii. Article 31
iii. Article 32
iv. Article 30(2)
Ans. ii

88. Sub-clause (1) A of Article 31A of the Indian Constitution applies in which of the
following contingencies?
i. Acquisition of an estate
ii. Extinguishment of rights in an estate
iii. Modification of rights in an estate
iv. All of them
Ans. Iv

89. “No person shall be deprived of life and personal liberty except according to procedure
established by law” has been provided under which Article ?

A. Article 20

B. Article 21

C. Article 22

D. Article 23

Ans. B.

90. What was the view taken in A K Gopalan v. State of Madras, 1950 with regard to inter se
interpretation of different Articles of the Constitution of India contained in the chapter on
Fundamental Rights?

A. Fundamental Rights are mutually exclusive and that different articles

guarantee distinct rights.

B. Fundamental Rights are interdependent and that different articles guarantee

distinct rights.

C. Fundamental Rights are interdependent and some articles provide overlapping

rights.

D. None of the above

Ans. A
91. Validity of which Ordinance/Act came up for consideration in Rustam Cavasjee Cooper
v. Union of India, 1970 and with what result?

A. The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings)

Ordinance, 1969 and the Act, 1969 which replaced the Ordinance was
successfully challenged.

B. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

C. Both A & B

D. None of the above

Ans. A

92. What was the view taken in Rustam Cavasjee Cooper with regard to inter se interpretation
of different Articles of the Constitution of India contained in the chapter on Fundamental
Rights?

A. Part III of the Constitution containing Fundamental Rights does not attempt to
enunciate distinct rights.

B. Fundamental Rights are mutually exclusive and that different articles

guarantee distinct rights.

C. Fundamental Rights are interdependent and that different articles guarantee

distinct rights.

D. Both A and C

Ans. A

93. What was the issue before the Court in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, 1978?

A. Petitioner’s case was for issuance of a writ of certiorari as her passport was
impounded.

B. Petitioner’s case was for issuance of a writ of prohibition as her passport was
impounded.
 C. Both A & B

D. None of the above

Ans. A

94. What is the nature of the procedure required to be prescribed under Art 21 post Maneka
Gandhi?

A. It must have regard to the impact of Art 14 on Art 21

B. The procedure must be ‘right and just and fair’

C. It must not be arbitrary, fanciful or oppressive

D. All of the above

Ans. D

95. In which case, did a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court come to hold that access to
justice is indeed a facet of right to life guaranteed under Art 21 of the Constitution?

A. Anita Kushwaha v. Pushap Sudan, 2016

B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, 1978

C. Anita Thakur v. State of Jammu & Kashmir, 2016

D. Lalita Kumari v. Govt. of U.P., 2014

Ans. A
96. By which judgement, the Supreme Court ruled that twin conditions for grant of bail
where an offence punishable for a term of imprisonment of more than 3 years under Part
A of the Schedule to the Act is involved, imposed by Section 45 (1) of the Prevention of
Money Laundering Act, 2002 was hit by Article 21 amongst other. [The conditions are
that the Public Prosecutor must be given an opportunity to oppose any application for
release on bail and the Court must be satisfied, where the Public Prosecutor opposes the
bail application, that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the accused is not
guilty of such offence, and that he is not likely to commit any offence while on bail.

A. Nikesh Tarachand Shah v. Union of India, 2017

B. Anita Thakur v. State of Jammu & Kahmir, 2016

C. Lalita Kumari v. Govt. of U.P., 2014

D. Common Cause v. Union of India, 2018

Ans. A

97. State the findings recorded by 9 Judge Bench in Justice K S Puttaswamy (Retd) v. Union
of India, 2017.

A. The right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and
personal liberty under Art 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part
III of the Constitution.

B. The right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and
personal liberty under Art 19 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part
III of the Constitution.

C. Both A & B

D. None of the above

Ans. A

98. In the above mentioned case which of the following are indicated options for limiting the
right to privacy, as provided by Chelameswar, J in his separate concurring judgement:

A. An Art 14 type reasonableness enquiry

 B. Limitation as per the express provisions of Art 19

C. A just, fair and reasonable basis (that is, substantive due process) for limitation
per Art 21

D. A just, fair and reasonable standard per Art 21 plus the standard of
‘compelling State interest’.

E. All of the above

Ans. E

99. Which of the following is a case concerning ‘Euthanasia’?

A. P. Rathinam (1994)

B. Gian Kaur (1996)

C. Aruna Shaubaug (2011)

D. Common Cause (2018)

E. All of the above

Ans. E

100. Passive Euthanasia DOES NOT include:

A. A lethal injection given to a person with terminal cancer who is in terrible

agony.

B. Withdrawing of life support measures

C. Withholding of medical treatment for continuance of life, Withholding of

antibiotics in case of a patient where death is likely to occur as a result of not
giving the said antibiotics

D. Removal of the heart lung machine from a patient in coma.

Ans. A

101. State the principle laid down by a Constitution Bench in Common Cause v. Union of
India, 2018.

A. Right to life and liberty as envisaged under Article 21 includes within it the
right to live with dignity
 B. Right to live with dignity also includes the smoothening of the process of
dying in case of a terminally ill patient or a person in Permanently Vegetative
State with no hope of recovery;

C. Execution of Advance Directive with safeguards and guidelines can be

permitted in case of such persons and the said directive and guidelines shall
remain in force till the Parliament brings a legislation in the field.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

102. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases does not apply to:

A. Any person who for the time being is an enemy alien

B. Any person who is arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive
detention.

C. Both A & B

D. None of the above

Ans. C

103. Who is competent to make a law for preventive detention?

A. Parliament only

B. State Legislatures only

C. Both Parliament and State Legislatures

Ans. C

104. A law providing for preventive detention shall not authorize the detention of a person
beyond……..?

A. Three Months

B. Three Months unless certain conditions are satisfied

C. Twelve Months

D. Two Months

Ans. B
105. Which sub-article contains the most important safeguard for a person detained under
preventive detention?

A. Article 22(5)

B. Article 22(4)

C. Article 22(3)

D. Article 22(6)

Ans. A

106. The delay in considering the representation by a detenu render the detention order is
bad when:

A. The delay is not explained to the satisfaction of the Court

B. The delay is explained satisfactorily

C. The test is not the duration or range of delay, but how it is explained by the
authority concerned

D. Both A & C

Ans. D

107. Which of the following is a ground which could be taken to assail the detention order?

A. Delay in passing the order of detention

B. Non-application of mind by the detaining authority

C. Supply of documents in a language which the detenu did not understand

D. All of the above

Ans. D

108. ‘A’ allegedly commits an offence which could attract punishment under a penal law.
Could the State detain him under a preventive detention law?

A. Yes
 B. No

Ans. B

109. Is there any prohibition in law to pass the detention order even if a person is in jail in
connection with some criminal case?
A. Yes

B. No

C. No. However, the authority passing the order must be aware of the fact that he
is actually in custody and must have reason to believe on the basis of reliable
material placed before him (a) that there is a real possibility of his being
released on bail, and (b) on being so released he would in all probability
indulge in prejudicial activity and that it is felt essential to detain him to
prevent him from so doing.

Ans. C
110. “Autrefois Acquit and autrefois Convict” is related to:
a) Retrospective operators
b) Double Jeopardy
c) Ex post facto law
d) Self-incrimination

Answer: B

111. Forcible administration of scientific techniques/tests like narco analysis, Brain

Electrical Activation Profile (BEAP) test and Polygraph test, during the course of
investigation would be an unjustified intrusion into mental privacy and would be violative
of the “right against self-incrimination”. In Which of the following cases, It was held so:
a) State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad
b) Selvi v State of Karnataka
c) M. P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra
d) None of the above

Answer: B

112. "Procedure established by law" has been borrowed from which of the following
constitutions?
a) American Constitution
b) British Constitution
c) Japanese Constitution
d) Irish Constitution
 Answer: C

113. In which of the following cases the rule of “Golden triangle” between Articles 14, 19
&21 was discussed?
a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
b) Indira Sawney v. Union of India
c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
a) None of the above

Answer: A

114. Which of the following judgements is related to “Right to Food” as part of article 21?
a) PUCL v. Union of India and others
b) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India, 1991 SCC (2) 353
c) Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka
d) None of the above

Answer: A

115. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation, AIR 1986 SC 18 is related to which of
the following rights as part of Article 21 of the Constitution?
a) Right to Food
b) Right to Healthy and Clean Environment
c) Right to Livelihood
d) Right to Clean water

Answer: C

116. Right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral part of personal liberty in Art. 21.
In which of the following cases, it was held so?
a) Maneka Gandhi v Union of India
b) Shafin Jahan v. K.M. Ashokan & Ors
c) People’s Union for Civil Liberties v Union of India
d) Kharak Singh v State of UP

Answer: B

117. Right to privacy is contained in:

a) Article 22
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 22
 Answer: C

118. Which article of the Constitution deals with Prohibition of Child Labour?
e) Article 23
f) Article 24
g) Article 18
h) Article 27
Answer: B
119. Without paying proper remuneration, labour taken from the prisoners is ‘forced
labour’ and violation of
a) Art. 20 of the Constitution of India
b) Art. 21 of the Constitution of India
c) Art. 22 of the Constitution of India
d) Art. 23 of the Constitution of India

Answer: D

120. Communalism is opposed to

i) Secular credential
j) ethnic conflict
k) friendship between class
l) All of the above

Answer: A

121. In which of the following cases, the Court laid down test for determining ‘’Essential
Religious Practice’’?
m) Commissioner Hindu Religious Endowments v Sri. Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar
( famous known as Shirur Mutt case)
n) Amna Bint Basheer and Anr v. CBSE and Anr
o) Shayara Bano v. Union of India and others
p) Commissioner Of Police & Ors vs Acharya J. Avadhuta And Anr

Answer: D

122. The word ‘Secular’ was added in the Preamble to the Constitution of India by
a) First Amendment Act
b) Seventh Amendment Act
c) Forty-Second Amendment Act
d) Forty-Fourth Amendment Act

Answer: (C)
123. What are the grounds subject to which all persons are equally entitled to freedom of
conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion?

A. Public order

B. Morality

C. Health

D. Other provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India

E. All of the above

Ans. E

124. What is the precise meaning or connotation of the expression ‘religious

denomination’?

A. The word ‘denomination’ is ‘a collection of individuals classed together under

the same name

B. A ‘religious denomination’ is a religious sect or body having a common faith

and organisation and designated by a distinctive name.

C. Both A & B

D. None of the above

Ans. C

125. Whether the rights of a religious denomination to manage its own affairs in matters of
religion under Art 26(b) can be subjected to, and controlled by, a law protected by Art
25(2)(b), throwing open a Hindu public temple to all classes and sections of Hindus?

A. No

B. Yes

C. Yes, as per the law laid down in Sri Venkataramana Devaru v. The St of
Mysore, 1958, by a harmonious reading of both the provisions.

Ans. C

126. What is the test to determine whether a given religious practice is an essential and
integral part of the religion or not?
 A. Whether it is regarded as such by the community following the religion.

B. Whether it is regarded as such by society.

C. Whether it is regarded as such by the community not following the religion.

Ans. A

127. What is the leading authority for the proposition that secularism is a basic feature of
our Constitution?

A. S R Bommai v. Union of India, 1994

B. Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala, 1973

C. Both A & B

D. None of the above

Ans. A

128. Whether ‘study of religions can be introduced in the national curriculum of the
government educational institutions in India’? If yes, why and in which matter it was so
held?

A. Yes. In Aruna Roy v. Union of India, 2002.

B. No

Ans. A

129. “Test to determine whether a part or practice is essential to the religion is – to find out
whether the nature of religion will be changed without that part or practice. If the taking
away of that part or practice could result in a fundamental change in the character of that
religion or in its belief, then such part could be treated as an essential or integral part.
There cannot be additions or subtractions to such part because it is the very essence of
that religion and alterations will change its fundamental character. It is such permanent
essential parts is what is protected by the Constitution. Nobody can say that essential part
or practice of one’s religion has changed from a particular date or by an event. Such
alterable parts or practices are definitely not the ‘core’ of religion where the belief is
based and religion is founded upon.” This principle was laid down in:
 A. Commissioner of Police v. Acharya Jagadishwarananda Avadhuta, 2004.

B. Venkataramana Devaru v. State of Mysore, 1958

C. Bijoe Emmanuel, 1986

D. S.P. Mittal, 1983

Ans. A

130. Challenge was made to the action of the State of Tamil Nadu who had taken over the
administration of a prominent temple on the ground of mismanagement. The State
resisted the challenge on various grounds but failed before the Supreme Court in:

A. Subramanian Swamy v. St of Tamil Nadu, 2014

B. Commissioner of Police v. Acharya Jagadishwarananda Avadhuta, 2004.

C. Shirur Mutt, 1954

D. Indian Young Lawyers Association, 2017

Ans. A

131. What was held in Shayara Bano v. Union of India, 2017 by a Constitution Bench?

A. The constitutional validity of ‘talaq-e-biddat’ or triple talaq was successfully

assailed

B. The findings inter alia were that the practice of ‘talaq-e-biddat’ or triple talaq
is set aside

C. The practice of triple talaq is not integral to the religions denomination in

question

D. All of the above

Ans. D

132. All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish
and administer educational institutions of their choice. However, the right to administer
does not include the right to maladminister. Which of the following are examples of
maladministration, as per the Supreme Court:
 A. Asking for aid or recognition for an educational institution run by them in
unhealthy surroundings

B. Without any competent teachers possessing any semblance of qualification

C. Does not maintain even a fair standard of teaching or which teaches matters
subversive of the welfare of the scholars.

D. All of the above

Ans. D

133. Can a policy decision taken by State ‘A’ to make study of language ‘Z’ spoken by its
majority as to be taught compulsorily throughout the schools in the State be successfully
challenged?

A. Yes

B. No

C. No based upon the ratio of Usha Mehta v. St of Maharashtra, 2004.

Ans. C

134. Statistical data produced to show that a community is numerically a minority cannot
be the sole criterion. If it is found that a majority of the members of the community
belong to the affluent class of industrialists, businessmen, professionals and propertied
class, it may not be necessary to notify them under the National Commission for
Minorities Act, 1992, as such and extend any special treatment or protection to them as
minority.” This principle was laid down in:

A. Bal Patil v. Union of India, 2005.

B. RE the Kerala Education Bill, 1957

C. TMA Pai, 2002

D. None of the above

Ans. A
135. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that Section 57(3) of the Kerala University
Act, 1974 which provided that the post of Principal when filled by promotion is to be
made on the basis of seniority-cum-fitness, violate Art 30(1).

A. Secretary, Malankara Syrian Catholic College v. T Jose, 2007

B. P A Inamdar, 2005

C. RE the Kerala Education Bill, 1957

D. TMA Pai, 2002

Ans. A

136. In which case, did the Supreme Court declare that Rule 64(1) (b) of Delhi School
Education Rules, 1973, which provided inter alia that (1) No school shall be granted aid
unless its managing committee gives an undertaking in writing that: (a)… (b) it shall fill
in the posts in the school with the S C and the S T candidates in accordance with the
instructions issued by the Central Government from time to time and also maintain the
roster and other connected returns in this behalf and circular issued thereunder were not
enforceable against the linguistic minority school in the NCT of Delhi?

A. Sindhi Education Society v. Chief Secretary, GNCTD, 2010.

B. P A Inamdar, 2005

C. RE the Kerala Education Bill, 1957

D. TMA Pai, 2002

Ans. A

137. “In order to claim minority/linguistic status for an institution in any state, the
authorities must be satisfied firstly that the institution has been established by persons
who are minority in such a state; and secondly, right of administration of the said
minority/linguistic institution is also vested in those persons who are minority in the state.
The right conferred by Article 30 of the Constitution cannot be interpreted as if
irrespective of the persons who have established the institution in the State for the benefit
of persons who are minority, any person, be it non-minority in other place, can administer
and run such institution.” This principle was laid down in:

A. Dayanand Anglo Vedic (DAV) College Trust & Management Society v. St of

Maharashtra, 2013.
 B. P A Inamdar, 2005

C. RE the Kerala Education Bill, 1957

D. TMA Pai, 2002

Ans. A

138. Can the State stipulate as a condition for recognition that the medium of instruction
for children studying in classes I to IV in minority schools protected under Arts 29(1) and
30(1) and in private unaided schools enjoying the right to carry on any occupation under
Art 19(1)(g) would be the mother tongue of the children?

A. Yes

B. No

Ans. B

139. Does the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 apply to
minority, aided or unaided, institutions?

A. Yes

B. No

Ans. B

140. Whether the process for appointment of a principal in a minority institution is open to
judicial review?

A. Yes

B. No

Ans. A
 Unit-3

141. The appropriate writ issued by Supreme Court to quash the appointment of a person to
a public office is

a) Certiorari
b) Mandamus
c) Prohibition
d) Quo-Warranto

Answer: (D)
142. The unlawful detention of a person is questioned by the writ of
a. Habeas Corpus
b. Certiorari
c. Quo Warranto
d. Mandamus

Answer: A

143. Preventive Detention is a reasonable restriction on

a) Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 32

Answer: C

144. Which writ give the meaning ‘we command’ in letters

a) Habeas Corpus
b) Prohibition
c) Quo Warranto
d) Mandamus

Answer: D

145. High Court’s power of superintendence in Art. 227 does not cover which of the
followings:
a) unwarranted assumption of jurisdiction, not vested in Court or tribunal, or
b) gross abuse of jurisdiction or
c) an unjustifiable refusal to exercise jurisdiction vested in Courts or tribunals.
 d) Correction of error of law

Answer: D
146. The power to issue writs has been envisaged under the provisions of which of the
following fundamental rights?
a) Right to Equality
b) Right to Freedom
c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
d) Right against Exploitation
Answer: C
 
147. Which of the following writs can be issued to force a public authority to perform a
public or statutory duty?
a) Mandamus
b) Habeas Corpus
c) Certiorari
d) Quo Warranto

Answer: A

148. Supreme Court enjoys ………………. Jurisdiction with High Court in writ
Jurisdiction.
q) Appellate
r) Advisory
s) Concurrent
t) Supervisory

Answer: C

149. Under 32 of the Constitution Jurisdiction of Supreme Court is limited to issuance of

Writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
u) Correct
v) Incorrect
w) Also extends to other purposes
x) None of the above
Answer: A

Unit-4
 150. In which part of the Constitution of India the Directive Principles of State Policy are
included? 

a. Part I

b. Part II

c. Part III

d. Part IV

Ans : d) Part IV

151. From where the Directive Principles of State Policy have been borrowed? 

a. USA

b. Ireland

c. Great Britain

d. Canada

Ans : b) Ireland

152. Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the constitution
of.................... 

a. Canada

b. USA

c. Ireland

d. Great Britain

Ans : a) Canada

153. Which article of the constitution advices free and compulsory education for the
children up to the age of 14 years? 

a. Article 45

b. Article 19
c. Article 29

d. Article 32

Ans : a) Article 45

154. Which of the following rights is considered as the ‘soul of fundamental rights’?
i. Right to Equality
ii. Right to Freedom
iii. Right to constitutional remedies
iv. Right against exploitation
Ans. iii
155. The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs according
to Right to Constitutional Remedies. Which of the following writs can be issued by the
Supreme Court for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights?
i. Habeas Corpus
ii. Mandamus
iii. Quo Warranto
iv. All of them
Ans. iv
156. In which of the following situation the Supreme Court will not interfere under Article
32 of the Indian Constitution?
i. No question other than relating to a fundamental right will be determined in a proceeding
under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
ii. If the validity of other provisions of the statute is challenged on the grounds other than the
contravention of fundamental rights, the court would not entertain that challenge in a
proceeding under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
iii. The court will not interfere with the finding of fact where it was based on just and reasonable
satisfaction and was not perverse
iv. All of them
Ans. iv

157. In which part of the Constitution of India fundamental duties included? 

a. Part III

b. Part IV A

c. Part IV

d. Part IV
 Ans : b) Part IVA

158. Which Amendment Act to the constitution of India added fundamental duties in the
constitution? 

a. 42nd Amendment

b. 44th Amendment

c. 73rd Amendment

d. 74th Amendment

Ans : a) 42nd Amendment

159. When was fundamental duties become a constitutional law in the constitution of
India? 

a. 26 January 1949

b. 26 January 1950

c. 18 December 1976

d. 18 December 1978

Ans : c) 18 December 1976

160. How many fundamental duties are included in the constitution of India? 

a. 6

b. 7

c. 9

d. 11

Ans : d) 11

161. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between
Rights and Duties? 

a. Rights are correlative with Duties.

b. Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
c. Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
d. Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

Answer: (a)

162. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in
the Indian Constitution? 

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer (c)

163.  Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental
duty? 

a. To vote in public elections

b. To develop the scientific temper
c. To safeguard public property
d. To abide by me Constitution and respect its ideals

Answer (a)

164.  Consider the following

I. Fundamental Duties mentioned in Part - IVA of the Constitution

II. Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only
III. Fundamental Duties are non- justiciable in nature
Select correct option using the code given below

a. I Only
b. I & II Only
c. II & III Only
d. I, II and III

Answer (d)
165. By which amendment 11th duty was added in the Part IVA 

a. 97th Amendment
b. 86th Amendment
c. 76th Amendment
d. 90th Amendment

Answer (b)

166. What mentioned in 11th duty of the Article 51 A

a. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
b. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
c. Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the
case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years
d. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

Answer (c)

167. Choose Incorrect option

a. Fundamental Duties adopted in 1976

b. Fundamental Duties are non enforceable
c. Fundamental duties is also known as Sanction duties
d. In 2002, one more Fundamental Duties was added

Answer (c)

168. .  Consider the objective/objectives of the Fundamental Duties

I. Warning against Anti-social and Anti-national activities.

II. Constant reminder of their duties while enjoying the Rights.
Select correct code given below

a. I Only
b. II Only
c. I & II both
d. None of these

Answer (c)

169.  Fundamental Duties are enshrined in

a. Part IV, Article 50

b. Part IV, Article 51 A
c. Part IV A, Article 51
d. Part IV A, Article 51 A

Answer (d)

170. Who make the legislation for fundamental duties

a. President
b. Upper House (Rajya Sabha)
c. Lower House (Lol Sabha)
d. Parliament

Answer (d)

171. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duties

a. To safeguard public property

b. Duty to pay taxes 
c. To develop scientific temper
d. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

Answer (b)

172. Which Committee related to Fundamental Duties

I. Verma Committee
II. Balwant Rao Mehta Committee
III. Swaran Singh Committee
Select the Correct option using the code given below

a. I & III Only

b. II & III Only
c. III Only
d. I & III Only

Answer (d)

173. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 puts duty on parent or guardian to
provide opportunities for education to his Child  in the age of
(a) 6 to 15
(b) 6 to 14
(c) 5 to 14
(d) 6 to 14
 Answer (b)

174. When were Fundamental Duties added to the Constitution of India?

A. 1976

B. 1965

C. 1970

D. 1992

Ans. A

175. In the Indian Constitution, Fundamental Duties are given in which article?

A. Article 12 to 35

B. Article 51A

C. Article 36 to 50

D. Article 19

Ans. B

176. The 42nd amendment act has incorporated into the constitution of India a new chapter
on?

A. Administration of union territories

B. Formation of interstate councils
C. Fundamental duties
D. None of these
Ans. C

177. Consider the following statements in the context of Directive principles of state
policy.

1) Directive principle of state policy are contained in Part III of the Indian Constitution in
Art. 37-51.
2) The idea of DPSP was borrowed from the constitution of Ireland.
3) Constitution of India declares that DPSPs are “fundamental in the governance of the
country” (Art. 37).
4) Both the Legislature and the Executive should apply DPSPs while making and
implementing policies in social & economic spheres.
Which of the statement given above is / are correct.
A. 1 only

B. 1, 2 & 4 only

C. 2, 3 & 4 only

D. All of the above

Ans. C
178. Which one of the following is an incorrect statement.

A. The Word ‘socialist’ was incorporated into the preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act
1976.

B. The 73rd & 74th Amendment Act in 1997 with Panchayat and Nagarapalika bodies
being given constitutional status.

C. The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made
elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21.

D. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39-A).

Ans. B
179. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Directive
principles.

A. DPSPs are non-justiciable, that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for
their violation.
 B. DPSPs require legislation for their implementation, they are not automati-cally
enforced.

C. DPSPs aim is to establish political democracy in the country.

D. The courts cannot declare a law violative of any of the directive principles as
unconstitutional and unvalid.

Ans. C
180. Consider the following statements:

1) 86th Amendment Act 2002 stated that the state shall endeavour to provide early childhood
care and education (ICCE) for all children until they complete the age of six years.
2) The amendment to Hindu succession Act of 2005 state that the Daughter is given a share
in the ancestral property.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 & 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. C

181. The DPSP (Directive Principle of State Policy) in the Indian Constitution has been
borrowed from which country?

a) Australia

b) USA

c) Russia

d) Ireland

Answer: D

182. Directive Principles of State Policy are:

a) Justifiable

b) non-justifiable
 c) mandatory

d) None of these

Answer: B

183. The Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India were adopted from

a) Canadian Constitution

b) Russian Constitution

c) American Constitution

d) French Constitution

Answer: B

184. Art. 31C was inserted in part III of the Constitution by:

a) 1ST Constitution (Amendment) Act 1951

b) 25th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1971

c) 42nd Constitution Amendment Act, 1976

d) None of the above

Answer: B

185. “The Fundamental Right and the Directive Principles together constitute the core of
commitment to social revolution and they, together, are the conscience of the
Constitution. The Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between
the two……to give absolute primacy to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of
the Constitution. This harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive
Principles is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution.” In which of
the following judgements, the court made this observation?

a) Kesavananda Bharati vs State Of Kerala

b) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India

c) State of Gujarat v. Mirzapur Moti Kureshi Kassab Jamat & Ors

d) None of the above

 Answer: B

186. Which article declare the Directive Principle of state policy as non-enforceable?

a) Art. 36

b) Art. 37

c) Art. 39

d) Art. 38

(Answer: B)

187. How many fundamental duties are noticed in the Constitution of India?

a) Nine

b) ten

c) Eight

d) Eleven

Answer: D

188. The State’s obligation to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the
public services of the State, is provided in :
a) Article 43
b) Article 48A
c) Article 50
d) Article 51

Answer: C

189. The State’s obligation to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the
forests and wild life of the country, is provided in:
a) Article 48A
b) Article 48
c) Article 47
d) Article 46

Answer: A

190. The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of the
country is
 a) Directive Principle of State Policy
b) Fundamental National Policy
c) Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
d) Both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a Citizen

Answer: (D)
191. Which Constitutional Amendment Act incorporated Fundamental duties in Part IVA
and Art.51 A of the Constitution:
a) 25th Constitution Amendment Act, 1971
b) 42nd Constitution Amendment Act, 1976
c) 44TH Constitution Amendment Act, 1978
d) None of the above

Answer: B

192. Eleventh Duty was added by

a) 44th Constitution Amendment Act, 1978
b) 61st Constitution Amendment Act, 1988
c) 86th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2002
d) None of the above

Answer: C

193. Which of the following judgements is related to Playing of National Anthem in

Cinema Halls?
a) Subhas Datta V. Union Of India
b) Union of India v. Naveen Jindal
c) Shyam Narayan Chouksey v. Union Of India
d) Surya Narain Choudhary v. Union of India

Answer: C

194. Art. 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of
a) Citizens of India
b) Public Servants
c) All those who run public and private sectors
d) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers

Answer: (A)

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