Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Indian Penal Code

1) The maxim ‘actus non facit rea nisi mens sit rea’ means:

A. crime has to be coupled with guilty mind

B. there can be no crime without a guilty mind
C. crime is the result of guilty mind
D. criminal mind leads to crime.
Ans. B

2) The maxim ‘de minimus non curat lex’ means:

A. law would not take action on small & trifling matter
B. law does not ignore any act which causes the slightest harm
C. law would not take action in serious matters
D. all the above.
Ans. A

3) The case of Bachan Singh V/s State of Punjab is concerned with-

(A) Capital punishment in India
(B) Custody of under trial prisoners
(C) Prosecution for attempted suicide
(D) None of the above
Ans. A

4) ‘A’ is cutting the wood with an axe at a place where children are playing? The axe files
off and kills a nearby child. ‘A’ is liable for—
(A) No offence
(B) Murder
(C) Culpable homicide
(D) Causing death by negligence
Ans. D

5) ‘A’ finds a purse with money, not knowing to whom it belongs; he afterwards discovers
that it belongs to ‘B’ and appropriates to his own use. ‘A’ is guilty of-
(A) Theft
(B) Criminal misappropriation
(C) Criminal breach of trust
(D) Cheating
Ans.-B

6) X threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Y unless Y gives you money. He thus
induces Y to give him money. Here X has committed the offense of
A. Defamation
B. Mischief
C. Criminal intimidation
D. Extortion
Ans. D

7) In which of the following death sentence is awarded?

A. Waging war against the Government of India
B. Abetting mutiny actually committed
C. Murder
D. All of them
Ans. D

8) A accused of murder, alleges that by reason of unsoundness of mind, he did not know the
nature of the act.
A. The burden of proof is on the police
B. The burden of proof is on A
C. The burden of proof is on the Court
D. None of them
Ans. B

9) A, a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation is likely to cause the death of Z, who
suffers under painful complaint, but not intending to cause Z’s death, and intending, in good
faith, for Z’s benefit, performs the operation with Z’s consent.
A. A is guilty of culpable homicide
B. A deliberately caused the Z’s death
C. A is not guilty of any offence
D. None of them
Ans. C

10) ‘Sedition’ as offence was held constitutionally valid in Kedar Nath v. State of Bihar, AIR
1962 SC 955 us dealt under-
A. Section 124 A of IPC
B. Section 128 of IPC
C. Section 136 of IPC
D. Section 138 of IPC
Ans. A

11) The right of private defence is contained in:

A. section 94 of IPC
B. section 95 of IPC
C. section 96 of IPC
D. section 98 of IPC.
Ans. C

12) Who prepared the draft of the Indian Penal Code?

A) Lord Channing
B) Lord Chelmsford
C) Lord Macaulay
D) None of the above
Ans. C

13) Criminal breach of trust is dealt under-

A. Section 406 of IPC
B. Section 407 of IPC
C. Section 408 of IPC
D. Section 409 of IPC
Ans. A

14) Which of the following Section of the IPC deals with solitary confinement?
A. Section 71
B. Section 72
C. Section 73
D. Section 74
Ans. C

15) A quarrel arose between C on the one side and A and B on the other. C abused A,
whereupon A struck him with a stick, and B struck him down with an axe on the head. He also
received two other wounds with the axe on the other parts of the body. Any one of the three
axe wounds was sufficient enough to cause death, especially the one on the head.
A. C is guilty for voluntarily provoking the attack while B is guilty of culpable homicide
B. A is guilty of culpable homicide, while B is guilty of voluntarily causing hurt
C. B is guilty of culpable homicide, while A is guilty of voluntarily causing hurt
D. Both A and B are guilty of culpable homicide
Ans. C
CYBER LAWS

1) Which of the following is not a type of cybercrime?

A. Data theft
B. Forgery
C. Damage to data and systems
D. Installing antivirus for protection
Ans. D

2) What is the name of the IT law that India is having in the Indian legislature?
A. India’s Technology (IT) Act, 2000
B. India’s Digital Information Technology (DIT) Act, 2000
C. India’s Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000
D. The Technology Act, 2008
Ans. C

3) In which year the Indian IT Act, 2000 got amended?

A. 2006
B. 2008
C. 2010
D. 2012
Ans. B

4) What type of cyber-crime, its laws and punishments does section 66 of the Indian IT Act
holds?
A. Cracking or illegally hack into any system
B. Putting antivirus into the victim
C. Stealing data
D. Stealing hardware components
Ans. A

5) Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals?

A. Unauthorized account access
B. Mass attack using Trojans as botnets
C. Email spoofing and spamming
D. Report vulnerability in any system
Ans. D
6) The Information Technology Act 2009 is the primary law dealing with

A. Cyber Crime
B. Electronic Commerce
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
And. C

7) Cybercrimes crossing International borders and involving the actions of at least one nation
state is sometimes referred to as
A. Cyber warfare
B. Warfare
C. Cyber battle space
D. Espionage
Ans. A

8) A part of legal system that deals with cyberspace and their respective legal issues
A. Cyber Law
B. Industrial Law
C. Business Law
D. Commercial Law
Ans. A

9) Cyber space is the online world of computer networks and especially the
A. Intranet
B. Internet
C. Both A and B
D. E-commerce
Ans. B

10) Which of the following come under cybercrime?

A. Intellectual Property Crime
B. Pornography
C. Online gambling
D. All the above
Ans. D

11) Which of the following is a cybercrime against individual?

A. Email spoofing
B. Cyber defamation
C. Cyber stalking
D. All the above
Ans. D

12) The Information Technology Act is enacted by

A. Reserve Bank of India
B. Parliament of India
C. IT Companies
D. All the above
Ans. B

13) Computer viruses are

A. Man made
B. Naturally occur
C. Machine made
D. All of the above
Ans. A

14) Which of the following is not an external threat to a computer or computer network
A. Ignorance
B. Trojan horse
C. Adware
D. Crackers
Ans. A

15) Social Engineering is

A. A website created for people who share common interest
B. Scams distributed through email such as phishing, pharming and impersonation
C. A targeted attack on a personal computer
D. None
Ans. B
CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE
1) Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for dishonest misappropriation of property, which section of
IPC is applicable?
A.404
B. 402
C. 401
D. 403
Ans. D

2) Which Section of Cr. PC. States that warrant issued by a Magistrate of India may be
executed at any place in India?
A. Section 57 Cr. PC.
B. Section 67 Cr. P.C.
C. Section 77 Cr. P.C.
D. Section 87 Cr. P.C.
Ans. C

3) Under Section 320(1) Cr. P.C. for wrongfully confining a person for ten days or more,
which section of IPC is applicable?
A. 348
B. 340
C. 342
D. 344
Ans. D

4) Laying of trap is a part of:

A. investigation
B. inquiry
C. preliminary inquiry
D. trial.
Ans. A

5) A person can be summoned as a witness under section 160 of Cr PC, by:

A. any Police Officer
B. the Station House Officer
C. an Investigating Officer
D. any of the above.
Ans. C
6) The investigating officer under section 160 of Cr PC cannot require the attendance of a
male, at a place other than the place of his residence, who is:
A. under the age of 15 years
B. under the age of 16 years
C. under the age of 18 years
D. under the age of 21 years.
Ans. A

7) When the police register a case regarding commission of a cognizable offence, the
registration of the case is under:
A. section 154 of Cr PC
B. section 155 of Cr PC
C. section 156(3) of Cr PC
D. section 190 of Cr PC
Ans. A

8)Section 93(3) of Cr PC provides that Magistrate other than a District Magistrate or Chief
Judicial Magistrate shall issue warrant of search for a document, parcel or other thing in the
custody of postal & telegraph authority. If any Magistrate not so specified issues such a
warrant:
A. the search proceedings shall be void
B. the search proceedings shall be voidable if challenged, at the instance of person aggrieved
C. shall remain valid
D. none of the above.
Ans. A

9) Search warrant in respect of a place:

A. includes search of a person present in or about that place
B. does not include search of a person in or about that place
C. includes search of a person in or about that place only if such person is suspected of
concealing about his person any article for which search is being made
D. none of the above.
Ans. C

10) Search without warrant can be conducted under section 103 of Cr PC:
A. in the presence of the Magistrate who is competent to issue search warrant in respect of
any place
B. in the presence of the Magistrate who is not competent to issue search warrant in respect
of any place
C. both A & B
D. neither A nor B
Ans. A

11) A declaration of forfeiture under section 95 of Cr PC can be set aside by:

A. Magistrate issuing the search warrant
B. Chief Judicial Magistrate/Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
C. Court of Sessions
D. High Court.
Ans. D

12) The Magistrate at his discretion can allow the complainant to withdraw the complaint and
acquit the accused in case of –
A. Warrant case
B. Summons case
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
Ans. B

13) The term “taking cognizance” under the provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
means-
A. Starting a trial
B. Completing preliminary requirements for starting a Criminal trial
C. Taking notice of the matter judicially
D. An administrative action to decide if criminal trial is required
Ans. C

14) The protection under section 162 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is –
A. Available in Civil Proceedings
B. Available for proceedings under Article 32 and/or 226 of the Constitution
C. Not Available in rape cases
D. Only available in Criminal enquiry or trial in respect of the offence under investigation
Ans. D

15) Section 162 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is for the protection of –
A. Accused
B. Witnesses
C. Police officer
D. Magistrate
Ans. A
CODE OF CIVIL PROCEDURE

1. Which of the following deals with the time for inspection when notice given in the Code of
Civil Procedure?
A. Order 16, Rule 12
B. Order 4, Rule 13
C. Order 6, Rule 10
D. Order 11, Rule 17
Ans. D

2. Which of the following deals with the statement and production of evidence in the Code of
Civil Procedure?
A. Order 12, Rule 5
B. Order 14, Rule 20
C. Order 18, Rule 2
D. Order 11, Rule 7
Ans. C

3. Which of the following deals with the right to challenge non-appealable orders in appeal
against decrees in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 43, Rule 1A
B. Order 31, Rule 9
C. Order 22, Rule 18
D. Order 9, Rule 10
Ans. A

4. Bar to further suit is dealt under which of the following in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 11
B. Section 16
C. Section 13
D. Section 12
Ans. D

5. Which of the following deals with the transfer of decree in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 41
B. Section 36
C. Section 39
D. Section 52
Ans. C

6. Which of the following deals with matters for which rules may provide in the Code of
Civil Procedure?
A. Section 122
B. Section 103
C. Section 128
D. Section 129
Ans. C

7. Which of the following deals with the copy of plaint annexed to summons in the Code of
Civil Procedure?
A. Order 5, Rule 2
B. Order 2, Rule 2
C. Order 6, Rule 10
D. Order 4, Rule 8
Ans. A

8. Which of the following deals with the order for inspection in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 11, Rule 18
B. Order 4, Rule 13
C. Order 6, Rule 10
D. Order 13, Rule 22
Ans. A

9. Which of the following deals with the inquiry as to whether applicant is an indigent person
in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Order 44, Rule 3
B. Order 31, Rule 9
C. Order 22, Rule 18
D. Order 9, Rule 10
Ans. A

10. If a right or a liability is created by a statute, which of the following situations may arise?
A. The statue may create a specific forum for its enforcement
B. If no machinery is provided for enforcement, civil courts can entertain the suits besides the
suit of which cognizance is expressly barred
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans. C

11. Nine Akali Sikhs sue for the removal of the mahant of a religious institution. The suit is
dismissed on the ground that the institution is a Hindu Dera and not a Sikh Gurudwara.
Subsequently, and after the passing of the Sikh Gurudwara Act, 1925, 64 Sikh sue for a
declaration that the institution is Sikh Gurudwara.

A. The suit is barred by res judicata as in the former suit, the plaintiffs were a sect of
religious reformers and were not litigating on behalf of the general body of Sikhs
B. The suit is not barred by res judicata as in the former suit, the plaintiffs were a sect of
religious reformers and were litigating on behalf of the general body of Sikhs
C. The suit is not barred by res judicata as in the former suit, the plaintiffs were a sect of
religious reformers and were not litigating on behalf of the general body of Sikhs
D. None of these
Ans. C

12. Which of the following deals with the power of Supreme Court to transfer suits, etc. in
the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 18
B. Section 20
C. Section 25
D. Section 28
Ans: C

13. The object of discovery is:

A. To elicit admissions
B. To obviate the necessity to produce lengthy evidence
C. To expedite disposal
D. All of these
Ans: D

14. Decree-holder is:

A. Any person in whose favour a decree has been passed
B. An order capable of execution has been made
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Ans: C
15. Which of the following deals with the institution of suits in the Code of Civil Procedure?
A. Section 18
B. Section 20
C. Section 22
D. Section 26
Ans: D
COMPANY LAW

1. The minimum number of members in a private company and public company are
A Three and seven respectively
B. Two and seven respectively
C. Two and nine respectively
D. None of the above
Ans: B

2. Which one of the following is not the content of Memorandum of Association?

A. Name clause
B. Registered office clause
C. Objects clause
D. Board of Directors clause
Ans: D

3. A private company may issue securities through the way of, except
A. Public offer
B. Right issues
C. Bonus issue
D. Private placement
Ans: A

4. A prospectus issued in the form of advertisement must state:

A. The objects for which the company has been formed.
B. The liability of members.
C. The amount of share capital of company.
D. All the above
Ans: D

5. The subscribed capital of a company is:

A. never more than the issued capital
B.never less than the issued capital
C. always equal to the issued capital
D. prescribed percentage of the issued capital
Ans: A
6. A resolution shall be a special resolution when the votes cast in favour of the resolution by
members are not less than _________ the number of votes, if any, cast against the resolution.
A. Twice
B. Three times
C. One third
D. One fourth
Ans: C

7. Register of members, debenture holders, other security holders or copies of return may also
be kept at any other place in India in which more than ________ of the total number of
members entered in the register of members reside, if approved by a special resolution passed
at a general meeting of the company and the Registrar has been given a copy of the proposed
special resolution in advance.
A. one-half
B. one-eight
C. one-tenth
D. one-third
Ans: A

8. The Registrar may grant an extension by ________, for holding the Annual General
Meeting to any company for special reasons (except in the case of first AGM of the
company).
A. 1 Month
B. 2 Months
C. 3 Months
D. 6 Months
Ans: D

9. Every listed company shall file with the Registrar a copy of the report on each annual
general meeting within ________ of the conclusion of the annual general meeting.
A. 7 days
B. 30 days
C. 3 months
D. 90 days
Ans: B

10. After Declaration of dividend it should be paid within

A. 14 days
B. 21 days
C. 30 days
D. 45 days
Ans: C

11. Which of the following amount is not credited to IEPF Account

A. Unpaid dividend account of company
B. Matured deposit with company
C. Profit on sale of asset
D. Matured debentures with companies
Ans: C

12. In how many years the amount of unpaid dividend account should be transferred to
Investor Education and Protection Fund
A. 3 years
B. 5 years
C. 7 years
D. 10 years
Ans: C

13. Provisions of CSR are applicable to :

A. Companies with net worth of 500 cr/more
B. Companies with turnover of 1000 cr/more
C. Companies with net profit of 5 cr/ more in any financial year
D. All of the above
Ans: D

14. Who can be appointed as an internal auditor?

A. Chartered Accountants
B. Cost accountants
C. Any other professional
D. All of the above
Ans: D

15. Shares which are issued by a company to its directors or employees at a discount or for a
consideration:
A. Equity Shares
B. Preference Shares
C.Sweat Equity Share
D. Redeemable preference shares
Ans.C
CONSTITUTION OF INDIA

1. Who is the chairman of the Lok Sabha?

A. President
B. Minister of Parliament affairs
C. Speaker
D. Prime Minister
Ans: C

2. Which one of the following Articles empowers the President to appoint Prime Minister of
India?
A. Article 74
B. Article 75
C. Article 76
D. Article 77
Ans: B

3. The constituent Assembly formed the drafting committee of India constitution on:
A. 29th August 1947
B. 30th August 1948
C. 29th August 1949
D. 29th August 1950
Ans: A

4. Which one of the following sets of Bills is Presented to the Parliament along with the
Budget ?
A. Direct taxes bill and Indirect taxes bill
B. Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill
C. Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill
D. Finance Bill and Contingency Bill
Ans: C

5. Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian
Constitution?
A. British Constitution
B. U.S. Constitution
C. Irish Constitution
D. The Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: D

6. In which article of the Constitution of India has the Joint Sitting of the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha been provided?
A. Article 101
B. Article 108
C. Article 133
D. Article 102
Ans: B

7. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by the Rajya Sabha
also when no action is taken by the Upper House within:
A. 10 days
B. 14 days
C. 20 days
D. 30 days
Ans: B

8. Who among the following is/are not appointed by the President of India ?
A. Governors of the States
B. Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts
C. Vice-President
D. Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme Court
Ans: C

9. Which of the following Committees are Committees of Parliament?

1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Ans: A

10. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of
A. six years
B. for six years or the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
C. during pleasure of the President
D. for five years or the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
Ans: B

11. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of
A. declaration of the election results
B. its first meeting
C. issue of notification for the conduct of elections of the Panchayat
D. taking oath of office by the elected members
Ans: A

12.What does Article 17 of the Constitution Say?

A. Untouchability is abolished
B. The practice of untouchability is forbidden
C. Practicing untouchability is an offence
D. All of the above
Ans: D
13. Who is known as the sculptor of the constitution of India?
A. Rajendra Prasad
B. V.V. Giri
C. B.R. Ambedkar
D. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Ans: C

14. Who decides disputes relating with the allotment of symbols to Political Parties:
A. Representation Act 1952
B. Representation Act 1953
C. Representation of the People Act 1951
D. Election Commission
Ans: D

15. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or Not?

A. President
B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C. Speaker of Lok sabha
D. Minister of Parliamentary affairs
Ans: C
ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS

1. World Environmental day is celebrated on:

A. December 1
B. June 5
C. November 14
D. August 15
Ans: B

2. The provisions for environmental protection in the constitution were made in:
A.1976
B.1950
C.1982
D.1960
Ans: A

3. The provisions of environmental protection in the constitution were made under:

A. Article 5-A
B. Article 21-B
C. Article 27-B (h)
D. Article 48-A and Article 51-A (g)
Ans: D

4. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was:
A. Water Act
B. Air Act
C. Environmental Act
D. Noise Pollution Rule
Ans: A

5. The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year:

A. 1986
B. 1974
C. 1980
D. 1972
Ans: C

6. The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in the year:

A. 1986
B. 1974
C. 1994
D. 1972
Ans: D

7. The power to declare an area as a sanctuary or national park of central Government is

Wildlife (Protection) Act is under:
(a) Section 38
(b) Section 39
(c) Section 18
(d) Section 27
Ans: A

8. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year:
A. 1986
B. 1974
C. 1994
D. 1975
Ans: B

9. The Environmental (Protection) Act was enacted in the year:

A. 1986
B. 1992
C. 1984
D. 1974
Ans: A

10. Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:
A. 1981
B. 1987
C. 1982
D. 2000
Ans: B

11. Which of the following Environment related Act is/are correctly mentioned?
i. Environment Protection Act, 1986, ii. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
iii. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, iv. Air (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974

A. Only (1) and (2)

B. Only (3) and (4)
C. Only (1), (2) and (3)
D. Only (1), (2) and (4)
Ans: A

12. Which of the following environmental law empowers the central and state pollution
control boards to meet with grave emergencies of air pollution?
A. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act
B. Environment (Protection) Act
C. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Rules
D. Objective of Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Rules
Ans: A

13. Consider the following statement (s) related to the Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act.
I. It provides for the protection of birds and animals and for all matters that are connected to
it whether it be their habitat or the waterhole or the forests that sustain them.
II. It aims to deal with waste arising from ships along the coastal areas within a specified
radius.

A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I & II
D. Neither I nor II
Ans: D

14. Which of the following environmental law allows private rights to use a resource that is,
groundwater, by viewing it as an attachment to the land?
A. Easement Act
B. Indian Fisheries Act
C. Factories Act
D. All of the above
Ans: A

15. Which of the following is the oldest environmental law in India?

A. Wildlife Protection Act
B. River Board Act
C. Factories Act
D. Easement Act
Ans: D