DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

VAJIRAM & RAVI

PowerUp All India Mock Test – 02 (2024)
(31-03-2024)
(Time Allowed: 2 hours) (Maximum Marks: 200)

INSTRUCTIONS
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

 VAJIRAM & RAVI
1. The opening and last sentences of the 4. Which of the following provisions of the
Preamble, “We, the people……………adopt, Constitution of India directly embody social
enact and give to ourselves this Constitution”, justice as its principle?
signifies: 1. Article 21A
(a) the sovereign nature of the State 2. Article 23
(b) the political power is ultimately vested 3. Article 38
with the people 4. Article 48A
(c) the idea of welfare State 5. Article 50
(d) the government is limited by the Select the correct answer using the code
Constitution given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. Consider the following: (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. Procedure established by law (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
2. Emergency provisions (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. Appointment of Governors
4. Parliamentary form of government 5. Which one of the following is not a feature of
How many of the above features of the ‘asymmetric federalism’ in India?
Constitution of India have been taken from (a) Existence of All India Services
the Government of India Act, 1935? (b) Flexibility in Constitutional Amendment
(a) Only one (c) Integrated nature of Judiciary
(b) Only two (d) Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of
(c) Only three India
(d) All four
6. Which of the following limit the authority and
3. Which one of the following statements is jurisdiction of the Parliament?
correct? 1. Preamble
(a) India's dominion status ended with the 2. Seventh Schedule
Indian Independence Act of 1947. 3. Judicial Review
(b) India's dominion status continued until 4. Fundamental Rights
the adoption of the Constitution of India in Select the correct answer using the code
1950. given below:
(c) India remained a dominion until the first (a) 1 and 3 only
general elections in 1951. (b) 2 and 4 only
(d) India's dominion status ended with the (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
withdrawal of British troops in 1949. (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
7. Consider the following statements with
reference to the making of the Constitution of
India:
1. It is handwritten in both English and in
Hindi.
2. Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi is the only
female figure illustrated prominently in the
Constitution.
3. The Bull Seal found in the Indus Valley
is the first pictorial representation in the
Constitution.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
8. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The provisions of the Tenth
11. If the Gross National Product (GNP) of India
Schedule, with respect to voting against the
instruction of the party, do not apply to Rajya
Sabha elections.
Statement-II: The Constitution of India
provides that the voting in elections to the
Rajya Sabha shall be through an open ballot.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
correct and Statement–II is the correct
explanation for Statement–I
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
correct and Statement–II is not the correct
explanation for Statement–I
(c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is
incorrect
(d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II
is correct
2 PowerUp All India Mock Test – 02 (2024)
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9. A ‘Parliamentary democracy’ is characterised
by:
(a) strict separation of the executive and
legislative organs
(b) appointment of the executive branch by
the legislature
(c) direct elections of the representative to
the executive office
(d) fusion of executive and legislative powers
into a single body
10. Consider the following bills:
1. Money Bill
2. Private Member Bill
3. Constitutional Amendment Bill
The President of India can use her/his Pocket
Veto with respect to how many of the above?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
is more than its Gross Domestic Product
(GDP), it necessarily implies an increase in:
(a) net factor income from abroad
(b) depreciation of fixed assets
(c) gross fixed capital consumption
(d) output produced within India by non-
residents
12. Consider the following statements:
The money multiplier in the economy will
increase if there is:
1. an increase in the reserve requirement by
the Central Bank
2. an increase in the currency deposit ratio
3. an increase in the deposit rates by banks
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
13. In an economy, the ‘Effective Capex’ means:
(a) capital expenditure less the grant-in-aid
for creation of capital assets
(b) capital expenditure less the depreciation
value of the capital assets
(c) expenditure incurred in the current
accounting year to create revenue in a
future
(d) total capital outlay of the government
directed towards building of capital assets
14. Consider the following:
1. Nutrient Based Subsidy
2. Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for
17. If the tax multiplier is 1 in an economy, then 1
essential crops
3. Subsidy for purchase of machinery under
centrally-sponsored schemes
4. Free electricity to farmers
How many of the above are considered
indirect farm subsidies granted by the
Government of India?
(a) Only one 18. Consider the following statements:
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
15. Consider the following statements with
reference to the interim budget:
1. The Constitution of India does not make
any explicit provision for the interim
budget.
2. It was first presented in the year of the
first general election in India.
3. It deals only with the expenditure side of
the government.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
PowerUp All India Mock Test – 02 (2024)
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16. Which of the following measures can lead to
a decline in Current Account Deficit of India?
1. Reduction in fertiliser and food subsidies
2. Diversification of the export markets
3. Reduction in customs duties on imports
4. Reduction in transfer costs of remittances
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
percent tax cut will lead to:
(a) 1 percent boost to GDP
(b) 10 percent boost to GDP
(c) 1 percent reduction in GDP
(d) no change in GDP
Statement-I: The bond prices tend to
increase with decrease in the interest rates
by the banks.
Statement-II: Most bonds pay a fixed interest
rate that provide higher returns than the bank
deposits.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect
(d) Statement-I Is incorrect but Statement-II
is correct
3
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
19. Consider the following statements with 22. Consider the following:
reference to the Total Expense Ratio (TER): 1. Methane
1. It is a measure of the operational efficiency 2. Nitrous oxide
of mutual funds. 3. Chlorofluorocarbons
2. It is used to calculate the return on 4. Ozone
investments after consideration of all 5. Sulfur hexafluoride
fees. How many of the above greenhouse gases
3. The lower the expense ratio, the lower the occur naturally in the atmosphere?
returns on investment. (a) Only two
How many of the above statements are (b) Only three
correct? (c) Only four
(a) Only one (d) All five
(b) Only two
(c) All three 23. In India, no alteration of the boundaries of a
(d) None National Park by the State Government can
be made except on a recommendation of:
20. An increase in the interest rate in an economy (a) National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)
will most likely lead to: (b) National Green Tribunal (NGT)
(a) increase in investment by businesses (c) National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
(b) higher individual savings (d) Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI)
(c) increase in consumer spending
(d) higher inflation rates 24. Consider the following statements:
1. Global Tiger Initiative (GTI) was launched
21. Consider the following statements: by the World Bank and Global Environment
1. Hibernation allows animals to increase Facility.
metabolism during periods of high 2. Global Tiger Forum (GTF) is an
temperatures. intergovernmental body including all tiger
2. Aestivation is characterised by lower body range countries.
temperatures to survive long cold winters. 3. Conservation Assured Tiger Standards
3. Brumation is the state of dormancy (CA|TS) is a global tool that sets minimum
observed in cold-blooded animals during standards for management of tigers.
cold seasons. 4. Only 14 Tiger Reserves in India have
How many of the above statements are received the CA|TS accreditation.
correct? How many of the above statements are
(a) Only one correct?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) Only three
(d) All four

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
25. The ‘Cut Rootstock Method’ is sometimes
seen in the news for which one of the following
purposes?
(a) Clearing off the agricultural field after
harvest in a sustainable manner
(b) Increasing water retention capacity in
paddy cultivation
(c) Eliminating the need for soil preparation
in vertical farming
(d) Protecting plants from invasive weed
species
26. Which one of the following was recently
declared as India’s first Dark Sky Park?
(a) Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary in Ladakh
(b) Desert National Park in Rajasthan
(c) Valley of Flowers National Park in
Uttarakhand
(d) Pench Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra
27. Which of the following are marine mammals?
1. Seals
2. Whales
3. Walruses
4. Penguins
5. Dugongs
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
28. In India, hunting of a wild animal mentioned
in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act,
1972, is permitted in which of the following
circumstances?
1. If a wild animal is causing damage to
property.
2. If a wild animal is disabled or diseased
beyond recovery and cannot be captured.
3. If a person was acting in defense of
oneself or another person.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
PowerUp All India Mock Test – 02 (2024)
(31-03-2024)
29. Terracotta models of mummies were
discovered at which one of the following
Indus Valley Civilization sites?
(a) Rakhigarhi
(b) Dholavira
(c) Banawali
(d) Lothal
30. Consider the following:
1. Establishment of the institution of gotra
2. Nuclearisation of families
3. Beginning of the usage of iron
4. Emergence of temple worship
How many of the above developments took
place during the Later Vedic phase?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
31. Consider the following Ashokan inscriptions:
1. Laghman
2. Ahraura
3. Mansehra
4. Shahbazgarhi
How many of the above are not found in
India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
32. The notion of Arhat in Jainism and Bodhisattva
in Buddhism is similar in which one of the
following ways?
(a) Both seek enlightenment for themselves
alone, ignoring the well-being of others.
(b) Both believe that there is only a single
facet of ultimate truth.
(c) Both seek to break away from the cycle of
death and rebirth.
(d) Both do not believe that actions can help
to accumulate good karma.
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
33. With reference to the Delhi Sultanate, 37. In the context of the social reforms during
consider the following statements: British India, which one of the following
1. Alauddin Khilji used taxes from khalisa organisations was formed earliest?
land for payment of cash salaries to the (a) Satyashodhak Samaj
soldiers. (b) Prarthana Samaj
2. Muhammad bin Tughlaq extended
(c) Arya Samaj
Alauddin Khilji’s system of revenue
collection based on measurement of land. (d) Ramakrishna Mission
3. Firoz Shah Tughlaq introduced the levy of
house tax (ghari) and cattle tax (charai). 38. Which one of the following was not a provision
Which of the statements given above are of the Indian Independence Act of 1947?
correct? (a) It abolished the office of Viceroy.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) It deprived the Governor General of the
(b) 2 and 3 only power to assent a bill in the name of
(c) 1 and 3 only British Crown.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) It dissolved the existing Central Legislative
Assembly.
34. Which one of the following best describes the
terms ‘Theragatha’ and ‘Therigatha’? (d) It continued the services of civil servants
(a) Kirtanghar established by Sankardeva appointed by the Secretary of State.
(b) Jaina temples in Southern India
(c) Hymns composed by Alvar saints 39. Consider the following statements:
(d) Collection of poems narrated by Buddhist Statement-I: The modern day on the Earth is
monks and nuns longer than a century ago.
Statement-II: The Earth’s rotation is slowing
35. The motto of the Supreme Court of India, down due to the tidal effect of the Moon.
'yatodharmastato jayah' (Truth alone I uphold)
Which one of the following is correct in respect
is taken from:
of the above statements?
(a) Mundaka Upanishad
(b) Mahabharata (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) Ramayana correct and Statement-II is the correct
(d) Yajurveda explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
36. Consider the following pairs: correct and Statement-II is not the correct
Sl. Temple Example explanation for Statement-I
No. Architecture (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Style
incorrect
1. Solanki : Somnath Temple at
Kathiawar (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
2. Nagara : Kailashnath Temple at is correct
Ellora
3. Vesara : Doddabasappa 40. The term ‘Big Crunch’ is sometimes seen in
Temple at Dambal the news in the context of:
4. Dravidian : Chennakeshava (a) study of the Moon’s south pole
Temple at Belur
(b) origin and expansion of the universe from
How many of the above pairs are correctly a single point
matched? (c) impact of solar flares on satellites
(a) Only one pair
revolving around the Earth
(b) Only two pairs
(d) collapse of the universe back into a
(c) Only three pairs
singular point
(d) All four pairs
6 PowerUp All India Mock Test – 02 (2024)
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
41. Which one of the following ecological corridors 45. Consider the following:
connects the Eastern and Western Ghats? 1. Gulf of Aden
(a) Javadi Hills
2. Iberian Peninsula
(b) Sahyadri Hills
(c) Biligiriranga Hills 3. Persian Gulf
(d) Nallamala Hills 4. Sinai Peninsula
How many of the above surround the Red
42. Consider the following: Sea?
1. Sugarcane and Onion
(a) Only one
2. Maize and Pigeon pea
3. Cotton and Barley (b) Only two
4. Groundnut and Pigeon pea (c) Only three
How many of the above crops are grown (d) All four
together using intercropping methods in
India?
(a) Only one 46. Which of the following countries’ spacecraft
(b) Only two have made a landing on the Moon?
(c) Only three 1. Japan
(d) All four
2. United Kingdom
3. China
43. Consider the following:
1. Subtropical High Pressure Belt 4. France
2. Subpolar Low Pressure Belt 5. South Korea
3. Equatorial Low Pressure Belt Select the correct answer using the code
4. Polar High Pressure Belt
given below:
How many of the above are primarily thermally
induced pressure belts? (a) 1 and 3 only
(a) Only one (b) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) Only two (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Only three
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) All four

44. Consider the following pairs: 47. Consider the following statements:
Sl. Famous Place River 1. Quantum dots are fluorescent nanocrystals
No.
1. Gaya : Phalgu
with a semiconductor material at its core.
2. Ujjain : Shipra 2. Smaller quantum dots emit high-frequency
3. Nashik : Krishna photons with shorter wavelengths.
4. Madurai : Cauvery Which of the statements given above is/are
How many pairs given above are correctly correct?
matched?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs (b) 2 only
(c) Only three pairs (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) All four pairs (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
48. Consider the following: 51. Consider the following:
1. Telecom service providers 1. NITI Aayog
2. Internet service providers 2. Cabinet Secretariat
3. National Disaster Management Authority
3. Search engines
4. Central Bureau of Investigation
4. Online payment sites
How many of the above are neither
5. Cyber cafes Constitutional nor statutory bodies/institutions
How many of the above are considered in India?
as ‘Intermediaries’ under the Information (a) Only one
Technology Act, 2000? (b) Only two
(a) Only two (c) Only three
(d) All four
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
52. Consider the following statements with
(d) All five reference to the Joint Sitting of the Parliament:
1. It is obligatory for the President to summon
49. Consider the following statements: the Houses to meet in a joint sitting when
1. Artificial General Intelligence (AGI) is a there is a deadlock over the passage of a
type of artificial intelligence that is limited Bill.
to a specific or narrow area. 2. Once the President has notified his
intention to summon the Houses for a joint
2. Natural Language Processing (NLP)
sitting, dissolution of Lok Sabha does not
enables computers to analyse and affect the proceeding with the Bill.
understand human language, both written Which of the statements given above is/are
and spoken. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 53. Consider the following statements with
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 reference to the Indian Judiciary:
1. A Supreme Court judge can be removed
50. Consider the following: only on the ground of violation of the
1. Maglev trains Constitution.
2. Experimental nuclear fusion reactors 2. A retired Supreme Court Judge cannot
take up post-retirement appointments
3. Cell phone base stations
from the Government of India.
4. Particle detectors
3. A retired High Court Judge cannot plead
Applications of superconductivity can be used in any High Court within the territory of
in how many of the above fields? India.
(a) Only one How many of the above statements are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) Only three (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(d) All four
(c) All three
(d) None
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
54. Which of the following form the Selection 57. Consider the following statements with
Committee to appoint members of the
Election Commission of India?
(a) Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in
Lok Sabha and Chief Justice of India
(b) Prime Minister, Chief Justice of India and
Union Cabinet Minister
(c) Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in
Lok Sabha and Union Cabinet Minister
(d) Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in
Lok Sabha and Leader of Opposition in
Rajya Sabha
55. Consider the following statements:
1. A summon is issued to call a person to
appear before the court whereas a warrant 58. Two parties from different States which have
empowers law enforcement officials to
take specific actions.
2. A summon can be issued by an
administrative authority whereas a
warrant is a legal document issued by a
judicial officer.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
56. Consider the following:
1. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
2. Cabinet Secretary
3. Judges of High Courts
4. Deputy Chief Ministers of States
5. Ambassadors of foreign countries
How many of the above are exempted from
security checks at the airports in India?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
PowerUp All India Mock Test – 02 (2024)
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reference to the Governor of a State in India:
1. The Draft Constitution of India provided
for the direct election of the Governor
based on universal adult suffrage.
2. The Constitution of India requires the
President to consult the Chief Minister of
the concerned State while appointing the
Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the same party symbol are contesting for a
State Legislative Assembly seat. Which one
of the two will be granted the party symbol in
such a situation?
(a) The party with the longest history of
functioning and formation
(b) The party with higher vote percentage
in their last State Legislative Assembly
elections
(c) The party with a higher number of
Members of Parliament
(d) Neither of the parties will be able to use
their party symbols and will be allotted
'free symbol'
59. The Speaker of the State Legislative
Assembly acts as a quasi-judicial authority in
which one of the following situations?
(a) Certifying if a Bill is Money Bill or not
(b) Administering oath of office to newly
elected members
(c) Facilitating discussions on Legislative
Bills proposed by the ruling party
(d) Resolving disputes related to
disqualification of members under the
Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of
India
9
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
60. In India, Aadhar is mandatory for which of the 62. Consider the following pairs:
following purposes? Sl. Area of Country where
No. conflict it is located
1. Payment of wages under MGNREGA mentioned in
scheme news
1. Galmudug : Afghanistan
2. To avail benefits under Integrated
2. Abyei : South Sudan
Child Protection and Maternity Benefits
3. Amhara : Ethiopia
schemes
3. Opening of bank accounts by Non- How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
Resident Indians
(a) Only one pair
4. Filing of Income Tax Return (b) Only two pairs
Select the correct answer using the code (c) All three pairs
given below: (d) None
(a) 1 and 4 only
63. Intergovernmental Negotiations (IGN)
(b) 2 and 3 only
Framework is often seen in the news in
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
the context of which one of the following
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only organisations?
(a) United Nations (UN)
61. In the context of the United Nations (UN), (b) World Bank (WB)
(c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
consider the following statements:
(d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
1. The UN Security Council (UNSC)
resolutions are legally binding unlike the64. Consider the following statements with
UN General Assembly’s. reference to Taiwan:
2. A UNSC resolution must have the 1. It is a representative democracy with a
affirmative vote of its nine members semi-presidential system.
2. It is the largest manufacturer of
including the five permanent members.
semiconductors across the World.
3. A UNSC resolution fails if any one of its 3. It is a part of the Chip4 Alliance alongside
five permanent members abstains from Japan, South Korea and the United
voting. States.
Which of the statements given above are 4. India was one of the first countries to
establish diplomatic relations with it after
correct?
World War II.
(a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above statements are
(b) 2 and 3 only correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) Only one
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
65. In which one of the following contexts the 69. Consider the following situations:
terms “Baa2 and Baa3” are mentioned? 1. Increase in the Foreign Portfolio
(a) Quantum computing Investment (FPI) limit
(b) Credit ratings 2. Decrease in Dollar-Rupee swap
(c) Cyber security 3. Increase in the External Commercial
(d) Gene editing Borrowings (ECBs)
4. Restriction on the Foreign Capital Inflows
66. Which one of the following is not a component How many of the above are most likely to
result in the appreciation of the Rupee?
of the high-powered money of the Reserve
(a) Only one
Bank of India (RBI)?
(b) Only two
(a) Cash in hand with the banks
(c) Only three
(b) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) deposits of
(d) All four
banks
(c) Accounts of the International Monetary
70. The Catastrophe Containment and Relief
Fund
Trust (CCRT) is the:
(d) Time deposits with the banking system (a) World Health Organization’s (WHO)
provision for medical aid during public
67. Which of the following securities qualify for health emergency
the purpose of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) (b) International Monetary Fund’s (IMF) debt
maintained by banks in India? relief to the countries affected by natural
1. State Development Loans disasters
2. Bonds issued to the Food Corporation of (c) Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure’s
India (RATS) framework to contain terrorism in
3. Treasury Bills member countries
4. Bank Recapitalisation Bonds (d) United Nations Peacekeeping Forces’
5. Cash Management Bills relief services to communities affected in
Select the correct answer using the code conflict zones
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only 71. Which of the following can be used as
(b) 3 and 5 only trademarks under the Trade Marks Act, 1999?
1. Letters or numerals
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
2. Sound marks
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. Combination of colours
4. Name of chemical element
68. In India, which one of the following authorities
5. Shape of goods
is responsible for the compilation of data for
Select the correct answer using the code
Balance of Payments (BoP)?
given below:
(a) Department of Economic Affairs
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) Reserve Bank of India (b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) National Statistical Office (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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72. Consider the following fish species: 75. Consider the following species:
1. Guppy 1. Shama
2. Aplocheilus panchax 2. Dhyal
3. Oryzias melastigma 3. Pied wagtail
4. Gambusia affinis 4. Indian robin
How many of the above can be used to control How many of the above are songbirds found
the mosquito spread? in India?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) Only three (c) Only three
(d) All four (d) All four

73. Consider the following statements with 76. Which one of the following species is recently
reference to the nomenclature of the tropical seen in the news in context of efforts taken to
cyclones in the North Indian Ocean: preserve the Amazon rainforest?
1. The World Meteorological Organisation (a) Stingless bee
(WMO) is responsible for naming all (b) Hoverfly
tropical cyclones. (c) Fig Wasp
2. The names of tropical cyclones once (d) Elephant Hawk Moth
used, cannot be used again.
3. The name of the cyclone should not 77. Consider the following statements with
exceed eight letters.
reference to bats:
How many of the above statements are
1. Some bat species feed on insects like
correct?
moths.
(a) Only one
2. Some bat species use echolocation to
(b) Only two
navigate dark caves.
(c) All three
3. Some bat species hibernate to survive
(d) None
harsh winters.
4. Some bat species can be found in polar
74. ‘Bromeliads’, sometimes seen in the news,
regions.
are:
How many of the above statements are
(a) carnivorous plants that capture insects for
correct?
nutrition
(a) Only one
(b) plants that can store water in their leaves
(b) Only two
(c) frost-resistant plants that can thrive in
(c) Only three
cold climates
(d) All four
(d) plants that have adapted to grow in saline
conditions
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78. Consider the following species: 81. In context of history of medieval India, the
1. Dhole (wild dog) officers ‘qazi- ul- quzat, tui-begis and Mir- adl’
2. Sloth bear were associated with:
3. Mouse deer
(a) intelligence and espionage
4. Lion-tailed macaque
5. Wild ass (b) revenue collection
How many of the above are most likely to be (c) administration of justice
observed if you visit the Bandipur National (d) foreign affairs
Park?
(a) Only two
82. Consider the following:
(b) Only three
1. Marco Polo
(c) Only four
(d) All five 2. Al-Biruni
3. Nicolo De Conti
79. Consider the following statements: 4. Ibn Battuta
1. All transgenic organisms are Genetically Which one of the following is the correct
Modified Organisms (GMOs), but not all
chronological order of the above foreign
GMOs are transgenic.
travellers' visit to India?
2. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change is the final authority to (a) 2–3–1–4
approve the testing of transgenic crops in (b) 1–2–4–3
India. (c) 2–1–4–3
3. The import of GMOs for food and feed is (d) 4–2–3–1
regulated by the Seeds Act of 1966.
How many of the above statements are
correct? 83. Consider the following statements with
(a) Only one reference to Adi Shankaracharya:
(b) Only two 1. He proposed “Advaita Vedanta” to
(c) All three promote non-dualism of reality.
(d) None
2. He set up four cardinal mathas in four
corners of India.
80. Consider the following activities:
1. Injection of carbonic acid into ultramafic 3. He authored the books “Gita Bhasya” and
rocks “Vedantasara”.
2. Coal gasification 4. He was a contemporary of
3. Carbonation of concrete Ramanujacharya.
4. Ocean alkalinization
How many of the above statements are
Which of the above are often considered for
correct?
Carbon Mineralization?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) Only two
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) Only three
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) All four

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84. Doli-Puran, a historical ballad composed by 88. Consider the following statements:
Narrotam Das in Assamese, narrates events Statement-I: Cirrus clouds help in the
related to which one of the following? cooling of the surface of the Earth.
(a) Paharias' Rebellion Statement-II: High-level thin clouds are
(b) Chuar Uprising transparent to shortwave radiation but absorb
(c) Sanyasi Revolt the outgoing longwave radiation.
(d) Patharughat Uprising Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
85. In colonial India, the Delhi Durbars were
correct and Statement–II is the correct
organised by the Viceroys to:
explanation for Statement–I
(a) mark the coronation of the Monarch of
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
Great Britain correct and Statement–II is not the correct
(b) celebrate renewal of trade licence of the explanation for Statement–I
East India Company (c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is
(c) honour friendly Princely States in British incorrect
India (d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II
(d) mark the transfer of Viceroyship to the is correct
newly appointed officer
89. Which one of the following statements best
86. Consider the following: describes the term 'population momentum'?
1. Publication of Al-Hilal and Comrade (a) It is the phenomenon where a country
newspapers witnesses an increase in young population
2. Visit of the Prince of Wales even if there is a decline in fertility rates.
3. Protest by Khudai Khidmatgars (b) It is a situation where the older
4. Establishment of parallel governments population exceeds the population in the
reproductive age.
5. March on the Dharasana Salt Works
(c) It is a phenomenon where the population
How many of the above events took place
remains stagnant due to a balance
during the Civil Disobedience Movement
between birth and death rates.
(CDM)?
(d) It is an increasing rate of population
(a) Only two growth as a result of declining mortality
(b) Only three rates.
(c) Only four
(d) All five 90. Which of the following evidence supports the
theory that the Himalayas are still rising?
87. Consider the following trees: 1. Frequent shallow earthquakes
1. Mahogany 2. Discovery of marine fossils
2. Ebony 3. Youthful Himalayan rivers
3. Khejri 4. Residual nature of mountains
How many of the above are found in the Select the correct answer using the code
Western Ghats? given below:
(a) Only one (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All three
(d) None (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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91. Which one of the following, famously known 95. In biotechnology, ‘DnaA protein’ is used for:
as the Pink Lake, is on the verge of extinction (a) initiation of the DNA replication
due to high levels of pollution? (b) joining breaks in the DNA
(a) Lake Titicaca (c) identification of DNA polymorphism
(b) Lake Chad (d) arranging the DNA into specific sequences
(c) Lake Retba
(d) Lake Volta 96. The term ‘Ergosphere Zone’, often seen in
the news, refers to:
92. Arrange the following cities located around the (a) a region where the impact of solar flares
South China Sea in North to South direction: is the strongest
1. Taipei (b) boundary that marks the end of habitable
2. Ho Chi Minh City zone in space
3. Manila (c) a region in black hole where an object can
4. Singapore enter and exit
Select the correct answer using the code (d) point in space where matter moves in a
given below: perfect spiral due to earth's gravity
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 1-3-2-4 97. Consider the following statements with
(c) 2-1-3-4 reference to solid-state batteries:
(d) 4-3-1-2 1. They are highly stable as they are resistant
to changes in temperature.
93. A lower amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) gas
2. Unlike lithium-ion batteries, they can be
in the atmosphere of a planet compared to
charged faster.
that of its neighbours can indicate:
3. They have a lower risk of fire as they do
(a) absence of habitability
not contain flammable organic solvents.
(b) presence of liquid water
4. They can potentially be used in space
(c) terrestrial nature of the planet
devices.
(d) increased volcanic activity
How many of the above statements are
correct?
94. Consider the following:
(a) Only one
1. Gallium arsenide
(b) Only two
2. Silicon
(c) Only three
3. Boron
(d) All four
4. Germanium
5. Neon
98. “Mars solar conjunction” is a phenomenon
6. Diamond
that occurs when:
How many of the above elements can be
(a) Sun is between Earth and Mars
used as semiconductors?
(b) Sun is positioned nearest to Mars
(a) Only three
(c) Earth is between Mars and Sun
(b) Only four
(d) Sun, Mars and its moons align in a straight
(c) Only five
line
(d) All six

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99. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Multiple Independently
Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) reduces
the risk of interception by an anti-ballistic
missile system.
Statement-II: MIRV allows a missile to carry
multiple nuclear warheads which can be
independently targeted to different locations.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
correct and Statement–II is the correct
explanation for Statement–I
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
correct and Statement–II is not the correct
explanation for Statement–I
(c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is
incorrect
(d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II
is correct

100. ‘Phthalates, Octoxynols and Nonoxynols’,

causes of concern in recent times, are most
likely to be found in which one of the following?
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Performance-enhancing drugs
(c) Perfumes
(d) Food preservatives

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