1. Consider the following statements: 4.

Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India makes rules for
1. The Seventh Schedule provides the
the more convenient transaction of the
legislative competency in residual
business of the Government of India.
matters to the Union legislature except
2. All executive actions of the Government in those related to the State List.
of India shall be expressed to be taken
in the name of the Prime Minister. 2. Amending the Seventh Schedule
3. The Constitution authorizes the requires a simple majority vote in both
President to seek the opinion of the the houses of Parliament.
Supreme Court only in matters related to 3. The Sarkaria Commission
a fact of public importance. recommended that the residuary
How many of the above given statements are powers of legislation with regard to
correct? taxation matters should remain with
a) Only one the Parliament.
b) Only two How many of the above given statements
c) All three are correct?
d) None
a) Only one
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Right to constitutional remedies are b) Only two
fundamental rights under the constitution. c) All three
2. Right to education is included as a
fundamental right under the Indian d) None
Constitution. 5. Consider the following statements about the
3. Fundamental Rights in India are absolute Lokpal:
and cannot be restricted under any
circumstances. 1. The Lokpal can investigate an offence
alleged to be committed by a public
How many of the above given statements are
servant under the Prevention of
correct?
Corruption Act, 1988.
a) Only one
b) Only two 2. A member of the Lokpal can be
appointed as its Chairperson for a
c) All three
period of five years or until he attains
d) None the age of Seventy years.
3. Consider the following:
3. The Lokpal can investigate private
1. The Constitution of India
individuals under certain
2. The Supreme Court Rules circumstances with the consent of the
3. Conventions full bench of the Lokpal.
The authority of the Chief Justice of India (CJI)
How many of the above given statements
to allocate cases to benches in the Supreme
are correct?
Court, stems from how many of the above
mentioned sources? a) Only one
a) Only one
b) Only two
b) Only two
c) All three c) All three
d) None d) None

LUKMAAN IAS (5-A)

6. Consider the following statements about the 8. Which of the following statements explains
parliamentary form of government: the term “mal apportionment”, recently seen
in the news?
1. The Head of Government holds
executive power but remains a) The inequitable nature of the horizontal
answerable to the legislature in a distribution of resources among the
parliamentary system. states in the context of the Fifteenth
Finance Commission recommendations.
2. The Head of State performs purely
ceremonial duties in all parliamentary b) A situation of fiscal imbalance owing to
systems. the discontinuance of the Normal
Central Assistance given to the Special
3. The Indian parliamentary system works
Category Status states.
on the basis of the collective
responsibility of the cabinet to the c) A scenario often seen in countries
legislature. following the First Past the Post System
of elections where the number of seats
How many of the above given statements are
won does not represent the percentage
correct?
of votes polled by a party.
a) Only one
d) None of the above statements a, b or c
b) Only two explains the term “mal apportionment”.
c) All three 9. Consider the following statements:
d) None Statement-I:
7. Consider the following statements about the SEBI has quasi-legislative, quasi-judicial
Bar Council of India (BCI): and quasi-executive powers to deal with
1. It is a statutory body created by the the regulation of capital market in India.
Parliament to regulate and represent Statement-II:
the Indian Bar.
The SEBI Act, 1992 established SEBI as an
2. It prescribes the rules and regulations
Independent Regulatory Body for the
that advocates need to follow in their
securities market in India.
professional conduct.
3. Foreign advocates need not register Which one of the following is correct in
with the BCI when they participate in respect of the above statements?
specific scenarios under the “Fly-in, Fly- a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
out” rule. correct and Statement-II is the correct
How many of the above given statements are explanation for Statement-I
correct?
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
a) Only one correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
b) Only two
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
c) All three is incorrect
d) None d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct

LUKMAAN IAS (7-A)

10. Which of the following statements are correct 13. Consider the following pairs:
about the Government of India Act, 1858? Places in news Countries involved
1. It abolished the system of dual
1. Rafah crossing Armenia-Azerbaijan
government.
border
2. It empowered the viceroy to issue
ordinances. 2. Zangezur Columbia-Panama
corridor border
3. It created a new office of the Secretary
of State for India 3. Darien gap Gaza-Egypt border
4. It started associating Indians with the How many of the above given pairs are
law making process. correctly matched?
Select the correct answer from the code given a) Only one
below:
b) Only two
a) 1 and 2 only
c) All three
b) 2 and 3 only
d) None
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 4 only 14. With reference to the Shaligram Stones, a
sacred stone worshipped by Hindus, consider
11. Consider the following statements with
the following statements:
respect to earthquake waves:
1. S-waves cannot pass through fluids. 1. These stones are fossils of ammonite,
which is a type of mollusc that lived
2. P-waves travel about 10 times faster millions of years ago.
than S-waves.
2. These are mostly found in the rivers
3. Rayleigh waves cause most of the
flowing in the Vindhya Range.
damage from an earthquake.
How many of the above statements are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
a) Only one a) 1 only
b) Only two b) 2 only
c) All three c) Both 1 and 2
d) None d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Consider the following statements: 15. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Oases are depressions of varying sizes the ‘Theri’ desert:
in desert regions.
1. It is a part of the larger Thar Desert.
2. Rainwater is the main source of water
in oases. 2. Southwest monsoon play an important
role in the formation of red dunes in this
3. Oases help in supporting a settled life
desert.
in desert regions.
How many of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
a) Only one a) 1 only
b) Only two b) 2 only
c) All three c) Both 1 and 2
d) None d) Neither 1 nor 2

LUKMAAN IAS (9-A)

16. Consider the following pairs: 19. Consider the following:
Waterfalls Rivers
1. Jog falls Sharavathi River 1. Labour intensiveness
2. Dudhasagar falls Mandovi River
2. Heavy mechanization to increase crop
3. Shivasamudram Kaveri River production
falls
How many of the above pairs are correctly 3. High yield per unit area but low per unit
matched? labour productivity
a) Only one
b) Only two How many of the above are the features of
intensive subsistence farming?
c) All three
d) None a) Only one
17. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: b) Only two
India has been the world’s largest exporter
of rice for the past 10 years. c) All three
Statement II:
d) None
Basmati rice alone constitutes over 50%
of the total rice exports from India.
20. Which of the following best describes the
Which one of the following is correct in process of “Lithification”?
respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are a) It is process of formation of rocks
correct and Statement-II is the correct through compaction of sediments.
explanation for Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are b) It is the process of erosion of rocks and
correct and Statement-II is not the their deposition in deltaic plains.
correct explanation for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II c) It refers to the cooling of magma
is incorrect leading to the formation of lava plains.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct d) It refers to the metamorphosis of rocks
under heat and pressure.
18. Consider the following industries:
1. Iron and Steel Industry 21. With reference to Indian history, ‘Naalayira
2. Pulp Industry Divya Prabandham’ refers to which of the
3. Sugar mills Industry following?
4. Cotton textile Industry
5. Petrochemical Industry a) Religious reform movement
How many of the above are weight-losing
b) Collective songs of Alvars
industries?
a) Only two c) Order of kings during Gupta
b) Only three administration
c) Only four
d) All five d) Philosophical treatise of Shankaradeva

LUKMAAN IAS (11-A)

22. Consider the following statements: 25. He reformed the military by banning flogging
1. Sher Shah Suri introduced silver coins as a punishment in the British Indian army
called “Dam”. and did a commendable job of controlling
organised Thuggee. He tried to suppress
2. Sultan Iltutmish introduced silver many superstitious practices prevalent then
coins Tanka and Jital. like Sati and practice of widow burning.
3. Muhammad bin Tughlaq introduced Which of the following Governor General is
token currency of copper coins. being described in the above paragraph?
How many of the statements given above are a) Lord Warren Hastings
correct?
b) Lord Arthur Wellesley
a) Only one
c) Lord William Bentinck
b) Only two
d) Lord Amherst
c) All three
26. Consider the following freedom fighters:
d) None
1. Jatindranath Mukherjee
23. It was a revivalist movement founded by
Muhammad Qasim Wanotavi and Rashid 2. Rash Behari Bos
Ahamad Gangohi in Saharanpur District, Uttar 3. Aurobindo Ghosh
Pradesh. It focused on uplifting the Muslim How many of the above were actively
community through religious education. associated with the Anushilan Samiti?
Which of the following socio-religious a) Only one
movements is being described in the above
paragraph? b) Only two
a) Deoband Movement c) All three
b) Farazis Movement d) None
c) Wahabi Movement 27. With reference to the Cabinet Mission,
consider the following statements:
d) Ahmadiya Movement
1. It proposed a plan that aimed to
24. With reference to the Kol Rebellion, consider establish a federal system for India
the following statements: granting significant autonomy to the
1. The rebellion took place during the provinces.
period of Khilafat movement which was 2. For the first time, the British
launched for the fulfilment of freedom government acknowledged India’s right
for Muslims. to be a dominion.
2. The rebellion spread over a significant 3. The aim of the Mission was to seek
area, including Ranchi, Hazaribagh, India’s support for second world war
Palamau and Manbhum. through constitutional proposals.
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
a) 1 only a) Only one
b) 2 only b) Only two
c) Both 1 and 2 c) All three
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) None

LUKMAAN IAS (13-A)

28. Consider the following statements: 30. Consider the following pairs:
Statement I:
Land revenue system Implemented in the region
Lord Canning passed the General Service
Enlistment Act, 1856 to make the soldiers 1. Permanent Central Province,
serve anywhere as per the requirement settlement Gangetic Valley
of the Government.
Statement II: 2. Ryotwari Bengal, Bihar, Orissa
settlement
Sepoys in the Bengal Army refused to
travel abroad by sea for fear of losing caste
3. Mahalwari Madras, Bombay, parts
status.
system of Assam and Coorgh
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? How many of the pairs given above are
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correctly matched?
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I. a) Only one
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
b) Only two
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I.
c) All three
c) Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect. d) None
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct. 31. With reference to the PM PRANAM scheme,
consider the following statements:
29. With reference to the First Round Table
Conference, consider the following
1. The scheme aims to reduce the use of
statements:
chemical fertilisers and promote
1. The British and Indians met on an equal alternative fertilizers.
footing in the First Round Table
Conference. 2. The government has discontinued urea
2. Gandhi was the sole representative of subsidy under the scheme.
The Indian National Congress in the
First Round Table Conference. 3. It is a central sector scheme.
3. Based on the discussion of the First
Round Table Conference, the How many of the above statements are
Government of India Act of 1935 was correct?
passed.
a) Only one
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
b) Only two
a) Only one
b) Only two c) All three
c) All three
d) None
d) None

LUKMAAN IAS (15-A)

32. Consider the following statements: 35. With reference to financial instruments,
Statement I: consider the following statements:
Capital-output is the ratio of the amount
of capital needed to produce one unit of 1. Both Treasury Bills and Cash
output. Management Bills (CMBs) are capital
market instruments.
Statement II:
A high capital-output ratio indicates high 2. While Treasury Bills are issued by the
productivity of capital. RBI to meet Union government’s
Which one of the following is correct in temporary cash flow mismatches, CMBs
respect of the above statements? are issued by banks or eligible Financial
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Institutions to raise short-term funds.
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement I. Which of the above given statements is/are
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I. a) 1 only
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II b) 2 only
is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement - c) Both 1 and 2
II is correct
33. Consider the following statements: d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. India is one of the world’s largest
importers of gold. 36. Consider the following statements:
2. Gold reserves form the largest part of 1. Contingent Reserve Arrangement by
India’s foreign exchange reserves. the World Bank allows developing
Which of the above given statements is/are countries to access funds at a time of
correct? economic crisis.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only 2. New Arrangement to Borrow
c) Both 1 and 2 mechanism of BRICS allows
mobilisation of additional funds
d) Neither 1 nor 2
through borrowings from members.
34. With respect to employment elasticity,
consider the following statements: 3. The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) of
1. Employment elasticity refers to the IMF provides financial assistance to
percentage change in employment countries facing serious medium-term
with respect to percentage change in balance of payments problems.
labour force.
2. Jobless growth in the economy implies How many of the above statements are
low employment elasticity. correct?
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct? a) Only one
a) 1 only b) Only two
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) All three
d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) None

LUKMAAN IAS (17-A)

37. The term ‘Singapore Washing’ has been in 40. Consider the following statements:
news recently. Which of the following
statements best describes this term? 1. Khusro committee of 1975 suggested
establishment of regional rural banks
a) The mass bleaching of corals around the
to increase credit availability in rural
Singapore waters due to the high
areas.
release of oxybenzone into the sea.
b) The new cheaper technology invented 2. The number of regional rural banks has
in Singapore for ocean water increased considerably in the last 20
desalination. years.
c) Mass production of ‘green-washed’ 3. RRBs with a net worth of at least Rs 100
products by companies based in crore are eligible to list on the bourses.
Singapore.
d) A trend where mainland Chinese firms How many of the above statements are
relocate to Singapore to avoid stringent correct?
scrutiny in countries they invest. a) Only one
38. With reference to Internatiional Economic
Reform which of the following statements b) Only two
correctly describes “GloBE” rules? c) All three
a) G20 Framework on reforming and
strengthening multilateral development d) None
banks. 41. Consider the following statements about the
b) OECD Framework on predatory pricing practice of mulching in agriculture:
policy adopted by China for electronic
goods. 1. It improves the soil quality by
increasing the compaction and water-
c) OECD/G20 Inclusive Framework for
retention capacity of soil.
minimum tax of 15% on large
multinationals. 2. It is always effective in reducing the soil
d) WTO Framework on phase-out of surface temperature.
agricultural subsidies by the developed
Which of the statements given above is/are
countries.
correct?
39. Consider the following statements:
1. India accounts for more than one-fourth a) 1 only
of the total global cotton production. b) 2 only
2. About 33% of cotton produced in India
comes from rain-fed areas. c) Both 1 and 2
3. India has the world’s largest area under d) Neither 1 nor 2
cotton cultivation.
42. Which of the following marine species is
4. China and India are the only two
known for feeding by knocking off its prey
countries which grow all four varieties
from the branch of a terrestrial plant using a
of cotton.
powerful jet of water?
How many of the above statements are
correct? a) Archer fish
a) Only one b) Puffer fish
b) Only two
c) Angler fish
c) Only three
d) All four d) Sucker fish

LUKMAAN IAS (19-A)

43. Consider the following species: 46. Which of the following statements is correct
1. Butterflies and turtle regarding difference between cheetah and
2. Clownfish and sea anemone leopard?
3. Aphids and ants a) Cheetah has shorter shoulders but a
more slender body than leopard.
How many of the above-mentioned species
share a symbiotic relationship with each b) Cheetah has round and oval-shaped
other? spots on its body while leopard has rose-
like markings on its body.
a) Only one
c) Cheetah can completely retract its claws
b) Only two
while running but a leopard cannot.
c) All three
d) Cheetah is a nocturnal species while
d) None leopard is diurnal in nature.
44. Consider the following statements:
47. Consider the following:
Statement I:
1. Azospirillum
The use of Green Methanol reduces the
2. Oscillatoria
emission of the oxides of sulphur and
carbon. 3. Trichoderma
Statement II: 4. Anabaena
It is produced during the process of Direct How many of the above microbial species can
Air Capture and Green Hydrogen be used as effective biofertilizers in
Production. agriculture?
Which one of the following is correct in a) Only one
respect of the above statements? b) Only two
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are c) Only three
correct and Statement-II is the correct
d) All four
explanation for Statement-I
48. Consider the following statements:
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct but Statement-II is not the Statement I:
correct explanation for Statement-I Sea cucumber is a common detritivore
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II species found in marine habitats.
is incorrect Statement II:
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- Sea cucumber is an echinoderm which is
II is correct known for filter feeding.
45. Consider the following: Which one of the following is correct in
1. Plastic products respect of the above statements?
2. Electrical and electronic goods a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
3. Food items correct and Statement-II is the correct
4. Batteries explanation for Statement-I
How many of the above products are under b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
the ambit of EcoMark scheme of the Bureau correct but Statement-II is not the
of Indian Standards (BIS)? correct explanation for Statement-I
a) Only one c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
b) Only two
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
c) Only three
II is correct
d) All four

LUKMAAN IAS (21-A)

49. Consider the following statements about 51. Consider the following statements:
Ecological pyramids:
Statement I:
1. Ecological pyramids represent different
forms of productivity of an ecosystem.
Sodium-ion batteries are environmentally
more friendly than Lithium-ion batteries.
2. The pyramid of biomass demonstrates
the total weight of every trophic level in
a specific food chain in an ecosystem. Statement II:

3. There is a bilateral flow of energy in an Sodium is a more abundant as well as a

ecological pyramid. widely distributed element than Lithium.

How many of the above statements are Which one of the following is correct in
incorrect? respect of the above statements?

a) Only one
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
b) Only two
explanation for Statement-I
c) All three
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
d) None correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
50. Consider the following statements in the
context of formaldehyde pollution: c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
1. Volcanoes are the natural sources of
formaldehyde pollution. d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct
2. Cosmetics and chemical-based hair
treatments contain formaldehyde.
52. Dark Pattern, which is often heard in the
news, is related to which of the following?
3. Smokers are often exposed to
formaldehyde.
a) Illegal way of hacking user’s account to
4. Formaldehyde is carcinogenic in nature. steal money.

How many of the above statements are b) Ransomware attack for asking financial
correct? benefits in exchange for unlocking
devices.
a) Only one
c) Encrypted online content that is not
b) Only two accessible through conventional search
engines.
c) Only three
d) User interface aimed at tricking users
d) All four
on websites to subscribe to unwanted
features and subscriptions.

LUKMAAN IAS (23-A)

53. Consider the following statements: 56. With reference to techniques of encryption
Statement I: to secure data, consider the following
statements:
Ballistic missiles have more payload
carrying capacity than cruise missiles.
1. Asymmetric encryption is more
Statement II:
secured than symmetric encryption.
Ballistic missiles require less fuel for the
same size of payload. 2. For large amount of data transfer,
Which one of the following is correct in asymmetric encryption is efficient than
respect of the above statements? symmetric encryption.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct Which of the statements given above is/are
explanation for Statement-I correct?
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the a) 1 only
correct explanation for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II b) 2 only
is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- c) Both 1 and 2
II is correct
54. ‘Tokamak’, a technology often heard in the d) Neither 1 nor 2
news, is related to which of the following
scientific developments? 57. With reference to various diagnostic scans
to detect critical diseases, consider the
a) Manned Space Mission
following statements:
b) Gene Editing Technology
c) Nuclear Fusion Technology 1. CT scans use X-rays to create the cross-
d) Artificial Intelligence sectional image of the organ under
55. With reference to the comparison between investigation.
5G and 4G wireless communication
technologies, consider the following 2. MRI scan exposes the patient to a higher
statements: order of radiation than CT scans.
1. 5G works at a higher frequency, but a
lower bandwidth as compared to the 4G 3. PET scan is used to analyse the
technology. functional aspects of any tissue or organ
2. 5G ensures very high speed but whereas CT scans only project the
consumes more energy per unit data structure of the organ under analysis.
transfer than the 4G technology.
How many of the above statements are
3. While 4G supports only half duplex
correct?
mode, 5G supports both half as well as
full duplex mode of communication.
a) Only one
How many of the above statements are
correct?
b) Only two
a) Only one
b) Only two c) All three
c) All three
d) None d) None

LUKMAAN IAS (25-A)

58. With reference to CRISPR-Cas9 genome 61. With reference to the ‘UNESCO Creative
editing tool, consider the following statements: Cities Network (UCCN)’, consider the
1. Cas9 is the enzyme that acts as molecular following statements:
scissors to cut the DNA strands at
specific location. 1. It covers five creative fields of crafts and
folk arts, media arts, film, literature and
2. Guide RNA follow the Cas9 enzyme to
music for inclusion of cities in the list.
get attached at the location which has
been broken by the Cas9 enzyme. 2. Kozhikode is the first city in India to be
Which of the statements given above is/are included in the UNESCO Creative Cities
correct? Network under the ‘Literature’ category.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 1 only
59. Consider the following technologies:
b) 2 only
1. FASTags work on the principle of
optical communication. c) Both 1 and 2
2. Tap and Go cards use radio frequency
for identification. d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Bar Code works on the principle of
change in magnetic field brought about 62. With reference to the AMRIT Technology,
by vertical white and black bars. consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are 1) It has been developed by the CSIR –
correct? National Environmental Engineering
a) Only one Research Institute (NEERI).
b) Only two
2) It has been designed for the removal
c) All three
of arsenic and metal ions from water,
d) None addressing water quality issues.
60. With reference to different types of LED
technologies, consider the following 3) It utilizes hydrogen peroxide to
statements: selectively remove arsenic when water
1. QLED displays produce better contrast passes through it.
between dark and light scenes.
4) It is applicable for both domestic and
2. OLED displays produce brighter
community-level water purification.
colours.
3. AMOLED displays are more flexible in How many of the statements given above are
terms of the size of display as compared correct?
to OLED displays.
How many of the above statements are a) Only one
correct?
b) Only two
a) Only one
b) Only two c) Only three
c) All three
d) All four
d) None

LUKMAAN IAS (27-A)

63. Uvachar or Occhan is a community in 66. With reference to the UN Democracy Fund
southern districts of Tamil Nadu, a class of (UNDEF), consider the following statements:
temple priests who usually officiate as pujaris
at Pidari, Kali and other Amman (Grama
1. The primary objective of the UN
Devata) temples. They are also known by
Democracy Fund is to facilitate peace
names such as Parisaivar, Vallavarayar and
and security, protect civilians, and
Sallirayar.
support the restoration of stable
Which of the following personalities is known governance structures.
to be have belonged to the above mentioned
community? 2. India is the fourth highest donor to the
UNDEF.
a) Thiruvalluvar
b) Adikavi Pampa 3. It mobilises finances through binding
contributions from its member states in
c) Puranadara Dasa accordance to their voting powers.
d) Kavichakravarthy Kamban
Which of the statements given above are
64. She was a staunch Gandhian from Tamluk, correct?
Bengal and was affectionately called ‘Gandhi
Buri’. She fell to British bullets while leading a a) Only one
Quit India Movement march. She was-
b) Only two
a) Bina Das
b) Matangini Hazra c) All three

c) Sucheta Kripalani d) None

d) Pritilata Waddedar
67. Consider the following pairs:
65. Recently, Article 99 of the United Nations
Charter has been invoked. In this regard, Militant groups related countries
consider the following statements:
1. It was intended to warn the UN Security 1. Fano militia Ethiopia
Council about the danger caused by
Russia’s action in Ukraine. 2. Hezbollah Sudan

2. It has been invoked only on four 3. Hamas Niger

occasions to achieve stability and peace
in the history of the United Nations. How many of the pairs given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are correctly matched?
correct?
a) Only one
a) 1 only
b) 2 only b) Only two

c) Both 1 and 2 c) All three

d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) None

LUKMAAN IAS (29-A)

68. With reference to the International Air 71. With reference to the SANTIAGO network,
Transport Association (IATA), consider the consider the following statements:
following statements: 1. It was established as a part of the
Warsaw International Mechanism for
1. It is a specialized organization of the
Loss and Damage (WIM) under the
United Nations that helps in formulating
United Nations Framework Convention
industrial policy for aviation.
on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
2. Its headquarters is located in Montreal, 2. It aims to connect vulnerable
Canada. developing countries with providers of
technical assistance, knowledge and
3. It was established by the Convention on resources they need to address climate
International Civil Aviation, also known risk.
as Chicago Convention. 3. The United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP) will host the
How many of the statements given above are
Santiago network secretariat.
correct?
How many of the statements given above are
a) Only one correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
b) Only two
c) All three c) All three
d) None
d) None
72. Which one of the following statements
69. Which of the following statements is correct correctly describes the term ‘Permakore’?
regarding the Sulina Channel? a) A dance form of Northwest India
b) Pre-historic cave paintings in
a) It is situated in the Southeastern part Bhimbetka
of Romania.
c) A traditional flute of Koya tribes
b) It connects the Ukrainian ports to the d) A type of toy made from softwood in
Red Sea. Andhra Pradesh
73. With reference to recent amendments made
c) It is situated at the mouth of the longest in the Forest Conservation Act 1980,
river in Europe. consider the following statements:
d) It connects the Gulf of Suez and the 1. It permits the establishment of private
Mediterranean Sea. zoos and safaris in forests other than
the protected areas.
70. Recently seen in the news, the ‘Nature 2. It exempts the need for forest clearance
restoration law’, is an initiative of which of to facilitate construction of highways
the following? within 100 km of the national border.
a) European Union Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
b) UNEP a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) BRICS
c) Both 1 and 2
d) APEC d) Neither 1 nor 2

LUKMAAN IAS (31-A)

74. Consider the following statements: 77. Consider the following statements:
1. All the species of bear prefer hunting
1. Carbon monoxide (CO) is a toxic gas
at night.
having a direct impact on the global
2. All the dolphin species are omnivores. temperature like carbon dioxide.

3. All the species of sea horse are great

2. Tobacco smoke and stubble burning
swimmers.
release carbon monoxide in the
How many of the above statements are atmosphere.
correct?
3. According to the WHO’s Air Pollution
a) Only one Guidelines 2021, short-term exposure
b) Only two of CO should not exceed 40 µg/m³.

c) All three How many of the above statements are

d) None correct?

75. Which among the following industries a) Only one

releases the highest amount of Greenhouse
Gases into the atmosphere?
b) Only two
a) Chemical industry
c) All three
b) Cement industry
c) Oil and gas industry d) None

d) Mining industry
78. With reference to India’s biodiversity,
76. In the context of Asian Waterbird Census consider the following species:
(AWS), consider the following statements:
1. Ashambu Laughing Thrush
1. Birdlife International leads this
volunteer-based initiative.
2. White-bellied Sholakili
2. Its objective is to take stock of migratory
bird species visiting the wetlands of 3. Andaman Crake
Indian subcontinent and Australian
continent, particularly during their non- 4. Tharosaurus indicus
breeding season.
3. The results of this initiative form the How many of the above species are examples
basis for identification of Ramsar sites. of birds which are also endemic to India?

How many of the statements given above are a) Only one

correct?
a) Only one b) Only two

b) Only two
c) Only three
c) All three
d) All four
d) None

LUKMAAN IAS (33-A)

79. Consider the following pairs: 82. Consider the following features of China type
Protected Areas Rivers flowing of climatic region:
through them 1. Year-round influence of on-shore trade
1. Kalakkad Moyar winds.
Mundanthurai Tiger 2. Fairly uniform annual distribution of
Reserve rainfall.
2. Bannerghata Thamirabarani Which of the statements given above is/are
National Park correct?
3. Mukundra Tiger Chambal
a) 1 only
Reserve
How many of the above pairs are correctly b) 2 only
matched? c) Both 1 and 2
a) Only one d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) Only two 83. In the context of Shale gas, consider the
c) All three following statements:
d) None 1. Shales are fine-grained sedimentary
80. With respect to the World Water Day, which rocks.
one of the following statements is incorrect? 2. Guar gum is used in the extraction of
a) It is observed on 22nd March every shale gas.
year.
3. Large quantity of water is required in
b) It was first proposed during the World the extraction of shale gas.
Summit on Sustainable Development in
Johannesburg. How many of the statements given above are
correct?
c) The theme of the first World Water Day
was ‘Water for Life’. a) Only one
d) The theme of the World Water Day in b) Only two
the year 2023 was ‘Accelerating Change’. c) All three
81. Consider the following statements:
d) None
Statement-I:
84. With reference to the Madden Julian
We do not witness a lunar eclipse on every
Oscillation (MJO), consider the following
full moon day.
statements:
Statement-II:
1. It is a system of cloud bearing winds
Moon’s orbit is inclined at an angle of
travelling along the equator.
about 5 degrees to Earth’s orbital plane.
Which one of the following is correct in 2. Each cycle of MJO lasts approximately
respect of the above statements? 30–60 days.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 3. In its active phase in the tropics, MJO
correct and Statement-II is the correct plays an important role in the
explanation for Statement-I occurrence of monsoon rains.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are How many of the statements given above are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct?
correct explanation for Statement-I a) Only one
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II b) Only two
is incorrect
c) All three
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct d) None

LUKMAAN IAS (35-A)

85. Consider the following pairs: 88. Consider the following statements about the
Types of lakes Associated physical Doctrine of Harmonious Construction:
feature
1. Kettle lake Wind erosion 1. It allows the courts to interpret the
2. Oxbow lake River meanders provisions of a statute to achieve
harmony.
3. Lagoon lake Coastal region
4. Playa lake Karst region 2. It only applies to the statutes and not to
How many of the above given pairs are the Indian Constitution.
correctly matched?
a) Only one 3. The provision of one section can never
b) Only two be used to overthrow the provision
c) Only three covered in another section of the same
statute.
d) All four
86. Consider the following statements in the How many of the above statements are
context of the Ethics Committee of the Lok correct?
Sabha: a) Only one
1. The question of the relevance of the
evidence for the investigation by the b) Only two
committee is decided by the Speaker only.
2. The rules of evidence under the Evidence c) All three
Act are not applicable to a probe
conducted by the Ethics Committee. d) None
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 89. In the Indian context, consider the following
a) 1 only statements about the bye-elections:
b) 2 only
1. The Representation of the Peoples Act,
c) Both 1 and 2 1951 empowers the Election
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Commission of India (ECI) to fill casual
87. Consider the following statements: vacancies in the Lok Sabha within three
1. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act months of their occurrence.
abolished the classification of states
based on four categories. 2. The ECI in consultation with the
2. Right to form cooperative societies is a President can certify that it is difficult
Fundamental Right given through the to hold the bye-election to a legislative
97th Constitutional Amendment Act. assembly within six months.
3. The Parliament was deprived of its
Which of the above given statements is/are
special powers to make laws to deal
correct?
with the anti-national activities through
the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act. a) 1 only
How many of the above statements are
correct? b) 2 only
a) Only one
b) Only two c) Both 1 and 2
c) All three
d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) None

LUKMAAN IAS (37-A)

90. Consider the following pairs: 93. Consider the following statements:
Provisions Acts 1. A decline in yield spread between Indian
1. Establishment of - Pitt’s India and US government bonds may result
Supreme Court Act, 1784 in capital outflows from Indian markets.
2. Open competition for - Charter Act, 2. RBI buys dollar and sells rupee to check
the selection of civil 1833 depreciation of rupee.
servants
3. Selling of Indian stocks by FIIs may
3. Separation of - Charter Act, result in appreciation of Indian
legislative and 1853 currency.
executive functions
How many of the above statements are
How many of the pairs given above are correct?
incorrectly matched?
a) Only one
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs b) Only two
c) All three pairs c) All three
d) None d) None
91. Consider the following statements: 94. How many of the following are the likely
1. Luxury goods have negative income effects of a tight monetary policy on the
elasticity of demand. economy?
2. Giffen goods have positive price 1. Induces the consumers to spend more
elasticity of demand. 2. Investment cycle gets a boost due to
Which of the statements given above is/are lower interest rate
correct?
3. Negatively impacts the growth rate in
a) 1 only the medium term
b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
c) Both 1 and 2 below:
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) Only one
92. Consider the following statements:
b) Only two
1. High oil prices may adversely affect the
capital account of an oil- importing c) All three
country. d) None
2. High exchange rate of the domestic 95. When net factor income from abroad is
currency may improve the trade balance positive, which of the following is necessarily
of an economy. correct?
3. Low exchange rate of the domestic a) Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices
currency may make the imports is equal to GVA at factor prices.
cheaper for an economy.
b) Gross Domestic Product is equal to
How many of the above statements are
National income.
correct?
a) Only one c) Gross National Product is greater than
Gross Domestic Product.
b) Only two
d) Gross Domestic Product is greater than
c) All three
Gross National Product.
d) None

LUKMAAN IAS (39-A)

96. Which of the following statements are correct 98. Consider the following pairs:
in relation to the copper image of a dancing
girl which was excavated from Mohenjo- Authors Texts
Daro? 1. Sarangadev Sangeetratnakara
1. Her long hairs are tied in a bun. 2. Lochana Raagtarangini
2. Bangles cover her right arm. 3. Ahobala Sangeeta Parijata
3. She has large eyes and a sharp nose. 4. Srinivasa Ragatattvabodha
4. She is wearing a necklace made from How many pairs given above are correctly
shells. matched?
Select the correct answer using the code given a) Only one
below:
b) Only two
a) 1 and 2 only
c) Only three
b) 2 and 3 only
d) All four
c) 3 and 4 only
99. Regarding observations made by the
d) 1 and 4 only Moroccan traveller Ibn Battuta, how many of
97. Consider the following statements: the following observations are correct about
medieval India?
Statement I:
1. The land was very fertile.
Some of the most experimental hybrid
styles of vesara architecture are found 2. The cities in the Indian subcontinent
the region of Karnataka. were sparsely populated.

Statement II: 3. The sultan of Delhi was unpredictable.

The hybridization and incorporation of Select the correct answer using the codes
several styles was the hallmark of given below:
Chalukyas, Hoysalas and Vijayanagar. a) Only one
Which one of the following is correct in b) Only two
respect of the above statements?
c) All three
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct d) None
explanation for Statement-I
100. Who was the founder of the Lokayata school
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are of Indian philosophy?
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I a) Charvaka

c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is b) Badrayana

incorrect
c) Brihaspati
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
d) Charaka
is correct

LUKMAAN IAS (41-A)