Test Booklet Series

Parishram Polity FLT

A
2023 Roll No.

Parishram Prelims Test Series for 2024

Time Allowed:120 Maximum Marks: 100

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 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOK LET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
t.me/Target30UPSC
1) In India, the panchayats receive
funds through which of the following
sources?
1. Their own sources of revenue like
local taxes and revenue from common
property resources
2. Grants in aid from the Centre and
State governments
3. Discretionary or scheme-based funds
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
3) With reference to the power of the
Governor under the Sixth Schedule,
consider the following:
1. Create a new autonomous district
2. Increase the area of any
Contact No. 8830115524
2) Consider the following statements.
1. The Supreme Court under Article
142 of the Constitution can pass any
order to carry out for doing complete
justice being in the public interest,
while upholding the Constitution of
India.
2. The concepts of faith, belief and
worship are the foundations of Articles
25 and 26 of the Constitution of India.
3. The High Court can pass an order for
doing complete justice to the parties,
through a power akin to Article 142 of
the Constitution of India.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
4) Various laws constituted in British
India provided for the representation of
various sections of the society. Who
among the following were given
representation by means of a Separate
Electorate?
1. Muslims
autonomous district 2. Women
3. Anglo Indians
3. Alter the name of any autonomous 4. Europeans
district 5. Depressed classes

4. Unite two or more autonomous How many of the above statements are
districts or parts thereof so as to form correct?
one autonomous district

How many of the above statements are

correct? a. Only two

b. Only three

a. Only one
c. Only four

b. Only two
d. All five

c. Only three

d. All four

5) Consider the following statements: 6) With reference to the Money bill in

1. In appellate jurisdiction, the
Supreme Court has exclusive power to
adjudicate upon disputes involving
elections of the President and the Vice
President.
2. In advisory jurisdiction, the President
has the power to seek an opinion from
the apex court under Article 143 of the
Constitution
India, consider the following:
1. Only those financial Bills which
receive
the speaker's certificate are Money
Bills.
2. Speakers decision whether a
financial
bill is a money bill or not can be
challenged.
3. Money Bill can be introduced by a
minister and a private member.

3. In original jurisdiction, the Supreme How many of the statements given

Court hears appeals from lower courts. above are correct?

How many of the statements given

above are correct?
a. Only one

b. Only two
a. Only one

c. All three
b. Only two
 c. All three
d. None
7) With regards to the Rules of the
Rajya Sabha's Rules of Procedure,
examine
the following statements:
1. Under Rule 255, an MP can be
suspended for
disregarding the authority of the Chair
or
wilfully abusing the rules or obstructing
the business of the house.
2. The power to suspend an MP under
Rule 256 is vested
in the house, not the chairman.
3. Rule 267 Allows for the suspension
of any rule in relation to a motion
related to the business listed before
the Council of that day.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
9) In which of the following cases the
President of India cannot exercise his
or
her discretionary powers:
1. When the President sends back the
advice given by the Council of Ministers
2. When the President gives assent to
the
d. None
8) With reference to the Department-
Related Standing Committees (DRS,
examine the following statements:
1. The Department-Related Standing
Committees (DRS are reconstituted
every year by both the Presiding
Officers
of Parliament in consultation with the
respective parties and the government.
2. The committees of the Lok Sabha
are
more in number than Rajya Sabha.
3. In the DRSC, member are only from
Loksabha.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
10) "Which of the following pairs is/are
appropriately matched?
Municipal Body Type: Members'
Characteristics
1. Cantonment Board: Partially elected
and partially nominated
2. Notified Area Committee: Entirely
nominated
ordinary bills 3. Town Area Committee : Fully elected
3. While appointing the Prime Minister Using the code provided below, select
during Hung Parliament the correct option:"
4. When the President gives assent to
the
constitutional amendment bills
a. Only one pair is correct
How many of the above are correct?
b. Only two pair is correct

a. Only one c. None of the above pair is correct

b. Only two d. All the pairs are correct

c. Only three

d. All four

11) "Consider the following statements 12) Consider the following:

with respect to Subordinate Legislation:
1. Article 12(3) of the Indian 1. Corrupt practices
Constitution includes within the
definition of law forms of subordinate 2. Undue interference
legislation such as order, rule,
regulation, notification. 3. Office of Profit
2. Executive is given powers by
primary legislation to make laws in How many of the above are not defined
order to implement and administer the under the Constitution of India?
requirements of that primary
legislation.
3. Subordinate legislation can only be
framed under a central or state Act if a. Only one
the Act gives rule-making power to the
government
b. Only two
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
c. All three

d. None

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. All three
 d. None
13) Consider the following statements
1. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of
India (TRAI) is a statutory body.
2. TRAI consists of a chairperson and
not more than two whole-time
Members and not more than two part-
time Members.
3. It regulates telecom services,
excluding fixation/revision of tariffs for
telecom services which is vested in the
Central Government.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
15) Which of the following provisions
relating to electoral laws is/are dealt by
Representation of the People Act,
1951:
1. Delimitation of Constituencies
14) Consider the following statements
1. Article 366(25) explicitly enumerates
the tribes that are classified as
Scheduled Tribes in India.
2. Article 342(1) empowers the
President to specify which tribes or
tribal communities are to be
considered as Scheduled Tribes, in
consultation with the respective State
Legislature.
3. The Fifth Schedule of the
Constitution is concerned with the
administration and control of
Scheduled Areas and STs in some
states.
4. The Sixth Schedule is pertinent only
to the administration of tribal areas in
the states of Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura, and Mizoram and has no
bearing on other states.
How many of the above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
16) Which of the following are the
duties of the Returning Officer while
conducting elections:
1. Accepting and scrutinizing the
nomination forms.
2. Disqualifications for membership of
Parliament
3. Disputes regarding elections
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
2. Publishing the affidavits of the
candidates.
3. Allotting symbols to the contesting
candidates.
4. Preparing the EVMs and the VVPATs.
How many of the above are correct?

a. Only one
a. Only one

b. Only two
b. Only two

c. All three
c. Only three

d. None
d. All four

17) What could be the possible reasons
for democracy being the most
prevalent
and better than other forms of
government:
1. It based on the principle of political
equality.
2. It extracts accountability from the
government.
3. It ensures the elimination of income
inequalities.
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
18) With reference to recognised
National Parties, consider the following
statements:
1. Seven parties in India have got the
recognition as a National Party.
2. The conditions for being listed as a
national or a state party are specified
under the Representation of the People
Act, 1951.
3. Recognition as a state party in at
least
four states is one of the condition for
getting recognition as a national party
How many of the statements given
above are correct?

a. Only one

b. Only two
a. Only one

c. All three
b. Only two

d. None
c. All three

d. None
19) Consider the following statements: 20) Select the correct chronological
1. During a national emergency, the order for the following order:
executive power of the Centre extends 1. First Administrative Reforms
to Commission
directing any state regarding the 2. Anandpur Sahib Resolution
manner 3. West Bengal memorandum
in which its executive power is to be 4. Raja Mannar Committee
exercised.
2. The laws made by Parliament on the
state subjects during a National
Emergency would exist until repealed a. 1-2-3-4
by
State Legislature or Parliament.
b. 1-4-2-3
3. When a proclamation of national
emergency is made, the six
Fundamental c. 2-1-4-3
Rights under Article 19 are
automatically
d. 1-4-3-2
suspended.
4. The 44th Amendment Act of 1976
enabled the
president to limit the operation of a
National Emergency to a specified part
of
India.

How many of the above are correct?

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. Only three

d. All four

21) Consider the following: 22) Consider the following statements

1. National Law Commission
2. Finance Commission
3. National Development Council
related to the Charter Act of 1813:
1. The Act entirely abolished the East
India Company's commercial monopoly
in the Indian subcontinent.
2. For the inaugural time, the Act
delineated the constitutional
4. NITI Aayog
How many of the above are
constitutional bodies?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
23) Consider the following statements
concerning Article 20 of the
Constitution of India, which deals with
"Protection in respect of conviction for
offenses":
1. Article 20(1) prohibits retrospective
criminal legislation but allows for
retrospective civil and tax laws.
2. Article 20(2) provides immunity from
double jeopardy but only against
punishment for an offense, not against
prosecution.
3. Article 20(3) extends the immunity
from self-incrimination to both criminal
and civil proceedings.
4. The burden of proof in criminal cases
under Article 20 always lies with the
State, whereas in civil cases, it lies with
the person who filed the case.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
framework governing British territorial
holdings in India.
3. The Act granted legal sanction for
Christian missionaries to propagate
their faith within Indian territories.
4. The Act metamorphosed the East
India Company into a solely
administrative entity, relinquishing all
its commercial activities.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
24) Consider the following statements
concerning the legislative and
administrative changes brought about
by the Government of India Act, 1919:
1. The Act introduced the concept of
dyarchy at both the provincial and
central levels, aiming to distribute
administrative responsibilities between
the British and Indians.
2. While the Act did introduce
bicameralism, both the Council of State
(Upper House) and the Legislative
Assembly (Lower House) had the same
tenure of 5 years.
3. The Act extended the principle of
communal representation but also
instituted a restricted franchise based
on property, tax, or educational
qualifications, thereby limiting the
scope of universal adult suffrage.
 4. The Act not only separated the
provincial budgets from the Central
budget but also laid the groundwork for
a. Only one the establishment of a Central Public
Service Commission in 1926, a
precursor to the modern-day Union
b. Only two
Public Service Commission.

c. Only three How many of the above statements are

meticulously accurate?
d. All four

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. Only three

d. All four

25) As of now, the Right to Property,
under Article 300A, could be
considered as a right in which of
the following ways?
1. Constitutional Right
2. Statutory Right
3. Fundamental Right
4. Human Right
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
26) What are the common objectives of
the Prohibition as well as Certiorari
under the Writ Jurisdiction of the Indian
Constitution?
1. To ensure the jurisdiction of an
inferior court or tribunal is properly
exercised.
2. To ensure that the functioning of the
inferior courts is within the limits of its
jurisdiction.
3. To quash the order or decision of the
inferior court or tribunal.

How many of the statements given

a. One option only above are correct?

b. Two options only

c. Three options only a. Only one

d. All the four options b. Only two

c. All three

27) Under Section 8(1) of the
Representation of the People Act of
1951, which of the following offences
can lead to disqualification of an MP.
1. Undue influence or personation at an
election
2. Bribery
3. Promoting enmity between two
groups
4. Defamation
How many of the above options are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
29) Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India provides for
free and compulsory education to a
child between the age group of 6 to 14
years.
2. The Right to Education Act, 2009
prohibits screening procedures for
admission of children in schools.
3. The Right to Education Act, 2009 is
applicable to minority and religious
educational
institutions.
d. None
28) Consider the following statements.
1. The Memorandum of Procedure
(MoP) governs the appointment of
members of the higher judiciary in
India.
2. The Memorandum of Procedure
(MoP) says that the Union Minister of
Law and Justice would seek the
recommendation of the outgoing Chief
Justice of India for the appointment of
the next Chief Justice of India.
3. Article 124 of the Constitution
contains the provisions related to
Memorandum of Procedure (MoP).
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
30) With reference to the Model Prison
Act 2023, consider the following
statements:
1. The Act seeks to create provisions
for the grant of parole, furlough, and
remission to prisoners to encourage
good conduct.
2. It aims to provide separate
accommodation for women and
transgender inmates.
4. RTE provides 40% seat reservation
in private schools for poor children.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
3.It aims for establishment and
management of high security jails, but
does away with open jail due to
security reasons.
4. In India, prisons and the ‘persons
detained therein’ are a Concurrent
subject.
How many of the statements given
above are the provisions of the Model
Prison Act 2023?

c. Only three

a. Only one
d. All

b. Only two

c. Only three

d. All

31) With reference to the Indian
Constitution, the concept of ‘principled
distance’ is related to
1. Federalism
2. Socialism
3. Secularism
4. Separation of Powers
How many of the above statements are
correct?
32) Consider the following statements:
1. Article 174 of the Constitution says:
“The House or Houses of the
Legislature of the State shall be
summoned by Chief minister to meet
twice at least in every year, and six
months shall not intervene between
their last sitting in one session and the
date appointed for their first sitting in
the next session.”

2. When the Governor summons the

a. Only one House under Article 174, this is of his
or her own will.
b. Only two
3. The court read the power to summon
the House in Nabam Rebia case (2016)
c. Only three as a “function” of the Governor and it
is a “power” he enjoys.
d. All
How many of the above statements are
correct?
 a. Only one

b. Only two

c. All three

d. None

33) Consider the following 34) Consider the following

1. Departmentally-Related Standing 1. The Indian Penal Code, 1861 was

Committees (DRSCs) were created just
after first session of Parliament after its
inauguration.
2. Each standing committee consists of
31 members (21 from Lok Sabha and
10 from Rajya Sabh.
3. The members of the Lok Sabha are
elected from amongst its own
members, just as the members of the
Rajya Sabha are elected from amongst
its members.
passed by the British parliament.
2. The CrPC was created for the first
time ever in 1882 and then amended in
1898, then according to the 41st Law
Commission report in 1973.
3. The CrPC code defines the term
"bail" and the terms "bailable" and
"non-bailable".
How many of the above statements are
correct?

4. The term of office of each standing

committee coincides with the duration
of the house. a. Only one

How many of the above statements are

b. Only two
incorrect?

c. All three

a. Only one
d. None

b. Only two

c. Only three

d. All
35) Consider the following
1. The minimum age for a person to
contest Lok Sabha and Assembly polls
is 25 years.
2. One can become a member of the
Rajya Sabha or the State Legislative
Council only at 25 years.
3. 18 years to be the minimum age for
contesting elections to panchayats.
4. The 42nd Amendment of the Indian
Constitution reduced the voting age in
the Legislative Assemblies and the Lok
Sabha from 21 to 18 years.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All
37) Consider the following statements
about National Commission for Safai
Karamcharis
1. The National Commission for Safai
Karamcharis (NCSK) is statutory body.
2. NCSK studies, evaluates and
36) Consider the following statements
regarding Multi-State Cooperative
Societies (Amendment) Act 2023
1. Under the amended Act, elections to
the board of a multi-state co-operative
society will be conducted by its existing
board.
2. The Act provides for the
amalgamation and division of multi-
state co-operative societies by passing
a resolution at a general meeting with
simple majority.
3. The Act establishes the Co-operative
Rehabilitation, Reconstruction and
Development Fund for revival of sick
multi-state co-operative societies.
4. The Act amends this to provide that
any shares held by the central and
state governments cannot be
redeemed without their prior approval.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All
38) Consider the following statements
regarding the formation and
composition of the Constituent
Assembly of India:
1. The members of the Constituent
Assembly were elected by the people
of British India through direct elections.
monitors the implementation of various
schemes for Safai Karamcharis as an
autonomous organisation.
3. The NCSK Act ceased to have effect
in 2004.
4. As per the provisions of the
Prohibition of Employment as Manual
Scavengers and their Rehabilitation
Act, 2013, the NCSK has been assigned
the work to monitor the
implementation of the Act.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All
39) Consider the following events in
the history of British India:
1. Establishment of the Supreme Court
of Calcutta
2. Abolition of Secretary of State
3. Constitution of Governor General’s
Legislative Council
4. Abolition of Council of India
Arrange the above in chronological
order:
a. 1-2-3-4
b. 1-3-4-2
c. 1-3-2-4
2. The total strength of the Constituent
Assembly was 389, with 296 seats
allotted to British India and 93 seats to
the princely states.
3. The members representing the
princely states were nominated by the
heads of the princely states.
4. The elections to the Constituent
Assembly were held in 1947 after India
gained independence.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All
40) Who among the following influence
the process of judicial appointment?
1. Council of Ministers
2. Governors
3. Chief Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
 d. 4-2-3-1 d. All

41) Indian federalism is constitutionally 42) Which of the following cases

asymmetric because of: require the use
1. Existence of a State including its of special majority i.e. two-thirds
territorial integrity is in the hands of majority
Parliament. of members present and voting and
2. More important subjects are vested simple
with majority of the total membership of the
centre. House?
3. Differences in the way some States 1. To pass the Rajya Sabha resolution
and to
other constituent units of the Indian empower the parliament to make laws
Union relate to the Centre. in
4. Presence of emergency provisions, the state list.
which 2. Resolution by the state legislature
can turn our federal polity into a highly for the
centralized system. creation/abolition of Legislative
Council.
How many of the above statements are 3. Removal of Vice-president
correct? 4. Removal of Chief Election
Commissioner

How many of the above statements are

a. Only one correct?

b. Only two

c. Only three a. Only one

d. All b. Only two

c. All three

d. All

43) Which of the following provisions in
Indian constitution are directly
borrowed from constitutions of
different countries?
1. Federal Scheme and Office of
governor
44) With regards to the Zonal
Councils, examine the following
statements:
1. 5 Zonal Councils were established as
per the States Reorganisation Act,
1956
2. Its objectives is to help in arresting
2. Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court
3. Impeachment of the president and
removal of Supreme Court Judges.
4. Parliamentary privileges
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All
45) Examine the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India
a political
person who is eligible to vote can be
made
a minister in a State for six months
even if
he/she is not a member of the
Legislature
of that State
2. According to the Representation of
People Act, 1951, a person convicted of
a states
criminal offence and sentenced to
imprisonment for five years is
permanently
disqualified from contesting an election
even after his release from prison
Select the correct answer code:
a. 1 only
the
growth of acute state-consciousness,
regionalism, linguism and
particularistic trends
3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands and
Lakshadweep are not members of any
of
the Zonal Councils
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
46) Examine the following statements,
As per the Election Commission, a
party shall be eligible to be recognized
as
a National party:
1. If it secures six per cent of valid
votes
polled in any four or more states at a
general election to the Lok Sabha
2. If it is recognised as a state party in
four
3. If it wins two per cent of seats in the
Lok Sabha at a general election; and
these
candidates are elected from three
states
Select the correct answer code:
a. Either 1 or 2 but not 3
 b. 2 only
c. Both 1 & 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
47) Consider the following statements
in regards to contempt of court
1. The nod of the Attorney General or
the
Solicitor General is a condition
precedent
to set the criminal contempt
proceedings
in motion before the apex court.
2. The AG’s consent is mandatory when
a correct?
private citizen wants to initiate a case
of
contempt of court against a person.
3. Article 129 of the Constitution gives
the
Supreme Court the power to initiate
contempt cases on its own as well.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
49) Consider the following statements
with respect to rights
1. Rights are claims of the State
against the citizens.
b. Either 2 or 3 but not 1
c. Either 1 or 3 but not 2
d. Either 1, 2 or 3
48) Which one of the following
objectives is not embodied in the
Preamble
to the Constitution of India?
1. Liberty of thought
2. Economic liberty
3. Liberty of expression
4. Liberty of belief
How many of the above statements are
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All
50) Which principle among the
following was added to the Directive
Principles of State Policy by the 42nd
Amendment to the Constitution?
1. Equal pay for equal work for both
2. Rights are privileges which are
incorporated in the Constitution of a
State.
3. Rights are claims of the citizens
against the State.
4. Rights are privileges of a few citizens
against the many
men and women
2. Participation of workers in the
management of industries
3. Right to work, education and public
assistance
4. Securing living wage and human
conditions of work to workers

How many of the above statements are How many of the above statements are
correct? correct?

a. Only one a. Only one

b. Only two b. Only two

c. Only three c. Only three

d. All d. All

51) Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of
India, the Directive Principles of
State Policy constitute limitations upon
1. Legislative function.
2. Executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
52) Which of the following provisions
guarantees the independence of the
Indian judiciary?
1. The Supreme Court judges' salaries
and pensions are both charged to the
Consolidated Fund of India.
2. Only Parliament has the authority to
limit the Supreme Court's jurisdiction.
3. Retired Supreme Court judges are
not barred from practising law
anywhere in India.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:"
How many of the above statements are
correct?

d. Neither 1 nor 2
a. Only one

b. Only two

c. All three

53) In regards to the office of
Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG) of
India, consider the following:
1. It has more freedom with regard to
the
audit of expenditure than the audit of
receipts, stores and stock.
2. It conducts only 3 types of audits
namely- legal, regulatory & propriety
audit.
3. It has absolutely no control over the
issue of money from the Consolidated
Fund of India.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
55) Consider the following statements
about Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
(BCAS)
1. It is a statutory body.
2. The aim of BCAS is to safeguard civil
aviation operations against acts of
unlawful interference.
3. It implements the Chicago
convention
How many of the above statements are
d. None
54) Consider the following statements
1. Article 370 was a temporary
provision in the Constitution.
2. Article 371 with regard to other
States is also a temporary provision.
3. Article 371 of the Constitution
guarantees protection of the cultural
and economic interests, as well as
ensures the rule of law, for the people
of 12 States
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
56) Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Indian Constitution,
all
lands, minerals and other things of
value
underlying the ocean within the
territorial
waters or the continental shelf of India
vest in the Indian Union.
2. .With regard to the EEZ, the state
merely has exclusive
sovereign economic rights to
substances lying below the surface of
the sea.
correct? Select the correct answer code:

a. 1 only
a. Only one

b. 2 only
b. Only two

c. Both 1 & 2
c. All three

d. Neither 1 nor 2
d. None

57) With reference to Princely States,
examine the following statements:
1. The All India States Peoples'
Conference
was established in 1927 with its
headquarters in New Delhi.
2. Gandhiji never intervened in the
politics
of the Princely States.
3. Princes rejected the Federal Scheme
of
the Government of India Act, 1935.
How many of the above statements are
incorrect?
58) Consider the following statements
regarding transfer of High Court Judges
1. The Chief Justice of India can
transfer a judge from one high court to
another after
consulting the President.
2. Supreme Court held that judicial
review is necessary to check
arbitrariness in transfer of judges. But,
only the judge who is transferred can
challenge it.
3. The sole opinion of the chief justice
of India constitute the ‘consultation’
process.

a. Only one 4. The Governor can appoint a judge of

a high court as an acting chief justice
of
b. Only two
the high court.

c. All three How many of the above statements are

correct?
d. None

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. Only three

59) Consider the following statements:
1. The President of India, in exercise of
the
powers conferred by Article 223, can
appoint a judge of a high court as an
Acting Chief Justice of the High Court.
2. An acting judge cannot hold office
after
attaining the age of 62 years.
Select the correct answer code:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 & 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
61) Consider the following statements
with respect to Overseas Citizens of
India
1. They are in parity with Non-Resident
Indians (NRIs) in matters relating to the
acquisition of agricultural or plantation
properties.
2. They are exempted from registration
with
Foreigners Regional Registration
Officer
(FRRO) or Foreigners Registration
Officer
(FRO) for any length of stay in India.
3. OCI does not confer political rights.
4. Overseas Citizenship of India
Scheme was launched during Pravasi
d. All
60) In which one of the following
groups are all the states beneficiaries
of special provisions outlined in Articles
371 to 371-J of the Indian Constitution:
a. Maharashtra, Gujarat, Meghalaya,
Assam
b. Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,
Sikkim, Mizoram
c. Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa,
Karnataka
d. Telangana, Jammu & Kashmir,
Assam, Nagaland
62) Which of the following are not
necessarily the consequences of the
proclamation of the President’s rule in
a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative
Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers
in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
Bharatiya Divas in 2015. d. None

How many of the above statements are

incorrect?

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. All three

d. None

63) Consider the following statements 64) Consider the following statements

Statement-I : Non-democratic regimes Statement-I : Democracy transforms

often turn a blind eye to or suppress people from the status of a subject into
internal social differences. that of a citizen.

Statement-II : They accommodate Statement-II: Most individuals believe

various social divisions. that their vote makes a difference to
the way the governments run and to
Which one of the following is correct in their own self-interest
respect of the above statements?

a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II

a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the
are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
correct explanation for Statement-I

b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II

b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not
are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
the correct explanation for Statement-I
Statement-I

c. Statement-I is correct but

c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Statement-II is incorrect

d. Statement-I is incorrect but

d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Statement-II is correct
65) Consider the following statements
1. The POCSO Act was enacted as a
result of India's ratification of the UN
Convention on the Rights of the Child in
1992.
2. The Act aims to address offences of
sexual exploitation and sexual abuse of
children, which were inadequately
penalised before.
3. The Act defines a child as any
person above the age of 18 years.
4. The Act was amended in 2019 to
introduce more stringent punishment,
including the death penalty for sexual
crimes against children.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All
67) Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Commission of
Railway Safety (CRS) is a government
body that acts as the railway safety
authority in the country.
Statement-II: CRS is under the
administrative control of the Ministry of
Railways.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
66) consider the following statements
regarding Cantonment boards
1. These are operated in accordance
with the provisions of the Cantonment
Act of 2006.
2. These falls under the jurisdiction of
the Union Ministry of Defence.
3. A cantonment board is created by
the Central government and
administered by State governments.
4. The boards comprise elected
representatives as well as ex-officio
and nominated members as per the
Cantonments Act, 2006.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All
68) If the President of India exercises
his power as provided under Article
356 of the Constitution in respect of a
particular State, then
1. The Assembly of the State is
automatically dissolved.
2. The powers of the Legislature of that
State shall be exercisable by or
under the authority of the Parliament.
3. Article 19 is suspended in that State.
4. The President can make laws
relating to that State.
 How many of the above statements are
correct?

a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II

are correct, and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I a. Only one

b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II b. Only two

are correct, and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for
Statement-I c. Only three

c. Statement-I is Correct, but d. All

Statement II is not correct

d. Statement-I is incorrect, but

Statement-II is correct

69) Which of the following statements 70) Consider the following statements
is/ are regarding
correct? Freedom of Movement as mentioned
1. Right to Equality subscribes to the Article 19:
ideal 1. Freedom of movement protects right
of equality of all human beings. to
2. Right to Equality also recognises that move out of the country and right to
certain conditions viz a person’s caste, come
restrict equality in real life. back to the country.
3. First Amendment Act, 1951 2. This right underline the idea that
authorises India
the state to make special provisions is one unit so far as the citizens are
for the advancement ‘of the socially concerned.
and educationally backward classes of 3. The state can impose reasonable
citizens restrictions.

How many of the above statements are

correct?
a. Only one

b. Only two
a. Only one

c. All three
b. Only two

d. None
c. All three

d. None
71) Consider the following statements
1. Socio-Economic and Caste Census is
a tool to identify beneficiaries of state
support.
2. Census as well as SECC-2011 falls
under the Census Act of 1948.
3. SECC was conducted for the first
time after independence.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
72) Which of the following are
Fundamental
Duties of an Indian citizen according to
Article
51-A of the Constitution?
1. To safeguard public property and to
abjure violence
2. To uphold and protect the
sovereignty,
unity and integrity of India
3. To help the poor and weaker
sections
of the society
4. To build an egalitarian social order
and
establish a welfare state.

a. Only one How many of the above statements are

correct?
b. Only two

c. All three
a. Only one

d. None
b. Only two

c. Only three

d. All

73) Which of the following is/are 74) Consider the following statements:
mentioned in 1. The Sixth Schedule to the
Article 51A? Constitution provides for 10
1. National Flag Autonomous District Councils in 4
2. National Anthem states.
3. National Song 2. Each Autonomous District has a
4. National Emblem District Council, consisting of 30
elected members.
How many of the above statements are 3. The District Councils have the power
correct? to codify the customary laws that deal
with the civil matters.

How many of the above statements are

a. Only one correct?
 b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All
75) Consider the following statements
about
the Office of the Lokpal in India:
1. The Lokpal shall have the powers of
superintendence over the Delhi
Special Police Establishment and the
Central Vigilance Commission.
2. The administrative expenses of the
Lokpal, including all salaries,
allowances and pensions, shall be
charged upon the Consolidated Fund
of India.
3. The Chairperson of the Lokpal shall
be appointed by the President of
India, after obtaining the
recommendations of a Selection
Committee, headed by the Chief
Justice of India.
4. The Inquiry Wing of the Lokpal shall
have all the powers of a civil court.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
76) Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is
empowered to either withdraw any
member from the House or name any
persons for suspension for smooth
functioning of the House.
2. A motion shall be presented in the
Lok Sabha for the suspension of the
named person and on being passed by
the House, results in suspension of
the member for the remainder of the
Session of the House.
3. The motion for the suspension of the
member of the Rajya Sabha is moved
by the Chairman and is adopted by
the Council.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
77) Consider the following statements :
1. The motion to impeach a judge of
the Supreme Court of India
cannot be rejected by the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha as per the
Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The constitution of India defines and
gives details of what
constitutes “incapacity and proved
misbehaviour” of the judges of
the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of the
impeachment of the judges of the
Supreme Court of India are given in the
judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion of the impeachment of
a judge is taken up for voting,
the law requires the motion to be
backed by each house of the
parliament and supported by a majority
of total membership of that
house and by not less than two-thirds
of total members of that House
present and voting.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
78) Consider the following statements
about
the National Crisis Management
Committee (NCM:
1. The Union Home Minister is the
Chairman of the National Crisis
Management Committee.
2. It has been constituted in the
Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. It plays an important role in the
handling of the multi-state disasters.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. Only three

d. All

79) With reference to the Joint Sitting
of both
the Houses of the Parliament, consider
the following statements:
1. The Attorney General of India is
prohibited by the Constitutional
Provisions to attend the Joint Sitting
80) Consider the following statements
1. The power to convene a session of
Parliament rests with the government.
2. The decision is taken by the Cabinet
Committee on Parliamentary Affairs,
of both the Houses of the Parliament.
2. The President of India can call for a
Joint Sitting of both the Houses of the
Parliament on any Bill, including the
Money Bill and the Constitution
Amendment Bill.
3. The Bills, at the Joint Sitting of both
the Houses of the Parliament, are
passed by a majority of the total
membership of that House and by a
majority of not less than two-thirds of
the members of that House, present
and voting.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
which currently comprises nine
ministers, including those for Defence,
Home, Finance, and Law.
3. The decision of the Committee is
formalised by the Speaker, in whose
name MPs are summoned to meet for a
session.
4. India has a fixed parliamentary
calendar.
How many of the above statements are
correct?

a. Only one

a. Only one
b. Only two

b. Only two
c. Only three

c. All three
d. All

d. None

81) Consider the following countries: 82) Consider the following islands:

1. Greece 1. Triton Island

2. Turkey 2. Easter Island

3. Bulgaria 3. Scarborough Shoal

How many of the countries given above 4. Woody Island

borders the Aegean Sea?
How many of the islands given above
are part of the South China Sea?

a. Only one

a. Only one
b. Only two

b. Only two
c. All three
 d. None c. Only three

d. All four

83) With reference to sea lion, consider 84) Rugose Spiralling Whitefly, which
the following statements: was recently seen in the news is:

1. It is mainly found only in the Pacific

Ocean region.
a. Indicator Species
2. It is a semi-aquatic carnivorous
mammal.
b. An Invasive pest

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct? c. Keystone Species

Which of the statements given above

d. None of the Above
is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

85) With reference to the Self 86) Which of the following

Regulatory Organisation (SRO), countries/union is not a part of the
consider the following statements: G-20?

1. It is a statutory body under Ministry

of Commerce that sets and enforces
rules and standards relating to the a. European Union
conduct of entities in the industry.
b. Argentina
2. It aims to protect the customer and
promote ethics, equality, and
professionalism. c. African Union

3. This organisation collaborates with

d. UAE
stakeholders in framing rules and
regulations.

How many of the statements given

above are correct?

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. All three

d. None

87) Consider the following statements 88) MQ-9B was in the news. It is:
about the ASEAN-India Summit:

1. India has invited ASEAN countries to

join Coalition for Disaster Resilient a. Fighter Jet
Infrastructure.
b. Surface-to-air missile
2. Timor-Leste participated in the
Summit as a new permanent member.
c. Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
3. The 20th ASEAN-India Summit was
held at Manilla.
d. Aircraft Carrier

How many of the statements given

above are correct?

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. All three

d. None
89) Keeling Islands, recently seen in 90) Consider the following statements
news is located in which of the about Gender Gap Index, 2023
following ocean of the world?
1. Global Gender Gap Report is
released biennially by the World
Economic Forum.
2. India was ranked at 127 out of 146
a. Indian Ocean countries in terms of gender parity in
2023 index.
3. According to the report, India had
b. Arctic Ocean
attained parity in enrolment across all
levels of education.
c. Pacific Ocean
How many of the statements given
above are correct?
d. Atlantic Ocean

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. All Three

d. None

91) Beki River, recently seen in news is
a tributary of which of the following
river?
a. Mahanadi River
92) Consider the following statements
about ‘Energy Charter Treaty’
1. It is an international agreement that
establishes a multilateral framework
for cross-border cooperation in
renewable energy

2. The treaty covers all aspects of

b. Narmada River
commercial energy activities including
trade, transit, investments and energy
c. Brahmaputra River efficiency

3. The Energy Charter Conference, an

d. Periyar River
inter-governmental organisation was
established under this treaty

How many of the statements given

above are correct?
 a. Only one

b. Only two

c. All Three

d. None

93) Call Before u Dig (CBu Application, 94) With reference to the Central
which was recently seen in the news, is Bureau of Narcotics (CBN), consider the
developed by which Union Ministry? following statements:

1. It gives licenses to farmers to

cultivate opium poppy.
a. Ministry of commerce
2. It works under the Union Ministry of
Home Affairs.
b. Ministry of Communications

Which of the statements given above

c. Ministry of Agriculture is/are correct?

d. None of these

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

95) With reference to the Marburg virus 96) The border between India and
disease (MV, consider the following Myanmar runs along
statements:
1. Mizoram
1. MVD is a severe hemorrhagic fever 2. Nagaland
that affects both people and non- 3. Manipur
human primates. 4. Arunachal Pradesh
5. Tripura
2. It is transmitted to people from fruit How many of the above options are
bats and spreads among humans correct?
through human-to-human transmission.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct? a. Only two

b. Only three

a. 1 only
c. Only four

b. 2 only
d. All five

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

97) Global Food Policy Report 2023, 98) Consider the following statements
recently seen in news is published by about National Technical Research
which of the organization? Organisation (NTRO)

1. It is a technical intelligence Agency

a. Food and Agriculture Organization
(FAO)
b. International Rice Research Institute
(IRRI)
c. International Food Policy Research
Institute (IFPRI)
d. United Nations Development
Programme (UNDP)
under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. NTRO is headed by a Chairman who
reports directly to the Prime Minister of
India.
3. It was formed in 2009, after the
Mumbai terror attack to strengthen the
country's national security apparatus.
How many of the above statements are
correct?

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. All three

d. None
99) Consider the following statements 100) Yanomami region, recently seen
about Stablecoins in news is located in which of the
following country?
1. They are cryptocurrencies whose
value is pegged to that of another
currency, commodity, or financial
instrument.

2. Unlike cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin, a. Brazil

stablecoins’ prices remain steady.
b. Venezuela
3. They are open, global, and
accessible to anyone on the internet.
c. Sudan
How many of the above statements are
correct?
d. Bolivia

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. All three

d. None