Test Booklet Series

A
Polity
50 Questions
2023-24

Polity Test 2

Time Allowed: 60 Minutes Maximum Marks: 100

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1 : Consider the following statements: in India:

1. The Supreme Court in ‘Kedarnath Singh 1. The Constitution of India explicitly

v State of Bihar’ upheld the constitutional defines the criteria for recognition of
validity of IPC Section 124A. Scheduled Tribes, including ethnological
traits and socio-economic backwardness.
2. Currently, Section 124A of the Indian
Penal Code, which deals with sedition, has 2. The process of adding a community to
a punishment which may extend up to the ST list requires approval from the
seven years along with a fine. Registrar General of India (RGI) and the
National Commission for Scheduled
3. The Law Commission is currently Tribes.
headed by former Chief Justice of India N
V Ramana. 3. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
lays out provisions for the Administration
How many of the statements given above and Control of Scheduled Areas and STs in
are correct? states including Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura, and Mizoram.
A. Only one
B. Only two 4. The inclusion of any community in the
C. All three Scheduled Tribes list requires the
D. None President's assent to a Bill that amends the
Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order,
2 : Consider the following statements: 1950.

1. Through legal and constitutional rights, How many of the statements given above
people essentially make demands upon the are correct?
state.
A. Only one
2. A right is only possible when one can B. Only two
make a claim that is equally possible for C. Only three
others. D. All four

3. Rights not only indicate what the state 4 : Consider the following statements:
must do, they also suggest what the state
must refrain from doing. 1. Parliamentary privilege in India is
explicitly governed by the Constitution
How many of the statements given above (Privileges) Act, 1950.
are correct?
2. The Committee of Privileges in the
A. Only one Rajya Sabha is headed by the Chairman,
B. Only two while in the Lok Sabha, it is headed by the
C. All three Deputy Speaker.
D. None
3. The Committee of Privileges can make
3 : Consider the following statements final decisions on questions of breach of
regarding the process and criteria of privilege referred to it by the
inclusion in the Scheduled Tribes (ST) list
Page 2
Speaker/Chairman.
4. The Committee of Privileges has the
power to conduct a preliminary inquiry
into the disqualification of a member on
the ground of defection and submit a
report to the Speaker/Chairman.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
1. The Committee was established in 1966
under Section 4 of The Official Languages
Act, 1963.
2. The Committee is chaired by the Union
Minister of Education.
3. The Committee consists of 40 members,
with 20 MPs from Lok Sabha and 20 MPs
from Rajya Sabha.

A. Only one 4. The first Report of the Committee was

B. Only two submitted in 1987, and its primary
C. Only three mandate is to review the progress made in
D. All four the use of Hindi for official purposes.

5 : Consider the following statements: How many of the statements given above
are correct?
1. A charge sheet is prepared by the police
only after the court's order to commence A. Only one
the investigation. B. Only two
C. Only three
2. The time limit for filing a charge sheet D. All four
is 60 days for cases triable by Court of
Sessions and 90 days for cases triable by 7 : Which of the following Amendments
lower courts. introduced an electoral college for the
election of the Vice-President of India:
3. An FIR can only be lodged by the victim
or the victim's family in the case of a A. The Thirteenth Amendment Act,
cognizable offence. 1962
B. The Eleventh Amendment Act, 1961
4. A cognizable offence is one in which the C. The Twelfth Amendment Act, 1962
police may arrest a person without a D. None of the above
warrant, and they are authorized to start
an investigation without any orders from 8 : Right to Bail in India is which kind of
the court. right:

How many of the statements given above 1. Fundamental Right

are correct? 2. Statutory Right
3. Natural Right
A. Only one
B. Only two Select the correct answer code:
C. Only three
D. All four A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
6 : Consider the following statements C. 1 only
regarding the Committee of Parliament on D. 2 only
Official Language:
Page 3
9 : Consider the following statements:
1. The Panel of Vice-Chairpersons is
nominated by the Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha and consists of 10 members.
2. A member of the panel of vice-
chairpersons cannot preside over the
House when the office of the Chairman or
the Deputy Chairman is vacant.
3. The Vice-Chairperson holds office until a
new panel of vice-chairpersons is
nominated.
4. In the absence of the Chairman, Deputy
Chairman, and the panel of vice-
chairpersons, the duties are performed by
a member appointed by the Chairman.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
10 : Consider the following statements
regarding Rule 267 in the Rajya Sabha:
1. Rule 267 allows for the suspension of all
listed business in the House to discuss an
urgent matter, and it requires a majority
vote in the House to be invoked.
2. The Chairman's consent is mandatory
for a member to bring a motion under Rule
267, and the Chairman has no discretion in
this matter.
3. Rule 267 was last invoked in November
2016 to discuss the demonetization.
4. Rule 267 can be applied even where
specific provisions already exist for the
suspension of a rule under a particular
chapter of the rules.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
11 : Consider the following statements
regarding the State Disaster Response
Funds (SDRF):
1. SDRF is constituted under Section 48
(1) (a) of the Disaster Management Act,
2005, and is exclusively available with
State Governments for responses to
notified natural disasters.
2. The Central Government contributes
75% to the SDRF in general States and
90% in North-East and Himalayan States,
and the funds are released in two equal
installments, except in cases of urgency.
3. The fund can be used for immediate
relief to the victims of notified calamities,
including pest attack and frost & cold
wave, and the allocation is solely based on
the disaster risk index.
4. The annual Central contribution to the
SDRF is determined by the
recommendation of the Finance
Commission, and the funds are released on
receipt of Utilisation Certificate of the
amount released in the earlier installment.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
12 : Consider the following statements:
Page 4
1. The President of India can summon a B. Only two
session of Parliament at such a place as C. Only three
he/she thinks fit. D. All four

2. The Constitution of India provides for 14 : Which of the following amendment of

three sessions of the Parliament in a year, the constitution introduced Article 15(5)
but it is not mandatory to conduct all the that empowers the state to make such
sessions. provision for the advancement of SC, ST,
and Socially and Educationally Backward
3. There is no minimum number of days Classes in educational institutions?
that the Parliament is required to meet in
a year. A. 91st Amendment
B. 92nd Amendment
Which of the above-given statements is/are C. 93rd Amendment
correct? D. 97th Amendment

A. 1 only 15 : With reference to the ninth schedule

B. 2 only of the Constitution of India, consider the
C. 1 and 3 only following statements:
D. 2 and 3 only
1. It became a part of the Constitution in
13 : The Digital Health Incentives Scheme 1949.
(DHIS) under the Ayushman Bharat Digital
Mission (ABDM) is a significant initiative 2. It was created to protect laws related to
in India's healthcare sector. Consider the agrarian reform and for abolishing the
following statements. Zamindari system.

1. The scheme exclusively targets public
health facilities for the implementation of
digital health practices.
2. The financial incentives are calculated
based on the number of digital health
records created and linked to specific
patient IDs.
3. The scheme has been extended till
December 31, 2024.
3. Laws placed under the Ninth Schedule
after the Kesavananda Bharati case in
1973 can be challenged on the grounds of
violating the basic structure of the
Constitution.
4. The Supreme Court's unanimous nine-
judge verdict in I R Coelho v State of Tamil
Nadu clarified that laws under the Ninth
Schedule are completely immune from
judicial review.

4. The scheme is implemented by the How many of the statements given above
National Health Authority and offers are correct?
incentives of up to Rs. 2 crores.
A. Only one
How many of the statements given above B. Only two
are correct? C. Only three
D. All four
A. Only one
16 : Consider the following statements
Page 5
about the passing of bills in the
parliament:
1. A Bill pending in Parliament shall lapse
by reason of the prorogation of the
Houses.
2. A Bill pending in the Council of States
which the House of the People has not
passed shall lapse on a dissolution of the
House of the People.
3. If there are more than six months elapse
from the date of the reception of the Bill
by the other House without the Bill being
passed, then there is a provision for joint
sitting.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
17 : With reference to the Indian
Citizenship Act of 1955, consider the
following statements:
1. If a person has ever held an Indian
passport and has obtained a passport of
another country, they are required to
immediately surrender their Indian
passport.
2. Persons of Indian Origin are allowed
dual citizenship.
3. Kerala has consistently topped the list of
states with the highest number of
surrendered passports since 2014.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
18 : With reference to the 103rd
Amendment Act, consider the following
statements:
1. It was introduced to provide up to 10
per cent reservation to Economically
Weaker Sections (EWS) other than
backward classes, SCs, and STs in higher
educational institutions and initial
recruitment in government jobs.
2. It inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6) in
the Constitution of India.
3. The EWS reservation was granted based
on the recommendations of the
Kasturirangan Committee.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
19 : Which of the following statements is
not correct about Inter-State Council?
A. It is a mechanism to support Centre-
State and Inter-State coordination
and cooperation in India.
B. The Prime Minister is the chairman
of the Council.
C. It is Statutory Body.
D. It inquires into and advises on
disputes between states.
20 : Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
A defamation suit cannot be filed for a
statement made in the House.
Page 6
Statement-II:
Members of Parliament are exempted from
any legal action for any statement made or
act done in the course of their duties.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct Statement-II is
incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II
is correct
21 : Who gets to decide when different
groups of a recognized political party are
fighting over which one is the real party?
A. Law Commission
B. Supreme Court
C. Election Commission
D. Speaker
22 : With reference to the distribution of
legislative powers and special provisions
for Union Territories like Delhi and
Puducherry, consider the following
statements:
1. Article 246 provides for a two-fold
distribution of legislative powers between
the Union and the States.
2. Delhi and Puducherry are referred to as
'half-states' in the Constitution, and they
have control over land, public order, and
police.
3. The 69th Amendment Act passed in
1991 provided for a Legislative Assembly
and Council of Ministers for the UT of
Delhi but kept land, police, and public
order under the control of the Union.
4. Delhi government has control over
health and sanitation
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
23 : Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers is based on a
three-tier system, with the Cabinet
Ministers at the top, the Deputy Ministers
at the middle and the Ministers of the
State at the bottom.
2. The Cabinet acts as the connecting link
between the executive and the legislative.
3. The Minister of State attends the
Cabinet meetings only when specially
invited to do so in connection with the
subject that he/she is given charge of.
Select the correct answer code:
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
24 : Consider the following statements
regarding the time-limit for consultation
and appointment of High Court judges in
India:
1. The consultation process for the
appointment of High Court judges should
be completed within a stipulated time of
six weeks, as held in the 'Second Judges
Case.'
2. If any constitutional functionary delays
consent beyond six weeks, the consent is
automatically rejected.
Page 7
3. The Memorandum of Procedure (MoP)
specifically mentions the term 'deemed
consent' and outlines a six-week period for
consultation.
4. If the Governor's comments are not
received within six weeks from the date of
receipt of the proposal from the Chief
Justice of the High Court, it should be
presumed that the Governor has nothing
to add to the proposal.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
25 : With reference to the Public Accounts
Committee (PAC), consider the following
statements:
1. The Public Accounts Committee was
first set up in 1921 under the provisions of
the Government of India Act of 1919 and
consists of 22 members from both the
Houses of Parliament.
2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-
officio Chairman of the PAC.
3. The PAC examines the appropriation
accounts and the finance accounts of the
Union government, and it can also
summon any person in connection with the
examination of the accounts.
4. The reports of the PAC are considered
by the Committee of Estimates before
being presented to the Parliament.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only Three
D. All four
26 : With respect to Section 144 of the
Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)
consider the following statements:
1. Section 144 of CrPC authorizes the
District Magistrate to issue orders to
prevent and address imminent threats,
excluding any other executive magistrate.
2. The application of Section 144 can be
directed towards restricting a specific
group of individuals but not a single
individual.
3. An order passed under Section 144 can
remain in force for a maximum of six
months, and it can be extended further
only with the approval of the High Court.
How many of the above statements are
incorrect?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
27 : With regard to the practice of judicial
recusal in India, consider the following
intricate statements:
1. The doctrine of recusal is embedded in
the broader legal philosophy that
emphasizes the impartiality of the
judiciary and is often linked to the Latin
maxim "Nemo judex in causa sua" ("No
one should be a judge in his own cause.")
2. A potential ground for recusal might
arise when a judge at the Supreme Court
is confronted with an appeal against a
judgment that they had a role in delivering
at a subordinate court, but this is not
Page 8
mandated by any statutory provision. Chief Justice of the High Court.

3. The Constitution of India, while How many of the above statements are
emphasizing the independence of the correct?
judiciary, contains explicit clauses related
to the recusal of judges. A. Only one
B. Only two
4. The practice of recusal, though not C. Only three
codified, has been affirmed and elaborated D. All four
upon through various judicial precedents,
and it often relies on the individual judge's 29 : With reference to Contingency Fund,
discretion. consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are
correct? 1. Parliament may by law establish a
Contingency Fund.
A. Only one
B. Only two 2. Fund shall be placed at the disposal of
C. Only three the Prime Minister.
D. All four
3. The fund is used to meet unforeseen
28 : Consider the following statements expenditures.
regarding the District Legal Services
Authority (DLSA): How many of the statements given above
are correct?
1. DLSA is a statutory body formed under
the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, A. Only one
exclusively for the purpose of monitoring B. Only two
legal aid programs. C. All three
D. None
2. The composition of DLSA includes a
district judge as its chairman, and the 30 : Consider the following statements
members must have specific experience about the Goods and Services Tax Council:
and qualifications as prescribed by the
Chief Justice of the High Court. 1. It is a joint forum of the Centre and the
states which was set up by the Prime
3. Article 39-A of the Constitution Minister as per Article 279A (1) of the
mandates the provision of free legal amended Constitution.
services to all citizens, regardless of their
economic status. 2. Each state can elect a minister as a
member.
4. The Assistant Commissioner of the
concerned District acts as the Member 3. It gives recommendations to the Union
Secretary of the District Authority, and the and the states on important issues related
officers and other employees of the to GST.
District Authority are entitled to salary and
allowances as prescribed by the State How many of the above statements are
Government alone in consultation with the correct?

Page 9
 A. Only one 33 : Consider the following statements
B. Only two regarding Article 114 of Part V of the
C. All three Constitution of India, which deals with
D. None Appropriation Bills:

31 : Consider the following pairs: 1. Appropriation Bills are introduced to

meet the grants made by the House of the
(Article) ( Available Against) People and the expenditure charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India, but they can
17 State and Individual exceed the amount shown in the statement
19 State only previously laid before Parliament.
23 State and Individual
2. Amendments can be proposed to an
How many of the above pairs are correctly Appropriation Bill in either House of
matched? Parliament, provided they do not alter the
destination of any grant made or vary the
A. Only one amount of any expenditure charged on the
B. Only two Consolidated Fund of India.
C. All three
D. None 3. Money can be withdrawn from the
Consolidated Fund of India only under
32 : With reference to Parole, consider the
appropriation made by law passed in
following statements:
accordance with Article 114.

1. It is a system of releasing a prisoner

4. The Appropriation Bill must be passed
with the suspension of the sentence.
by both Houses of Parliament and
assented to by the President before it
2. The period of parole granted to convicts
becomes an Act.
during the Covid-19 pandemic to prevent
overcrowding in prisons and avoid the risk
How many of the above statements are
of spread of infection is counted as part of
correct?
their actual sentence period.
A. Only one
3. In India, parole is covered under The B. Only two
Prisons Act of 1894. C. Only three
D. All four
4. Prisoners convicted of multiple murders
or under the anti-terror Unlawful Activities 34 : Consider the following statements
Prevention Act (UAPA) are not eligible for regarding the structure and functioning of
parole. Parliamentary Committees in India:

How many of the above statements are 1. Joint Parliamentary Committees (JPCs)
correct? are permanent bodies, while Select
Committees are temporary and are usually
A. Only one chaired by ruling party MPs.
B. Only two
C. Only three 2. There are 16 Departmentally Related
D. All four
Page 10
Standing Committees for Lok Sabha and
eight for Rajya Sabha, with each
committee having members from both
Houses including minsters, and they are
headed by members of their respective
Houses.
3. Committee meetings are independent of
Parliament’s calendar, and MPs often have
more time to contribute to discussions in
committees compared to the time
allocated in Parliament.
4. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is
a special committee that consists of only
Rajya Sabha members and is responsible
for scrutinizing government expenditures.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
35 : Consider the following statement
regarding capital punishment?
1 India is among the few countries that
retain capital punishment under different
laws.
2 In BACHAN SINGH VS STATE OF
PUNJAB 1980, SC upheld constitutional
validity of death penality.
3 There is no international convention for
Death penality.
Which of the above are correct.
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None of the above
36 : Consider the following statement
regarding vacating of seats by members of
parliament?
1. If a person is elected to both the houses
of parliament,he must intimate within 14
days in which House he desires to serve.In
Default of such intimation,his seat in lok
sabha becomes vacant.
2. If a person is elected to two seats in a
House,he should exercise his option for
one otherwise both seats become vacant.
3. If a sitting member of one House is also
elected to the other house,His seat in the
second House becomes Vacant.
How many of the above statement is
correct?
A. One statement
B. Two statements
C. Three statements
D. None of the above
37 : Which of the following statement is
correct about DOCTRINE OF
COLOURABLE LEGISLATION?
1. It is based on the maxim “what cannot
be done directly can be done indirectly”
2. It depicts the notion that legislation can
be used under “colour” or guise of power
which was conferred for one purpose and
use it for some other purpose which is
otherwise not valid.
Which of the above statement/s is/are
correct
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
38 : Consider the following statements
regarding special leave petition?
1. It can be filed against any judgement of
Page 11
the High court within 90 days from the A. Only one
date of judgement. B. Only two
2. It can be filed within 60 days aginst C. Only three
oder of high court refusing to grant the D. None of the above
certificate of fitness for appeal to SC.
41 : The term “sealed cover
How many of the statements are correct? jurisprudence”was seen in news.which of
the following statements are correct about
A. One only it?
B. Two only
C. Both the statements 1. It is a practice used by SC and lower
D. None of the above. courts of asking for or accepting
information from government agencies in
39 : Consider the following statements sealed envelopes that can only be accessed
about parliamentary commiitees: by judges.

1. The Standing Committees are 2. There is specific law that defines the
permanent (constituted every year or doctrine of sealed cover
periodically) and work on a continuous
basis. A. 1 only
2. Parliamentary committees draw their B. 2 only
authority from article 105 and article 118. C. Both 1 and 2
3. They work under the direction of D. None of the above
speaker and presents its reports to the
House or speaker. 42 : Which of the following is correct
How many of the above statements are about Curative Petition?
correct?
1.Curative petition is the last
A. Only one constitutional remedy available to a person
B. Only two whose review petition has been dismissed.
C. All of the above
D. None of the above 2.It is mentioned in the constitution under
article 137
40 : Consider the following statements
regarding composition of Rajya Sabha. 3.It was given by SC In the case of RUPA
1. Article 80 deals with the composition of ASHOK HURRA V ASHOK HURRA &ANR
Rajya Sabha. CASE
2. The representatives of state in Rajya
sabha are elected by the elected members A. 1 only
of the state legislative assemblies.The B. 1 and 2 only
election is held in accordance with the C. 1 and 3 only
system of proportional representation by D. 2 and 3 only
means of single transferable vote.
3. The provision of nominated members in 43 : Consider following statements
rajya sabha is taken from south African regarding National Green Tribunal.
constitution.
How many of the above statements are 1. It is a statutory body established under
correct? National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
Page 12
2. NGT tries civil cases under 7 laws.
3. It consists of Chairperson appointed by
central government in consultation with
CJI.It consists of Atleast ten members and
maximum 20 judicial members and expert
members.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
46 : Consider the following statements
regarding the new methodology developed
to analyze images of the Sun in white light:
1. The methodology helps in accurate
analysis of the historic time series of
images of the Sun, including
understanding solar cycle variations and
long-term climatic variations on Earth.

A. Only one 2. The Equal Contrast Technique (ECT)

B. Only two developed by scientists from the Indian
C. All three Institute of Astrophysics compensates for
D. None of the above issues related to instrument and sky
conditions.
44 : Consider the following statement
regarding Delegated legislation 3. The Ca-K line images of the Sun,
available for more than 100 years at
1. It is a process by which executive Kodaikanal observatory, have undergone
authority is given powers by primary significant changes in the optics of the
legislation to make laws to implement and instrument.
adminsiter primary legislation.
2. Due to paucity of time legislature limits 4. The correlation between derived plage
itself to policy matters,delegating task of area from the Ca-K images and sunspot
the rule and regulations to executive or number has been shown to be inconsistent
any subordinate to supplement over a period of about 100 years.
parliamentary statute.
3. As per SC delegated legislation which is How many of the above statements are
ultra vires the parent Act cannot be given correct?
any effect.
A. Only one
How many of the statement/s is/are B. Only two
correct? C. Only three
D. All four
A. Only one
B. Only two 47 : With reference to the
C. All three superconductivity, consider the following
D. None statements:

45 : The “doctrine of essentiality” is often 1. It refers to a state in which a material

used by the courts in relation to which of offers maximum resistance to electric
the following Articles of Indian current.
Constitution?
2. It can be achieved at very low
A. Article 14
temperatures.
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
3. Mercury was the first material
D. Article 25
Page 13
discovered to have conductive B. Only two
characteristics. C. All three
D. None
How many of the statements given above
are correct? 49 : Consider the following pairs:

A. Only one (Place) (Country)

B. Only two
C. All three 1. Ouagadougou Somalia
D. None
2. Mogadishu Mali
48 : With reference to the conjunctivitis,
consider the following statements: 3. Bamako Eritrea

1. It is the swelling or inflammation of the 4. Harare Zimbabwe

transparent layer of tissue that lines the
inner surface of the eyelid and covers the How many of the pairs given above are
white part of the eye. correctly matched?

2. Bacterial conjunctivitis is caused due to A. Only one

the long-term presence of a foreign body B. Only two
in the eye, like hard contact lenses. C. Only three
D. All four
3. Viral conjunctivitis is most commonly
caused by staphylococcal from your own 50 : Which country's democratic
skin or respiratory system. government was overthrown in a recent
coup?
How many of the statements given above
are correct? A. Morocco
B. Ghana
A. Only one C. Niger
D. Senegal

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