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DEDICATED PRELIM PROGRAM(DPP)

UPSC-CSE PRELIMINARY TEST SERIES – 2021/2022
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
TEST BOOKLET SERIES

Test Code:

E1
TEST BOOKLET

DPP GENERAL STUDIES

TEST -01

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST
BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES CODE A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside this line. DO NOT write anything else on the
Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel
that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose
ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. All items carry equal marks.
6. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BYA CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
I. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, One-Third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
II. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
III. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TOPICS COVERD: Historical background, Salient features of constitution, Amendment to constitution,
Preamble, Making of constitution
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Q.1) Arrange the following functions performed by 2. Liberty cannot be achieved with the absence of
the Constituent Assembly in a chronological order: laws.
1. Adoption of National Flag 3. It provides an opportunity for an individual to
2. Election of Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the President of develop himself/herself fully.
the Assembly 4. Liberty is essential for the successful functioning
3. Adoption of Objective Resolution of democracy.
4. Ratification of India’s membership of the Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
Commonwealth a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given b) 1 and 2 only
below: c) 2, 3 and 4 only
a) 2-1-4-3 d) None of the above
b) 3-2-1-4
c) 3-1-2-4 Q.5) Which of the following is incorrect about the
d) 2-3-1-4 term ‘Republic’ mentioned in the Preamble?
a) The head of the State is always directly elected.
Q.2) Consider the legislative powers of Constituent b) Vesting of political sovereignty in the people
Assembly: c) All political offices are opened to every citizen
1. The legislative powers were given by the Indian without any discrimination.
Independence Act, 1947. d) None of the above
2. The dual task of Constitution making and
legislation continued till the commencement of Q.6) Which of the following Articles of the
the Constitution. Constitution promote social justice as envisaged in
3. The Constituent Assembly continued as a the Preamble?
provisional Parliament from January 26, 1950. 1. Article 17
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? 2. Article 38
a) 1 and 3 only 3. Article 39A
b) 2 only 4. Article 42
c) 2 and 3 only 5. Article 49
d) 1 and 2 only 6. Article 50
Select the correct answer using the code given
Q.3) Consider the following statements about the below:
Objective Resolution moved in the Constituent a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Assembly: b) 2, 3 and 6 only
1. It declared India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
Republic. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. It envisaged to make the people of India as the
source of power and authority of Independent Q.7) Consider the following statements about the
India. Preamble:
3. It envisaged to provide safeguards to minorities, 1. The Preamble has been amended only once so far
backward and tribal areas and other backward under the Prime Ministership of Mrs. Indira
classes. Gandhi.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are 2. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case has
correct? held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution.
a) 1 and 2 only 3. The original Preamble did not include the word
b) 1 only ‘unity and integrity’ in it.
c) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statement(s) given is/are correct?
d) 2 and 3 only a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
Q.4) Consider the following statements about the c) 2 and 3 only
term ‘Liberty’ mentioned in the Preamble: d) 3 only
1. The Preamble provides liberty of thought,
expression, opportunity, faith and worship.

TEST 1 1

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Q.8) Consider the following statements about the
term ‘Secular’ as mentioned in the Preamble of the
Constitution:
1. The term was added by the 44th Constitution
Amendment Act.
2. Indian secularism provides for strict separation of
State and religion.
3. Article 15, 16 and 44 of the Constitution promotes
secularism in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 3 only
Q.9) Select the correct chronological order of the
following events:
1. Lowering of Voting Age from 21 to 18 years.
2. Constitutional recognition to the Panchayati Raj
Institutions.
3. Kihoto Hollohon case
4. Setting up of Sarkaria Commission.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
a) 1-4-2-3
b) 4-1-3-2
c) 1-4-3-2
d) 4-1-2-3
Q.10) Which one of the following is most appropriate
regarding the amendment to the constitution.
a) Constitutional Amendment Acts cannot be
introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
b) Election’s procedure of the Parliament and the
State Legislatures require assent of the State
legislatures.
c) State legislatures must ratify a Constitutional
Amendment Bill within 6 months.
d) Changes in Salaries and Allowances of the MPs
amounts to a Constitutional Amendment outside
Article 368.
Q.11) Consider the following statements regarding
elections in India:
1. Indirect provision for elections introduced in Indian
Councils Act, 1861.
2. Direct elections to majority of members in both the
houses was introduced in the Government of India
Act, 1919.
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3. Franchise to a limited number of people based on
property, tax, education is provided in the
Government of India Act, 1919.
4. Voting rights were given to around 10 percent of
the population as per GOI, 1919.
5. Universal Adult Franchise was introduced in the
Indian Constitution under Article 326.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding
the Indian Independence Act, 1947:
1. It abolished the office of the General-General of
India and British monarch’s right to veto bills.
2. Governor General, in the name of His majesty, had
full powers to give assent to the bills.
3. It abolished the office of the Secretary of State.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.13) Which of the following statements is correct:
a) Pitt’s India Act provided for the payment of the
Board of Control charged to the East India
company.
b) Local government was empowered to levy taxes by
the Charter Act of 1813.
c) Simon Commission recommended for the
continuation of Dyarchy in the provinces.
d) Ramsay MacDonald was called father of the
communal electorate for the Communal Award,
1932.
Q.14) With reference to the Indian Independence Act
1947, consider the following statements:
1. The Act designated the Governor-general of India
and provincial governor as constitutional
(nominal) heads of the states.
2. It provided for the governance under the
provisions of Government of India Act of 1935
strictly without any modifications.
3. It provided that the Constituent Assembly should
also function as a legislative body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 3
c) Only 3
d) 2 and 3.
TEST 1 2
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2. 2.It means that all citizens of a country have the

Q.15) With reference to the Charter Act of 1833, right to vote, irrespective of caste, creed, religion,
consider the following statements: sex or age.
1. After this Act, the Government of India had 3. It opens up new hopes and vistas for weaker
authority over the entire territorial area sections of the society.
possessed by the British in India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. The East India Company became an administrative a) 1 only
body but it also continued as a commercial body. b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? c) 1 and 2 only
a) Only 1 d) 1 and 3 only
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2 Q.19) Consider the following statements with
d) Neither 1 nor 2 respect to the Indian Constitution
1. In India, there is an integrated system of courts
enforcing both central and state laws.
Q.16) Consider the following statements: 2. 2.The scope of judicial review in India is narrower
1. The Constituent Assembly was formed on the than that of what exists in the USA.
basis of Indian Independence Act,1947. 3. The Emergency Provisions in the Constitution
2. The Constituent Assembly was a partly elected converts the federal structure into a unitary one
and partly nominated body. without any formal amendment of the
3. As the number of Princely states were high , Constitution.
majority of the seats were allotted to it. Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above
d) 1,2 and 3
Q.20) Consider the following pairs about the Indian
Constitution?
Q.17) Which of the following regarding Schedule Provision
Constitutional provisions for Secularism are 1. Fourth
Incorrect? Schedule Allocation
1. 1.Indian concept of Secularism implies a complete of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states.
separation of the religion and the state. 2. Third
2. 2.The term “Secular” was a part of the original schedule Forms of
constitution. oaths and affirmations.
3. The provision of equality of opportunity for all 3. Eight
citizens in matters of public employment reveals schedule Languages
the Secular character of the Indian State. recognised in the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code below- 4. Ninth
a) 1 and 2 only schedule Disqualifica
b) 2 only tion of the members of Parliament
c) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code below-
d) 3 only a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Q.18) Consider the following statements with
respect to Universal Adult Franchise in India
Q.21) With reference to the Indian constitution,
1. 1.Universal Adult Franchise makes democracy
consider the following statements-
broad- based and upholds the principle of
1. 1.All the provisions of the Indian Constitution can
Equality.
be easily amended by the Parliament.

TEST 1 3
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2. 2.Some provisions of the Constitution can be a) 1 only

amended by a simple majority of the parliament. b) 2 only
3. The provisions relating to Use of the English c) Both 1 and 2
language in Parliament requires a Special Majority d) Neither 1 nor 2
of Parliament for amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only Q.26) Consider the following statements:
3. 2 and 3 only 1. The office of the secretary of state was created
4. All of the above before the revolt of 1857.
2. Secretary of State was the member of the British
Q.22) Consider the following statements: Cabinet and headed the Board of Control in India.
1. The Regulating Act of 1773 created the double 3. The office of secretary of state was abolished in the
government system. Government of India Act, 1935.
2. The Pitt’s India Act,1784 made Lord Cornwallis as Select the correct answer using the codes given
the commander-in-chief along with the Governor- below:
General. a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 only c) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only d) None of the above.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.27) Consider the following statements regarding
the creation of Federal Court in India:
Q.23) Consider the following statements regarding 1. It was established as per the provisions of the
the Charter Act of 1793: Government of India Act, 1935
1. The Act extended the trade monopoly of the 2. Sir Elijah Impey was the first Chief Justice of this
Company in India for another period of 20 years. Court.
2. This Act was also termed as the St. Helena Act. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
3. The strength of the Court of Directors was reduced. a) 1 only
Select the incorrect answer using the codes given b) 2 only
below: c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 and 2 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only Q.28) Consider the events given below:
d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Introduction of direct election.
2. Abolition of Board of Control
Q.24) Which of the below provisions are correct 3. Separate electorates for the women
regarding the Morley Minto Reforms: 4. Final set up of the Federal Court
a) It introduced bicameralism in the Indian Legislative 5. Vernacular Press Act
Council at the central level. 6. Submission of report by Simon Commission
b) Ordinance making power was given to the Viceroy. Arrange the event above in the correct chronological
c) There was a system of indirect elections for the sequence:
elected members of the councils. a) 1-2-3-4-5-6
d) The Act preceded the formation of the Muslim b) 2-5-4-3-1-6
League. c) 2-5-1-6-3-4
d) 1-5-6-3-1-4
Q.25) Consider the following statements:
1. Charter Act of 1853 made attempts for the Q.29) Consider the following statements:
abolition of slavery in India. 1. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for
2. Slavery was finally abolished during the tenure of dyarchy at the Province.
Lord Ellenborough. 2. The Government of India Act, 1935 abolished the
Select the correct answer using the codes given Council of India established by Government of
below: India act 1858.

TEST 1 4
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Select the correct answer from the codes given below: 2. The Constitution assemblies of the dominion
a) 1 only government had no powers to repeal The Indian
b) 2 only Independence Act, 1947.
c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the codes given
d) Neither 1 nor 2 below:
a) 1 only
Q.30) Consider the following statements: b) 2 only
1. Division of subjects into three lists- Federal, c) Both 1 and 2
Provincial and Concurrent were provided within d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Government of India Act, 1919.
2. The provision for establishment of a joint public Q.34) Consider the following statements regarding
service commission was given by the Government the Amending Act of 1781:
of India Act, 1935. 1. It was also referred to as the Act of Settlement.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 2. It outlined the jurisdiction of the Supreme court at
below: Calcutta.
a) 1 only 3. It provided that the appeals from the provincial
b) 2 only courts were taken to the Supreme Court.
c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the codes given
d) Neither 1 nor 2 below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
Q.31) Which of the following was the most c) 2 and 3 only
appropriate regarding the development of d) 1, 2 and 3
Constitutional history of India:
a) The National flag of India was adopted by the Q.35) Consider the following statements:
constituent assembly after the independence of 1. Charter Act of 1853 completely abolished the
India in 1947. commercial activities of the Company.
b) Ninth Schedule was added in the Constitution of 2. Charter Act of 1853 introduced local
India to deal with the laws relating to land reforms. representation in the Indian Legislative Council.
c) The Concurrent list of the Indian Constitution has Select the correct answer using the codes given
been borrowed from the Government of India Act, below:
1919. a) 1 only
d) The discussions of the Third Round Table b) 2 only
Conference led to the signing of the Poona Pact. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.32) Consider the following pairs of principles of
Preamble and Rights that promote those principles: Q.36) Consider the following pairs:
Principle Fundamental Right Act Provision
1.Equality of opportunity Article 16 1. Charter Act, 1793: Started Dual
system of Government
2.Liberty of belief Article 25 2. Charter Act of 1853: Introduce open
3.Dignity of individual Article 17 competition for selection of civil servant
4.Social Justice Article 21A 3. Government of India Act, 1935: Provincial
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? Autonomy
a) 2 and 3 only Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
b) 1 and 2 only a) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Q.33) Consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly was formed as per the Q.37) Consider the following statements:
provisions of the Mountbatten Plan. 1. The portfolio system was recognised by the Indian
Council Act, 1861.
TEST 1 5

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2. Lee Commission of 1923 dealt with the codification
of the Indian laws.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.38) Consider the following statements:
1. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act added Tenth
Schedule to the Constitution.
2. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act provided
special provisions for the backward classes in all
educational institutions.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.39) On a particular day in Lok Sabha, there are 541
members present of which 8 abstain from voting. A
bill seeking to make changes in Article 50 has been
taken up. Select the number of votes required in favor
so that it gets passed:
a) 273
b) 356
c) 356 with ratification of half of the state.
d) 400 with ratification by 3/4th of the state.
Q.40) Consider the following statements:
1. 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act made
changes in Articles 14, 15 and 16 of the
Constitution.
2. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act added Article
21A to the Constitution.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.41) Consider the following statements:
1. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act made changes
in the fundamental rights only.
2. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act dealt with
promoting equal justice and providing free legal
aid to the poor.
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Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.42) Consider the following statements:
1. A constitutional amendment bill can be introduced
only in the Lok Sabha.
2. States do not have any power to initiate a
constitutional amendment.
3. The President can either accept or withhold his
assent to the Constitutional amendment bill but
cannot return it.
4. A constitutional amendment bill seeking to amend
the federal provisions needs ratification by 50
percent of the states.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.43) Consider the following statements regarding
amendment to the Constitution:
1. All provisions in the Indian Constitution require a
special majority in the parliament for its
amendment.
2. Federal provisions that require ratification by the
states do not find mention in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.44) Consider the following provisions regarding
amendment to the Constitution:
1. A bill seeking a Constitutional amendment can be
introduced by only a minister and not a private
member.
2. It requires prior approval by the President before
the introduction of the Constitutional Amendment
Bill.
3. A provision of joint sitting exists in case of the
ordinary bills and money bills but not in
constitutional amendment bills.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
TEST 1 6
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b) 2 and 3 only 4. Goods and Services Tax council

c) 3 only 5. Central Information commission
d) None of the above Which among the above bodies have been inserted to
the Constitution by way of its amendment?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q.45) Consider the following statements: b) 2,3 and 4 only
1. 101st Constitutional Amendment Act imposed c) 3, 4 and 5 only
concurrent power of taxation on the Centre and d) 2, 3, 4 and 5
the states.
2. Goods and Services Tax council was created by an
order of the President. Q.49) Consider the following statements:
3. An amendment to the Goods and Services Tax 1. The Constitution of India is the legal document that
Council requires a Constitutional amendment is devoid of a political philosophy.
under Article 368. 2. Indian Constitution gives precedence to liberalism
Select the correct answer using the codes given over social justice.
below: Select the incorrect answer from the codes given
a) 1 and 3 only below:
b) 2 and 3 only a) 1 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 only
d) None of the above c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.46) Which of the following is least appropriate

regarding the amenability of the Constitution? Q.50) Consider the following pairs:
a) For a constitution to be a living document, it must Constitutional Amendment Related
be unfrozen and alterable. Schedule
b) Rigidity is accorded to the provisions that are 1. 91st Constitutional Amendment Act: Tenth
central to the Constitution. Schedule
c) Amenability calls for changes in the rights and 2. 71st Constitutional Amendment Act: Eighth
powers of the federal units in a flexible manner. Schedule
d) Sovereignty of elected representatives of 3. 97th Constitutional Amendment Act: second
Parliament is the basis of amendment procedure. Schedule
4. 89th Constitutional Amendment Act: Sixth
Schedule
Q.47) Consider the following statements: Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
1. For making any changes in use of official language a) 1 and 3 only
requires a special majority of the Parliament along b) 2 and 3 only
with ratification by half of the states. c) 1 and 2 only
2. Amendment to the provisions regarding the use of d) 3 and 4 only
English language in the Parliament requires a
simple majority of the Houses. Q.51) Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the codes given 1. Rearrangement of items amongst the three lists in
below: the seventh schedule of the Constitution does not
a) 1 only require Constitution amendment.
b) 2 only 2. The State Finance Commission was added to the
c) Both 1 and 2 Constitution by way of amendment to the
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
Q.48) Consider the following bodies: a) 1 only
1. NITI Aayog b) 2 only
2. Special Officer for linguistic minorities c) Both 1 and 2
3. National Commission for Backward classes d) Neither 1 nor 2

TEST 1 7
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4. Appointment of Governor by center: Government

Q.52) Consider the following statements: of India Act,1935
1. Right to Property was removed from the list of Which of the above are incorrectly matched?
Fundamental rights by the 42nd Constitutional a) 1,2 and 4 only
Amendment. b) 2 and 3 only
2. Changes in Article 300A of the Constitution require c) 1 and 4 only
Constitution amendment under Article 368. d) 2,3 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below: Q.56) Consider the following statements in context
a) 1 only of Indian Constitution
b) 2 only 1. The term liberty means license to do what one
c) Both 1 and 2 likes
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The term equality means the absence of special
privileges to any section of the society
3. The principles of liberty, equality and fraternity
Q.53) Which of the following statements is most should be treated separately and cannot unified.
appropriate regarding the Constitution of India: Select the incorrect answer from code given below:
a) The Constitution is a document that provides for a) 1 and 2 only
the accumulation of all power only in one b) 2 only
institution. c) 1 and 3 only
b) Enjoyment of Fundamental rights is not subjected d) 1,2 and 3
to the fulfilment of the duties in India.
c) Free and Fair elections provide for the
unprecedented and direct role of the citizens in Q.57) India is a Republic. What does this statement
policy making and its administration. mean?
d) Removal of Judges by the Parliament fixes judicial 1. India can either acquire a foreign territory
accountability to the Parliament. 2. vesting of political sovereignty in the people
3. the absence of any privileged class
Select the correct answer from the code given below
Q.54) Consider the following statements about a) 1 only
features of Indian Constitution: b) 2 and 3 only
1. The Constitution contains the fundamental c) 1 and 3 only
principles of Governance and also d) 2 only
detailed administrative provisions to administer
the nation.
2. The political part of the Constitution has been Q.58) Consider the following statement about
largely drawn from the Canadian Constitution dyarchy
3. Indian Constitution adopted universal adult 1. It is the scheme of governance introduced by the
franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok Sabha Morley-Minto reform
and the state legislative Assemblies ever since the 2. It distinguishes between commercial and political
enactment of Constitution functions of the company.
Select the correct statement/s from the code given 3. Government of India act 1935 recommended for
below: adoption of dyarchy at centre.
a) 1 and 3 only Which of the statement/s given above is/are
b) 2 and 3 only correct?
c) 3 only a) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Q.55) Consider the following features
1. Procedure for amendment: South Africa
2. Judiciary : French
3. Emergency Provisions: Canada Q.59) Consider the following statements:

TEST 1 8

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1. Indian council act 1861 made limited and indirect
provision for election to fill some non-official
seats.
2. Separate electorate was extended to Sikhs, Indian
Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans by the
Government of India Act 1919.
3. The Government of India Act 1935 introduced
responsible government in the province.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.60) Consider the following statements about the
Government of India Act 1858:
1. The Act introduced system of double government
in India
2. It created a new office of Secretary of State for
India.
3. The Act made the Governor-General of Bengal as
the Governor-General of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.61) Consider the following Statements about
Charter Act 1853:
1. It ended the activities of the East India company
as a commercial body and made it purely an
administrative body.
2. The Act separated the legislative and executive
function of the Governor-General’s council.
3. The Act introduced, for the first time, local
representation in Indian (Central) legislative
council.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.62) Consider the following Statements:
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1. Scope of Judicial review power of the Supreme
court of India is wider than the court in the United
States.
2. American constitution provided for due process of
law against the procedure established by law in
Indian Constitution.
3. Both India and USA Constitution provides for a
single system of court which enforces both the
central as well as State law.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are
incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.63) Consider the following statement:
1. Indian Constitution provides a negative concept
Secularism which gives equal respect to all
religions.
2. Western concept of Secularism is positive concept
which emphasis on complete separation between
the religion and the state
Select the correct answer from the code given below
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.64) Consider the following statements:
1. Second Schedule of India Constitution provides
for emoluments, allowances and privileges for
Prime Minister of India
2. The Third Schedule of the Constitution contains
the oath and affirmation of the President of India.
3. The fourth schedule of Indian constitution is
related to the allocation of seats on the Rajya
sabha to the state and the union territories.
Select the correct answer from the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Q.65) Consider the following statements about 42nd
constitutional amendment act:
1. The Act made provision for establishment of
administrative tribunals.
2. The Act did away with the requirement of quorum
in the parliament and the state legislatures.
TEST 1 9

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
3. It deleted the right to property from the list of
Fundamental Rights and made it only a legal right.
Select the correct answer from the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.66) Consider the following statements:
1. Combination of social and political justice is
known as distributive justice.
2. The ideal of justice- social, political and economic
in Indian constitution has been taken from French
Revolution.
Select the correct answer from the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.67) Consider the following statements:
1. Preamble is neither a source of power to the
legislature nor part of the constitution.
2. Provisions of preamble are not enforceable in
courts of law.
3. Preamble cannot be amended as it is not part of
the Constitution of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Q.68) Consider the following statements about the
Constitution assembly :
1. It was directly elected by the people of India on
the basis of the adult franchise.
2. The Constitution assembly has representation
from all sections of Indian society.
3. The representatives of each community were
elected by the members of that community in the
provincial legislative assembly
Select the correct answer from the code given below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q.69) Consider the following statements:
1. Indian Independence Act 1947 made constitution
assembly a fully sovereign body.
2. With the commencement of constitution of
India The abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction
Act was repealed.
3. The Constitution assembly enacted the preamble
at the first meeting of the assembly so that it can
act as guiding principle for it.
Select the correct answer from the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Q.70) With reference to Off Budget Borrowings in
India, consider the following statements:
1. It is counted in the calculation of the fiscal deficit.
2. Off-budget borrowings are loans that are
taken by the Centre directly.
3. This route of financing puts major sources of
funds outside the control of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.71) With reference to Pathurghat Peasant uprising,
consider the following statements:
1. Increase in agricultural land tax reportedly by 70-
80 per cent, by the British government was the
major cause of this uprising.
2. This uprising took place in western parts of India.
3. 3.Peasants used democratic methods to settle the
dispute.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.72) With reference to different models of PPP,
consider the following pairs:
Model Feature
1. LDO- In this, the governments allow private
promoters to rehabilitate and operate a facility
during a concession period
2. ROT- the government retains ownership of the
newly created infrastructure
TEST 1 10
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3. DBFO- In this model, the private party assumes

the entire responsibility
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly Q.76) He was an Indian social reformer and freedom
matched? fighter from Kerala. He took part in anti-
a) 1 and 2 only untouchability agitations and advocated opening
b) 2 only temples for people of all castes, also participated in
c) 3 only the Vaikom Satyagraha. He is also known for his
d) 1, 2 and 3 founding of the Nair Service Society (NSS).
The above given description refers to which of the
Q.73) With reference to Law Commission of India, following famous personalities of Indian freedom
consider the following statements: struggle?
1. Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body. a) Shri. Balakrishnan Nair
2. The commission is established for a fixed tenure. b) K. Kelappan
3. The first Law Commission was established by the c) Sri Mannathu Padmanabhan
Charter Act of 1833, it was presided by Lord d) E. V. Ramasamy
Macaulay.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Q.77) Servants of the People Society, was founded
a) 1 and 2 only by which of the following personalities?
b) 2 and 3 only a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
c) 1 and 3 only b) Lala Lajpat Rai
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) Surendranath Banarjee
d) Aurobindo Ghosh

Q.78) Consider the statements about NGOs in India

Q.74) With reference to Open Skies treaty, consider
the following statements:
1. This treaty is not related to civil-aviation open
skies agreements.
2. Under the treaty, a member state can spy on any
part of the host nation.
3. India is not a member of this treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.75) With reference to International Energy Agency
(IEA), consider the following statements:
1. It is a Paris-based autonomous intergovernmental
organisation established in the framework of the
Organisation for Economic Co-operation and
Development (OECD) in 1974.
2. To be a member, a candidate country must be a
member country of the OECD and all OECD
members are IEA members.
3. It is best known for the publication of its annual
World Energy Outlook report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Constitutionally NGOs are backed by Article 19
2. NGOs are regulated by FCRA (Foreign contribution
Regulation Act)2010 under ministry of Finance
3. The Constitution Under Union list mentions
charitable institutions
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 1
c) 2 and 3
d) Only 2
Q.79) Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserves, recently in
news is located in
a) Karnataka
b) Maharashtra
c) Chhattisgarh
d) Telangana
Q.80) Consider the following statements with
reference to G7(Group of seven) countries
1. Canada, Japan, Italy, UK, USA, France, Germany
are the 7 members of this group
2. The aggregate GDP G7 countries make is more
than 50% of world GDP
3. There are no formal criteria for membership, but
all the members are developed countries.
4. Russia was also the part of group but got
suspended following its annexation of Crimea
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
TEST 1 11
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a) 1,2 and 3 Q.85) The word ‘Leang Tedongnge’ recently news is

b) 2,3 and 4 related to
c) 1,3 and 4 a) Discovery of oldest known speaking language in
d) All of the above East Asia
b) Discovery of oldest known rock painting drawn by
Q.81) India Innovation Index recently seen in news is man
released by c) Discovery of oldest known volcano series in world
a) Department of Science & Technology d) None of the Above
b) NITI Aayog
c) Ministry of ministry of skill development and Q.86) Consider the following statements
entrepreneurship 1. He started newspaper named as “Swaraj” and
d) Pratham NGO authored a book “The Indian Struggle”
2. He was inspired by teachings of Bhagwat Gita and
Q.82) “Prime editing” sometimes seen in news is Swami Vivekananda
related to, 3. In his young age he became the leader of INCs
a) Film editing technology by Amazon radical wing
b) 3D printing editing technology 4. He also served as President of All India Trade
c) Gene editing technology Union Congress (AITUC)
d) Research on Covid Vaccine Above statements are elaborating which of the
following Freedom fighter
Q.83) With reference to Arctic Council, consider the a) Lala Lajpat Rai
following statements b) S. C. Bose
a) It is Intergovernmental council for Arctic area c) Chittaranjan Das
cooperation d) Bal gangadhar Tilak
b) India became member of the council in 2013
c) It was set up with the twin mandate of
environmental protection and sustainable
development Q.87) With reference to ‘Judicial Activism’, consider
d) The Arctic Council cannot enforce its guidelines or the following statements
recommendations. 1. Judicial review
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? 2. Article 13, 32 and 224
a) A, B and C 3. Supervisory Power of higher courts on lower
b) B, C and D courts
c) A, C and D 4. Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
d) All of the above Which of the above provisions promotes judiciary to
take proactive role to follow ‘Judicial Activism’
Q.84) Consider the following statements with a) 1,2 and 3
respect to NBFC b) 2,3 and 4
1. NBFCs do not include any institution whose c) 1,3 and 4
principal business is that of agriculture activity or d) All of the above
industrial activity.
2. RBI issues licenses of NBFCs and also regulate
them Q.88) Consider the following countries about
3. NBFCs do form a part of the payment and ‘Abraham accord’ recently seen in news
settlement system but can not issue cheques 1. Israel
4. NBFCs are run and regulated under Companies 2. United Arab Emirates (UAE)
Act,1956 3. Bahrain
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct 4. USA
a) Only 1 and 3 Which of the following countries are signatories of
b) Only 1 and 4 this accord?
c) Only 1, 2 and 4 a) 1,2 and 3
d) All of the above b) 2,3 and 4

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c) 1,3 and 4 1. Improving Maternal Health

d) All of the above 2. Combating human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
3. Financial contributions to the Chief Ministers’
Relief Fund
4. Donations to Prime Minister's Citizen Assistance
Q.89) Consider the following statements and Relief in Emergency Situations Funds
1. It is the "longest running" monthly English (PMCARES) fund
magazine of the country 5. Relief and funds for the welfare of Other
2. It is the magazine run by Ramakrishna Mission Backward Classes
3. Founded at Madras in 1896 at the behest of Select the correct answer using the code given
Swami Vivekanand below:
4. Luminaries like Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, Bal a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Gangadhar Tilak, Sister Nivedita,Sri Aurobindo, b) 1, 3 and 4 only
SarvepalliRadhakrishnan etc.wrote in the journal c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
Find the which of the following magazine described d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
by above lines
a) Udbodhana Journal
b) Nav jeevan Journal
c) Prabudhha Bharat Journal Q.93) If you were to travel from the Mollem National
d) Som prakash Journal Park to the Shoolpaneshwar Wildlife Sanctuary,
what is the minimum number of states you would
Q.90) Which of the following are applications of travel through, including the origin and the
quantum computing? destination ?
1. Cyber security and Cryptography a) 3
2. Traffic Optimisation b) 4
3. Weather forecasting c) 5
4. Financial modelling d) 6
5. Drug development
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Q.94) According to the E-Waste (Management)
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Rules, 2016, a “refurbisher” of goods is someone
b) 3, 4 and 5 only
who is engaged in
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
a) Breaking down used items into raw materials for
d) All of the above
manufacturing the same products again.
b) Repairing used electrical equipment to extend its
Q.91) Consider the following pairs:
working life for its originally intended use.
Space Mission/Vehicle Purpose
c) Transforming by-products, waste materials or
1. Hayabusa-2 Interstellar
unwanted products into new materials.
travel to Kupier’s belt
d) None of the Above
2. Chang’e 5 Sample
collection from Moon
3. Ingenuity Vertical
Hovering on Mars Q.95) Consider the following pairs:
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? Active Volcanoes in News
a) 1 and 2 only Country
b) 2 and 3 only 1. Sangay
c) 1 and 3 only Peru
d) All of the Above 2. Sinabung
Indonesia
Q.92) Which of the following activities can be 3. Semeru
performed by a company to accomplish its Corporate Brunei
Social Responsibility obligations under the Which of the above pairs are incorrectly matched?
Companies Act, 2013? a) 1 only

TEST 1 13
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b) 1 and 2 only Q.100) The “One Health” approach recognizes that

c) 2 and 3 only the health of people is closely connected to the
d) 1 and 3 only health of animals. In this regard, which of the
following are zoonotic diseases?
1. Salmonella infection
2. Ebola
Q.96) The “Competitiveness and Resilience (CoRe) 3. Distemper Disease
Partnership” Agreement, which seeks to invest in the 4. Lyme disease
development of next-generation mobile networks 5. West Nile Virus Disease
and is strategically important from the perspective of Choose the correct answer using the code given
the Quad grouping, has been signed between Japan below:
and a) 1,2 and 3 only
a) United States of America b) 1,2,4 and 5 only
b) India c) 3,4 and 5 only
c) Australia d) 1,2,3 and 5 only
d) ASEAN

Q.97) With reference to the Attorney General (AG) of

India, consider the following statements:
1. According to the constitution of India, the AG is
appointed by the president by a warrant under his
hand and seal.
2. According to the constitution of India, the AG
shall receive such remuneration as the President
may determine.
3. According to the The Contempt of Courts Act,
1971 , the AG’s consent is required for initiation
of all contempt proceedings.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3

Q.98) Which of the following adopted the

“Additional Protocol to the Convention on
Cybercrime” which requires action against racist and
xenophobic material through computer systems?
a) The African Union
b) The Council of Europe
c) The United Nations General Assembly
d) The European union

Q.99) The term “Compulsory Licensing”, is

sometimes seen in the news in the context of
a) Electricity Distribution
b) Data Localization Norms
c) E-Commerce Regulations
d) Drug Manufacturing

TEST 1 14

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Q.1) Ans: D
Exp:
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad was unanimously elected the
permanent President of the Assembly on 11th
December 1946 under temporary chairmanship of
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha.
• The Objective Resolution was adopted on January
22, 1947.
• The National Flag was adopted on July 22, 1947.
• Ratification of India’s membership of the
Commonwealth was done in May, 1949.
Q.2) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Independence
Act, 1947 empowered the Constituent Assembly
to legislate till the new Constitution is drafted and
enforced. No Act of the British Parliament passed
after August 15, 1947 was to extend to Dominion
of India, unless it was extended thereto by a law
of the legislature.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The dual task of making
the Constitution and legislation continued till
November 26, 1949 (the date of adoption of the
Constitution), when the task of making the
Constitution was over.
• Statement 3 is correct: On January 24, 1950, the
Constituent Assembly held its final session. It did
not end and continued as the provisional
parliament of India from January 26, 1950 till the
formation of new Parliament after the first
general elections in 1951-52.
Q.3) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Objective
Resolution resolved to proclaim India as an
Independent Sovereign Republic. Even the original
Preamble did not contain the words ‘Socialist’ and
‘Secular’ which were added by 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1976.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Objective Resolution
proclaimed that “all power and authority of the
Sovereign Independent India, its constituent parts
and organs of the Government will be derived
from the people of India”.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Objective Resolution
proclaimed to provide adequate safeguards for
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minorities, backward and tribal areas and
depressed and other backward classes.
Q.4) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Preamble provides
liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and
worship.
• Statement 2 is correct: The term ‘liberty’ means
the absence of restraints on the activities of an
individual. It does not mean the absence of laws
as liberty cannot be achieved without laws as
laws would establish rule of law in the country.
• Statement 3 is correct: Liberty provides
opportunities for the development of an
individual personality.
• Statement 4 is correct: Liberty is essential for
successful functioning of democracy as it would
not place restrictions on an individual in terms of
his/her innovations.
Q.5) Ans: A
Exp:
• Option A is incorrect: In a Republic, the head of
the State is always either directly or indirectly
elected for a fixed period. In India, the President is
indirectly elected for a term of five years.
• Option B is correct: The term Republic signifies
that the political sovereignty is vested in the
people of the country.
• Option C is correct: The term Republic also
signifies that the absence of any privileged class
and hence all public offices are opened to every
citizen without any discrimination.
Reference: Laxmikanth
Q.6) Ans: D
Exp:
• Option 1 is correct: Article 17 provides for
abolition of untouchability and thus aims to
remove social disabilities imposed on certain
sections of the society.
• Option 2 is correct: Article 38 directs the State to
secure a social order for the promotion of welfare
of the people and thus promotes social justice.
• Option 3 is correct: Article 39A directs the State
to promote equal justice and to provide free legal
aid to the poor.
TEST 1 15

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• Option 4 is correct: Article 42 provides for just
and humane conditions of work and maternity
relief.
• Option 5 is incorrect: Article 49 directs the State
to protect monuments, places and objects of
artistic or historic interest which are declared to
be of national importance. Thus, it is not related
to social justice, rather it is a liberal-intellectual
principle.
• Option 6 is incorrect: Article 50 directs the State
to separate the judiciary from the executive in the
public services of the State. Thus, it is a liberal-
intellectual principle.
Q.7) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Preamble has been
amended only once so far by 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1976. At that time the Prime
Minister of India was Mrs. Indira Gandhi.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in
the Kesavananda Bharati case held that the
Preamble is part of the Constitution.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The original Preamble
did not include the words ‘Secular’, ‘Socialist’ and
‘Integrity’ which were added by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act.
Q.8) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The term ‘Secular’ was
added through the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1976.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Indian model of
secularism is called the soft model of secularism.
It provides for a porous wall of separation
between State and religion, i.e. state can
intervene in religious matters to give progressive
voices within every religion and to allow
disagreement with some aspects of religion, e.g.
abolition of Sati, Hindu Code Bill, Untouchability
etc. However, religion is strictly prohibited in state
matters, hence disallowing mobilising of electoral
support on religious lines. On the other hand, the
French model of secularism is called the hard
model of secularism that provides for strict
separation of State and religion.
• Statement 3 is correct: Article 15 and 16 prohibits
State from discrimination on the ground religion
and Article 44 provides for uniform civil code and
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thus promotes secularism in India. Other Articles
of the Constitution that promote secularism are
Article 14, 25, 26, 27, 28.
Q.9) Ans: D
Exp:
Statement D is correct:
• Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983.
• Lowering of voting age from 21 to 18 years
occurred in the 61st Constitutional Amendment
Act, 1989 for both the Parliament and the State
Legislative Assembly elections.
• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
accorded the Constitutional status and protection
to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• Kihoto Hollohon case or the Anti defection case
occurred in 1993.
Hence, the correct sequence is 4-1-2-3.
Q.10) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Constitutional
Amendment Bills can be introduced in both the Lok
sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Hence, both Lok Sabha
and Rajya sabha have equal powers with respect to
the constitutional amendment bills.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Elections to the
Parliament and the State Legislature require a
simple majority of the Parliament for its
amendment. Hence, it lies outside the purview of
Article 368 of the Constitution. Provisions that
require special majority of the Parliament and
ratification by half of the States (with simple
majority) include:
o Article 368 itself.
o Election of the President and the manner of
election.
o Extent of executive powers of the Centre and
States.
o Distribution of legislative powers between the
Centre and the States.
o GST Council
o Seventh Schedule
o Representation of States in the Parliament.
o Supreme Court and High Courts.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no time limit
prescribed in the Constitution for the ratification
by the states.
TEST 1 16

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
• Statement 4 is correct: Changes in Salaries and
Allowances of the MPs amounts to a Constitutional
Amendment outside Article 368. It is done by the
simple majority of the Parliament, like any other
ordinary legislation.
Q.11) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Indirect provision for
elections was introduced in the Indian Councils Act,
1892. The Act provided for the nomination of non-
official members for both the Central and the
provincial legislative councils. In the Central
Legislative Council, such members were
nominated on the recommendation of provincial
legislative councils and the Bengal chamber of
commerce. In the provincial legislative councils,
such members were nominated on the
recommendations of district boards,
municipalities, trade associations, Zamindars,
universities, etc.
• Statement 2 is correct: Direct elections were
introduced for the first time by the Government of
India Act, 1919. It allowed franchise on a certain
criterion of tax, property and education.
• Statement 3 is correct: Government of India Act,
1919 granted Franchise to a limited number of
people based on property, tax, education
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Franchise to 10 percent
of the population was extended as per the
Government of India Act, 1935.
• Statement 5 is correct: Article 326 of the
Constitution states “Elections to the House of the
People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States
to be on the basis of adult suffrage. The elections
to the House of the People and to the Legislative
Assembly of every State shall be on the basis of
adult suffrage”.
Q.12) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: It abolished the office of
Viceroy and provided for the Governor General for
each dominion, who was to be appointed by the
British King. It abolished the right of the British
monarch to veto bills.
• Statement 2 is correct: Governor General, in the
name of His majesty, had full powers to give assent
to the bills.
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• Statement 3 is correct: It abolished the office of
Secretary of state and transferred his functions to
the office of secretary of state for commonwealth
affairs.
The main provisions of the Indian Independence Act,
1947 are as follows:
o It ended the British rule and made India into a
sovereign and independent state as on August
15, 1947.
o Caused the partition of India into two
dominions of India and Pakistan, with the right
to secede from the British Commonwealth.
o Abolished the office of Viceroy and provided
for the Governor General for each dominion,
who was to be appointed by the British King.
He was the nominal head to act on the advice
of the Dominion cabinet.
o Abolished the office of the Secretary of State
for India.
o Ended the British paramountcy over the
princely states
o Empowered the Constituent Assembly of the
two dominions to legislate for themselves till
the adoption of the new Constitution.
o Abolished the right of the British monarch to
veto bills. Governor General, in the name of His
majesty, had full powers to give assent to the
bills.
Q.13) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Charter Act of 1793
provided for the payment of members of the Board
of Control charged to the company. Pitt’s India Act,
1784 was instrumental as it provided for the
creation of the Board of Control to look after the
civil and military affairs. It separated the
commercial functions from the administrative
functions.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Charter Act of 1813
empowered the local government to levy taxes.
Other provisions of the Charter Act of 1813:
o Ended the monopoly of the company to trade
with India. However, it still retained its
monopoly over tea trade and trade with China.
o Allowed Christian missionaries to propagate
their religion.
o A sum of one lakh rupees was set aside for the
promotion of education.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: An all-white seven-
member commission was established under the
TEST 1 17

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
chairmanship of Sir John Simon to report into the
working of Government of India Act, 1919. It
submitted its report in 1930. The commission
recommended the abolition of dyarchy at the
provinces, establishment of All India federation of
provinces and princely states, continuation of
communal electorate.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Ramsay MacDonald,
British Prime Minister came with the Communal
Award in 1932 which extended the system of
separate electorate for the depressed classes.
Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in
opposition to the communal award and this finally
culminated in the signing of the Poona Pact
between the Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar. However, Lord Minto was known as
the father of communal electorate after he came
up with the separate electorate for the Muslims in
the Government of India Act, 1909.
Q.14) Ans: B
Exp:
The Indian Independence Act 1947 ended the British
rule in India and declared India as an independent and
sovereign state from August 15, 1947.
Statement 1 is Correct: designated the Governor-
general of India and provincial governor as
constitutional (nominal) heads of the states. They
were made to act on advice of respective council of
ministers in all matters
Statement 2 is Incorrect: It provided for the
governance of each of the dominions and the
provinces by the Government of India Act of 1935, till
the new Constitutions were framed. The dominions
were however authorised to make modifications in
the Act.
Statement 3 is Correct: The Assembly also became a
legislative body. In other words, two separate
functions were assigned to the Assembly, that is,
making of the Constitution for free India and enacting
ordinary laws for the country.
Q.15) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: It made the Governor-
General of Bengal as the Governor General of
India and vested in him all civil and military
powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time,
the Government of India having authority over
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the entire territorial area possessed by the British
in India.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: It ended the activities of
the East India Company as a commercial body,
which became a purely administrative body.
Q.16) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Constituent
Assembly was formed in November 1946 under
the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission
Plan.
• Statement 2 is Correct: The Constituent Assembly
was to be a partly elected and partly nominated
body.Seats allocated to British provinces were to
be divided among the three principal
communities–Muslims, Sikhs and General (all
except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their
population.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: The total strength of the
Constituent Assembly was to be 389. Of these,
296 seats were given to British India and 93 seats
to the princely states. Out of 296 seats in British
India, 292 members were to be drawn from the
eleven governors’ provinces and four from the
four Chief Commissioners’ provinces.
Q.17) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect- The Indian concept of
Secularism is different from the western concept
of secularism. In the West, the State is separate
from the functioning of all religious institutions
and groups. Whereas, in India means that the
state is neutral to all religious groups but not
necessarily separate. The Indian Constitution
embodies a very positive concept of Secularism.
Giving equal respect to all religions equally is one
of the core components of Indian Constitution.
• Statement 2 is incorrect- The word ‘Secular’ was
added in the Preamble of India by the 42nd
Amendment Act of 1976 and was not a part of the
original Constitution.
• Statement 3 is correct- Equality of opportunity for
all citizens in matters of public employment-
Article 16- reveals the Secular character of the
Indian State. Article 16 says that no citizen shall,
on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex,
TEST 1 18

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
descent, place of birth or any of them, be
ineligible for any office under the State.
Q.18) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct- Universal Adult Franchise
establishes political equality among all the adults.
It ensures that all the people are having hands in
the electing ruler and hence the government is
democratic. It also makes democracy broad-
based.
• Statement 2 is incorrect- Universal franchise/
suffrage gives the right to vote to every citizen
who is 18 years of age or above, regardless of
wealth, income, gender, social status, race,
ethnicity etc. The 61st Amendment Act lowered
the voting age from 21 to 18 years.
• Statement 3 is correct- It opens up new hopes
and vistas for weaker sections of the society as it
empowers people to elect their own governments
in a democratic manner. The Political equality
established by the Universal Adult Franchise
provides a sense of empowerment to all
especially the weaker sections of the society.
Q.19) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct- The Indian constitution
provides for an Integrated judicial system. The
Supreme court is at the top below it there are
high courts at state. Under a high court, there is a
hierarchy of subordinate courts i.e., district and
other lower courts. This single system of courts
enforces both the central and state laws.
• Statement 2 is correct- The American constitution
provides for the “due process of law” while the
Indian constitution provides for the “procedure
established by law”. The “Due process of law”
gives wider scope to the Supreme Court to grant
protection to the rights of its citizens. It can
declare laws violating rights rights void not only
on substantive grounds of being unlawful, but also
on procedural grounds of being unreasonable. On
other hand our supreme court while determining
constitutionality of law examines only whether
law is within the power of authority concerned or
not.
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• Statement 3 is correct- The Emergency Provisions
in the Constitution in Part XVIII of the Constitution
of India, from Article 352 to 360 converts the
federal structure into a unitary one without the
formal amendment of the Constitution. The
rationality behind the incorporation is to
safeguard the sovereignty, unity, integrity and
security of the country, the democratic political
system and the Constitution.
Q.20) Ans: B
Exp:
• Pair 1 is incorrect-Fourth Schedule Deals with the
Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (the Upper
House of Parliament) to the State and Union
Territory.
• Pair 2 is correct- Third schedule deals with Forms
of oaths and Affirmations for-
o Union Ministers of India
o Parliament Election Candidates
o Members of Parliament (MPs)
o Supreme Court Judges
o Comptroller and Auditor General
o State Ministers
o State Legislature Elections’ Candidates
o State Legislature Members
o High Court Judges
• Pair 3 is correct-. Eight schedule deals with the
Languages recognised in the Constitution. There
are 22 official languages recognized by the Indian
Constitution- Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri
(Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi,Kannada, Kashmiri,
Konkani, Mathili(Maithili) ,Malayalam, Manipuri,
Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali,
Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu.
• Pair 4 is incorrect- Ninth schedule deals with the
state acts and regulations that deal with land
reforms and abolition of the zamindari system. It
also deals with the acts and regulations of the
Parliament dealing with other matters.
Q.21) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect- Kesavananda Bharati
case of 1973- The Supreme court of India ruled
that the constituent power of Parliament under
article 368(Article 368 in Part XX of the
Constitution deals with the power of parliament
to amend the constitution and its procedures)
TEST 1 19

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
does not enable it to alter the basic structure of
the constitution. However, the constitution is
neither too rigid nor too flexible in terms of
amendment.
• Statement 2 is correct - Some provisions of the
Constitution can be amended by a simple majority
of the parliament. These amendments do not
come under Article 368. These provisions include:
o Admission or establishment of new states,
Formation of new states and alteration of
areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
o Privileges of the Parliament, its members and
its committees.
o Abolition or creation of legislative councils in
states.
o Conferment of more jurisdiction on the
Supreme Court.
o Citizenship-acquisition and termination.
o Allowances, privileges and so on of the
president, the governors, the Speakers,
judges, etc.
o Quorum in Parliament.
o Salaries and allowances of the members of
Parliament.
o Rules of procedure in Parliament.
o Number of puisne judges in the Supreme
Court.
o Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
o Delimitation of constituencies.
o Union territories
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Use of the English
language in Parliament requires a simple majority
of parliament for amendment and this
amendment does not come under Article 368.
Q.22) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The dual system of
government was introduced by the Pitt’s India Act,
1784 where the Court of Directors of the Company
were to look after the commercial affairs of the
Company while the Board of Control was
responsible for civil, military and revenue functions
of the Company.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act of 1786 was
enacted to extend special privileges to Lord
Cornwallis. He was made both the governor
general and the commander-in-chief. Later this
power was extended to all the future governor
generals.
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Q.23) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Some provisions of the
Charter Act, 1793:
o Renewal of Company’s privileges for another
term of 20 years.
o Debarring senior officials of the Company from
leaving India without permission.
o Separation of revenue administration from the
judicial functions. Abolition of Maal Adalats.
o Payment of members of the board of control
from the revenues of India.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It was the Charter Act of
1833 which was termed as the St. Helena Act.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The strength of the Court
of Directors was not reduced by the Charter Act of
1793.
Q.24) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Montagu Chelmsford
reforms or the Government of India Act, 1919
introduced bicameralism at the central level.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Ordinance making power
was extended to the viceroy by the Indian Councils
Act, 1861.
• Statement 3 is correct: The elected members were
indirectly elected by the members of the electoral
college. Local bodies elected the members of the
electoral college, who further elected the
members of the provincial legislatures who in turn
elected the members of the central legislature.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Formation of Muslim
League occurred in December 1905 by Nawab
Salimullah of Dacca, Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk and
Waqar-ul- Mulk. Hence, Muslim League preceded
the Act of 1909.
Q.25) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Charter Act of 1833
made efforts for the abolition of slavery in India.
Other provisions of the Charter Act of 1833 are:
o Governor General of Bengal became the
Governor General of India (Lord William
Bentinck was the first such Governor
General of India) with all the civil and
military powers.
TEST 1 20

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
o It completely ended the monopoly of the
Company as a commercial body which
became a purely administrative entity.
• Statement 2 is correct: It was during the tenure of
Lord Ellenborough that slavery was abolished from
India in 1843.
Q.26) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The office of the
secretary of state was created in the Government
of India Act, 1858. Hence, it was not created before
the revolt of 1857.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Board of Control and the
Court of Directors which provided for the dual
system of government in the Regulating Act of
1773 was abolished by the Government of India
Act,1858. Hence, the Secretary of State was not the
head of the Board of Control. He was a member of
the British cabinet and oversaw the entire Indian
administration.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The office of the
Secretary of State was abolished in the Indian
Independence Act of 1947. The council of India
which was established in the Government of India
Act, 1858 to assist the Secretary of state was
abolished in the Government of India Act, 1935.
Q.27) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Federal Court was
created by the Government of India Act, 1935.
Other provisions of this Act are:
o The Act provided for the establishment of the
Reserve Bank of India.
o It divided the powers between the Federal and
the provincial subjects on two lists- Federal list
and the Provincial list, with all the residuary
powers given to the viceroy.
o Burma was separated from India as per the
Government of India Act, 1935.
o Provided for the establishment of the Federal
Court, which was set up in 1937.
o Provided for the establishment of Federal
Public Service Commission, Provincial Public
Service Commission and Joint Public Service
Commission.
o Extended Franchise to 10 percent of the
population.
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o Extended the principle of Communal
electorate for depressed classes, women, and
labour.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Sir Elijah Impey was the
first chief justice of the Supreme Court established
under the Regulating Act of 1773 while Sir Maurice
Gwyer was the first chief Justice of the Federal
Court established as per the Government of India
Act, 1935.
Q.28) Ans: C
Exp:
• Option C is correct:
o The direct elections were introduced by the
Government of India Act, 1919 or the Montagu
Chelmsford reforms.
o The Board of Control was abolished by the
Government of India Act, 1858 and was
established by the Pitt’s India Act of 1784.
o Separate Electorates for the Women was
introduced by the Government of India Act,
1935.
o The provision for the establishment of the
Federal Court was provided in the Government
of India Act, 1935. The Court was formally
established in 1937.
o The Vernacular Press Act was passed by Lord
Lytton in 1878. It was called the ‘gagging act’
for imposing severe restrictions on Indian
language newspapers.
o The report of the Simon Commission was laid
in 1930.
Hence, the correct sequence is 2-5-1-6-3-4.
Q.29) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Government of India
Act, 1935 provided for dyarchy at the central level.
The subjects at the Federal level were divided into
reserved and transferred subjects. Dyarchy in the
provinces was abolished in this Act.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Government of India
Act, 1935 abolished the Council of India
established by Government of India act 1858 which
was established to assist the secretary of state.This
act provides a team of advisors to the secretary of
state.
Q.30) Ans: B
TEST 1 21

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The division of subjects
into the three lists were provided for in the
Government of India Act, 1935. All the residuary
powers were under the control of the Governor
General.
• Statement 2 is correct: The provision for
establishment of a federal public service
commission, provincial public service commission
and joint public service commission for two or
more provinces was given by the Government of
India, 1935.
Q.31) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: National Flag was
adopted by the Constituent Assembly on the 22nd
July 1947. Hence, it was adopted before
independence.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Ninth Schedule was
inserted as a result of the 1st Constitutional
Amendment in 1951. It was added to shield the
laws placed in from Judicial Review.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The idea of Concurrent
list in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed
from the Constitution of Australia.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: The discussions on the
Round Table Conferences led to the enactment of
the Government of India Act, 1935. The Poona Pact
was signed in 1930 between Mahatma Gandhi and
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar after the announcement of the
Communal Award.
Q.32) Ans: D
Exp:
• Pair 1 is correct: Article 16 provides for equality of
opportunity in matters of public employment.
• Pair 2 is correct: Article 25 provides for freedom
of conscience and free profession, practice and
propagation of religion. The right to free
profession provides an individual to declare
his/her religious beliefs and faith openly and
freely.
• Pair 3 is correct: Article 17 provides for abolition
of untouchability and thus protects the dignity of
an individual.
• Pair 4 is correct: Article 21A provides for free and
compulsory education to all children of the age of
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six to fourteen years and thus provides for social
justice.
Q.33) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constituent
Assembly was constituted as per the provisions of
the Cabinet Mission Plan. The Cabinet Mission was
announced in 1946. Its members included Pethick
Lawrence, Stafford Cripps, and A.V. Alexander.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian Independence
Act, 1947 or the Mountbatten plan provided for
the partition of India and created two independent
dominions of India and Pakistan. It empowered the
Constituent Assembly of the two dominions to
adopt any constitution as it thinks fit and to repeal
any act of the British Parliament, including the
Indian Independence Act, 1947 itself. The main
provisions of the Indian Independence Act, 1947
are as follows:
o It ended the British rule and made India into a
sovereign and independent state as on August
15, 1947.
o Caused the partition of India into two
dominions of India and Pakistan, with the right
to secede from the British Commonwealth.
o Abolished the office of Viceroy and provided
for the Governor General for each dominion,
who was to be appointed by the British King.
He was the nominal head to act on the advice
of the Dominion cabinet.
o Abolished the office of the Secretary of State
for India.
o Ended the British paramountcy over the
princely states
o Empowered the Constituent Assembly of the
two dominions to legislate for themselves till
the adoption of the new Constitution.
o Abolished the right of the British monarch to
veto bills. Governor General, in the name of His
majesty, had full powers to give assent to the
bills.
Q.34) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The amending act of 1781
was passed to rectify the errors of the Regulating
Act of 1773. Hence, it was also known as the Act of
Settlement.
TEST 1 22
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• Statement 2 is Correct: The outlined the Q.37) Ans: A

jurisdiction of the Supreme Court at Calcutta which
was established by the Regulating Act of 1773. It
held that its jurisdiction was extended to all the
inhabitants of Calcutta. The Hindu subjects were to
be tried as per the Hindu laws while the Muslims
subjects were to be tried as per the Mohammedan
laws.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: It held that the appeals
from the Provincial courts were to be taken to the
Governor-General-in council and not to the
supreme court. The Governor-General-in Council
was empowered to frame regulations for the
Provincial courts and the Council.
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: The portfolio system was
recognised by the Indian Council Act, 1861. It was
introduced by Lord Canning in 1859 before the
Indian Council Act, 1861.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Lee Commission (1923-
24) dealt with the reforms of the civil services. It
recommended the establishment of the Public
Service Commission.
Q.38) Ans: A

Exp:
Q.35) Ans: B • Statement 1 is correct: 52nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1985 added Tenth Schedule to
Exp:
the Constitution. It deals with the provisions
• Statement 1 is incorrect: It was the Charter Act of
related to the Anti-defection law.
1833 that completely abolished the commercial
• Statement 2 is incorrect: 93rd Constitutional
activities of the Company. The charter Act of 1813
Amendment Act, 2005 empowered the state to
ended its trade monopoly except for trade in tea
make special provisions for the socially and
and with China. The Charter Act of 1833 purely
educationally backward classes/ SCs/STs in
transformed it into an administrative entity.
educational institutions including the private
• Statement 2 is correct: The Charter Act of 1853
educational institutions. However, minority
introduced local representation into the Indian
educational institutions are exempted from these
Legislative Council. Four members were appointed
provisions. While the 86th Constitutional
to the Indian Legislative Council by the provincial
Amendment Act, 2002 dealt with the Article 21A of
governments of Bombay, Madras, Bengal and
the Constitution which aims to provide free and
Agra.
compulsory education to all the children of the age
of 6-14 years.
Q.36) Ans: B

Exp: Q.39) Ans: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Charter Act of 1793
Exp:
did not introduce the Dual system of Government.
• Statement B is correct: The total sanctioned
It was introduced by the Pitt’s India Act, 1784
strength of the Lok Sabha is 552. The present 17th
which provided for the establishment of the Board
Lok Sabha has 545 members. On the given day,
of Control to look after the civil, military and
only 541 are present and 8 abstain from voting.
revenue affairs of the Company and the Court of
Hence, the total members that are present and
Directors to look after the commercial affairs of the
voting are 533. The bill that is taken up voting is the
Company.
Constitutional Amendment Bill. A bill seeking to
• Statement 2 is correct: The Charter Act of 1853
amend the provisions like Fundamental Rights and
introduced a system of open competition for the
Directive Principles of State Policy requires a
recruitment of the civil servants. Accordingly, the
special majority of the Parliament. Article 50 deals
Macaulay Committee on the Indian Civil Services
with the separation of judiciary from the executive.
was appointed in 1854.
Hence it requires a special majority in the
• Statement 3 is correct: The Government of India
Parliament. Special majority involves. A) Majority
Act, 1935 abolished Dyarchy from the provinces
of the total membership of the House, here it is
and introduced complete provincial autonomy
545/2 i.e., 273 and, B) majority of the two-thirds of
instead.
the members present and voting, here it is 2/3 of

TEST 1 23

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
533 i.e., 356. Hence, it must be passed by 356
members.
Q.40) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: 103rd Constitutional
Amendment Act of 2019 seeks to provide
reservation to the Economically Weaker sections in
the Educational Institutions and in Public
Employment. It amended the Article 15 and 16 of
the Constitution and made no change in the Article
14.
o Article 15 deals with prohibition on
discrimination on certain grounds. It ensures
that states do not discriminate against any
citizen on the grounds only of religion, race,
caste, sex, or place of birth.
o Article 16 deals with equality of opportunity
for all citizens in the matters related to public
employment.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 21A declares that
State shall provide free and compulsory education
to all children of the age of six and fourteen years.
It was added by the 86th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 2002. To fulfil the objectives of
Article 21A, the Parliament enacted the Right of
Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE)
Act, 2009.
Q.41) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: 86th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 2002 made changes in the
Fundamental rights, Directive principles of the
State Policy and Fundamental duties. It inserted
Article 21A to the chapter on Fundamental rights.
Article 21A declares that State shall provide free
and compulsory education to all children of the age
of six and fourteen years. It also made changes to
Article 45. Article 45 deals with providing early
childhood care and education for all children until
they attain the age of six years.It also inserted
additional fundamental duty in article 51A for
parents or the guardian to provide opportunity of
education to his child or ward between the age of
6 to 14 years.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: 44th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1978 inserted a directive
principle that aims to minimize inequalities in
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income, status, facilities, and opportunities. The
provision regarding promotion of equal justice and
providing free legal aid to the poor is contained in
Article 39A of the Constitution. It was inserted by
the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Q.42) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 368 of the
Constitution, a Constitutional Amendment Bill can
be introduced in either house of the Parliament,
not necessarily in the Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha has
equal powers with Lok Sabha in case of
Constitutional Amendment Bills.
• Statement 2 is correct: Constitutional Amendment
bills cannot be introduced in the state legislatures.
The state legislatures can only pass a resolution
requesting the Parliament for the creation or
abolition of the state legislative council which can
also be rejected or accepted by the Parliament.
Hence, state legislatures cannot initiate a
constitutional amendment.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The President must
mandatorily give his assent to the Constitution
Amendment bill. He can neither withhold assent
nor return the bill. This provision was added by the
24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971.
• Statement 4 is correct: There are certain
provisions in the Constitution that seeks to amend
the Federal provisions of the constitution. Such
provisions require special majority in the
Parliament and require ratification by half of the
state legislatures with a simple majority. These
provisions are:
o Power to amend the constitution (Article 368)
itself.
o Election of the President and the manner of
election.
o Extent of executive powers of the Centre and
States.
o Distribution of legislative powers between the
Centre and the States.
o GST Council
o Seventh Schedule
o Representation of States in the Parliament.
o Supreme Court and High Courts.
Q.43) Ans: D
TEST 1 24

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: some provisions in
the Constitution can be amended by the simple
majority in the Parliament in the manner like
the passage of ordinary legislation which are
outside the scope of article 368 of constitution.
Further certain provisions require a special
majority along with ratification by half of the
states.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Federal provisions
that require ratification by half of the state
legislatures with a simple majority are
mentioned in the Constitution under Article
368. These provisions are:
o Power to amend the constitution (Article
368) itself.
o Election of the President and the manner
of election.
o Extent of executive powers of the Centre
and States.
o Distribution of legislative powers between
the Centre and the States.
o GST Council
o Seventh Schedule
o Representation of States in the Parliament.
o Supreme Court and High Courts.
Q.44) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: A Constitutional
Amendment bill can be introduced by both a
minister as well as a private member (member of
the House who is not a minister).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The introduction of the
Constitutional amendment bill does not require
prior approval of the President before its
introduction.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: A provision of joint sitting
is provided in case of the ordinary bills. However,
when a deadlock occurs between the two houses
in case of passage of money bill or the
constitutional amendment bill, there is no
provision of a joint sitting provided in the
Constitution.
Q.45) Ans: C
Exp:
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• Statement 1 is correct: 101st Constitutional
Amendment Act deals with the concurrent power
of taxation by the Centre and the states. Both
Parliament and State legislatures have concurrent
powers of taxation in matters related to Goods and
Services tax.
• Statement 2 is correct: 101st Constitutional
Amendment Act, 2016 inserted Article 279¬A in
the Constitution. Article 279A empowers the
President to create a Goods and Services Tax
Council or the GST Council with the powers to
make decisions in matters related to GST.
• Statement 3 is correct: An Amendment to the
provisions relating to GST council requires
constitutional amendment under Article 368 of the
Constitution. It requires a special majority in the
Parliament and ratification by half of the state
legislatures by simple majority.
Q.46) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Constitution makers kept in
mind that changing times would require
amendment to the constitution. Hence, to make it
a living document that is coherent with its times,
they kept the option open for its amendment in
future. Hence, our constitution is not a frozen
document. It is subject to alterations and
modifications with changing times.
• Statement 2 is correct: Provisions like
Fundamental rights, DPSPs, several federal
provisions, the process of amendment is rigid. It
requires a special majority in the Parliament while
some even require ratification by half of the state
legislatures. Hence, amendment to the
constitution is a mix of both rigid and flexible
provisions.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Our Constitution
envisages a federal polity and hence provisions
that deal with the rights and powers of the states
cannot be amended in a very flexible manner like
the ordinary legislative process of the Parliament.
• Statement 4 is correct: As only elected
representatives are empowered to consider and
take final decision on question of amendment.
Thus sovereignty of elected representatives is the
basis of amendment procedure.
Source: NCERT
TEST 1 25

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Q.47) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect:For makinging any
changes in use of official language, a simple
majority is required.which is outside the scope of
Article 368.
Provision which requires special majority of
parliament and also the consent of half of the state
with simple majority are as follows:
o Election of the President and the manner of
election.
o Extent of executive powers of the Centre and
States.
o Distribution of legislative powers between the
Centre and the States.
o GST Council
o Seventh Schedule
o Representation of States in the Parliament.
o Supreme Court and High Courts.
• Statement 2 is correct: Amendment to the
provisions regarding use of English language
requires a simple majority of the Parliament. This
amendment falls outside the purview of
amendment under Article 368 of the Constitution.
Q.48) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: NITI Aayog is neither a
Constitutional nor a statutory body. It was
established in 2015 as the think tank of the nation
by an executive resolution of the Government of
India.
• Statement 2 is correct: The original Constitution
did not contain any provision regarding the special
officer for linguistic minorities. It was added to the
constitution by the 7th Constitutional Amendment
Act, 1956 and added to Part XVII of the
Constitution under Article 350-B. It falls under the
ministry of minority affairs.
• Statement 3 is correct: National Commission for
Backward classes was added to the Constitution of
India by way of the 102nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 2018. It is mentioned in the
Article 338-B of the Constitution of India.
• Statement 4 is correct: Goods and Service Tax
council was added by the 101st Constitutional
Amendment Act, 2016 which inserted Article 279-
A.
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• Statement 5 is incorrect: Central Information
Commission is not a Constitutional body. It was
constituted in 2005 by the Gazette notification
under the Right to Information Act, 2005.
Q.49) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India
not only is a legal document that outlines the laws
that would govern the country but also at the same
time it adheres to certain political philosophies as
well like those of freedom, equality, social justice,
etc. Hence, it is a mixture of the two.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike the western
concept of liberalism, in Indian constitution it is
linked to social justice and community values. The
reservation of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes is the testimony that while granting
equality, the Constitution also seeks to provide
affirmative action in favor of the backward classes,
who have been a victim of historical injustice.
Q.50) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: 91st Constitutional
Amendment Act dealt with the strengthening of
the Anti-defection law. According to this, the total
number of ministers, including the Prime Minister,
shall not be more than 15% of the total strength of
the Lok Sabha.
• Statement 2 is correct: 71st Constitutional
Amendment Act added Konkani, Manipuri, and
Nepali to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: 97th Constitutional
Amendment Act gave constitutional status to the
Cooperative societies by inserting part IX-B to the
Constitution of the country.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: 89th Constitutional
Amendment Act divided the National Commission
of Scheduled Castes and the National Commission
on Scheduled Tribes into separate bodies. Sixth
Schedule of the constitution deals with the
administration of the tribal areas in the state of
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Q.51) Ans: B
TEST 1 26

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Rearrangement of items
amongst the three lists require amendment of the
Constitution with the special majority of the
Parliament and with ratification by half of the state
legislatures with a simple majority. The 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is an
example here. It transferred five subjects
(education, forests, weights and measures,
protection of wild animals and birds and
administration of justice) from the Concurrent list
to the state list.
• Statement 2 is correct: The provision related to the
State Finance Commission was added by the 73rd
and 74th Constitutional Amendment Act which
added provisions regarding the Panchayats and the
Municipalities. Articles 243I and the 243Y deals
with the constitution of the finance commission.
Q.52) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Right to Property was
removed from the list of fundamental rights by
removing articles 19(1)(f) and 31 of the
Constitution by the 44th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1978. Presently, it is placed under
Article 300A of the Constitution.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 300A of the
Constitution contains provisions Right to Property
which reads that no person shall be deprived of his
property except by authority of law. Hence, it does
not form part of the Fundamental rights or the
provisions that require amendment under 368 of
the Constitution.
Q.53) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement a is incorrect: The Constitution does
not favour the monopoly or the accumulation of
power under one institution. It rather promotes
fragmentation of power among the various organs
of government like the Legislature, executive and
the Judiciary. The Constitution favours the system
of internal checks and balances amongst these
institutions.
• Statement b is correct: The 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1976 inserted Fundamental
duties under Article 51A in Part IV-A of the
Constitution. However, the Constitution is silent on
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the enforcement of these duties. Hence, it does
not make the enjoyment of rights conditional upon
the fulfilment of the duties.
• Statement c is incorrect: Conduction of free and
fair elections is essential for the functioning of a
democracy. However, in the Indian case, citizens
have a limited role in making policy decisions as
Indian Constitution envisages indirect democracy
and not direct. It would be unsuitable to have
direct democracy for a vast diverse country like
India. Hence, elected representatives play an
important role in day-to-day policy decisions and
running of administration.
• Statement d is incorrect: Judges are removed by
the special majority of the two houses of the
Parliament on the grounds of proved misbehaviour
and incapacity. However, to ensure the
independence of the Judiciary they are not
accountable to the Parliament but to the
Constitution itself.
Q.54) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Those matters which in
other modern democratic countries have been
left to ordinary legislation or established political
conventions have also been included in the
constitution itself in India. The Constitution of
India thus not only contains the fundamental
principles of governance but also detailed
administrative provisions.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The political part of the
Constitution i.e the principle of Cabinet
Government and the relations between the
Executive and the Legislature have been largely
drawn from the British Constitution. This was
largely because of familiarity with the system
prevailing during colonial times.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Constitution
adopted universal adult franchise as a basis of
elections to the Lok Sabha and the state
legislative assemblies ever since enactment of the
Constitution. The voting age was fixed at 21 years
when the constitution was enacted. The 61st
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 provided
that Every citizen who is not less than 18 years of
age got a right to vote without any discrimination
of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, wealth and so
on.
TEST 1 27

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Q.55) Ans: D
Exp:
Important provisions borrowed from Government of
India Act, 1935 are Federal Scheme, Office of
governor, Judiciary, Public Service Commissions,
Emergency provisions and administrative details.
• Option 1 is correct: Procedure for
amendment of the constitution has been
derived from the South African constitution.
The election of member of Rajya Sabha is also
derived from South African constitution
• Option 2 is incorrect: The office of judiciary
has been derived from the Government of
India Act,1935.
• Option 3 is incorrect: The Emergency
provisions of Indian Constitution are
borrowed from the Government of India
Act,1935.
• Option 4 is incorrect: The office of governor
is borrowed from the Government of India
Act,1935. However, the mode of appointment
of governor by the centre has been taken
from the Canadian constitution
Q.56) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The term ‘liberty’ means
the absence of restraints on the activities of
individuals, and at the same time, providing
opportunities for the development of individual
personalities. liberty does not mean ‘license’ to do
what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within the
limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself.
• Statement 2 is correct: The term ‘equality’ means
the absence of special privileges to any section of
the society, and the provision of adequate
opportunities for all individuals without any
discrimination. The Preamble secures to all
citizens of India equality of status and
opportunity.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The principles of liberty,
equality and fraternity cannot treat as separate
items in a trinity. They form a union of trinity in
the sense that to divorce one from the other is to
defeat the very purpose of democracy. Equality
cannot be divorced from liberty, Liberty cannot be
divorced from equality, Nor can liberty and
equality be divorced from fraternity. Without
equality, liberty would produce the supremacy of
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the few over the many. Equality without liberty,
would kill individual initiative.
Q.57) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The word sovereign
implies that India is neither a dependency nor a
dominion of any other nation, but an independent
state. There is no authority or state above it, and
it is free to conduct its own affairs (both internal
and external). Being a sovereign state, India can
also acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its
territory in favour of a foreign state.
• Statement 2 is correct: The term Republic in our
Preamble indicates that India has a president as
an elected head. He is elected indirectly for a
fixed period of five years. A republic also means
vesting of political sovereignty in the people and
not in a single individual like a king
• Statement 3 is correct: Moreover, it also implies
the absence of any privileged class and hence all
public offices being opened to every citizen
without any discrimination.
Q.58) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Dyarchy is the dual
scheme of governance. In was introduced in the
province by the Montagu-Chelmsford reform
(Government of India Act 1919). It divided
provincial subjects into two parts i.e. transferred
subjects which were administered by the
governor with the aid of ministers responsible to
the legislative council and reserved subjects which
were administered by the governor and his
executive council without being responsible to the
legislative council.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Distinguishing between
commercial and political function of a company
was known as Double government system. It was
introduced by the Pitt’s India Act 1784. It allowed
the Court of directors to manage commercial
affairs and created a new body called the Board of
Control to manage Political affairs.
• Statement 3 is correct: Government of India act
1935 recommended for adoption of dyarchy at
centre. But this provision never came into
operation.
TEST 1 28

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Q.59) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: It was Indian council act
1892 which made limited and indirect provision
for use of elections in filling up some non-official
seats both in provincial legislative council and
central level. But the word election was not used
in the act.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Principle of communal
representation was extended by providing
Separate electorate to Sikhs, Indian Christians,
Anglo-Indians and Europeans by the Government
of India Act 1919.
• Statement 3 is Correct: Government of India Act
1935 provides for responsible government in
provinces where the governor is required to act
with the advice of ministers responsible to the
provincial legislature.
Q.60) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: System of double
government was introduced by the Pitt’s India Act
1784. Act Distinguished between commercial and
political function of a company. It allowed the
Court of directors to manage commercial affairs
and created a new body called the Board of
Control to manage Political affairs. Government of
India Act 1858 abolished the system of double
government which was created by the Pitt’s India
Act 1784
• Statement 2 is Correct: Government of India Act
1858 created the office of Secretary of State for
India. It has complete authority and control over
Indian administration. Secretary of State was a
member of British cabinet and also ultimately
responsible to British parliament
• Statement 3 is incorrect: It was the Charter Act of
1833 which made the Governor-General of Bengal
as the Governor-General of India. Government of
India Act 1858 changed the designation of
Governor-General of India to Viceroy of India.
Q.61) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: It was Charter Act 1833
which ended the activities of the East India
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company as a commercial body and made it
purely an administrative body. The Act provided
that the company’s territories in India were held
by it in trust for his Majesty, His heirs and
successors.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Act separated for the first
time legislative and executive function of the
Governor-General’s council. Act provided addition
of six new members called as legislative
councillors to the council. This legislative wing of
the council functioned as a mini Parliament.
• Statement 3 is Correct: Act introduced for first
time local representation in the central legislative
council. Out of six new legislative members of
governor-general legislative council, four were
appointed by the local governments of Madras,
Bombay, Bengal and Agra
Q.62) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is
Correct: Scope of Judicial review of the Supreme
court in India is narrower than the court in the
United States. Reason behind it is American
constitution provided for due process of law
against the procedure established by law in Indian
Constitution.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: In India there is an
integrated judicial system where the Supreme
Court stands at the top. Below it there is a High
Court at State level. Under a high court there is a
hierarchy of subordinate courts that is district
court and other lower courts. Hence this single
system of courts enforce both central laws as well
as state laws. Unlike USA where federal laws are
enforced by the federal judiciary and state laws is
enforced by the state judiciary
Q.63) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Due to multi religious
nature of Indian society westen concept of
secularism which focuses on complete separation
between religion and state is not applicable in
India. Hence, Indian Constitution provides a
positive concept Secularism which gives equal
respect to all religions.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Western concept of
Secularism is negative concept which emphasis on
TEST 1 29

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
complete separation between the religion and the
state
Q.64) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Second schedule of India
Constitution provides for emoluments, allowances
and privileges for President of India, Governor of
State, Speaker and Deputy speaker of Lok Sabha
and state legislative assembly, chairman and
deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha, chairman and
deputy chairman of legislative council of state,
Judges of supreme court and high courts,
Comptroller and Auditor General of India. There is
no mention of the Prime minister in it.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Third Schedule of
the Constitution contains the oath and affirmation
of Union and state ministers, candidate for
election of parliament and state legislature,
member of Parliament and the state legislature,
judges of supreme court and high court,
Comptroller and Auditor General of India. There is
no mention of the President and governor in it.
• Statement 3 is Correct: allocation of seats on the
Rajya Sabha to the state and the union territories
is mentioned in the fourth schedule of Indian
constitution
Q.65) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct and Statement 2 is
Correct: 42nd constitutional amendment act
which is also known as Mini-Constitution added
part XIV A in which provided for creation of
administrative tribunal and tribunals for other
matters. The Act also did away with the
requirement of quorum in the parliament and the
state legislatures which was later restored by the
44th constitutional amendment act
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The right to property is
deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights and
made it only a legal right by the 44th
constitutional amendment act 1978.
Q.66) Ans: D
Exp:
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• Statement 1 is incorrect: Combination of the
social and economic justice is known as
distributive justice. Social justice denotes the
equal treatment of all citizen without any social
discrimination based on caste, colour, religion,
race, sex and so on. Whereas Economic justice is
denoted as non-discrimination between people
on the basic of economic factor.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The ideal of justice-
social, political and economic in Indian
constitution has been taken from Russian
Revolution. Ideals of Liberty, equality and
fraternity have been taken from the French
revolution.
Q.67) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Preamble was enacted
by constitution assembly after the rest of the
constitution was already enacted to ensure the
conformity with the constitution adopted by the
assembly. The Supreme court in the Keshvananda
Bharati case held that Preamble is a part of the
constitution. However, it must be noted that
preamble is neither source of power to legislature
nor a prohibition upon the power of legislature
• Statement 2 is Correct: Preamble is non-
justiciable i.e. Provisions of preamble are not
enforceable in courts of law.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: In Berubari union case
Supreme court upheld that preamble cannot be
amended as it is not part of the constitution. But
in Kesavananda Bharati case Supreme court
changed its opinion and held that the preamble
can be amended subject to the condition that no
amendment is done to the “basic feature”.
Q.68) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Constitution assembly
was partly elected and partly nominated body.
Members are indirectly elected by the members
of provincial assemblies, who themselves were
elected on a limited franchise which is based on
tax, property and education. Hence it can be say
that Constitution assembly was not directly
elected by the people of India on the basis of the
adult franchise
TEST 1 30

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
• Statement 2 is Correct: Though Constitution
assembly was not directly elected by the people
of India on the basis of the adult franchise
assembly has representation of all section of
Indian society- Hindu, Muslim, Sikhs, parsi, Anglo-
Indians, Indian Christians, SCs, STs including
women of all these sections.
• Statement 3 is Correct: In the constitution
assembly the representatives of each community
were elected by the members of that community
in the provincial legislative assembly and voting
was done by the method of proportional
representation by the means of single
transferable vote.
Q.69) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: Indian Independence Act
1947 made constitution assembly a fully
sovereign body which can frame any constitution
it pleased. Act also empowered assembly to alter
or abrogate any law made by British Parliament in
relation to the India
• Statement 2 is incorrect: With the
commencement of constitution of India Indian
Independence Act 1947 and Government of India
act 1935 was repealed but the abolition of Privy
Council Jurisdiction Act continued to operate.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Preamble was enacted
by constitution assembly after the rest of the
constitution was already enacted to ensure the
conformity with the constitution adopted by the
assembly
Q.70) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: One of the most sought-
after details in any Union Budget is the level of
fiscal deficit. It is essentially the gap between
what the central government spends and what it
earns. In other words, it is the level of borrowings
by the Union government. One of the ways to do
this is by resorting to “off-budget borrowings”.
Such borrowings are a way for the Centre to
finance its expenditures while keeping the debt
off the books — so that it is not counted in the
calculation of fiscal deficit.
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• Statement 2 is incorrect: Off-budget borrowings
are loans that are taken not by the Centre
directly, but by another public institution which
borrows on the directions of the central
government. Such borrowings are used to fulfil
the government’s expenditure needs.
• Statement 3 is correct: As a result, as a
Comptroller and Auditor General report of 2019
points out, this route of financing puts major
sources of funds outside the control of
Parliament. “Such off-budget financing is not part
of the calculation of the fiscal indicators despite
fiscal implications,” said the report.
NEWS : One of the most sought-after details in any
Union Budget is the level of fiscal deficit. As such, it is
keenly watched by rating agencies — both inside and
outside the country. One of the ways to do this is by
resorting to “off-budget borrowings”.
Q.71) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: After the British
annexation of Assam in 1826, surveys of the vast
lands of the state began. On the basis of such
surveys, the British began to impose land taxes,
much to the resentment of the farmers. In 1893,
the British government decided to increase
agricultural land tax reportedly by 70- 80 per cent.
“Up until then the peasants would pay taxes in
kind or provide a service in lieu of cash.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: This uprising took place
in Assam.
• Statement 3 is correct: Across Assam, peasants
began protesting the move by organising Raij
Mel’s, or peaceful peoples’ conventions.
“According to Guwahati-based author Arup Kumar
Dutta, who has written a book — Pothorughat —
on the incident, despite these gatherings being
democratic, the British perceived them as
“breeding grounds for sedition”. “So, whenever
there was a Raij Mel, the British used to come
down on it with a heavy hand to disperse them,”
he said.
NEWS: Patharughat peasant uprising took place on
January 28, 1894 in Assam.
Q.72) Ans: C
TEST 1 31

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Exp:
Build-Operate-Lease-Transfer (BOLT): In this
approach, the government gives a concession to a
private entity to build a facility (and possibly design it
as well), own the facility, lease the facility to the
public sector and then at the end of the lease period
transfer the ownership of the facility to the
government.
• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched : Lease-Develop-
Operate (LDO): Here, the government or the
public sector entity retains ownership of the
newly created infrastructure facility and receives
payments in terms of a lease agreement with the
private promoter. This approach is mostly
followed in the development of airport facilities.
• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched : Rehabilitate-
Operate-Transfer (ROT): Under this approach, the
governments/local bodies allow private
promoters to rehabilitate and operate a facility
during a concession period. After the concession
period, the project is transferred back to
governments/local bodies.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched : DBFO (Design, Build,
Finance and Operate): In this model, the private
party assumes the entire responsibility for the
design, construction, finance, and operate the
project for the period of concession.
NEWS : Cabinet approves Deepening and
Optimization of Inner Harbour Facilities at Paradip
Port.
Q.73) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Law Commission of India
is an executive body established by an order of
the Government of India. Its major function is to
work for legal reform.The Law Commission of
India is a non-statutory body constituted by the
Government of India from time to time.
• Statement 2 is correct: Its membership primarily
comprises legal experts, who are entrusted a
mandate by the Government. The commission is
established for a fixed tenure and works as an
advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice.
• Statement 3 is correct: The first Law Commission
was established during the British raj era in 1834
by the Charter Act of 1833. It was presided by
Lord Macaulay After that, three more
Commissions were established in pre-
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independent India. The first Law Commission of
independent India was established in 1955 for a
three-year term. Since then, twenty one more
Commissions have been established.
NEWS : The Supreme Court has asked the Home and
Law Ministries to explain the nearly three-year-long
lapse in making appointments to the Law
Commission.
Q.74) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: This treaty is not related
to civil-aviation open skies agreements.
• Statement 2 is correct: Under the treaty, a
member state can spy on any part of the host
nation, with the latter’s consent. A country can
undertake aerial imaging over the host state after
giving notice 72 hours before and sharing its exact
flight path 24 hours before.
• Statement 3 is correct: Currently, 34 states are
party to the treaty while a 35th, Kyrgyzstan, has
signed but not ratified it. India is not a member of
this treaty.
Q.75) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The International Energy
Agency is a Paris-based autonomous
intergovernmental organisation established in the
framework of the Organisation for Economic Co-
operation and Development (OECD) in 1974 in the
wake of the 1973 oil crisis.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It has 30 members at
present. The IEA family also includes eight
association countries. A candidate country must
be a member country of the OECD. But all OECD
members are not IEA members.
TEST 1 32

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
• Statement 3 is correct: It is best known for the
publication of its annual World Energy Outlook.
NEWS : India signs Strategic Partnership Agreement
with International Energy Agency (IEA). The
agreement seeks to strengthen mutual trust and
cooperation & enhance global energy security,
stability and sustainability.
Q.76) Ans: C
Exp:
Mannathu Padmanabhan (2 January 1878 – 25
February 1970) was an Indian social reformer and
freedom fighter from the south-western state of
Kerala. He is recognised as the founder of the •Nair
Service Society (NSS), which claims to represent the
Nair community that constitutes 12.10% (From KMS
2011) of the population of the state. Padmanabhan is
considered as a visionary reformer who organised the
Nair community under the NSS. He took part in anti-
untouchability agitations and advocated opening
temples for people of all castes. He also participated
in the Vaikom Satyagraha.
NEWS : PM pays tribute to Sri Mannathu
Padmanabhan on his Jayanti.
Q.77) Ans: B
Exp:
Servants of the People Society (SOPS) (Lok Sevak
Mandal) is a non-profit social service organization
founded by Lala Lajpat Rai, a prominent leader in the
Indian Independence movement, in 1921 in Lahore.
Lajpat Rai’s most important writings include -
• The Story of My Deportation (1908)
• Arya Samaj (1915)
• The United States of America: A Hindu’s
Impression (1916)
• England’s Debt to India: A Historical Narrative of
Britain’s Fiscal Policy in India (1917)
Q.78) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Constitutionally NGOs are
backed by Article 19(1)(c) which allows the right
to form associations.
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• Statement 2 is incorrect: FCRA(Foreign
contribution Regulation Act) 2010 comes under
Ministry of Home affairs
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution under
Concurrent list mentions charitable institutions
• NGOs are in the news because the
Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) tightened over
sight on funds received by non-governmental
organisations (NGOs). MHA led out series of
guidelines and charter to make NGOs and Banks
comply with new provisions of amended
FCRA(Foreign contribution Regulation Act)2010
Q.79) Ans: B
Exp:
• The Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve is a wildlife
sanctuary located in Chandrapur district of
Maharashtra and it is Maharashtra’s oldest and
largest national park. The reserve includes the
Tadoba National Park and the Andhari Wildlife
Sanctuary.
• Recently in the news because the Central
government had proposed auctioning of Bander
coal mine blocks close to Tadoba Andhari Tiger
Reserve. But recently the coal ministry has
withdrawn Bander mine from the list of 41 coal
blocks put up for auction as the mine lies in the
eco sensitive zone.
Q.80) Ans: C
Exp:
The Group of Seven is an intergovernmental
organization founded in 1975
• Statement 1 is correct: Canada, Japan, Italy, UK,
USA, France, Germany are the 7 members of this
group. The seven countries involved are also the
largest IMF-Advanced countries in the world
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The aggregate GDP G7
countries make around 30% of world GDP
• Statement 3 is correct: There is no formal criteria
for membership, but while creating the group all
the members were industrial powerhouse and
developed countries.
• Statement 4 is correct: Russia was also the part of
group but got suspended following its annexation
of Crimea in 2014 G7 was recently in the news
because The United Kingdom has invited the
TEST 1 33

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Prime Minister of India to attend the G7 summit
to be held in June 2021. Along with India,
Australia and South Korea are also invited.
Simple trick: Statement 2 cannot be correct because
only China and India together contribute around 27%
of world GDP. So, from this you can guess that G7 will
not make 50% of the world's GDP as all other
countries in the world together will definitely make
more than 23%
Q.81) Ans: B
Exp:
• India Innovation Index Report 2020 released by
NITI Aayog. Index modelled on the Global
Innovation Index (GII).
• In hill and North-East states Himachal Pradesh
topped the rankings, followed by Uttarakhand,
Manipur and Sikkim.
• In Union territories/Small states Delhi has topped
the index.
Q.82) Ans: C
Exp:
• Prime editing is the latest gene-editing
technology used to remove/edit a gene in smooth
muscle tissue.
• The technology directly writes new genetic
information into a targeted DNA site.
• It is more easy and efficient than traditional
CRISPR technology.
Q.83) Ans: c
Exp:
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• Statement 1 is correct: It is a high level
Intergovernmental council for providing
cooperation,coordination and interaction among
the Arctic States, Arctic indigenous communities
on common Arctic issues, in particular on issues of
sustainable development and environmental
protection in the Arctic.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Ottawa Declaration
declares Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark,
Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation,
Sweden and the United States of America as a
member of the Arctic Council. India is not a
member of this council. India got Observer status
in 2013. Observers don't have any voting rights.
• Statement 3 is correct: It is a council set up with
the twin mandate of environmental protection
and sustainable development. Deals with issues
such as the change in biodiversity, melting sea ice,
plastic pollution and black carbon.
• Statement 4 is correct: The Arctic Council does
not and cannot implement or enforce its
guidelines, assessments or recommendations.
• India launched its first scientific expedition to
the Arctic Ocean in 2007 and opened a research
base named "Himadri” at the International
Arctic Research Base at Ny-Alesund, Svalbard,
Norway in July 2008 for carrying out studies in
disciplines like Glaciology, Atmospheric sciences
& Biological sciences.
• In the news because the Indian Government has
recently released a draft Arctic Policy document in
order to solicit public comments.
• Simple Trick: All the members of this council are
at the periphery of the Arctic region.
Q.84) Ans: B
TEST 1 34

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: NBFCs do not include any
institution whose principal business is that of
agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase,
sale of any goods or providing any services and
sale/purchase/construction of immovable
property.
• Statement 2 is not correct: NBFCs get licenses by
RBI but they do not regulate them. NBFCs get
regulated by different agencies based on the role
the individual NBFC play. Example: Housing
Finance institution regulated by national Housing
Bank
• Statement 3 is not correct: NBFCs do NOT form a
part of the payment and settlement system and
but cannot issue cheques
• Statement 4 is correct: NBFCs are run and
regulated under Companies Act,1956
o In news because RBI has proposed a shift in its
regulatory approach towards India’s non-
banking financial companies. (NBFCs)
o Proposed regulations are 1. Creation of 4
layer regulatory framework 2. classification of
Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) of base layer
NBFCs from 180 days to 90 days overdue.
Q.85) Ans: B
Exp:
• Archaeologist discovered oldest known cave art, a
life-sized painting of wild Pig that was painted
around 45,500 years ago in Sulawesi, Indonesia
• The Sulawesi warty pig painting was found in the
limestone cave of Leang Tedongnge
• The previously oldest dated rock painting was at
least 43,900 years old, is a depiction of hybrid
human-animal beings hunting Sulawesi warty pigs
and dwarf bovids.
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Q.86) Ans: B
Exp:
• 23rd January, 2021, India celebrated the 125th
birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
as ‘Parakram Divas’ annually.
• Subhash Chandra Bose was twice elected
President of the Indian National Congress, (1938-
Haripur and 1939-Tripuri)
• He resigned from the Congress Presidency in 1939
and organised the All India Forward Bloc, a faction
within the Congress in Bengal.
• In 1942(Germany), he started ‘Azad Hind Radio’
and established ‘Free India Centre’(precursor of
the Azad Hind Government). He arrived in
Singapore in July 1943 and took charge of the
Indian National Army (INA) or Azad Hind Fauj.
Q.87) Ans: C
Exp:
• Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to
interpret the constitution and to declare any such
law or order of the legislature and executive void,
if it finds them in conflict with the Constitution.
Hence JR gives scope for Judicial activism by giving
responsibility for interpretation in the hands of
the judiciary.
• Judicial Activism means the proactive role played
by the judiciary in the protection of the rights of
citizens and in the promotion of justice in the
society.
• Article 13, 32 and 226(and not 224) are provisions
in the constitution itself for the judiciary to adopt
a proactive role. Article 13 says Laws inconsistent
with or in derogation of fundamental rights shall
be void. Article 32 and 226 deals with the types of
writs in Supreme court and High court
respectively.
TEST 1 35

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
• Supervisory Power of higher courts on lower
courts is itself a form of judicial activism
• Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is most popular
form of Judicial Activism
• Judicial Activism was recently in the news because
the act of the Supreme Court staying
implementation of three farm laws was seen by
many as an act of judicial activism/overreach.
Q.88) Ans: A
Exp:
• Recently, the Abraham Accord signed between
Israel, the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain, and
mediated (NOT signed) by the USA.
• As per the agreements, the UAE and Bahrain will
establish embassies and exchange ambassadors.
Working together with Israel across a range of
sectors, including tourism, trade, healthcare and
security. The Abraham Accords also open the
door for Muslims around the world to visit the
historic sites in Israel and to peacefully pray at
Al-Aqsa Mosque in Jerusalem, the third holiest
site in Islam.
• Significance of the Accord is very important
because the agreement shows how the Arab
countries are gradually decoupling themselves
from the Palestine question.
• Before this deal there were the only two peace
deals between Israel and the Arab States, Egypt
was the first Arab State to sign a peace deal with
Israel in 1979 and 2nd was Jordan signed a peace
pact in 1994.
Q.89) Ans: C
Exp:
• “Prabuddha Bharat Journal” was recently in news
because journal celebrated 125th Anniversary
• The journal ‘Prabuddha Bharata’ has been an
important medium for spreading the message of
India’s ancient spiritual wisdom.
• It is the "longest running" monthly English
magazine of the country
• It is the magazine run by Ramakrishna Mission
• Prabuddha Bharata was founded in 1896 by P.
Aiyasami, B. R. Rajam Iyer, G. G. Narasimhacharya,
and B. V. Kamesvara Iyer, in Madras at the behest
of Swami Vivekananda (Hence statement C is
incorrect)
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Q.90) Ans: D
Exp:
Quantum Computing:
• Quantum computing is the use of quantum
phenomena such as superposition and
entanglement to perform computation. Quantum
Computers are believed to be able to solve certain
computational problems substantially faster than
classical computers. Google has recently made
headlines proclaiming the achievement of
quantum supremacy, where its computers can
perform a task that a conventional computer can’t
• Applications
o Cybersecurity & Cryptography
o Drug Design & Development
o Computational Chemistry
o Artificial Intelligence & Machine Learning
o Financial Modelling
o Logistics and traffic Optimisation
o Weather forecasting
• The Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology (MeitY) has recently announced a
collaboration with Amazon Web Services (AWS) to
develop a Quantum Computing Applications Lab
in the country. The lab is meant to provide access
to quantum computing development
environment for the developer, scientific and
academic communities
Q.91) Ans: B
Exp:
• Option 1 is incorrect: Hayabusa2 is an asteroid
sample-return mission operated by the Japanese
state space agency JAXA. Launched in 2014, it
surveyed the one-kilometre wide Ryugu asteroid
for a year and half and took samples. It recently
returned the samples to earth and its mission has
now been extended through at least 2031.
• Option 2 is correct: Change’s is the fifth lunar
exploration mission of the Chinese Lunar
Exploration Program, and China's first lunar
sample-return mission. The space probe carrying
rocks and soil from the Moon recently returned to
the earth safely. This is the first lunar sample
return since 1976 when the former Soviet Union's
Luna-24 returned with Lunar material.
TEST 1 36

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
• Option 3 is correct: Ingenuity is a small robotic
helicopter located on Mars since 18 February
2021. It successfully completed the first powered
controlled flight by an aircraft on a planet besides
Earth, taking off vertically, hovering and landing.
Q.92) Ans: C
Exp:
• Options 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct:
Recently, section 467 of the Companies Act, 2013
was amended to make the PM CARES fund (Prime
Minister's Citizen Assistance and Relief in
Emergency Situations Funds) eligible to receive
CSR funding from corporates. With this the broad
categories of programmes stipulated by the
government to ensure accountability are:
o Eradicating extreme hunger and poverty
o Promotion of education
o Promoting gender equality and empowering
women
o Reducing child mortality
o Improving maternal health
o Combating human immunodeficiency virus,
acquired, immune deficiency syndrome,
malaria and other diseases
o Ensuring environmental sustainability,
o Employment enhancing vocational skills,
social business projects
o Contribution to the Prime Minister's National
Relief Fund or any other fund set up by the
Central Government or the State
Governments for socio-economic
development, and
o Donations to Prime Minister's Citizen
Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations
Funds (PMCARES) fund
o Relief and funds for the welfare of the
Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, other
backward classes, minorities and women and
such other matters as may be prescribed.
• Option 3 is not correct: The government has said
financial contributions to CMs’ relief fund would
not be considered as CSR spending. In contrast to
the government’s position, a parliamentary
committee on said financial contributions to the
Chief Ministers’ Relief Fund should also be treated
as corporate social responsibility (CSR) spending
and necessary changes should be made to the
Companies Law to make this change.
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News: Govt amends CSR rules to boost transparency,
flexibility
Modi govt amends Companies Act, makes PM
CARES eligible to receive CSR funds
Q.93) Ans: A
Exp:
• Mollem national Park
o Recently, A controversy has erupted over
three proposed infrastructure projects — a
highway expansion, the double-tracking of a
railway line, and a power transmission line —
which if initiated could mean the cutting of
over 30,000 trees in the dense evergreen and
semi-evergreen forests of Mollem at the edge
of the Western Ghats, 60 km from Goa’s
capital Panaji. The ‘Save Mollem’ campaign
has drawn in everyone from celebrities to
politicians, protesting the lack of assessment
of the threats posed by three proposed
infrastructure projects.
o Facts about Mollem national park:
▪ Located in Goa
▪ It is home to waterfalls, such as
Dudhsagar Falls and Tambdi Falls
▪ The parkland is also home to a
community of nomadic buffalo
herders known as the Dhangar.
▪ Major Fauna: leopard, barking deer,
Bengal tiger, bonnet macaque, civet,
flying squirrel, gaur, Malabar giant
squirrel, mouse deer, pangolin,
porcupine, slender loris, sambar,
spotted deer, wild boar, etc.
▪ Threats: surface mining and transport
of manganese and iron ores
• The Shoolpaneshwar Wildlife Sanctuary is located
in the Narmada district of Gujarat. Recently a
controversy has erupted over centre notification
which classified 121 villages around the
Shoolpaneshwar wildlife sanctuary as Eco
sensitive zones. As per the provisions of the
notification, land falling in the eco-sensitive zone
cannot be transferred for non-agricultural use for
commercial, industrial or residential purposes.
Q.94) Ans: B
TEST 1 37
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Exp: Q.95) Ans: D

• Refurbishment of e-waste:
o According to the E-Waste (Management) Exp:
Rules, 2016
▪ 'refurbishment' means repairing of used
electrical and electronic equipment as for
extending its working life for its originally
intended use and selling the same in the
market or returning to owner
▪ A 'refurbisher' for the purpose of these
rules, means any company or undertaking
registered under the Factories Act, 1948
or the Companies Act, 1956 or both or
district industries centre engaged in
refurbishment of used electrical and
electronic equipment
▪ A recycler’ - means any person who is
engaged in recycling and reprocessing of
waste electrical and electronic equipment • Pair 1 is incorrectly matched:
or assemblies or their components. o Recently, Ecuador’s Sangay volcano erupted,
Extra Edge by ONLYIAS spewing clouds of ash as high as 8,500 meters
• Some other important definitions in the E-Waste (about 28, 890 feet) into the sky. The sky of
(Management) Rules, 2016 Riobamba, the capital of the province of
o ‘Orphaned products’ means non-branded Chimborazo, was overcast by an ash cloud.
or assembled electrical and electronic Riobamba is at least 50 kilometers away from
equipment or those produced by a the volcano.
company, which has closed its operations; • Pair 2 is correctly matched and pair 3 is
o Extended Producer Responsibility’ means incorrectly matched:
responsibility of any producer of electrical o Both Sinabung and Semeru are located in
or electronic equipment, for channelisation Indonesia and recently erupted. While Mt.
of e-waste to ensure environmentally Sinabung is located in the sumatra province,
sound management of such waste.It may Semeru is located in East java. It may be noted
comprise of implementing take back that Indonesia sits on the Pacific ring of fire and
system or setting up of collection centres or therefore is tectonically active
both and having agreed arrangements with
authorised dismantler or recycler either NEWS: Ecuador’s Sangay volcano erupts, spews ash 8
individually or collectively through a kilometers | World News,The Indian Express
Producer Responsibility Organisation
recognised by producer.
o ‘Channelisation’ means to direct the path
for movement of e-wastes from collection
onwards to authorised dismantler or
recycler. In case of fluorescent and other
mercury containing lamps, where recyclers
are not available, this means path for
movement from collection centre to
Treatment, Storage and Disposal Facility;
NEWS: Ensure scientific management of e-waste,
environmental crimes as serious as assault: NGT to
CPCB - The Hindu

TEST 1 38

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Q.96) Ans: A
Exp:
• US-Japan ‘CoRe’ Partnership
o Recently, The US and Japan have pledged
US$4.5 billion for a ‘Competitiveness and
Resilience (CoRe) Partnership’ to be invested
in the research, development and deployment
of next-generation mobile networks (‘6G’ or
‘Beyond 5G’).
o Crucially, the Competitiveness and Resilience
Partnership will increase cooperation in
emerging technologies – an area that has
been typically dominated by China. It reflects
a rapidly evolving effort by the Biden
administration to develop new initiatives and
bolster cooperation with allies across the
Indo-Pacific, a region that has been identified
by the US as consequential for the growth of
high-quality infrastructure that will facilitate
the expansion of emerging technologies.
o This comes in the backdrop of Chinese
ambitions to dominate the development of
new age technologies such as 5G and
quantum computing and the recent pledge to
invest a mammoth $1.4 trillion in emerging
technologies.
NEWS: The rising sun in India-Japan relations - The
Hindu
Q.97) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is
correct: According to article 76 of the
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constitution, “the president shall appoint a person
who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the
supreme court to be Attorney General for India.
“Hence the president is not mandated to appoint
AG by a warrant under his hand and seal (unlike
the CAG,the Governor and the Supreme Court and
High Court Judge)
o The same article stipulates that the AG shall
hold office during the pleasure of the
president and shall receive such remuneration
as the President may determine.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 15 of the The
Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, lays down the
procedure on how a case for contempt of court
can be initiated.
o In the case of the Supreme Court, the
Attorney General or the Solicitor General, and
in the case of High Courts, the Advocate
General, may bring in a motion before the
court for initiating a case of criminal
contempt.
o However, if the motion is brought by any
other person, the consent in writing of the
Attorney General or the Advocate General is
required.
▪ Thus, The AG’s consent is mandatory
when a private citizen wants to
initiate a case of contempt of court
against a person
o However, when the court itself initiates a
contempt of court case, the AG’s consent is
not required. This is because the court is
exercising its inherent powers under the
Constitution (Article 129 and Article 215) to
punish for contempt and such Constitutional
powers cannot be restricted because the AG
declined to grant consent.
▪ The Supreme Court’s recent
judgment in “Vijay Kurle & Ors, being
Suo Motu Contempt Petition
(Criminal) No. 2 of 2019” settles the
position that in suo motu criminal
contempt cases, the consent of
Attorney General is not required.
NEWS : Explained: Why is consent of A-G required to
initiate contempt proceedings? | Explained
News,The Indian Express
‘An icon of India’s legal system’: Tributes pour in for
Soli Sorabjee | India News,The Indian Express
Q.98) Ans: B
TEST 1 39

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Exp:
• Additional Protocol to the Convention on
Cybercrime:
o Additional Protocol to the Convention on
Cybercrime, concerning the criminalisation of
acts of a racist and xenophobic nature
committed through computer systems is a
follow up protocol to the Council of Europe
Convention on Cybercrime, also called the
BUDAPEST CONVENTION on CYBERCRIMES.
Final text of this protocol was adopted by the
Council of Europe Committee of Ministers on
7 November 2002.
o The Protocol requires participating States to
criminalize the dissemination of racist and
xenophobic material through computer
systems, as well as of racist and xenophobic-
motivated threats and insults.
o Two of the English-speaking states in Europe,
Ireland and the United Kingdom, have not
signed the additional protocol.
NEWS: On global cybercrime, India votes in favour of
Russia-led resolution | India News,The Indian
Express + BLACK LIVES MATTER MOVEMENT (always
in news)
Q.99) Ans: D
Exp:
• Compulsory Licensing:
o When the Govt. authorities license companies
or individuals other than the patent owner to
use the rights of the patent — to make, use,
sell or import a product under patent (i.e. a
patented product or a product made by a
patented process) — without the permission
of the patent owner - it is called Compulsory
licensing.
▪ Allowed under the WTO’s TRIPS
(intellectual property) Agreement
provided certain procedures and
conditions are fulfilled.
o The Supreme Court recently asked the Central
Government why it was not considering
invoking the powers under the Section 92 of
the Patents Act, 1970 for compulsory
licensing, for drugs like Remdesivir,
Tocilizumab, Favipiravar, which are used for
treating COVID-19 patients.
▪ Section 92 of the Patents Act is a special
provision enabling the Central
Government to issue compulsory licenses
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for the manufacture of patented drugs in
a public health emergency.
▪ Section 100 of the Patents Act enables the
Central Government to use patented
inventions for government purposes.
NEWS : Why Centre Not Considering Compulsory
Licensing For COVID Drugs Like Remdesivir,
Tocilizumab? Supreme Court Asks (livelaw.in)
Q.100) Ans: B
Exp:
• Options 1,2,4 and 5 are correct:
o ONE HEALTH APPROACH
▪ One Health is an approach that recognizes
that the health of people is closely
connected to the health of animals and
our shared environment.
▪ The areas of work in which a One Health
approach is particularly relevant include
food safety, the control of zoonoses
(diseases that can spread between
animals and humans, such as flu, rabies
and Rift Valley Fever), and combating
antibiotic resistance (when bacteria
change after being exposed to antibiotics
and become more difficult to treat).
▪ The earth has experienced changes in
climate and land use, such as
deforestation and intensive farming
practices. Disruptions in environmental
conditions and habitats can provide new
opportunities for diseases to pass to
animals.
▪ These changes have led to the spread of
existing or known (endemic) and new or
emerging zoonotic diseases, which are
diseases that can spread between animals
and people. Examples of zoonotic
diseases include:
o Salmonella infection
o West Nile virus infection
o Q Fever (Coxiella burnetii)
o Anthrax
o Brucellosis
o Lyme disease
o Ringworm
o Ebola
o Rabies
o Nipah
o Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
o Middle East Respiratory Syndrome
TEST 1 40
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▪ The Distemper disease, caused by the

CANINE DISTEMPER VIRUS, is not zoonotic
in nature. Recently, several lions and
leopards succumbed to the CDV in the Gir
Forests of Gujrat.

NEWS: A ‘One Health’ approach that targets people,

animals - The Hindu

TEST 1 41