NCERT Test 2 (1) - 240126 - 151053

UPSCMATERIAL.
ONLINE
Contact us : info@onlyias.com
OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Q.1) Consider the following statements: c) Both 1 and 2

1. One of the functions of the Constitution is to provide d) None of the Above
rules for maximal co-operation among its various
organs. Q.5) The Constitution can be thought to be a source of
2. The Constitution decides how the government will one’s:
be constituted. a) Political identity only
Choose the correct statement using the code given b) Moral Identity only
below. c) Both political as well as moral identity
a) Only 1 d) None of the above
b) Only 2
c) 1 and 2 both Q.6) Consider the following statements:
d) None of the Above 1. The Indian Constitution is born out of a full-fledged
referendum, where all the people vote on the
Q.2) Which of the following is/are among function(s) of desirability of a constitution.
the Constitution? 2. The Indian Constitution reflected the broad national
1. Providing rule for minimum co-ordination among consensus at the time of its enactment.
members of society. Choose the correct statement using the code given
2. Specify rules regarding formation of Government. below.
3. Limits on powers of government. a) Only 1
Choose the correct answer using the options given b) Only 2
below: c) 1 and 2 both
a) Only 1 and 2 d) None of the Above
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 2 and 3 Q.7) Consider the following statements:
d) All the above 1. A flexible Constitution is susceptible to subversion by
interests’ group and therefore, successful
Q.3) Consider the following statements: constitutions are always rigid.
1. The fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution 2. Due to its greater flexibility, the Indian Constitution
provide that Citizens are protected from being has been described as 'a living' document.
arrested arbitrarily and for no reason. Choose the correct statement using the code given
2. These rights cannot be curtailed under any below.
circumstances. a) Only 1
Choose the correct statement using the code given b) Only 2
below. c) 1 and 2 both
a) Only 1 d) None of the Above
b) Only 2
d) None of the Above 1. The Indian Constitution was made by the Constituent
Assembly which had been elected from divided
Q.4) Consider the following statements: India.
1. The Indian Constitution enables the government to 2. Its members were chosen by indirect election by the
take positive welfare measures legally. members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
2. The Directive Principles of State of Policy (DPSP) is established under the Government of India Act,
one such feature of the Indian Constitution. 1935.
Choose the correct statement using the code given Choose the correct statement using the code given
below. below.
a) Only 1 a) Only 1
b) Only 2 b) Only 2
1
@upscmaterialonline
NCERT CLASS 11 POLITICAL THEORY
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
c) 1 and 2 both Q.13) Which of the following best conveys the meaning
d) None of the Above of the term ‘fundamental’ in Fundamental Rights under
the Indian Constitution?
Q.9) The Constituent Assembly was composed roughly a) The rights had been separately listed by the
along the lines suggested by the: Constitution itself.
a) August Offer b) The Constitution itself ensures that they are not
b) Wavell Plan violated by the government.
c) Cabinet Mission Plan c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above d) None of the above
Q.10) Consider the following statements with reference Q.14) Which of the following is correct with respect to
to the Constituent Assembly: Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution?
1. The method of selection in the case of a) In order to change Fundamental Rights, one needs to
representatives of Princely States was to be change only the statutory laws.
determined by consultation. b) In order to change Fundamental Rights, one needs to
2. The seats in each Province were distributed among amend the Constitution.
the three main communities, Muslims, Sikhs and c) Fundamental Rights cannot be changed in
general. whatsoever manner.
Choose the correct statement using the code given d) None of the above is correct.
below.
a) Only 1 Q.15) A provision related to the set of rights guaranteed
b) Only 2 by the Constitution can be found in Constitutions of
c) 1 and 2 both which of the following country?
d) None of the Above 1. India
2. The USA
Q.11) It is said that Indian Constitution has borrowed 3. South Africa
many features from Constitutions across the world. The Choose the correct answer using the options given
‘Principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ have been below:
taken from: a) Only 1 and 2
a) The USA Constitution b) Only 1 and 3
b) French Constitution c) Only 2 and 3
c) British Constitution d) All the above
d) None of the above
Q.16) What was the main purpose behind bringing
Q.12) Consider the following statements: Panchayati Raj system in India?
1. The importance of rights guaranteed by a a) To prevent criminalization of politics.
Constitution was realised by the Constitutional b) Development of villages.
framers long ago during the freedom movement c) Decentralisation of the political power to the general
itself. people.
2. The Motilal Nehru Committee had demanded a bill d) To reduce election expenses.
of rights as far back as in 1928.
Choose the correct statement using the code given Q.17) The Fundamental Right of ‘Protection of language,
below. culture of minorities’ is enshrined under the:
a) Only 1 a) Cultural and Educational Rights
b) Only 2 b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
c) 1 and 2 both c) Right to Freedom of Religion
d) None of the Above d) None of the above
2
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Q.18) Consider the following statements: Q.22) Consider the following statements:
1. The practice of untouchability has been abolished 1. A person can only be arrested under one and only
under the Right to Equality. one circumstance that if he has committed some
2. The Right to Equality also provides that the state crime.
shall confer no title on a person except those who 2. The Constitution allows for arrest of a person, if law
excel themselves in military or academic field. authorities have apprehension about his intentions
Choose the correct statement using the code given or actions that may destabilise the law-and-order
below. situations.
a) Only 1 Choose the correct statement using the code given
b) Only 2 below.
c) 1 and 2 both a) Only 1
d) None of the Above b) Only 2
c) 1 and 2 both
Q.19) Which of the following is valid limitation(s) upon d) None of the Above
the Right to Freedom?
a) Freedom of an individual will not threaten the Q.23) Which of the following provisions of the Indian
freedom of others. Constitution ensure fair trial at courts of law?
b) Freedom of an individual or group of individuals will 1. A person is always assumed to be guilty unless
not threaten the law and order. proven otherwise.
c) Both a and b 2. No person is punished for the same offence more
d) None of the above than once.
3. No law shall declare any action as illegal from a
Q.20) Consider the following statements: backdate.
1. No one can be arrested without being told the Choose the correct answer using the options given
grounds for such an arrest. below:
2. In case of arrest, it is mandatory for the police to take a) Only 1 and 2
that person to the nearest magistrate within 24 b) Only 1 and 3
hours. c) Only 2 and 3
Choose the correct statement using the code given d) All of the above
below.
a) Only 1 Q.24) Consider the following statements:
b) Only 2 1. The Constitution forbids employment of children
c) 1 and 2 both below the age of 16 years in dangerous jobs like
d) None of the Above factories and mines.
2. Forced labour or Begar is a criminal act as per the
Q.21) Which of the following right(s) has/have been Constitutional provisions.
incorporated within the Right to Life under Article 21 by Choose the correct statement using the code given
the Supreme Court over a period of time? below.
1. Right to live with human dignity a) Only 1
2. Right to be free from exploitation b) Only 2
3. Right to shelter and livelihood c) 1 and 2 both
Choose the correct answer using the options given d) None of the Above
below:
a) Only 1 and 2 Q.25) Consider the following statements:
b) Only 1 and 3 1. The government can interfere in religious matters on
c) Only 2 and 3 grounds of destabilisation of law and order.
d) All the above 2. Freedom of Religion includes the freedom to profess,
follow and propagate any religion.
3
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
below. below.
a) Only 1 a) Only 1
b) Only 2 b) Only 2
c) 1 and 2 both c) 1 and 2 both
d) None of the Above d) None of the Above
Q.26) Consider the following statements: Q.30) Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution has also guaranteed the right to 1. All elections are democratic in nature.
convert other people in one’s own religion. 2. A large number of non- democratic countries also
2. The Constitution only gives us the right to spread hold elections.
information about our religion and thus attract Choose the correct statement using the code given
others to it. below.
Choose the correct statement using the code given a) Only 1
below. b) Only 2
a) Only 1 c) 1 and 2 both
b) Only 2 d) None of the Above
c) 1 and 2 both
d) None of the Above Q.31) Consider the following statements with reference
to First Past the Post (FPTP) electoral system:
Q.27) Consider the following statements: 1. Under FPTP system, the winning candidate need not
1. All minorities can set up their own educational secure a majority of the votes.
institutions. 2. The Indian electoral system is based on the First Past
2. The government, can, while granting aid to the Post (FPTP).
educational institutions, positively discriminate Choose the correct statement using the code given
against any educational institution on the basis that below.
it is under the management of minority community. a) Only 1
b) Only 2
d) None of the Above 1. Under proportional representation, even smaller
political parties get the representation in central
Q.28) Which of the following Fundamental Rights was legislature.
called the “soul of the constitution and the very heart of 2. Under this system, a party gets seats in the
it” by Dr. Ambedkar? legislature in proportion to the votes polled by it.
a) Right to Equality Choose the correct statement using the code given
b) Right to Freedom below.
c) Cultural and Educational Rights a) Only 1
d) Right to Constitutional Remedies b) Only 2
c) 1 and 2 both
Q.29) Consider the following statements: d) None of the Above
1. A direct democracy is one where the citizens directly
participate in the day-to-day running of the Q.33) Consider the following statements with respect to
government. the difference between FPTP and proportional
2. Indian democracy is an example of direct democracy representation:
with no exception.
4
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
1. Under FPTP, the country is divided into small

geographical units called constituencies or districts. Q.37) If there are 545 members in the Lok Sabha, five
2. Under Proportional representation, the country members are absent, 50 do not participate in the voting,
cannot be divided and is strictly treated as one and how many members will be required to pass a bill
constituency. from the effective majority in Lok Sabha?
Choose the correct statement using the code given a) 270
below. b) 254
a) Only 1 c) 276
b) Only 2 d) 245
c) 1 and 2 both
d) None of the Above Q.38) A political philosophy approach to the Constitution
is needed, because:
Q.34) Consider the following statements: 1. It helps us to find out the moral values embedded in
1. Articles 33 and 34 authorise the Parliament to the Constitution.
protect persons in the service of the union or a state 2. It helps us arbitrate between varying interpretations
in respect of any action taken by them during martial of the many core values in our polity.
law to maintain or restore order. Choose the correct answer using the options given
2. The Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) has below:
been made on the basis of these provisions. a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) 1 and 2 both Q.39) Which of the following country’s constitution is
d) None of the Above famously known as “Peace Constitution” and its
preamble gives prominent place to the term “peace”?
Q.35) Consider the following statements: a) Germany
1. The states demand expect that the division of b) France
powers should be changed in favour of the States c) Japan
and more powers and important powers be assigned d) The USA
to the States.
2. States resent the control of the centre over the Q.40) Who of the following was/were in shape and
administrative machinery. influenced the liberal character of the Indian
Choose the correct statement using the code given Constitution?
below. 1. Raja Rammohan Roy
a) Only 1 2. Swami Vivekanand
b) Only 2 3. Justice Ranade
c) 1 and 2 both Choose the correct answer using the options given
d) None of the Above below:
a) Only 1 and 2
Q.36) In which of the following cases, a special majority b) Only 1 and 3
is used in the Parliament? c) Only 2 and 3
a) Removal of Vice President d) All the above
b) For removing Speaker & Deputy Speaker of the Lok
Sabha Q.41) Consider the following statements with respect to
c) Acquisition and Termination of Citizenship Secularism as enshrined in the Constitution:
d) For Removal of Chairman or Vice-Chairman of the 1. Unlike western Constitutions, the Indian
Legislative Council Constitution recognises community-based rights.
5
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
2. Constitution does see religion merely as a ‘private’ Q.45) Consider the following statements:
matter concerning the individual. 1. The Constitution provides for reservation of seats in
Choose the correct statement using the code given the Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies for the
below. Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women as
a) Only 1 well.
b) Only 2 2. Proportional representation is followed nowhere in
c) 1 and 2 both Indian electoral process.
d) None of the Above Choose the correct statement using the code given
below.
Q.42) Consider the following statements: a) Only 1
1. The 73rd and 74th Amendments granting b) Only 2
constitutional status to Local Government bodies c) 1 and 2 both
came into force in 1990. d) None of the Above
2. All States now have a uniform three-tier Panchayati  Proportional representation is followed for elections
Raj structure. in Rajya Sabha.
Choose the correct statement using the code given
below. Q.46) Consider the following statements:
a) Only 1 1. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the
b) Only 2 Parliament and works in collaboration with the
c) 1 and 2 both Election Commission of India.
d) None of the Above 2. A quota of constituencies to be reserved in each
State is fixed depending on the proportion of SCs or
Q.43) Which of the following statements is not correct STs in that State.
with respect to Local Government in India? Choose the correct statement using the code given
a) Panchayati Raj was established in India by Jawahar below.
Lal Nehru. a) Only 1
b) Madhya Pradesh was the first state which b) Only 2
implemented the Panchayati Raj system in India. c) 1 and 2 both
c) 73rd Constitutional amendment was implemented in d) None of the Above
1992.
d) Tamil Nadu has adopted bicameral method. Q.47) Which of the following Constitutional Amendment
brought down the age to vote to 18 from erstwhile 21?
Q.44) Consider the following statements: a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
1. In separate electorate system, for electing a b) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
representative from a particular community, only c) 72nd Constitutional Amendment Act
those voters would be eligible who belong to that d) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act
community.
2. Under reserved constituency system, all voters in a Q.48) Consider the following statements:
constituency are eligible to vote but the candidates 1. The Election Commission of India is responsible for
must belong to only a particular community or social elections of union and state legislative assemblies as
section for which the seat is reserved. well as local bodies.
Choose the correct statement using the code given 2. The State Election Commissioners work
below. independently of the Election Commission of India
a) Only 1 and each has its own sphere of operation.
b) Only 2 Choose the correct statement using the code given
c) 1 and 2 both below.
d) None of the Above a) Only 1
b) Only 2
6
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
c) 1 and 2 both Choose the correct statement using the code given
d) None of the Above below.
a) Only 1
Q.49) Consider the following statements: b) Only 2
1. The Election Commission of India has been a multi- c) 1 and 2 both
member body since the enactment of the d) None of the Above
Constitution.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) presides over Q.53) Which of the following is correct with respect to
the Election Commission, but does not have more semi-presidential executive system?
powers than the other Election Commissioners. a) The President is the head of the Government.
Choose the correct statement using the code given b) The Prime Minister is the Head of the state.
below. c) The Prime Minister and his council are responsible to
a) Only 1 the legislature.
b) Only 2 d) None of the above.
c) 1 and 2 both
d) None of the Above Q.54) Consider the following statements:
1. In a parliamentary system, the Prime Minister is the
Q.50) Consider the following statements: Head of Government.
1. The Election Commissioners are appointed by the 2. Under this system, the role of the President or
President of India on the advice of the Council of Monarch is primarily ceremonial and the Prime
Ministers. Minister along with the cabinet wields effective
2. The Constitution ensures the security of the tenure power.
of the CEC and Election Commissioners. Choose the correct statement using the code given
3. The Election Commissioners can be removed by the below.
President if both Houses of Parliament make such a a) Only 1
recommendation with a special majority. b) Only 2
Choose the correct answer using the options given c) 1 and 2 both
below: d) None of the Above
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1 and 3 Q.55) The British India has had which kind of
c) Only 2 and 3 Government system?
d) All the above a) Presidential system
b) Semi-Presidential system
Q.51) In the First Past the Post system, that candidate is c) Parliamentary system
declared winner who: d) Both (b) and (c)
a) Secures the largest number of postal ballots.
b) Belongs to the party that has highest number of Q.56) Consider the following statements:
votes in the country. 1. The Constitution of India vests the executive power
c) Has more votes than any other candidate in the of the Union formally in the Prime Minister.
constituency. 2. The election of the President takes place in
d) Attains first position by securing more than 50% accordance with the principle of proportional
votes. representation with single transferable vote.
Q.52) Consider the following statements: below.
1. In a presidential system, the President is the Head of a) Only 1
State as well as the Head of Government. b) Only 2
2. Under presidential system, the office of Prime c) 1 and 2 both
Minister is the actual executive authority. d) None of the Above
7
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
b) No-confidence cannot be passed without the

Q.57) Consider the following statements: consent of Council of Ministers.
1. The advice rendered by the Council of Ministers to c) No-confidence even against a single minister leads to
the President is binding upon the President. the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers.
2. They President can ask the Council of Ministers to d) None of the above.
reconsider its advice but, has to accept the
reconsidered advice of the Council of Ministers. Q.62) Consider the following statements:
Choose the correct statement using the code given 1. In the parliamentary system, the legislature also
below. exercises control over the administration.
a) Only 1 2. The administrative officers can act in total
b) Only 2 independence of the policies adopted by the
c) 1 and 2 both legislature.
d) None of the Above Choose the correct statement using the code given
below.
Q.58) Who among the following allocates ranks and a) Only 1
portfolios to the ministers in the Council of Ministers? b) Only 2
a) President c) 1 and 2 both
b) Prime Minister d) None of the Above
c) The Cabinet Secretary
d) Parliament Q.63) Consider the following statements:
1. Persons selected by the UPSC for Indian
Q.59) Consider the following statements: Administrative Service and Indian Police Service
1. Under the Parliamentary system, the Prime Minister constitute the backbone of the higher-level
and all the ministers have to be members of the bureaucracy in the States.
Parliament. 2. An IAS or IPS officer is assigned to a particular State,
2. 91st Amendment Act (2003) puts a constitutional where he or she works under the supervision of the
limitation upon the size of the Council of Ministers. Union Government.
below. below.
a) Only 1 a) Only 1
b) Only 2 b) Only 2
c) 1 and 2 both c) 1 and 2 both
d) None of the Above d) None of the Above
Q.60) Which of the following is the most important Q.64) Which statement is true about Panchayati Raj?
feature of Parliamentary system of Government? a) The panchayat samiti and zila parishad should be
a) Separation of Powers among various organs of the constituted with directly elected members.
Government. b) Minimum age should be 18 years to contest election
b) The President is the Head of State while the Prime at the panchayat level.
Minister is the Head of the Government c) Election of the Panchayati Raj institutions is
c) Accountability of the executive to legislature conducted under the guidance of the State Election
d) None of the above Commission.
d) For the financial review of Panchayats, the State
Q.61) Which of the following best conveys the meaning Finance Commission is established after 6 years.
of ‘Collective responsibility’ of the executive to the
legislature? Q.65) Consider the following statements:
a) It means that the vote of no-confidence can be
brought only against the Prime Minister.
8
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
1. The Constitution has given the States the option of c) Only 2 and 3
establishing either a unicameral or bicameral d) All the above
legislature.
2. At present only eight States have a bicameral Q.69) Consider the following statements:
legislature. 1. The Rajya Sabha has the same powers as Lok Sabha
Choose the correct statement using the code given in approving Constitutional Amendment Bill.
below. 2. Only the Rajya Sabha can give the Union parliament
a) Only 1 power to make laws on matters included in the State.
b) Only 2
Q.66) Consider the following statements: c) 1 and 2 both
1. The Rajya Sabha gives equal representation to all the d) None of the Above
States of the country irrespective of their size or
population. Q.70) In which of the following respect the Rajya Sabha
2. The number of members to be elected from each has powers with Lok Sabha at par?
State in the Rajya Sabha has been fixed by the fourth 1. Constitutional amendments
schedule of the Constitution. 2. Impeaching the President
Choose the correct statement using the code given 3. Removing the Vice President
below. Choose the correct answer using the options given
a) Only 1 below:
b) Only 2 a) Only 1 and 2
c) 1 and 2 both b) Only 1 and 3
d) None of the Above c) Only 2 and 3
d) All the above
Q.67) Consider the following statements:
1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term Q.71) Consider the following statements:
of five years. 1. A bill proposed by a minister is described as
2. Every two years, one third members of the Rajya Government Bill.
Sabha retires and fresh elections are held for those 2. Under the Indian Parliamentary system, no member
vacant seats. other than Government can propose a law in the
Choose the correct statement using the code given Parliament.
below. Choose the correct statement using the code given
a) Only 1 below.
b) Only 2 a) Only 1
c) 1 and 2 both b) Only 2
d) None of the Above c) 1 and 2 both
d) None of the Above
Q.68) Which of the following function(s) is/are
performed by the Parliament? Q.72) Consider the following statements:
1. Judicial functions 1. A public bill can only be introduced by a minister.
2. Electoral functions 2. The Rajya Sabha can delay an ordinary bill passed by
3. Constituent functions the Lok Sabha for indefinite period of time till the bill
Choose the correct answer using the options given lapses.
below: 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot delay passing a money bill
a) Only 1 and 2 for more than two weeks.
b) Only 1 and 3 Which of these is/are true?
9
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
a) 1 and 2 Only b) Only 2

b) 2 and 3 Only c) 1 and 2 both
c) 1 and 3 Only d) None of the Above
d) Only 1
Q.73) Which of the following is incorrect with respect to 1. Financial dependency upon legislature is an essential
legislature of India? component of judicial accountability.
a) Lok Sabha represents the people of India. 2. The Constitution provides that the salaries and
b) The Rajya Sabha represents the States. allowances of the judges are not subject to the
c) There are only 98 topics in the center list at this time. approval of the legislature.
d) The Rajya Sabha protects the State with unnecessary Choose the correct statement using the code given
interference from the Center. below.
a) Only 1
Q.74) Which of the following tool(s) provide some sort of b) Only 2
Parliamentary control over executive work? c) 1 and 2 both
1. Deliberation and discussion d) None of the Above
2. Approval or Refusal of law
3. Financial control Q.78) Consider the following statements:
4. No confidence motion 1. The actions and decisions of the judges are immune
Choose the correct answer using the options given from personal criticisms.
below: 2. The Parliament cannot discuss the conduct of the
a) Only 1, 2 and 3 judges under any circumstances.
b) Only 1 and 2 Choose the correct statement using the code given
c) Only 1, 3 and 4 below.
d) All of the above a) Only 1
b) Only 2
Q.75) Which of the following is/are dimension(s) of c) 1 and 2 both
independence of judiciary? d) None of the Above
1. Non-interference from other branches of the
Government. Q.79) Consider the following statements:
2. Judges be allowed to act without fear or favour. 1. Since the independence, the senior-most judge of
3. Absence of accountability from judiciary. the Supreme Court has always been appointed as the
Choose the correct answer using the options given Chief Justice of India.
below: 2. The other Judges of the Supreme Court and the High
a) Only 1 and 2 Court are appointed by the Prime Minister after
b) Only 1 and 3 ‘consulting’ the CJI.
c) Only 2 and 3 Choose the correct statement using the code given
d) All of the above below.
a) Only 1
1. The legislature is not involved in the process of c) 1 and 2 both
appointment of judges. d) None of the Above
2. The judges have a fixed tenure and under
exceptional circumstances only they can be removed Q.80) A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be
earlier than their tenure. removed only on the ground(s) of:
Choose the correct statement using the code given 1. Proven misbehaviour
below. 2. Incapacity
a) Only 1 3. Violation of the Constitution
10
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Choose the correct answer using the options given 2. Decisions made by the Supreme Court are binding on
below: all other courts within the territory of India.
a) Only 1 and 2 Choose the correct statement using the code given
b) Only 2 and 3 below.
c) Only 3 a) Only 1
d) All of the above b) Only 2
c) 1 and 2 both
Q.81) Consider the following statements: d) None of the Above
1. The Constitution of India provides for a single
integrated judicial system. Q.85) The PIL has become an important tool of justice for
2. The structure of the judiciary in India is pyramidal the downtrodders and the underprivileged. What is the
with the Office of the President at the top. correct full name of PIL?
Choose the correct statement using the code given a) People Interests Litigation.
below. b) Public Interests Litigation.
a) Only 1 c) People Informatory Litigation.
b) Only 2 d) Public Informatory Litigation.
c) 1 and 2 both
d) None of the Above Q.86) Which qualification is wrong for being a judge in
the Supreme Court?
Q.82) Consider the following statements: a) It is compulsory to be a citizen of India.
1. The functions and responsibilities of the Supreme b) He should be a respected jurist in the eyes of the
Court are defined nowhere in the Constitution. Parliament.
2. The Supreme Court of India can advise the President c) He Must be a judge in the High Court for at least 5
on matters of public importance and law on its own. years.
Choose the correct statement using the code given d) He should be a lawyer in the High Court for at least
below. 10 years.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2 Q.87) Which statement regarding the tenure of judges of
c) 1 and 2 both Supreme Court is not correct?
d) None of the Above a) The Judge of the Supreme Court can remain in office
till the age of 65 years.
Q.83) Which of the following come(s) under the original b) The Judge of the Supreme Court, gives his
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? resignation letter to the Chief Justice.
1. Dispute between two or more states. c) On the recommendation of the Parliament, he can
2. Give orders to the executive to act. be removed by the President.
3. Rendering advice to the President on issues of public d) A Supreme Court judge can be removed only in the
importance. condition of misconduct.
Choose the correct answer using the options given
below: Q.88) Who can remove the Judge of the Supreme Court?
a) Only 1 and 2 a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
b) Only 1 b) Only President.
c) Only 1 and 3 c) Only Parliament.
d) All of the above d) Both the Parliament and the President.
Q.84) Consider the following statements: Q.89) Which of the following conveys the meaning of
1. The Supreme Court itself is not bound by its decision ‘Judicial review’ in best possible way?
and can at any time review it.
11
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
a) It is the constitutional right of higher judiciary to Q.93) Which of the following country had to face a
compulsorily review the decisions passed by lower territorial disintegration?
judiciary. 1. Czechoslovakia
b) Judicial Review is scrutiny of work of tribunals to 2. Yugoslavia
check the constitutionality. 3. Pakistan
c) Judicial Review means the power of the Supreme 4. Canada
Court (or High Courts) to examine the Choose the correct answer using the options given
constitutionality of any law. below:
d) None of the above. a) Only 1, 2 and 4
b) Only 1, 3 and 4
Q.90) Consider the following statements: c) Only 1, 2 and 3
1. Judicial Review means the power of the Supreme d) All the above
Court (or High Courts) to examine the
constitutionality of any law passed by the Parliament Q.94) Consider the following statements:
or the state legislatures. 1. Federalism consists of a set of fixed principles, which
2. The term Judicial Review is nowhere mentioned in are applied to different historical situations.
the Constitution. 2. Under federalism, each government is autonomous
Choose the correct statement using the code given in its own sphere.
below. Choose the correct statement using the code given
a) Only 1 below.
b) Only 2 a) Only 1
c) 1 and 2 both b) Only 2
d) None of the Above c) 1 and 2 both
1. All federal polities across the world have dual Q.95) Which of the following is/are among essential
citizenships. feature of a federalism?
2. The details of dual system of government are spelt 1. Dual citizenship
out in a written constitution. 2. Written Constitution
Choose the correct statement using the code given 3. Independent judiciary
below. Choose the correct answer using the options given
3. Only 1 below:
4. Only 2 a) Only 1 and 2
5. 1 and 2 both b) Only 1 and 3
6. None of the Above c) Only 2 and 3
d) All the above
Q.92) In 1989, one of the global super powers USSR
disintegrated into numerous independent republics. Q.96) Consider the following statements:
Which of the following was/were reason(s)? 1. Articles 33 and 34 authorise the Parliament to
1. Weak central power in USSR. protect persons in the service of the union or a state
2. Overarching role of Russia in USSR policy decisions. in respect of any action taken by them during martial
Choose the correct answer using the options given law to maintain or restore order.
below: 2. The Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) has
a) Only 1 been made on the basis of these provisions.
b) Only 2
12
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
c) 1 and 2 both Choose the correct statement using the code given
d) None of the Above below.
a) Only 1
1. Initially, the constitutional framers of India were in c) 1 and 2 both
opinion to bring in a unitary type of Government. d) None of the Above
2. There was acute awareness that Indian society had a
regional diversity and a linguistic diversity.
below.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) 1 and 2 both

1. Union Legislature alone has the power to legislate on
such matters which are not listed under any three
lists given in the Constitution.
2. Under the Indian federalism, the States have
immense responsibilities but very meagre revenue
sources.
below.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) 1 and 2 both
Q.99) Which of the following is/are mentioned under the

Concurrent List?
1. Forests
2. Agriculture and animal husbandry
3. Adulteration
Choose the correct answer using the options given
below:
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 2 and 3
d) All of the above

1. The Parliament can unilaterally alter the boundary of
any State or even its name.
2. The Constitution has very powerful emergency
provisions, which can turn our federal polity into a
highly centralised system when emergency is in
force.
13
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Q.1) Ans: b the Constitution specifies the circumstances under

which these rights may be withdrawn.
Exp:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The first function of a
Q.4) Ans: c
constitution is to provide a set of basic rules that
allow for minimal coordination amongst members of Exp:
a society.  Statement 1 is correct: One of the functions of the
 Providing rules for maximal coordination among Constitution is to enable the government to fulfil the
various organs is the function of law enacted by the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a
legislature. just society.
 One of the functions of the Constitution is also to  Regarding this, the Indian Constitution enables the
specify who has the power to make decisions in a government to take positive welfare measures some
society. of which are legally enforceable.
 Statement 2 is correct: It decides how the  Statement 2 is correct: The Directive Principles of
government will be constituted. State of Policy (DPSP) is one such feature of the
Indian Constitution as it enjoins the Government to
Q.2) Ans: d fulfil certain aspirations of the people.
Exp:
Q.5) Ans: c
All the above are among functions of the Constitution.
 Statement 1 is correct: The first function of a Exp:
constitution is to provide a set of basic rules that  Option c is correct: The Constitution provides one
allow for minimal coordination amongst members of with political as well as moral identity. By agreeing to
a society. certain basic norms and principles one constitutes
 Statement 2 is correct: The second function of a one’s basic political identity.
Constitution is to specify who has the power to make  Second, constitutional norms are the overarching
decisions in a society. framework within which one pursues individual
 It decides how the government will be constituted. aspirations, goals and freedoms.
 Statement 3 is correct: The third function of a  The constitution sets authoritative constraints upon
Constitution is to set some limits on what a what one may or may not do. It defines the
government can impose on its citizens. fundamental values that we may not trespass.
 These limits are fundamental in the sense that  So, the constitution also gives one a moral identity.
government may never trespass them.
Q.6) Ans: b
Q.3) Ans: a Exp:
Exp:  Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Constitution
 Statement 1 is correct: The fundamental rights was never subjected to such an open public
enshrined in the Constitution provide that Citizens referendum, but nevertheless carried enormous
will be protected from being arrested arbitrarily and public authority, because it had the consensus and
for no reason. backing of leaders who were themselves popular.
 This is one basic limitation upon the power of  It was drawn up by people who enjoyed immense
government. public credibility, who had the capacity to negotiate
 Citizens will normally have the right to some basic and command the respect of a wide cross-section of
liberties: to freedom of speech, freedom of society, and who were able to convince the people
conscience, freedom of association, freedom to that the constitution was not an instrument for the
conduct a trade or business, etc. aggrandisement of their personal power.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: In practice, these rights can  Statement 2 is correct: The final document reflected
be limited during times of national emergency and the broad national consensus at that time.
14
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Q.11) Ans: b
Q.7) Ans: b
Exp:
Exp:  Option b is correct: While evolving the most
 Successful constitutions strike the right balance balanced governmental arrangements, the makers
between preserving core values and adapting them of our Constitution did not hesitate to learn from
to new circumstances. experiments and experiences of other countries.
 You will notice the wisdom of makers of the Indian  Thus, the framers of the Constitution were not
Constitution in the chapter 9. averse to borrowing from other constitutional
 Statement 2 is correct: The Indian Constitution is traditions.
described as 'a living' document.  The ‘Principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’
 Statement 1 is incorrect: By striking a balance have been taken from the French Constitution.
between the possibility to change the provisions and
the limits on such changes, the Constitution has Q.12) Ans: c
ensured that it will survive as a document respected
Exp:
by people.
 Both are correct statements. During our freedom
struggle, the leaders of the freedom movement had
Q.8) Ans: b
realised the importance of rights and demanded that
Exp: the British rulers should respect the rights of the
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution was made people.
by the Constituent Assembly which had been elected  The Motilal Nehru committee had demanded a bill of
for undivided India. rights as far back as in 1928.
 It held its first sitting on 9 December, 1946 and
reassembled as Constituent Assembly for divided Q.13) Ans: c
India on 14 August, 1947.
Exp:
 Statement 2 is correct: Its members were chosen by
 Option c is correct: The word fundamental suggests
indirect election by the members of the Provincial
that these rights are so important that the
Legislative Assemblies that had been established
Constitution has separately listed them and made
under the Government of India Act, 1935.
special provisions for their protection.
 The Fundamental Rights are so important that the
Q.9) Ans: c
Constitution itself ensures that they are not violated
Exp: by the government. Part III and Article 12 to 35 of the
Option c is correct: The Constituent Assembly was constitution guarantees certain basic rights to the
composed roughly along the lines suggested by the plan citizens of India known as Fundamental Rights, which
proposed by the committee of the British cabinet, known are justiciable.
as the Cabinet Mission.
Q.14) Ans: b
Q.10) Ans: c
Exp:
Exp:  Option b is correct: Fundamental Rights are different
 Statement 1 is correct: The method of selection in from other rights available to us.
the case of representatives of Princely States was to  Ordinary rights may be changed by the legislature by
be determined by consultation. ordinary process of law making, but a Fundamental
 Statement 2 is correct: The seats in each Province Right may only be changed by amending the
were distributed among the three main Constitution itself. Thus, b is the correct answer.
communities, Muslims, Sikhs and general, in
proportion to their respective populations. Q.15) Ans: d
15
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Exp: confer no title on a person except those who excel

 A provision related to the set of rights guaranteed by themselves in military or academic field.
the Constitution can be found in Constitutions of all  Thus, Right to Equality strives to make India a true
the given countries. democracy by ensuring a sense of equality of dignity
 Option d is correct: While India’s Constitution names and status among all its citizens.
it ‘Fundamental Rights’, and USA calls it ‘Bill of
Rights’, the South African Constitution says that its Q.19) Ans: c
“Bill of Rights is a cornerstone of democracy in South
Exp:
Africa”.
 Option c is correct: Both a and b are among the valid
limitations upon the Right to Freedom.
Q.16) Ans: c
 Right to Freedom is defined in such a manner that
Exp: every person will enjoy his freedom without
 Decentralisation of power to connect the masses threatening freedom of others and without
with politics was the original objective behind endangering the law and order situation. Thus, c is
bringing Panchayati Raj system in India. the correct answer.
 Option c is correct: The Local Government is a
government at the village and district level. Local Q.20) Ans: c
Government is about the government closest to the
Exp:
common people.
 Statement 1 is correct. No citizen can be denied his
 Local government is about government that involves
or her life except by procedure as laid down under
the day-to-day life and problems of ordinary citizens.
the law. Similarly, no one can be denied his/her
 Local government believes that local knowledge and
personal liberty.
local interest are essential ingredients for
 That means no one can be arrested without being
democratic decision making.
told the grounds for such an arrest.
 They are also necessary for efficient and people-
 Statement 2 is correct. If arrested, the person has
friendly administration.
the right to defend himself by a lawyer of his choice.
 The advantage of local government is that it is so
Also, it is mandatory for the police to take that
near the people. person to the nearest magistrate within 24 hours.
 The magistrate, who is not part of the police, will
Q.17) Ans: a
decide whether the arrest is justified or not.
Exp:
 Option a is correct: The Fundamental Right of Q.21) Ans: d
‘Protection of language, culture of minorities’ is Exp:
enshrined under the Cultural and Educational Rights.
 All the above rights have been incorporated within
 The Right of minorities to establish educational the Right to Life under Article 21 by the Supreme
institution is the other right mentioned under this Court over a period of time.
Fundamental Right.
 The court has held that right to shelter and livelihood
is also included in the Right to Life because no person
Q.18) Ans: c
can live without the means of living, that is, the
Exp: means of livelihood.
 Both are correct statements. The practice of
untouchability is one of the crudest manifestations Q.22) Ans: b
of inequality. Exp:
 This has been abolished under the Right to Equality.  Statement 1 is incorrect: Sometimes a person can be
The same right also provides that the state shall
arrested simply out of an apprehension that he or
she is likely to engage in unlawful activity and
16
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
imprisoned for some time without following the  Freedom of Religion is subject to certain limitations.
mentioned procedure in the Constitution.  The government can impose restrictions on the
 Statement 2 is correct: This is known as preventive practice of Freedom of Religion in order to protect
detention. It means that if the government feels that public order, morality and health.
a person can be a threat to law and order or to the  Statement 2 is correct. The government can also
peace and security of the nation, it can detain or interfere in religious matters for rooting out certain
arrest that person. social evils.
 This preventive detention can be extended only for  For example, in the past, the government has taken
three months. steps banning practices like sati, bigamy or human
sacrifice.
Q.23) Ans: c  Such restrictions cannot be opposed in the name of
Exp: interference in Right to Freedom of religion.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Constitutional
arrangements, no one is guilty unless the court has Q.26) Ans: b
found that person guilty of an offence. Exp:
 It is also necessary that a person accused of any  Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not
crime should get adequate opportunity to defend allow forcible conversions.
herself or himself.  Statement 2 is correct: It only gives us the right to
 To ensure a fair trial in courts, the Constitution has spread information about our religion and thus
provided three rights: attract others to it.
 Statement 2 is correct: no person would be  The Constitution has guaranteed the right to
punished for the same offence more than once propagate one's religion.
 Statement 3 is correct: no law shall declare any
action as illegal from a backdate, and Q.27) Ans: a
 no person shall be asked to give evidence against
Exp:
himself or herself.
 Statement 1 is correct: All minorities, religious or
linguistic, can set up their own educational
Q.24) Ans: b
institutions.
Exp:  By doing so, they can preserve and develop their own
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Many people in India were culture.
subjected to exploitation by their fellow human  Statement 2 is incorrect: The government will not,
beings. One such form of exploitation in our country while granting aid to educational institutions,
has been begar or forced labour without payment. discriminate against any educational institution on
 Statement 2 is correct: Forced labour was imposed the basis that it is under the management of minority
by landlords, moneylenders and other wealthy community.
persons in the past.
 It has now been declared a crime and it is punishable. Q.28) Ans: d
 The Constitution also forbids employment of
Exp:
children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs
 Option d is correct: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar called ‘Article
like factories and mines.
32’ of the Indian Constitution i.e. Right to
Constitutional Remedies as ‘the heart and soul of the
Q.25) Ans: c
Constitution’.
Exp:  It is so because this right gives a citizen the right to
 Statement 1 is correct. Freedom of Religion includes approach a High Court or the Supreme Court to get
the freedom to profess, follow and propagate any any of the fundamental rights restored in case of
religion. their violation.
17
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
 The Supreme Court and the High Courts can issue  Both are correct statements. Under proportional
orders and give directives to the government for the representation, every party declares a list of its
enforcement of rights. candidates, but voters vote for the party and not for
the candidates.
Q.29) Ans: a  A party gets seats in the legislature in proportion to
the votes polled by it.
Exp:
 This allows even smaller parties with very small
 Statement 1 is correct: A direct democracy is one
support base to get representation in the legislature.
where the citizens directly participate in the day-to-
day decision- making and in the running of the  This often leads to a multiparty coalition
government. government.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The ancient city-states in
Q.33) Ans: a
Greece were considered examples of direct
democracy. But this kind of direct democracy cannot Exp:
be practiced when a decision has to be taken by lakhs  Statement 1 is correct: Under FPTP, the country is
and crores of people. That is why rule by the people divided into small geographical units called
usually means rule by people's representatives. constituencies or districts.
 Indian democracy is an indirect democracy, means  Statement 2 is incorrect: Under proportional
ruled by people's representatives. representation system, large geographical areas are
demarcated as constituencies.
Q.30) Ans: b  The entire country may be a single constituency but
Exp: not always.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: All elections are not
Q.34) Ans: c
democratic. A large number of non-democratic
countries also hold elections. Exp:
 In fact, non- democratic rulers are very keen to  Statement 1 is correct. Articles 33 and 34 authorise
present themselves as democratic. the Parliament to protect persons in the service of
 Statement 2 is correct: They do so by holding the union or a state in respect of any action taken by
election in such a way that it does not threaten their them during martial law to maintain or restore order.
rule.  These provisions further strengthens the powers of
the Union Government.
Q.31) Ans: c  Statement 2 is correct. The Armed Forces Special
Exp: Powers Act (AFSPA) has been made on the basis of
 Statement 1 is correct. Under FPTP system, the these provisions.
winning candidate need not secure a majority of the  This Act has created tensions between the people
votes. and the armed forces on some occasions.
 Statement 2 is correct. The Indian electoral system
is based on the First Past the Post (FPTP). In the
Q.35) Ans: c
electoral race, the candidate who is ahead of others,
who crosses the winning post first of all, is the Exp:
winner.  Both are correct statements.
 This method is also called the Plurality System.  Statement 1 is correct. Sometimes, these demands
 This is the method of election prescribed by the expect that the division of powers should be changed
Constitution of India. in favour of the States and more powers and
important powers be assigned to the States.
Q.32) Ans: c  Statement 2 is correct.The demands also relate to
Exp: administrative powers of the States. States resent
18
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
the control of the centre over the administrative  Option c is correct: The Japanese Constitution of
machinery. 1947 is popularly known as the ‘Peace Constitution’.
 The preamble states that “We, the Japanese people
Q.36) Ans: c desire peace for all time and are deeply conscious of
Exp: the high ideals controlling human relationship”.
 Option c is correct: Acquisition and Termination of  The philosophy of the Japanese Constitution is thus
Citizenship. based on the ideal of peace.
 All types of majorities other than the absolute,
Q.40) Ans: d
effective or simple majority are known as special
majority. Exp:
 Special majority is of 4 types, with different clauses.  Option d is correct: All the above individuals shaped
o Type 1 -Special Majority as Per Article 249. and influenced the liberal character of the Indian
o Type 2 -Special Majority as per Article 368. Constitution.
o Type 3 - Special Majority as per Article 368 + 50  Indian liberalism has two streams. The first stream
percent state ratification by a simple majority. began with Rammohan Roy.
o Type 4 -Special Majority as per A61.  He emphasised individual rights, particularly the
rights of women.
Q.37) Ans: d  The second stream included thinkers like K.C. Sen,
Exp: Justice Ranade and Swami Vivekananda.
 Option d is correct: Effective Majority of the house  They introduced the spirit of social justice within
means more than 50% of the effective strength of orthodox Hinduism.
the house.
 This implies that out of the total strength, we deduct Q.41) Ans: a
the vacant seats. When the Indian Constitution Exp:
mentions “all the then members”, that refers to the  Statement 1 is correct: Unlike Germany or France we
effective majority. have several linguistic and religious communities. It
 For example, in Rajya Sabha, out of the total strength was important to ensure that no one community
of 245 members if there are 45 vacancies, then the systematically dominates the others.
effective strength of the house is 200. Then the  This made it mandatory for our Constitution to
effective majority is 50% of 200 plus 1, i.e., 101.In the recognise community-based rights.
Lok Sabha there are 545 members. (50%, of 545-50-  One such right is the right of religious communities
5 (490) = 245) to establish and run their own educational
institutions.
Q.38) Ans: c  Such institutions may receive money from the
Exp: government.
 Both are correct statements. Both reasons are  Statement 2 is incorrect: This provision shows that
relevant for philosophical approach to the Indian the Indian Constitution does not see religion merely
constitution. as a 'private' matter concerning the individual.
 A political philosophical approach to the constitution
is needed not only to find out the moral content Q.42) Ans: b
expressed in it and to evaluate its claims but possibly Exp:
to use it to arbitrate between varying interpretations  Statement 1 is incorrect: The 73rd and 74th
of the many core values in our polity. Amendments granting constitutional status to Local
Government bodies came into force in 1993.
Q.39) Ans: c  Once the Constitution was amended, the States had
Exp: to change their laws about local bodies in order to
19
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
bring these in conformity with the amended  Statement 1 is incorrect: Delimitation Commission is
Constitution. appointed by the President of India.
 They were given one year's time for making  It is appointed for the purpose of drawing up the
necessary changes in their respective State laws in boundaries of constituencies all over the country.
the light of these amendments.  Statement 2 is correct: A quota of constituencies to
 Statement 2 is correct: All States now have a uniform be reserved in each State is fixed depending on the
three-tier Panchayati Raj structure. proportion of SCs or STs in that State.
Q.43) Ans: b Q.47) Ans: d

Exp: Exp:
 The option b is not correct with respect to the Local  Option d is correct: The Sixty-first Amendment of the
Government in India. Constitution of India, officially known as The
 First of all, the Panchayati Raj system was Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988,
established in Rajasthan (2 October, 1959) after lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha
which Andhra Pradesh adopted this system. Thus, b and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21
is the correct answer. years to 18 years.
Q.44) Ans: c Q.48) Ans: b

Exp: Exp:
 Statement 1 is correct. Under separate electorate  Statement 1 is incorrect: Election Commission is not
system, for electing a representative from a responsible for the conduct of local body elections.
particular community, only those voters would be  Statement 2 is correct: The State Election
eligible who belong to that community. Commissioners work independently of the Election
 In the Constituent Assembly, many members Commission of India and each has its own sphere of
expressed a fear that would not suit their purposes. operation.
 Statement 2 is correct. Therefore, it was decided to
adopt the system of reserved constituencies. In this Q.49) Ans: b
system, all voters in a constituency are eligible to
Exp:
vote but the candidates must belong to only a
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Election Commission of
particular community or social section for which the
India can either be a single member or a multi-
seat is reserved.
member body.
 Till 1989, the Election Commission was a single
Q.45) Ans: d
member. Just before the 1989 general elections, two
Exp: Election Commissioners were appointed, making the
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution provides body multi-member.
for reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State  Soon after the elections, the Commission reverted to
Legislative Assemblies for the Scheduled Castes and its single member status.
Scheduled Tribes only.  In 1993, two Election Commissioners were once
 Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no constitutional again appointed and the Commission became multi-
provision for reservation of women in any member and has remained multi-member since
constituency. Proportional representation is then.
followed for elections in Rajya Sabha.  Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Election
Commissioner (CEC) presides over the Election
Q.46) Ans: b Commission, but does not have more powers than
Exp: the other Election Commissioners.
20
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Q.50) Ans: d inquiry then the Speaker can report the matter to the
Supreme Court.
Exp:
 The Prime Minister and his council are responsible to
 All the above are correct: The CEC and the two
the legislature.
Election Commissioners have equal powers to take
all decisions relating to elections as a collective body.
Q.54) Ans: c
 Statement 1 is correct. They are appointed by the
President of India on the advice of the Council of Exp:
Ministers the Constitution ensures the security of  Statement 1 is correct: In a parliamentary system,
the tenure of the CEC and Election Commissioners. the Prime Minister is the Head of Government.
 Statement 2 is correct. They are appointed for a six-  Most parliamentary systems have a president or a
year term or continue till the age of 65, whichever is monarch who is the nominal Head of state.
earlier.  Statement 2 is correct: In such a system, the role of
 Statement 3 is correct. The CEC can be removed the President or Monarch is primarily ceremonial
before the expiry of the term, by the President if and the Prime Minister along with the cabinet wields
both Houses of Parliament make such a effective power.
recommendation with a special majority.  Countries with such system are Germany, Italy,
Japan, United Kingdom as well as Portugal.
Q.51) Ans: a
Q.55) Ans: c
Exp:
Option a is correct: A first-past-the-post (FPTP) electoral Exp:
system is one in which voters indicate on a ballot the  Option c is correct: When the Constitution of India
candidate of their choice, and the candidate who was written, British India already had some
receives the most votes wins. This is sometimes experience of running the parliamentary system
described as winner takes all. under the Acts of 1919 and 1935.
 This experience had shown that in the Parliamentary
Q.52) Ans: a System, the executive can be effectively controlled
Exp: by the representatives of the people.
 Statement 1 is correct: In a presidential system, the
Q.56) Ans: b
President is the Head of State as well as the Head of
Government. Exp:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: In this system the office of  The Constitution of India vests the executive power
President is very powerful, both in theory and in of the Union formally in the President.
practice.  Statement 1 is incorrect: In reality, the President
 Countries with such a system are the United States, exercises these powers through the Council of
Brazil and most nations in Latin America. Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
 The President is elected for a period of five years. But
Q.53) Ans: c there is no direct election by the people for the office
Exp: of President.
 Option c is correct: Elected for a term of six years,  The President is elected indirectly. This means that
the President cannot be removed except by a the President is elected not by the ordinary citizens
resolution in the parliament passed by at least two- but by the elected MLAs and MPs.
thirds of the total number of Members of the  Statement 2 is correct: This election takes place in
Parliament. accordance with the principle of proportional
 If it is passed by not less than one-half of the total representation with single transferable vote.
number of Members of the Parliament and the
Speaker is satisfied that such allegations merit Q.57) Ans: c
21
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Exp:  The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to

 Statement 1 is correct: Under the Constitutional the Lok Sabha. This provision means that a Ministry
provisions, the advice rendered by the Council of which loses confidence of the Lok Sabha is obliged to
Ministers to the President is binding upon the resign.
President.  The principle indicates that the ministry is an
 Statement 2 is correct: The President can ask the executive committee of the Parliament and it
Council of Ministers to reconsider its advice but, has collectively governs on behalf of the Parliament.
to accept the reconsidered advice of the Council of
Ministers. Q.61) Ans: c
 These provisions were not mentioned under the
Exp:
original Constitution and were only added later.
 Option c is correct: The Council of Ministers is
collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This
Q.58) Ans: b
provision means that a Ministry which loses
Exp: confidence of the Lok Sabha is obliged to resign.
 Option b is correct: The Prime Minister decides who  The principle indicates that the ministry is an
will be the ministers in the Council of Ministers. executive committee of the Parliament and it
 The Prime Minister allocates ranks and portfolios to collectively governs on behalf of the Parliament.
the ministers.  Collective responsibility is based on the principle of
 Depending upon the seniority and political the solidarity of the cabinet.
importance, the ministers are given the ranks of  It implies that a vote of no confidence even against a
Cabinet Minister, Minister of State or Deputy single minister leads to the resignation of the entire
Minister. Council of Ministers.
Q.59) Ans: c Q.62) Ans: a

Exp: Exp:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Prime Minister and all  Statement 1 is correct: In the Parliamentary system,
the ministers have to be members of the Parliament. the legislature also exercises control over the
 If someone becomes a minister or Prime Minister administration.
without being an MP, such a person has to get  Statement 2 is incorrect: The administrative officers
elected to the Parliament within six months. cannot act in violation of the policies adopted by the
 Statement 2 is correct: Before the 91st Amendment legislature.
Act (2003), the size of the Council of Ministers was  However, it is the responsibility of the ministers to
determined according to exigencies of time and retain political control over the administration.
requirements of the situation.
 Therefore, an amendment was made that the Q.63) Ans: a
Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of
Exp:
total number of members of the House of the People
 Statement 1 is correct: Persons selected by the UPSC
(or Assembly, in case of the States).
for Indian Administrative Service and Indian Police
Service constitute the backbone of the higher-level
Q.60) Ans: c
bureaucracy in the States. An IAS or IPS officer is
Exp: assigned to a particular State, where he or she works
 Option c is correct: The most important feature of under the supervision of the State Government.
Parliamentary system is that the executive is  Statement 2 is incorrect: However, the IAS or IPS
routinely under the control and supervision of the officers are appointed by the Central Government,
legislature. they can go back into the service of the Central
Government and most importantly, only the Central
22
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
Government can take disciplinary action against  According to the Constitution, parts of the country
them. have been given representation according to their
 This means that the key administrative officers of the population size.
States are under the supervision and control of the  This means that regions or parts having larger
Central Government. population would have more representatives in the
second chamber than regions having less population.
Q.64) Ans: c  Statement 2 is correct: The number of members to
Exp: be elected from each State in the Rajya Sabha has
been fixed by the fourth schedule of the
 Option c is correct: The members of Zila Parishad are
Constitution.
elected from the District on the basic of adult
franchise for a term of five years.
Q.67) Ans: b
 The chairman of the Panchayat Samiti are ex-officio
member of Zila Parishad. 18 Years or above 18 years Exp:
is the age criteria for Election in Panchayat.  Statement 1 is incorrect: Members of the Rajya
 For the financial review of the Panchayat the State Sabha are elected for a term of six years.
Finance Commission in established for 5 years.  They can get re-elected. All members of the Rajya
 Election of the Panchayati Raj institutions is Sabha do not complete their terms at the same time.
conducted under the guidance of the State Election  Statement 2 is correct: Every two years, one third
Commission. members of the Rajya Sabha complete their term
 State election commissioner is appointed by The and elections are held for those one third seats only.
Governor.  Thus, the Rajya Sabha is never fully dissolved.
 The superintendence, direction and control of the
preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all Q.68) Ans: d
elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the
Exp:
state election commission.
 Statement 3 is correct: Constituent Function: The
Parliament has the power of discussing and enacting
Q.65) Ans: a
changes to the Constitution. The constituent powers
Exp: of both the houses are similar. All constitutional
 Statement 1 is correct: Constitution has given the amendments have to be approved by a special
States the option of establishing either a unicameral majority of both Houses.
or bicameral legislature.  Statement 2 is correct: Electoral functions: The
 But at present only six States have a bicameral Parliament also performs some electoral functions. It
legislature. elects the President and the Vice President of India.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: These are Jammu and  Statement 1 is correct: Judicial functions: The
Kashmir, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, judicial functions of the Parliament include
Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. As of considering the proposals for removal of the
2019, before the bifurcation of J&K and Ladakh, 7 out President, the Vice-President and the Judges of High
of 29 States have bicameral legislature. Courts and Supreme Court.
Q.66) Ans: b Q.69) Ans: c

Exp: Exp:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The system of  Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya Sabha has the
representation adopted for the Rajya Sabha is same powers as Lok Sabha in approving
different from equal representation to all the states Constitutional Amendment Bill.
of the country.
23
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
 Statement 2 is correct: Only the Rajya Sabha can give  The Constitution of India has provided for a division
the Union parliament power to make laws on of powers between the Central and State
matters included in the State. Governments.
 Under the Seventh Schedule, there are three lists -
Q.70) Ans: d the Union, State and Concurrent. The Union List has
a range of subjects under which the Parliament may
Exp:
make laws.
 All of the are correct statements: In spheres,
including passing of non-money bills, constitutional
Q.74) Ans: d
amendments, and impeaching the President and
removing the Vice President the powers of Lok Sabha Exp:
and Rajya Sabha are co-equal.  All of the above statements are correct:
 The legislature in the Parliamentary system ensures
Q.71) Ans: a executive accountability at various stages: policy
making, implementation of law or policy and during
Exp:
and post- implementation stage.
 Statement 1 is correct: In Parliament, members of
Government as well as opponents can propose  The legislature does this through the use of a variety
of devices:
legislation.
 But the chances of such proposals to get the majority  Deliberation and discussion
and become a law is very low.  Approval or Refusal of laws
 Statement 2 is incorrect: When a non-minister  Financial control
proposes a bill, it is called private member's Bill.  No confidence motion
 A bill proposed by a minister is described as
Government Bill. Q.75) Ans: a
Exp:
Q.72) Ans: d  Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Independence of the
Exp: judiciary does not imply arbitrariness or absence of
 Statement 1 is correct: A public bill reflects the accountability.
policies of the ruling party and hence can be  Simply stated independence of judiciary means that:
introduced only by a minister.  Statement 3 is incorrect: The other organs of the
 A private bill on the other hand deals with general Government like the executive and legislature must
matters, and is thus introduced by a private MP. not restrain the functioning of the judiciary in such a
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Rajya Sabha cannot delay way that it is unable to do justice.
the passing of a money bill as central budget or any  The other organs of the Government should not
spending should be decided by the House of People interfere with the decision of the judiciary.
and not the House of the States.  Judges must be able to perform their functions
 Statement 3 is incorrect: In case the delay is more without fear or favour.
than six months for an ordinary bill, a joint sitting is
called by the President. Q.76) Ans: c
Exp:
Q.73) Ans: c  Statement 1 is correct: The legislature is not involved
Exp: in the process of appointment of judges.
 Option c is correct: The Union List or List-I is a list of  Thus, it is believed that party politics does not play a
101 items given in Seventh Schedule in the role in the process of appointments.
Constitution of India on which Parliament has  In order to be appointed as a judge, a person must
exclusive power to legislate. have experience as a lawyer and/or must be well
versed in law. Political opinions of the person or his/
24
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
her political loyalty is not the criteria for the President and NOT the Prime Minister after
appointments to judiciary. 'consulting' the CJI.
 The judges have a fixed tenure. They hold office till  This, however, means that the final decisions in
reaching the age of retirement. matters of appointment rest with the Council of
 Statement 2 is correct: Only in exceptional cases, Ministers which is headed by the Prime Minister.
judges may be removed. But otherwise, they have
security of tenure. Q.80) Ans: a
Exp:
Q.77) Ans: b
 Statement 1 and 2 are correct: A judge of the
Exp: Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Judicial accountability is on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity.
not as same as financial dependency upon the  Statement 3 is incorrect: A judge of the Supreme
legislature. Court or High Court cannot be removed on ground of
 The judiciary is not financially dependent on either violation of the Constitution.
the executive or legislature.  In order to remove a judge of higher judiciary, a
 Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution provides motion containing the charges against the judge
that the salaries and allowances of the judges are not must be approved by special majority in both the
subject to the approval of the legislature. Houses of the Parliament.
Q.78) Ans: a Q.81) Ans: a

Exp: Exp:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Parliament cannot  Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution of India
discuss the conduct of the judges except when the provides for a single integrated judicial system.
proceeding to remove a judge is being carried out.  This means that unlike some other federal countries
 This gives the judiciary independence to adjudicate of the world, India does not have separate State
without fear of being criticised. courts.
 The judiciary has the power to penalise those who  Statement 2 is incorrect: The structure of the
are found guilty of contempt of court. judiciary in India is pyramidal with the Supreme
 Statement 1 is correct: This authority of the court is Court at the top, High Courts below them and district
seen as an effective protection to the judges from and subordinate courts at the lowest level.
unfair criticism.  The lower courts function under the direct
superintendence of the higher courts.
Q.79) Ans: d
Q.82) Ans: d
Exp:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Over the years, a Exp:
convention has developed whereby the senior-most  Statement 1 is incorrect: The functions and
judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the Chief responsibilities of the Supreme Court are well
Justice of India. defined by the Constitution.
 This convention has however broken twice. In 1973  Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme Court of India
A. N. Ray was appointed as CJI superseding three cannot advise the President on matters of public
senior Judges. importance and law on its own.
 Again, Justice M.H. Beg was appointed superseding  The President of India can refer any matter that is of
Justice H.R. Khanna (1975). public importance or that which involves
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The other Judges of the interpretation of Constitution to Supreme Court for
Supreme Court and the High Court are appointed by advice.
25
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
 However, the Supreme Court is not bound to give  The appointment of judges has never been free from
advice on such matters and the President is not political controversy.
bound to accept such an advice.  Council of Ministers, Governors and Chief Ministers
and Chief Justice of India - all influence the process
Q.83) Ans: b of judicial appointment.
Exp:
Q.87) Ans: b
 Original jurisdiction means cases that can be directly
considered by the Supreme Court without going to Exp:
the lower courts before that.  Option b is correct: A judge of the Supreme Court
 Statement 1 is correct: To adjudicate disputes gives his resignation letter to the President.
between two or more states is one of the major  The removal of judges of the Supreme Court and the
areas of the original jurisdiction of the Supreme High Courts is also extremely difficult.
Court.  A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be
 Neither the High Courts nor the lower courts can deal removed only on the ground of proven misbehaviour
with such cases. or incapacity.
 Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: In this capacity, the  A motion containing the charges against the judge
Supreme Court not only settles disputes but also must be approved by a special majority in both the
interprets the powers of Union and State Houses of the Parliament.
Government as laid down in the Constitution.
Q.88) Ans: d
Q.84) Ans: c
Exp:
Exp: Option d is correct: The proposal for the removal of the
 Statement 1 is correct: Article 137 of the judge should be passed with a special majority in both
Constitution says that the Supreme Court shall have the Houses of Parliament, while the decision to remove
power to review any judgment pronounced or order from the post is taken by the President.
made by it.
 Statement 2 is correct: Article 144 all authorities, Q.89) Ans: c
civil and judicial, in the territory of India shall act in
Exp:
aid of the Supreme Court.
 Option c is correct: The most important power of the
Supreme Court is the power of Judicial Review.
Q.85) Ans: b
 Judicial Review means the power of the Supreme
Exp: Court (or High Courts) to examine the
 Option b is correct: The full form of PIL is Public constitutionality of any law if the Court arrives at the
Interest Litigation. conclusion that the law is inconsistent with the
 It is directly filed by an individual or group of people provisions of the Constitution, such a law is declared
in the Supreme Court and High Courts and judicial as unconstitutional and inapplicable.
member.
 This concept underwent a change around 1979. In Q.90) Ans: c
1979, the Court set the trend when it decided to hear
Exp:
a case where the case was filed not by the aggrieved
 Statement 1 is correct: Judicial Review means the
persons but by others on their behalf.
power of the Supreme Court (or High Courts) to
examine the constitutionality of any law if the Court
Q.86) Ans: b
arrives at the conclusion that the law is inconsistent
Exp: with the provisions of the Constitution, such a law is
 Option b is correct: In the eyes of the President, he declared as unconstitutional and inapplicable.
should be a respected jurist.
26
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
 Statement 2 is correct: The term Judicial Review is as a principle of government has evolved differently
nowhere mentioned in the Constitution. in different situations.
 Federalism is an institutional mechanism to
Q.91) Ans: b accommodate two sets of polities-one at the
regional level and the other at the national level.
Exp:
 Statement 2 is correct: Each government is
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Not all federal polities
autonomous in its own sphere.
across the world have dual citizenships.
 For example: India is a federal country but it has only
Q.95) Ans: d
single citizenship. Federal polities generally tend to
have a written constitution. Exp:
 Statement 2 is correct: The details of this dual  Statement 1 is correct: Dual citizenship emanating
system of Government are generally spelt out in a from the fact that under federalism we have two sets
written constitution, which is considered to be of identities and loyalties one national and second
supreme and which is also the source of the power regional.
of both sets of government.  Statement 2 is correct: The details of this dual
 Certain subjects, which concern the nation as a system of government are generally spelt out in a
whole, for example, defence or currency, are the written constitution, which is considered to be
responsibility of the Union or Central Government. supreme and which is also the source of the power
of both sets of government.
Q.92) Ans: b  Statement 3 is correct: To prevent conflicts between
the Centre and the State, there is an independent
Exp:
judiciary to settle disputes.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: USSR was one of the
world's super powers, but after 1989 it simply broke
Q.96) Ans: c
up into several independent countries.
 Statement 2 is correct: One of the major reasons for Exp:
its break up was the excessive centralisation and  Statement 1 is correct: Articles 33 and 34 authorise
concentration of power, and the domination of the Parliament to protect persons in the service of
Russia over other regions with independent the union or a state in respect of any action taken by
languages and cultures of their own e.g., Uzbekistan. them during martial law to maintain or restore order.
 These provisions further strengthen the powers of
Q.93) Ans: c the Union Government.
 Statement 2 is correct: The Armed Forces Special
Exp:
Powers Act (AFSPA) has been made on the basis of
 Option c is correct: Canada came very close to a
these provisions.
territorial break up between the English-speaking
 This Act has created tensions between the people
and the French-speaking regions of that country but
and the armed forces on some occasions.
somehow it managed to take along the dissented
section of demography.
Q.97) Ans: b
 In past, countries like Czechoslovakia, Yugoslavia,
and Pakistan also had to face a division of the Exp:
country.  Statement 1 is incorrect: The constitution framers of
India were never in opinion of bringing in a unitary
Q.94) Ans: b government.
Exp:  Even before Independence, most leaders of our
national movements were aware that to govern a
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Federalism does not
large country like ours, it would be necessary to
consist of a set of fixed principles, which are applied,
to different historical situations. Rather, federalism
27
@upscmaterialonline
UPSCMATERIAL.ONLINE

Contact : +91-7007 931 912
divide the powers between provinces and the  The Constitution provides for some safeguards by
Central Government. way of securing the view of the concerned State
 Statement 2 is correct: There was also awareness legislature.
that Indian society had a regional diversity and a  Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution has certain
linguistic diversity. very powerful emergency provisions, which can turn
 This diversity needed recognition. People of different our federal polity into a highly centralised system
regions and languages had to share power and, in once emergency is declared.
each region, people of that region had to govern  During an emergency, power becomes lawfully
themselves. centralised.
Q.98) Ans: c
Exp:
 Statement 1 is correct: The residuary subjects, i.e.,
the subjects which are not mentioned under any
three lists, comes under the legislation/jurisdiction
of Union legislature.
 Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution clearly
demarcates subjects, which are under the exclusive
domain of the Union and those under the States. One
of the important aspects of this division of powers is
that economic and financial powers are centralised
in the hands of the Central Government by the
Constitution. The States have immense
responsibilities but very meagre revenue sources.
Q.99) Ans: b
Exp:
 Point 2 is incorrect and 1 and 3 are correct:
Agriculture and animal husbandry comes under the
state list. Forests and Adulteration are enlisted under
the Concurrent List.
 The Concurrent List or List-III (Seventh Schedule) is a
list of 52 items (though the last item is numbered 47)
given in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of
India.
 It includes the power to be considered by both the
Central and the State Government.
Q.100) Ans: c
Exp:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament is
empowered to 'form a new State by the separation
of a territory from any State or by uniting two or
more States...'.
 It can also alter the boundary of any State or even its
name.
28
@upscmaterialonline

NCERT Test 2 (1) - 240126 - 151053

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

NCERT Test 2 (1) - 240126 - 151053

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

UPSCMATERIAL.

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

Q.1) Consider the following statements: c) Both 1 and 2

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

1. Under FPTP, the country is divided into small

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

b) No-confidence cannot be passed without the

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

a) 1 and 2 Only b) Only 2

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

Q.98) Consider the following statements:

Q.99) Which of the following is/are mentioned under the

Q.100) Consider the following statements:

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

Q.1) Ans: b the Constitution specifies the circumstances under

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

Exp: confer no title on a person except those who excel

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

Q.43) Ans: b Q.47) Ans: d

Q.44) Ans: c Q.48) Ans: b

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

Exp:  The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to

Q.59) Ans: c Q.62) Ans: a

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

Q.66) Ans: b Q.69) Ans: c

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

Q.78) Ans: a Q.81) Ans: a

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

OnlyIAS Nothing Else Visit : dpp.onlyias.in

You might also like