POLITY | 1

C HA PT E R

01
POLITY

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Q.5)
1.1 HISTORICAL BACKGROUND, Consider the following statements:
MAKING OF THE CONSTITUTION,
SALIENT FEATURES OF 1) ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the
CONSTITUTION UN -Habitat monitors the commitments made by each
country in this regard.
Q.1) 2) ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city right
Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State? to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the
(2021) city.
3) ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a defi- public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in
nite territory independent of external control and possessing the city.
an organized government
(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and (2021)
order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means
of sustenance (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite (b) 3 only (d) 2 and 3
territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradi-
tion and government Q.6)
(d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with A legislation which confers on the executive or ad-
a central authority, an executive responsible to the central ministrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled
authority and an independent judiciary discretionary power in the matter of application of law
violates which one of the following Articles of the Con-
Q.2) stitution of India? (2021)
What was the exact constitutional status of India on
26th January, 1950? (2021) (a) Article 14 (c) Article 32
(b) Article 28 (d) Article 44
(a) A democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic Q.7)
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic With reference to India, consider the following state-
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic ments:

Q.3) 1) There is only one citizenship and one domicile.

Constitutional government means : (2021) 2) A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3) A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be
(a) A representative government of a nation with federal deprived of it under any circumstances.
structure
(b) A government whose Head enjoys nominal powers Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) A government whose Head enjoys real powers (2021)
(d) A government limited by the terms of the Constitution
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only (d) 2 and 3
1.2 PREAMBLE, UNION & ITS
TERRITORY, CITIZENSHIP, Q.8)
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS, Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF violates (2021)
STATE POLICY, FUNDAMENTAL
DUTIES (a) The Right to Equality
(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
Q.4) (c) The Right to Freedom
‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of (d) The Concept of Welfare
the Constitution of India? (2021)

(a) Article 15 (c) Article 21

(b) Article 19 (d) Article 29

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tial feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

1.3 AMENDMENT OF CONSTITUTION, (2021)
BASIC STRUCTURE OF
CONSTITUTION (a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from
Q.9) constituent units.
Consider the following statements : (c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from
regional parties.
1) A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recom- (d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of
mendation of the President of India. Law.
2) When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the
President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India
to give his/her assent. 1.5 PRESIDENT, VICE-PRESIDENT, PRIM
3) A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both MINISTER, PRIME MINISTER,
the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority CENTRAL COUNCIL OF MINISTERS,
and there is no provision for joint sitting. CABINET COMMITTEES

Which of the statements given above are correct ? (2022)

Q.13)
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1) The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into
Q.10) four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with In-
What is the position of the Right to Property in India? dependent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
(2021) 2) The total number of ministers in the Union Government,
including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent
(a) Legal right available to citizens only of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
(b) Legal right available to any person
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right (2022)

(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2

1.4 PARLIAMENTARY SYSTEM, FEDERAL (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
SYSTEM, CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS,
INTER-STATE RELATIONS,
EMERGENCY PROVISIONS 1.6 PARLIAMENT, PARLIAMENTARY
COMMITTEES, PARLIAMENTARY
Q.11) COMMITTEES, PARLIAMENTARY
We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the FORUMS, PARLIAMENTARY GROUPS
British model, but how does our model differ from that
model? Q.14)
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of
1) As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme Lok Sabha?
or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to
legislate is limited. 1) To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2) In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the 2) To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of
Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Ministers
Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. 3) To impach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(2021) (2022)

(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3

(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only (d) 3 only

Q.12)
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essen-

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Q.15)
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider
the following statements:
1) As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Busi-
ness in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall
be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2) There is a mandatory provision that the election of a
candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from
either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3) The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the
Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and
no appeal lies against his rulings.
4) The well established parliamentary practice regarding
the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is
moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime
Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(2022)
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 only
2) Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules re-
lating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(2022)
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.18)
With reference to the writs, issued by the Courts in
India, consider the following statements :
1) Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation
unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2) Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though
it may be a Government Company.
3) Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move
the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(2022)
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

1.7 SUPREME COURT, JUDICIAL Q.19)

REVIEW, JUDICIAL ACTIVISM, With reference to India, consider the following state-
PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION, ments:
HIGH COURT, TRIBUNALS,
SUBORDINATE COURTS 1) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of
the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up
Q.16) in police station, not in jail.
Consider the following statements: 2) During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of
the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without
1) Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the the approval of the court.
Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2) The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
and the High Courts to punish for contempt of them- (2021)
selves.
3) The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
Criminal Contempt. (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4) In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to
make laws on Contempt of Court. Q.20)
With reference to India, consider the following state-
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? ments:
(2022)
1) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 and 4 only cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a
(b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 only matter of his/her right.
2) State Governments have their own Prisoners Release
Q.17) on Parole Rules.
With reference to India, consider the following state-
ments: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(2021)
1) Government law officers and legal firms are recognised
as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
are excluded from recognition as advocates. (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q.21) 1) Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of

With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the follow-
ing statements:
1) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can
be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge
by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the
President of India.
2) A High Court in India has the power to review its own
judgement as the Supreme Court does.
India are the only officers of the Government who are
allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of
India.
2) According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney
General of India submits his resignation when the Gov-
ernment which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(2022)

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(2021) (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 only Q.25)

(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency
to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled
Q.22) Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recogni-
Which one of the following factors constitutes the best tion of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021)
safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021)
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(a) A committed judiciary (c) Elected government (b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(b) Centralization of powers (d) Separation of powers (c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

1.8 GOVERNOR, CHIEF MINISTER,

STATE COUNCIL OF MINISTER, 1.10 POLITICAL PARTIES, ROLE OF
STATE LEGISLATURE, SPECIAL REGIONAL PARTIES, ELECTIONS,
PROVISIONS FOR SOME STATES ELECTION LAWS, ELECTORAL
REFORMS, VOTING BEHAVIOUR,
Q.23) COALITION GOVERNMENT, ANTI
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule DEFECTION LAW, PRESSURE
of the Constitution of India, which one of the following GROUPS, NATIONAL INTEGRATION,
statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) NATIONAL COMMISSION TO
REVIEW THE WORKING OF THE
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people CONSTITUTION
to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that Q.26)
area. With reference to anti defection law in India, consider
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory. the following statements:
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a special
Category State. 1) The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot
join any political party within six months of being ap-
pointed to the House.
1.9 ELECTION COMMISSION, UPSC, 2) The law does not provide any time-frame within which
SPSC, FINANCE COMMISSION, GST the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
COUNCIL, NATIONAL COMMISSION
FOR SCs, NATIONAL COMMISSION Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
FOR STs, NATIONAL COMMISSION (2022)
FOR BCs, CAG, SPECIAL OFFICER
FOR LINGUISTIC MINORITIES, (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
ATTORNERY GENERAL OF INDIA, (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
ADVOCATE GENERAL OF INDIA

Q.24) Consider the following statements:

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==========ANSWERS===========
1.11 GOVERNANCE
Q.1) a
Q.27) Explanation:
In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Orga-
nization (CCO)?
Knowledge State is a political organization
(a) CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Govern- of society. The state is a form of
ment of India. human association distinguished
(b) It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/ from other social groups based
Lignite blocks. on its purpose of formation.
(c) It hears any objection to the Government’s notification
relating to acquisition of coal - bearing areas.
(d) It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to Common The essential attributes of a
end users in the prescribed time. Sense state are: 1. Defined territory
2. Population 3. Organized
Select the correct answer using the code given below: government 4. Sovereignty and
(2022) independence

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 Elimination Permanent occupancy by people
Trick should be there for referring
Q.28) any area as state. Hence, we can
With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the eliminate options (b) and (c).
following statements: Independent judiciary is not a
pre-requisite for a state.
1) The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2) It is a regulatory body attached to the Minister of Agri-
culture and Farmers Welfare. Smartness These terms are important and
3) The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. usually they are present in news
4) The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow. and current affairs but students
often ignore them. One should
Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) try to google the meaning of
important terms which are there
(a) 1 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 in news.
(b) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

Q.2) b
Q.29)
Explanation:
With reference to the Union Government, consider the
following statements:

1) N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a Knowledge As the original preamble, during
minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing 26th January-1950, constitution-
the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. al status of India was a “Sov-
2) In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted ereign Democratic Republic.”
on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Later, with 42nd Constitutional
Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Amendment two more words
Minister’s charge. were added to constitutional
status of India, i.e., “Socialist
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? and Secular.”
(2021)
Common As the question is asking consti-
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
Sense tutional status on 26 Jan 1950 it
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 simply means that original status
of constitution is being asked.

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Elimination It is a static question. No trick
Trick applicable. Option A can be
eliminated since sovereign
democratic republic is certainly
better option than democratic
republic. We know that India be-
came a sovereign with indepen-
dence in 1947.
Q.4) c
Explanation:
Knowledge In K. S. Puttaswamy Case
(2017), Supreme Court of India
has held that right to privacy is
a Fundamental Right and it is
protected under Article 21 of the
Constitution of India.

Smartness It is important for students that

they emphasise on the amend- Common Article 21 deals with protection
ments which were made in Sense of life and personal liberty.
original constitution.

Elimination None of the article mentioned

Trick in options (a),(b), and (d) are re-
Q.3) d lated to personal liberty. Hence,
Explanation: they all will get eliminated.

Knowledge Constitutionalism is a doc- Smartness Article 1-35 are most important

trine in which a government’s from examination perspective.
authority is determined by a
body of laws or constitution.
Although constitutionalism or
constitutional government is
sometimes regarded as limited
government.

Common Constitutional government is a

Sense government governed by the
constitution. Option D says the
same thing in different words.

Elimination Option (a), (b), and (c) are

Trick nowhere related to question.
Naturally after looking at all
options only (d) makes most
sense. The head may enjoy
nominal or real powers in a
constitutional government. The
government might be federal or
non-federal, if governed by the
constitution.

Smartness One should dig deeper into the

basics features of constitution
as they form core of Indian
polity.

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Q.5) d
Explanation:
Knowledge ‘Right to the City’ (RTC) is not
agreed as a human right by all
countries yet. In 2016, India
had opposed the inclusion of
the Right to the City in the draft
New Urban Agenda that aimed to
define the way cities world-wide
are shaped over the next two
decades. Following negotiations,
the revised draft agenda’s open-
ing section titled the ‘the Quito
Declaration on Sustainable Cities
and Human Settlements’ retained
the reference to RTC. It states,
“Cities for all is also recognised
as the Right to the City in some
countries, based on a people-cen-
tered vision of cities as places
that strive to guarantee a decent
and full life for all inhabitants.”
So, statement 1 is not correct.
RTC gives every occupant, irre-
spective of their legality, a claim
over the city. It requires the State
to act on the principles of social
justice and provide equal ser-
vices to each and every resident
Common Statement 2 is very positive by
Sense nature. Every right is framed
with the objective of easing the
life of citizens. Any student who
uses common sense will mark
this statement correct.
Elimination Here, the word cannot might
Trick make you think that it is the in-
correct statement but UPSC has
played very smart here by giving
the correct statement.
Smartness This topic was there in current
affairs. It is important to com-
plete current affairs of one year
before exam.
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Q.6) a
Explanation:
Knowledge Article 14 ensures that all citi-
zens are equal and that no person
shall be discriminated on the ba-
sis of sex, religion, race or place
of birth. It ensures that there is a
separation of power between the
three wings of the government
and the executive.
Common Discretion results in discrimi-
Sense nation. Article 14 is equality of
law and equal protection of laws.
Equality of any kind means no
discrimination. Hence, A14 is in
sync with the question statement.
Elimination Article 28 is related to religion
Trick and Article 44 is related to uni-
form civil code hence, these both
can get eliminated.
Article 32 is one of the most
famous fundamental rights,
which states that individuals has
right to approach Supreme Court
seeking enforcement of other
fundamental rights.
Smartness Fundamental rights are very
crucial for exams. Make sure to
learn all of them.
Q.7) a
Explanation:
Knowledge In India, there is single citi-
zenship, i.e., a person can have
only one citizenship. Also, at a
particular time, a person can have
only one domicile. Any citizen
(Citizen by birth or Naturalised
Citizen) can become the Head of
State, i.e., the President, in India.

Common Third statement is very asser-
Sense tive by nature and assertive
statements are usually incorrect.
There is no point in the statement
that citizenship once granted
cannot be taken away.
Elimination One needs to be very cautious
Trick when the word ONLY is there
in any statement as this word
is usually inserted to make the
statement incorrect. But do not
make it a rule. It is a general
observation that the word ONLY
often makes an option incorrect.
Smartness This question has been asked
from second part of constitution.
Students should prepare other
parts of the constitution for
upcoming exam.
Q.9) b
Q.8) b
Explanation:
Explanation:
Knowledge In Part IV (Directive Principles
of State Policy) of the consti-
tution, Article 39(c) says that,
“the operation of the economic
system does not result in the con-
centration of wealth and means
of production to the common
detriment.”
Common Right to Equality means equal-
Sense ity before law, ruling out any
prejudice on the basis of race,
religion, caste, creed, gender, or
place of birth.
POLITY | 9
Elimination Freedom is not just economic, it
Trick can also be of other kinds. Thus,
not the best option.
Concept of welfare is close to the
answer but it is an applied option
that matches with the main ob-
jective of the constitution.
It is specifically mentioned in
the constitution under DPSPs
that concentration of wealth
can violate different rights and
welfare of citizens. Thus, option
B is the closest and other options
are applications.
Smartness Fundamental rights, DPSP are
the most lovable topics of UPSC.
In between 2019 – 2021 a lot of
questions were asked by UPSC
from these topics.
Knowledge Constitution Amendment
Bill means a bill that seeks to
change parts of the Constitution.
Part XX (Article 368) of the
Indian Constitution lays forth
the method for amending the con-
stitution.
The bill can be filed by either a
minister or a private member and
does not require the president’s
previous approval. This mecha-
nism maintains the Constitution
of India’s integrity and limits the
Parliament of India’s arbitrary
authority.
Common Money bill, bill seeking to
Sense change or alter name, boundaries,
area of state or form a new state
which needs prior approval of
president.
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Elimination You need some sort of knowledge Smartness Fundamental rights should be on
Trick to solve this question. A blind your tips before approaching the
guess might lead you towards exam hall as it is of paramount
negative marking. importance.

You can include option 3 since it

logically makes sense. The provi-
sion on constitutional amendment
bill was made keeping in mind
protection of the constitution
from majority misuse. If joint
sitting and majority was allowed,
lok sabha might over power rajya
sabha in case of an amendment
bill.
Special majority since it is trying
to amend the constitution, which
is a big deal.
Q11.) c
Explanation:
Knowledge Parliamentary sovereignty means
that parliament is superior to the
executive and judicial branches
of government, and can therefore
enact or repeal any law it choos-
es. It is a cornerstone of the UK
constitutional system.

Parliament of India is neither

Smartness In future questions might be sovereign nor supreme. The
asked from the kind of majority authority and jurisdiction of
needed for passing various bills Parliament are limited by the
and when joint sitting can be Powers of the other organs.
called in parliament.

Common In India the constitution of India

Q.10) b
Explanation:
Knowledge According to Article 300A of the
Indian Constitution, “no person
shall be deprived of his property
save by authority of law.”
Common It is the most famous legal right.
Sense You can’t get these type of ques-
tions wrong as 99% of the serious
candidates will be doing it right.
Elimination “Since, the article says that no
Trick person shall be deprived, so the
statement, “legal rights are avail-
able to citizens only”, is incorrect.
Hence, it will get eliminated.
Sense is supreme.
Elimination Not needed as both statements
Trick are correct.
Smartness One should do proper research
on topic of “parliament” as every
year questions from topics like
Lok sabha, Rajya sabha, Parlia-
mentary committees are being
asked in exams.
Polity/ constitution from Lax-
mikanth does not mean merely
mugging up facts. This question
is more conceptual in nature and
needs an understanding of Indian
constitution too.

Option C can also be eliminated.

Right to property was the first right
to be amended from Fundamental
rights. The amendment started in
1950 itself, just 3 years after inde-
pendence.

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Q12.) a
Explanation:
Knowledge The federal character of the
Indian Polity is indicated by
following features: Written
Constitution, Supremacy of the
Constitution, Rigid Constitution,
Division of Powers, Independent
Judiciary, Bicameral Legislature,
Dual Government Polity, etc.
Common Only option (a) is the most valid
Sense feature.
The structure of the government
can be unitary and yet it can have
an elected representative from
constituencies. In fact, Union
parliament has elected repre-
sentatives from constituencies.
But mere existence of elected
representative from constituen-
cies does not guarantee a federal
structure. The Constitution of
India establishes an independent
judiciary headed by the Supreme
Court for two purposes: one,
to protect the supremacy of
the Constitution by exercising
the power of judicial review;
and two, to settle the disputes
between the Centre and the states
or between the states (an essen-
tial characteristic of federalism)
Elimination Option (c) is indicating a pos-
Trick sibility and question is asking
something that is DEFINITE,
hence, it will get eliminated.
Fundamental rights enforceabil-
ity is not a feature of federalism.
Thus, option (d) will also get
eliminated.
Smartness Federal features, unitary features
and basic structure of Indian
constitution are important topics
and every year questions are
asked from these either directly
or indirectly.
POLITY | 11
Q13.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge The Council of Ministers is a
constitutional body. Article 74
of the Constitution provides
that there shall be a Council of
Ministers with the Prime Minis-
ter at the head to aid and advise
the President who shall, in the
exercise of his functions, act in
accordance with such advice.
Common Constitution has given a broad
Sense framework for various bod-
ies like constitutional bodies,
supreme court, high court and
others but it has not done precise
classification like deciding the
level of minister.
Elimination If you go by orthodox elim-
Trick ination trick then you might
eliminate statement 2.Till 2021
UPSC used to play with numbers
and write the incorrect number in
statement. Students had made a
habit of not trusting on numbers
given by UPSC and mark that
statement wrong which ultimate-
ly leads them to correct answer.
This trick failed in 2022 as UPSC
has given right number here.
Ranks of ministers are provided
in general but the constitution
does not talk about it. It does not
NEED to talk about it since it is a
rule that need not be discussed in
the constitution.
Smartness A lot of questions have been
asked in past from the topic of
parliament. Please cover this top-
ic from all dimensions as UPSC
has a habit of asking questions
based on previous year themes.
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Q14.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge The proclamation of National
Emergency must be approved by
both the Houses of Parliament
within one month from the date
of its issue. A proclamation
imposing President’s Rule must
be approved by both the Houses
of Parliament within two months
from the date of its issue. A
proclamation declaring financial
emergency must be approved by
both the Houses of Parliament
within two months from the date
of its issue.
Common Article 75 of the Constitution
Sense says that the council of ministers
shall be collectively responsible
to the Lok Sabha. Hence, it is
very obvious that Lok Sabha
has the power to remove the
ministers from office by passing
a no-confidence motion.
Elimination There is no point on giving
Trick exclusive power to Lok Sabha
and giving no power to Rajya
Sabha for impeachment of pres-
ident. Hence, third statement is
incorrect.
The same logic applies in case
of Option A
Smartness Prepare topic of president well
for upcoming examination like
his powers, appointment criteria,
impeachment. UPSC has asked
so many questions from topic of
president in past.
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Q15.) a
Explanation:
Knowledge In Lok Sabha, the election of
Deputy Speaker is governed by
Rule 8 of The Rules of Proce-
dure and Conduct of Business
in Lok Sabha. According to the
Rule, the election “shall be held
on such date as the Speaker may
fix”, and the Deputy Speaker is
elected once a motion proposing
his name is passed.
The well-established parliamen-
tary practice is that a motion is
moved by the Parliamentary Af-
fairs Minister and duly seconded
by the treasury benches or by
the opposition, which is carried
by the House.
Common “While the office of Speaker is
Sense vacant, the duties of the of-
fice shall be performed by the
Deputy Speaker”. The Deputy
Speaker has the same powers as
the Speaker.
Elimination Mandatory is very assertive
Trick word and in most of the cases
statements having such assertive
words would be incorrect.
Smartness Make sure you cover Lok Sabha
and Rajya Sabha well. It’s all
about knowing Indian parlia-
mentary system well.
Asked in the exam due to
prolonged delay in election of
deputy speaker in 2021. Connect
newspaper articles with static /
syllabus to predict such ques-
tions in advance and ace them.

Q16.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge H. N. Sanyal committee set up
in 1961 made a comprehensive
examination of the law and
problems relating to contempt
of court. The recommendations
of the committee were generally
accepted. Pursuant to the report
of the committee, the Contempt
of Court Act, 1971 was passed
by the parliament.
Common It is a well known fact that su-
Sense preme and high courts to initiate
contempt cases on its own and
parliament has right to make
laws on majority of things.
Contempt of court act was also
passed by parliament only. If
you eliminate both option 1
and 4, you will be left with just
option 3 in the answer. Option
2 is certainly correct, which
means that option 1 and 4 must
be correct. Get it!!!
Elimination Constitution of India is com-
Trick pletely silent on defining
various terms. There is no point
of defining civil and criminal
contempt under constitution.
Hence, we can eliminate state-
ment 3 and we will be left with
only option (a) and (b).
Smartness Recommendation of certain
committees, panels like Kas-
turirangan committee, Kelkar
committee etc are very crucial
for prelims.
POLITY | 13
Q17.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge An Advocate is a person autho-
rized to appear in a litigation on
behalf of a party and who possess
a law degree, enrolled with the
Bar Council in accordance to the
prescriptions laid by the Ad-
vocates Act, 1961. In this case,
law firms are not recognised as
advocates.
Common Functions of Bar Councils include
Sense to promote legal education and
to lay down standards of legal
education.
Elimination Generally, when two statements
Trick are connected with connectors
like ‘and, but’ there is a chance of
flipping of statements. Same has
happened in this question. But
eliminating statement 1 without
any knowledge will really appear
a difficult task in examination
hall.
Smartness Questions based on law and legal
terms have already made debut
in UPSC. It is high time to start
preparing on aspects related to
lndian law.
Q18.) c
Explanation:
Knowledge Mandamus literally means ‘we
command’. It is a command
issued by the court to a public
official asking him to perform the
official duties that he has failed
or refused to perform. It can be
issued against any public body, a
corporation, an inferior court, a
tribunal or government company
for the same purpose.
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Common Sense India is a democratic country
which emphasises on equality
which gives rights to its citizens
like RTI, PIL, claiming of Writs.
This much knowledge is enough
to mark statement 3 correct.
Elimination Even if you know basic meaning
Trick of mandamus then you can elim-
inate statement 2 as it makes no
sense to exclude govt. company
from the ambit of mandamus.
Smartness Get a hold on various types of
writs being issued.
Q19.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge Police Custody means that
police has the physical
custody of the accused while
Judicial Custody means an
accused is in the custody of
the concerned Magistrate.
During Judicial Custody,
the police is not allowed
to interrogate the suspect.
However, the court may
allow the interrogations to
be conducted if it opines in-
terrogation being necessary
under the facts produced
before the court.
Common Sense Jail is also called prison but
after getting punishment
from court. Lock-up is there
in police station to keep a
suspect or a person named in
cognizable offence.
Elimination Word “NOT” is used here in
Trick both the statements. Hence,
you need to be cautious
while solving this question if
you don’t know the correct
explanation.
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Smartness When examination was held
in 2021, Aryan Khan drug’s
case was in news and he was
in jail. The examiner must
have derived inspiration to
frame this question from that
case. Therefore, it is im-
portant to study the root of
current affairs.
Q20.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge Parole is a system of releas-
ing a prisoner with suspen-
sion of the sentence. The
release is conditional, usual-
ly subject to behaviour, and
requires periodic reporting to
the authorities.
Common Sense As police is the state subject
a student can guess that state
governments must have the
right to frame parole rules.
Elimination First statement is not logical
Trick at all. There is no point in
the fact the prisoner can’t
be denied to get parole. This
statement can get easily
eliminated.
Smartness It has been observed that
UPSC has started asking
questions on law related
concepts. Hence, it is the
time that students should
start finding out the meaning
of legal terms that are coined
in news.

Q21.) a
Explanation:
Knowledge Article 128: Chief Justice of
India may at any time, with the
previous consent of the presi-
dent, request any person who has
held the office of a Judge of the
Supreme Court or of the Federal
Court or who has held the office
of a Judge of a High Court and
is duly qualified for appointment
as a Judge of the Supreme Court
to sit and act as a Judge of the
Supreme Court.
Common There are some exclusive pow-
Sense ers given to Supreme Court.
Elimination Knowledge is needed to solve
Trick this question. Elimination trick
won’t work here.
Smartness Topics related to Supreme Court,
High Court and judiciary get
repeated in UPSC.
Q22.) d
Explanation:
Knowledge Separation of power (executive,
legislature and judiciary) checks
the abuse of power by other
organs. So, this helps in check-
ing the authoritarian tendencies.
This is the best safeguard to
safeguard liberty.
Common Committed judiciary i.e., a judi-
Sense ciary committed to the policies
of the government. Such judi-
ciary will never go against the
governments policies. Therefore,
will not be able to protect the
liberty.
POLITY | 15
Elimination Centralization of power can’t
Trick be said as the best safeguard of
liberty as it leads to authoritari-
anism. Hence, we can eliminate
this statement.
Smartness The terms mentioned in pre-
amble are the guiding light for
examiners to make questions.
Make sure that you know mean-
ing of each term mentioned in
preamble of constitution.
Q23.) a
Explanation:
Knowledge The Fifth Schedule of the Con-
stitution deals with the adminis-
tration and control of Scheduled
Areas as well as of Scheduled
Tribes residing in any State other
than the States of Assam, Me-
ghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
If a particular area is brought
under the Fifth Schedule, it
means that all land in Scheduled
Area is presumed to have been
Adivasi land; hence, not only
should no land now pass into
the hands of non-Adivasis, but
any land presently owned by
non-tribal should, if being trans-
ferred, come back to the hands
of Scheduled Tribes.
Common The Indian Constitution pro-
Sense vides autonomy to tribal areas in
matters of governance under the
Fifth and Sixth Schedules.
Elimination If you have basic knowledge
Trick and can apply common-sense in
exam hall then you can easily
eliminate options (b), (c), and
(d).
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Smartness This question seeks to test the
fundamental knowledge. So,
make your basics of polity
strong.
Q24.) d
Explanation:
Knowledge Article 76 of the constitution
provides for the office of At-
torney General of India and he
is the highest law officer in the
country. The Solicitor General
of India assists Attorney General
to fulfil his official duties and
responsibilities. In the perfor-
mance of his official duties, the
Attorney General (AG) has the
right of audience in all courts in
the territory of India.
Common Conventionally, attorney general
Sense resigns when the government
(council of ministers) resigns or
is replaced, as he is appointed on
its advice.
Elimination Statement 1 is partially correct
Trick but addition of word solicitor
general has made it incorrect.
So, please be very-very attentive
and calm while reading question
because if you are in hurry then
you might mark it wrong.
Smartness A good weightage has been giv-
en to constitutional bodies while
framing questions. You should
be on your toes while preparing
these.
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Q25.) d
Explanation:
Knowledge Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the
nodal agency at the national lev-
el to ensure effective implemen-
tation of the Scheduled Tribes
and Other Traditional Forest
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
Rights) Act, 2006.
Common The question is related to
Sense schedule tribes and it is the
tribal affairs ministry which is
responsible for implementation
of programs related to scheduled
tribes.
Elimination All other ministries are not relat-
Trick ed to scheduled tribes. Hence,
they can get eliminated.
Smartness Even if you don’t know the
correct answer still you can get
to the answer if there is some
clearly visible linkage between
question and answer.
Q26.) b
Explanation:
Knowledge As per the Anti-defection Law,
a nominated member of a House
becomes disqualified for being
a member of the House if he
joins any political party after
the expiry of six months from
the date on which he takes his
seat in the House. Thus, she/he
can join a political party before
the expiration of 6 months after
becoming a member.
Common It is the call of presiding officer
Sense when to take a decision in an
anti defection case.

Elimination Use of word CANNOT has
Trick made the statement 1 very
complicated. On first reading it
might confuse you. It is advised
to read the question twice before
jumping to the answer.
Smartness Anti defection remains in news
most of the time. You should not
get surprised if you encounter
this topic again in examination.
Q27.) a
Explanation:
Knowledge Under Collection of Statistics
Act, 2008 -Coal Controller’s
Organization (CCO) has been
made the statistical authority
with respect to coal and lignite
statistics. Entrusted the respon-
sibility of carrying out Annual
Coal & Lignite survey and
publishing of Provisional Coal
Statistics and Coal Directory of
India. It also monitors progress
of development of Captive Coal/
Lignite blocks.
Common Statement 1 has to be definitely
Sense true. You will get this vibe just
after the first read. It is quite
evident that if CCO is especial-
ly formed for coal sector then
definitely it will keep statistics
of coal.
Once you realise statement 1
is right you will automatically
figure out that statement 2 is also
right even if you have no idea
about statement 2 because all the
options which has statement 1
has statement 2 also.
POLITY | 17
Elimination After realising statement 1 and
Trick 2 are correct. You will observe
through options that either 3rd
and 4th statements both are incor-
rect or one is correct.
Statement 4 is quite unobvious.
Hence, it can be eliminated.
Smartness Recently, government inaugu-
rated an extended office of Coal
Controller’s Organization, a sub-
ordinate office under the Minis-
try of Coal. You should keep an
eye on all recent developments
by government of India.
Q28.) d
Explanation:
Knowledge The Tea Board is a statutory
body set up under section 4 of
the Tea Act, 1953 was constituted
on 1st April 1954.
The present Tea Board is func-
tioning as a statutory body of the
Central Government under the
Ministry of Commerce. The head
office of the Tea board is in Kol-
kata. Currently, the Tea Board
has two overseas offices located
at Dubai and Moscow.
Common Only one statement can be true
Sense between statement 1 and 2 as
both are contradictory.
Elimination Some knowledge is needed to
Trick solve this question otherwise
there is chance of negative
marking.
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Smartness This question has inspiration

from recent amendment in Tea
Act. So, keep all the develop-
ments related to amendments
handy.

Q29.) b
Explanation:

Knowledge In 1949, the Gopalaswami

Ayyangar Committee while
recommending restructuring of
the Central Secretariat, suggest-
ed that a Department should
be identified with a Secretary’s
charge and a Ministry should
be identified with a Minister’s
charge. It makes no mention of
a minister and a secretary to be
solely responsible for pursuing
the subject of administrative
reform and promoting it.

Common Department of Personnel was

Sense constituted on the recommen-
dation of the Administrative
Reforms Commission.

Elimination Not applicable

Trick

Smartness Read out the recommendation of

major committees and commis-
sions like Punchhi commission,
Sarkaria Commision.

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