INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION PLAN

FOR UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2023

INSTATEST:
INSTA TEST:DAY
DAY--24
2
Subject:
SubjectEconomy
: polity

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 GENERAL STUDIES QUIZ
1. Consider the following statements regarding rect?
Liberty (a) Only one statement is correct
1. Positive liberty is the absence of obstacles, bar- (b) Only two statement is correct
riers or constraints. (c) Only three statements are correct
2. While negative liberty is usually attributed to (d) All statements are correct
individual agents, positive liberty is some-
times attributed to collectivities, or to indi-
viduals considered primarily as members of 4. Consider the following statements regarding
given collectivities. Protection of Minorities in India
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- 1. The scope of article 29 is restricted to minori-
rect? ties only.
(a) 1 only 2. Article 29 grants protection to both religious
(b) 2 only minorities as well as linguistic minorities.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Political speeches or promises made for the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 conservation of the language of a section
of the citizens, amounts to corrupt practice
under the Representation of the People Act,
2. Consider the following statements regarding 1951.
Fundamental rights and legal rights Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
1. Fundamental rights are the safeguards that a rect?
human being seeks in order to live in dignity (a) None of the statement are correct
and equality. (b) Only one statement is correct
2. Legal rights apply to a collection of rights for- (c) Only two statements are correct
mulated within a government’s legal struc- (d) All three statements are correct
ture.
3. If violated, Legal rights will be dealt with by the
ordinary courts. 5. Consider the following statements regarding
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- reorganization of states
rect? 1. Article 2 grants power to the Parliament to es-
(a) 1 only tablish new states.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. Article 3 deals with the internal re-adjustment
(c) 1 and 3 only inter se of the territories of the constituent
(d) 1, 2 and 3 states of the Union of India.
3. Constitution declares that the laws made un-
der Article 2 and Articles 3 are considered as
3. Which of the following Directive Principles amendments of the Constitution under Arti-
was/were not present in the original constitu- cle 368.
tion? Which of the statements given above are cor-
1. To secure opportunities for healthy develop- rect?
ment of children (Article 39). (a) 1 and 2 only
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free (b) 2 and 3 only
legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A). (c) 1 and 3 only
3. To take steps to secure the participation of (d) 1, 2 and 3
workers in the management of industries (Ar-
ticle 43 A).
4. State to minimize inequalities in income, sta- 6. Consider the following statements regarding
tus, facilities and opportunities (Article 38). amendment of the Indian Constitution
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- 1. The constitutional amendment bill can be in-

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 troduced only by a minister and does not re- rect?
quire prior permission of the president. (a) 1 only
2. Each House must pass the bill separately. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions (c) 3 only
of the Constitution, it must be ratified by the (d) 2 and 3 only
legislatures of half of the states by a special
majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
rect? 9. President of India is vested with which of the
(a) None of the statement are correct following veto power?
(b) Only one statement is correct 1. Absolute veto
(c) Only two statements are correct 2. Qualified veto
(d) All three statements are correct 3. Suspensive veto
4. Pocket veto
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
7. Consider the following statements regarding (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
suspension of fundamental rights during emer- (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
gency (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. Article 358 extends to all those Fundamental (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Rights whose enforcement is suspended by
the Presidential Order.
2. Article 358 automatically suspends the funda- 10. Consider the following statements regarding
mental rights under Article19 as soon as the Prime minister
emergency is declared. 1. Article 75 contain specific procedure for the
3. Article 358 operates only when the emergency selection and appointment of the Prime Min-
is declared on the grounds of war or external ister.
aggression. 2. The tenure of the Prime Minister is 5 years and
Which of the statements given above are cor- holds office during the pleasure of the presi-
rect? dent.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
(b) 1 and 2 only rect?
(c) 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Consider the following statements regarding

election of President of India 11. Consider the following statements regarding
1. The authority to conduct elections to the Of- council of ministers
fice of President is vested in the Election Com- 1. The council of ministers shall be collectively re-
mission of India. sponsible to the Lok Sabha.
2. The election of the President shall be held in 2. It shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to
accordance with the system of proportional communicate to the President all decisions of
representation by means of single transfer- the Council of Ministers relating to the admin-
able vote. istration of the affairs of the Union and pro-
3. The candidate holding the office of Vice-Presi- posals for legislation.
dent or Governor of any State or Ministers of Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
the Union or any State, shall not be eligible to rect?
contest election. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are cor- (b) 2 only

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 (c) Both 1 and 2 rect?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Consider the following statements regarding
Cabinet Committees
1. They are extra-constitutional in emergence
and they are neither mentioned in the Consti- 15. Consider the following statements regarding
tution nor in the Rules of Business. Speaker
2. They are set up by the Prime Minister accord- 1. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the
ing to the exigencies of the time and require- Speaker does not vacate his office and contin-
ments of the situation. ues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets.
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- 2. Speaker resigns by writing to the President.
rect? Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
(a) 1 only rect?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A

13. Consider the following statements regarding

duration of parliament
16. It is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil
1. Representation of the People Act (1951) pro-
Nadu state spread over 688.59 sq.km. at the
vided that the term of office of a member of
the Rajya Sabha shall be six years. tri-junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Ker-
ala and Tamil Nadu and it plays an unique role
2. The normal term of Lok Sabha is five years
by forming part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve,
from the date of its first meeting after the
the first Biosphere Reserve in India, declared
general elections, after which it automatically
dissolves. during 1986. It has a common boundary with two
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- protected area. Which is the protected area?
rect? (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(a) 1 only (b) Mudumalai Tiger Reserve
(b) 2 only (c) Wyanad Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Bandipur Tiger Reserve
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Consider the following statements regarding

14. Consider the following statements regard- ASHA or Accredited Social Health Activist
ing the provisions of qualifications in the Rep- 1. ASHA must primarily be a woman resident of
resentation of People Act? the village married/ widowed/ divorced, pref-
1. The candidate for Lok Sabha must be regis- erably in the age group of 25 to 45 years.
tered as an elector for a parliamentary con- 2. ASHAs will receive performance-based incen-
stituency, whereas, there is no such provision tives for promoting universal immunization,
for Rajya Sabha. referral and escort services for Reproductive
2. Member of scheduled castes or scheduled & Child Health (RCH) and other healthcare
tribes cannot contest a seat not reserved for programmes.
them. 3. ASHA will counsel women on birth prepared-
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- ness, importance of safe delivery, breast-feed-

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 ing and complementary feeding, immuni- (c) Both 1 and 2
zation, contraception and prevention of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
common infections.
Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
rect?
(a) 1 only 21. ‘Towards 1000’ strategy, sometimes seen in
(b) 2 and 3 only news, is associated with
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) BRICS
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) G-20
(c) World Bank
(d) International Solar Alliance (ISA)
18. Consider the following statements regarding
poverty line in India
1. Poverty line is determined based on the per 22. Consider the following statement regarding
capita consumption expenditure obtained the National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID):
from the large sample survey of consumer ex- 1. It was set up after Indian Parliament attack of
penditure data of the National Sample Survey 2001.
Office (NSSO). 2. It has access to the Crime and Criminal Track-
2. At present, Uniform Resource Period (URP) ing Network and Systems (CCTNS) database
method of data collection is used NSSO Ex- 3. It is exempted from the Right to Information
penditure Survey. Act, 2005 including for alleged human rights
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- violation and corruption.
rect? Which of the statements given above is/are cor-
(a) 1 only rect?
(b) 2 only (a) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None

19. Wangala Festival is a popular festival in the

state of 23. Which of the following types of crimes are
(a) Meghalaya dealt by Interpol?
(b) Assam 1. Terrorism
(c) Manipur 2. Cybercrime
(d) Tripura 3. Organised and emerging crimes
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
20. Consider the following statements regarding (b) 2 and 3 only
National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commis- (c) 1 and 3 only
sion (NCDRC) (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It is a quasi-judicial commission in India which
was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Pro-
tection Act of 1986. 24. Logistics Performance Index (LPI), recently
2. The commission is headed by Minister In- seen in news, has been launched by:
charge of the Department of Consumer Af- (a) World Bank
fairs. (b) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Which of the statements given above is/are cor- (c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
rect? (d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

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25. Consider the following pairs:
Revolutionary Freedom movement Location
1. Chuar Rebellion Rajasthan
2. Rampa Rebellion West Bengal
3. Kuka Namdhari Movement Punjab
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None

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 CSAT QUIZ
Passage 1 resolve many of the problems Indians face
Our ancestors faced the Indian summer, maybe a cou-
ple of degrees cooler, but nevertheless a notoriously
hot season. How then did they manage to survive with- 3) The average price of 3 mobiles is Rs.5000,
out air conditioning becoming a necessity? Yes, pop- where the average price of the two costliest mo-
ulation was lesser, there was much less construction biles double the price of the cheapest mobile.
and more trees. But there is one important aspect that The price of the cheapest mobile is:
by construction reduced the temperatures of homes —
the architecture. Everywhere in the country, the design Rs.3000
of the homes was built according to the climate of that Rs.5000
region. Old houses, particularly in hot regions of India Rs.1666
like Rajasthan’s havelis or the Chettinad region of Tamil Can’t be determined
Nadu, would have a central courtyard or aangan and
the rooms would be built around it. A front door and a
backdoor, allowed cross currents of air to flow through
the courtyard. This was pretty much the pattern of hous- 4) The average of all the prime and composite
es in the subcontinent and was also congruous with numbers up to 100 is:
the joint family system. The courtyard was a fulcrum
where members of the joint family gathered for impor- a). 5
tant conversations or for celebratory rituals, while the b). 49.50
rooms provided each sub family some extent of privacy. c). 50
d). 50.50
What happened to that kind of houses? The popula-
tion explosion constricted residence space in urban ar-
eas to create the 20th century residential form that we 5) The average age of 100 employees of a firm in
all are condemned to — the apartment 1982 was 50 years. In 1984, 20 employees retired
from their job, whose average age was 60 years.
1). Consider the following statement: In 1987, 40 employees were employed whose av-
1. Apartments are ill suited to India’s climatic erage age was 38 years. The average age of all
conditions the employees in 1990 was:
2. Indigenous architecture is in line with indige-
a). 53 years
nous demands
b). 51 years
Which of the following is/are assumption(s)
c). 48.5 years
made in the above passage?
d). Data Insufficient
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

2) . Which of the following is the most logical cor-

ollary to the above passage?
a) Indians should stop living in Apartments
b) To deal with extreme heat in India, it is prudent
to take lessons from our architectural history
c) Apartments have given rise to the nuclear fam-
ily structure in India
d) Population in India needs to be controlled to

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 DAY -24

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www.insightsonindia.com 9
 GENERAL STUDIES QUIZ SOLUTIONS
1. Solution: B 3. Solution: D
Negative liberty is the absence of obstacles, barriers The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Di-
or constraints. One has negative liberty to the ex- rective Principles to the original list. They require the
tent that actions are available to one in this negative State:
sense. Positive liberty is the possibility of acting — or 1. To secure opportunities for healthy development
the fact of acting — in such a way as to take control of children (Article 39).
of one’s life and realize one’s fundamental purposes. 2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal
While negative liberty is usually attributed to individ- aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
ual agents, positive liberty is sometimes attributed to 3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers
collectivities, or to individuals considered primarily in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
as members of given collectivities. 4. To protect and improve the environment and to
The idea of distinguishing between a negative and a safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
positive sense of the term ‘liberty’ goes back at least
to Kant, and was examined and defended in depth by
Isaiah Berlin in the 1950s and ’60s. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Di-
rective Principle, which requires the State to minimise
inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportu-
nities (Article 38).
2. Solution: B
The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the sub-
Fundamental rights are the rights of a country’s citi- ject-matter of Article 45 and made elementary ed-
zens that are stated in the constitution and enforced ucation a fundamental right under Article 21 A. The
by the law. Human rights, on the other hand, are amended directive requires the State to provide early
the safeguards that a human being seeks in order to childhood care and education for all children until they
live in dignity and equality. Legal rights, on the other complete the age of six years.
hand, are the government’s protections for residents
of a particular state. Fundamental rights only include The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Di-
certain rights that are fundamental to a normal exist- rective Principle relating to cooperative societies. It
ence. Human rights, on the opposite, include certain requires the state to promote voluntary formation, au-
rights that are fundamental to real life and that are un- tonomous functioning, democratic control and profes-
conditional, i.e. that can not be excluded. Legal rights, sional management of co-operative societies (Article
on the other hand, are neither fundamental to a nor- 43B).
mal life nor to absolute life.

Legal rights apply to a collection of rights formulated 4. Solution: B

within a government’s legal structure. They are grant-
ed to the people of that specific state as privileges.
• If violated, these rights will be dealt with by
either of the ordinary courts that contradict
the other two rights.
In general, an ordinary right imposes a corresponding
obligation on another person (and, in some circum-
stances, the state), but a constitutional right is a right
that a citizen has against the state. Fundamental rights
are protected by the executive, legislature, and judici-
ary from invasion. Limitations upon all the governmen-
tal authorities are related to all human rights.
Protection of Interests of Minorities
Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens re-
siding in any part of India having a distinct language,
script or culture of its own, shall have the right to con-
serve the same. Further, no citizen shall be denied ad-
mission into any educational institution maintained by
the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds
only of religion, race, caste, or language.
The first provision protects the right of a group while
the second provision guarantees the right of a citizen

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as an individual irrespective of the community to which
he belongs. Article 29 grants protection to both reli-
gious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. How-
ever, the Supreme Court held that the scope of this
article is not necessarily restricted to minorities only,
as it is commonly assumed to be. This is because of
the use of words ‘section of citizens’ in the Article that
include minorities as well as majority.
The Supreme Court also held that the right to conserve
the language includes the right to agitate for the pro-
tection of the language. Hence, the political speeches
or promises made for the conservation of the lan-
guage of a section of the citizens does not amount
to corrupt practice under the Representation of the
People Act, 1951.
5. Solution: A
Article 2 empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the
Union of India, or establish, new states on such terms
and conditions as it thinks fit’. Thus, Article 2 grants
two powers to the Parliament: (a) the power to ad-
mit into the Union of India new states; and (b) the
power to establish new states. The first refers to the
admission of states which are already in existence,
while the second refers to the establishment of states
which were not in existence before.
Notably, Article 2 relates to the admission or establish-
ment of new states that are not part of the Union of
India. Article 3, on the other hand, relates to the for-
mation of or changes in the existing states of the Union
of India. In other words, Article 3 deals with the in-
ternal re-adjustment inter se of the territories of the
constituent states of the Union of India.
Moreover, the Constitution (Article 4) itself declares
that laws made for admission or establishment of 7) Solution: D
new states (under Article 2) and formation of new
states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names Distinction Between Articles 358 and 359
of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be con- The differences between Articles 358 and 359 can be
sidered as amendments of the Constitution under Ar- summarized as follows:
ticle 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a
simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process.
6. Solution: B
The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution
as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:
1. An amendment of the Constitution can be ini-
tiated only by the introduction of a bill for the
purpose in either House of Parliament and
not in the state legislatures.
2. The bill can be introduced either by a min-
ister or by a private member and does not
require prior permission of the president.
3. The bill must be passed in each House by a
special majority, that is, a majority of the total
membership of the House and a majority of
two-thirds of the members of the House pres-
ent and voting.
4. Each House must pass the bill separately.
In case of a disagreement between the two
Houses, there is no provision for holding a
joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose
of deliberation and passage of the bill.
5. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provi-
sions of the Constitution, it must also be rat-
ified by the legislatures of half of the states
by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the
members of the House present and voting.
6. After duly passed by both the Houses of Par-
liament and ratified by the state legislatures,
where necessary, the bill is presented to the
president for assent.
7. The president must give his assent to the bill.
He can neither withhold his assent to the bill
nor return the bill for reconsideration of the
Parliament.
8. After the president’s assent, the bill becomes
an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act)
and the Constitution stands amended in ac-
cordance with the terms of the Act.
1. Article 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights
under Article 19 only whereas Article 359 ex-
tends to all those Fundamental Rights whose
enforcement is suspended by the Presidential
Order.
2. Article 358 automatically suspends the funda-
mental rights under Article 19 as soon as the
emergency is declared. On the other hand,
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 Article 359 does not automatically suspend
any Fundamental Right. It only empowers the
president to suspend the enforcement of the
specified Fundamental Rights.
3. Article 358 operates only in case of External
Emergency (that is, when the emergency is
declared on the grounds of war or external
aggression) and not in the case of Internal
Emergency (i.e., when the Emergency is de-
clared on the ground of armed rebellion). Ar-
ticle 359, on the other hand, operates in case
of both External Emergency as well as Internal
Emergency.
4. Article 358 suspends Fundamental Rights
under Article 19 for the entire duration of
Emergency while Article 359 suspends the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights for a pe-
riod specified by the president which may ei-
ther be the entire duration of Emergency or a
shorter period.
5. Article 358 extends to the entire country
whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire
country or a part of it.
6. Article 358 suspends Article 19 completely
while Article 359 does not empower the sus-
pension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and
21.
7. Article 358 enables the State to make any law
or take any executive action inconsistent with
Fundamental Rights under Article 19 while Ar-
ticle 359 enables the State to make any law
or take any executive action inconsistent with
those Fundamental Rights whose enforce-
ment is suspended by the Presidential Order.
8. Solution: B
Under the Constitution of India, there shall always be
a President of India (Article 52 of the Constitution). He
holds the highest elective office in the country and is
elected in accordance with the provisions of the Con-
stitution and the Presidential and vice-Presidential
Elections Act, 1952. The said Act is supplemented by
the provisions of the Presidential and Vice-Presiden-
tial Elections Rules, 1974, and the said Act under Rules
form a complete Code regulating all aspects of conduct
of elections to the Office of the President.
Who conducts the election to the Office of President
12 www.insightsonindia.com
of India?
Answer: Under Article 324 of the Constitution of In-
dia, the authority to conduct elections to the Office
of President is vested in the Election Commission of
India.
What electoral system/process is followed for the
election to the office of the President?
Answer: As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of
India, the election of the President shall be held in
accordance with the system of proportional rep-
resentation by means of single transferable vote and
the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot.
What are the Qualifications required by a candidate
to contest the election to the Office of the President
of India?
Answer: Under Article 58, a candidate should ful-
fill the following eligibility conditions to con-
test the election to the Office of President: -
1.   Must be a citizen of India,
2.   Must have completed 35 years of age,
3.   Must be eligible to be a member of the
Lok Sabha,
4.   Should not be holding any office of
profit under the Government of India or
the Government of any State or under
any local or other authority subject to the
control of any of the said Governments.
However, the candidate may be holding the
office of President or Vice-President or Gov-
ernor of any State or Ministers of the Union
or any State and shall be eligible to contest
election.
9. Solution: D
The veto power enjoyed by the executive in modern
states can be classified into the following four types:
1. Absolute veto, that is, withholding of assent to the
bill passed by the legislature.
2. Qualified veto, which can be overridden by the legis-
lature with a higher majority.
3. Suspensive veto, which can be overridden by the leg-
islature with an ordinary majority.
4. Pocket veto, that is, taking no action on the bill
passed by the legislature.
Of the above four, the President of India is vested
with three– absolute veto, suspensive veto and pock-
et veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian
President; it is possessed by the American President.

10. Solution: D
The Constitution does not contain any specific proce-
dure for the selection and appointment of the Prime
Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister
shall be appointed by the president. However, this
does not imply that the president is free to appoint any
one as the Prime Minister.
The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he
holds office during the pleasure of the president.
However, this does not mean that the president can
dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the
Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok
Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President. How-
ever, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he
must resign or the President can dismiss him.
11. Solution: C
Article 75–Other Provisions as to Ministers
1. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the
President and the other Ministers shall be ap-
pointed by the President on the advice of the
Prime Minister.
2. The total number of ministers, including the
Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers
shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of
the Lok Sabha. This provision was added by
the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.
3. A member of either house of Parliament be-
longing to any political party who is disquali-
fied on the ground of defection shall also be
disqualified to be appointed as a minister. This
provision was also added by the 91st Amend-
ment Act of 2003.
4. The ministers shall hold office during the plea-
sure of the President.
5. The council of ministers shall be collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha.
6. The President shall administer the oaths of of-
fice and secrecy to a minister.
7. A minister who is not a member of the Parlia-
ment (either house) for any period of six con-
secutive months shall cease to be a minister.
8. The salaries and allowances of ministers shall
be determined by the Parliament.
Article 78–Duties of Prime Minister
It shall be the duty of the Prime Minister
1. To communicate to the President all deci-
sions of the Council of Ministers relating to
the administration of the affairs of the Union
and proposals for legislation
2. To furnish such information relating to the ad-
ministration of the affairs of the Union and
proposals for legislation as the President may
call for
3. If the President so requires, to submit for the
consideration of the Council of Ministers any
matter on which a decision has been taken by
a Minister but which has not been considered
by the Council
12. Solution: B
The following are the features of Cabinet Committees:
1. They are extra-constitutional in emergence. In oth-
er words, they are not mentioned in the Constitu-
tion. However, the Rules of Business provide for their
establishment.
2. They are of two types–standing and ad hoc. The for-
mer are of a permanent nature while the latter are of a
temporary nature. The ad hoc committees are consti-
tuted from time to time to deal with special problems.
They are disbanded after their task is completed.
3. They are set up by the Prime Minister according to
the exigencies of the time and requirements of the
situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and
composition varies from time to time.
4. Their membership varies from three to eight. They
usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the
non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their
membership.
13. Solution: C
The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of
members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parlia-
ment. Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representa-
tion of the People Act (1951) provided that the term
of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six
years.
Duration of Lok Sabha
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Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha is not a contin-
uing chamber. Its normal term is five years from the
date of its first meeting after the general elections,
after which it automatically dissolves.
14. Solution: D
The Parliament has laid down the following addition-
al qualifications in the Representation of People Act
(1951).
1. He must be registered as an elector for a parlia-
mentary constituency. This is same in the case of both,
the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. The requirement
that a candidate contesting an election to the Rajya
Sabha from a particular state should be an elector in
that particular state was dispensed with in 2003. In
2006, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional va-
lidity of this change.
2. He must be a member of a scheduled caste or sched-
uled tribe in any state or union territory, if he wants to
contest a seat reserved for them. However, a member
of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also con-
test a seat not reserved for them.
15. Solution: A
The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst
its members (as soon as may be, after its first sitting).
Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the
Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy.
The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the Pres-
ident.
Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life
of the Lok Sabha. However, he has to vacate his office
earlier in any of the following three cases:
1. if he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha;
2. if he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speak-
er; and
3. if he is removed by a resolution passed by
a majority of all then members of the Lok
Sabha. Such a resolution can be moved only
after giving 14 days’ advance notice.
When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is
under consideration of the House, he cannot preside
at the sitting of the House, though he may be present.
However, he can speak and take part in the proceed-
ings of the House at such a time and vote in the first
14 www.insightsonindia.com
instance, though not in the case of an equality of votes.
It should be noted here that, whenever the Lok Sab-
ha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his of-
fice and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha
meets.
16. Solution: B
Mudumalai Tiger Reserve is located in the Nilgiris Dis-
trict of Tamil Nadu state spread over 688.59 sq.km. at
the tri-junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala
and Tamil Nadu and it plays an unique role by form-
ing part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, the first Bio-
sphere Reserve in India, declared during 1986. It has
a common boundary with Wyanad Wildlife Sanctuary
(Kerala) on the West, Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karna-
taka) on the North, and the Nilgiris North Division on
the South and East and Gudalur Forest Division on the
South West, together forming a large conservation
landscape for flagship species such as Tiger and Asian
Elephant. Reception Centre is located at Theppakadu.
The name Mudumalai means ” the ancient hill range”.
Indeed, it is as old as 65 million years when Western
Ghats were formed.
17. Solution: D
One of the key components of the National Rural
Health Mission is to provide every village in the country
with a trained female community health activist ASHA
or Accredited Social Health Activist. Selected from the
village itself and accountable to it, the ASHA will be
trained to work as an interface between the communi-
ty and the public health system. Following are the key
components of ASHA:
• ASHA must primarily be a woman resident of
the village married/ widowed/ divorced, pref-
erably in the age group of 25 to 45 years.
• She should be a literate woman with due pref-
erence in selection to those who are qualified
up to 10 standard wherever they are interested
and available in good numbers. This may be re-
laxed only if no suitable person with this quali-
fication is available.
• ASHA will be chosen through a rigorous pro-
cess of selection involving various community
groups, self-help groups, Anganwadi Institu-
tions, the Block Nodal officer, District Nodal
officer, the village Health Committee and the
 Gram Sabha.
• Capacity building of ASHA is being seen as a
continuous process. ASHA will have to under-
go series of training episodes to acquire the
necessary knowledge, skills and confidence for
performing her spelled out roles.
• The ASHAs will receive performance-based
incentives for promoting universal immuni-
zation, referral and escort services for Re-
productive & Child Health (RCH) and other
healthcare programmes, and construction of
household toilets.
• Empowered with knowledge and a drug-kit to
deliver first-contact healthcare, every ASHA is
expected to be a fountainhead of community
participation in public health programmes in
her village.
• ASHA will provide information to the communi-
ty on determinants of health such as nutrition,
basic sanitation & hygienic practices, healthy
living and working conditions, information on
existing health services and the need for timely
utilisation of health & family welfare services.
• She will counsel women on birth pre-
paredness, importance of safe delivery,
breast-feeding and complementary feeding,
immunization, contraception and prevention
of common infections including Reproductive
Tract Infection/Sexually Transmitted Infections
(RTIs/STIs) and care of the young child.
and its distribution across households is pro-
vided by the NSS consumption expenditure
surveys;
• These expenditures by households are evaluat-
ed with reference to a given poverty line.
Data Collection Method for NSSO Expenditure Survey
§ Uniform Resource Period (URP): Till 1993-94, the
poverty line was based on URP data, which involved
asking people about their consumption expenditure
across a 30-day recall period, i.e, information was
based on the recall of consumption expenditure in the
previous 30 days.
§ Mixed Reference Period (MRP): From 1999-2000
onwards, the NSSO switched to an MRP method
which measures consumption of five low-frequency
items (clothing, footwear, durables, education and
institutional health expenditure) over the previous
year, and all other items over the previous 30 days.
19. Solution: A
Know the Wangala Festival
Wangala Festival of Meghalaya is a most popular fes-
tival among the Garos of Meghalaya, India. Wangala
Festival is a harvest festival held in honour of Saljong,
the Sun-god of fertility. The celebration of the Wan-
gala Festival marks the end of a period of toil, which
brings good output of the fields. It also signifies the
onset of winter.

The Ritual in the Wangala Festival

18. Solution: A Also known as a 100 drums festival, Wangala Festival is
the occasion when the tribals offer sacrifices to please
The poverty ratio in India has been measured from their main deity Saljong - the Sun God. It is generally
an exogenously determined poverty line quantified celebrated for two days and sometimes continues for
in terms of per capita consumption expenditure even a week. The ceremony performed on first day is
over a month and the class distribution of persons known as “Ragula” is performed inside the house of
obtained from the large sample survey of consumer the chief. On the second day is known as “Kakkat”. Peo-
expenditure data of the National Sample Survey Of- ple young and old dressed in their colourful costumes
fice (NSSO). Households with consumption expendi- with feathered headgears dance to the tune of music
tures below the poverty line are said to be “Below the played on long oval-shaped drums. This is the occasion
Poverty Line (BPL)” and deemed poor. Consumption is to relax and for days the hills and valleys echoes with
measured in terms of a collection of goods and servic- the extraordinary beat of drums. The popular dance
es known as reference Poverty Line Baskets (PLB). forms are performed during the festival, itself has cer-
tain subtle variations, the main motif being a queue
Thus, estimation of poverty in India has been based on of two parallel lines - one of men and other of women
two critical components: clad in their festive fineries. Young and old join the fes-
tivities with equal enthusiasm. While the men beat the
• Information on the consumption expenditures drums, the line moves forward in rhythmic accord. The

www.insightsonindia.com 15
‘orchestra’ of men includes drums, gong and flutes, solutions and resulting in installation of 1,000 GW of
punctuated by the sonorous music of an primitive flute solar energy capacity. This would help mitigate glob-
made of buffalo horn. There is a notable sense of tem- al solar emissions to the tune of 1,000 million tonnes
po in the performers, young and old, and the energetic of CO2 every year.
dance leaves a lasting impression upon the beholder. For meeting these goals, the ISA takes a programmatic
Basically, the Wangala Festival is a way to preserve and approach. Currently, the ISA has 9 comprehensive pro-
promote the cultural identity of Garos in Meghalaya. grammes, each focusing on a distinct application that
This is one way to exhibit the culture and tradition of could help scale deployment of solar energy solutions.
the region. Activities under the programmes focuses on 4 prior-
ity areas – Analytics & Advocacy, Capacity Building,
Programmatic Support, and readiness and enabling
activities, that help create a favourable environment
20. Solution: A for solar energy investments to take root in the coun-
try.
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (In short, ‘The
Act’) is a benevolent social legislation that lays down
the rights of the consumers and provides there for pro- 22. Solution: A
motion and protection of the rights of the consumers.
The first and the only Act of its kind in India, it has ena- About NATGRID:
bled ordinary consumers to secure less expensive and 1. It is an ambitious counter terrorism pro-
often speedy redressal of their grievances. gramme.
2. It will utilise technologies like Big Data and
The Act mandates establishment of Consumer Pro- analytics to study and analyse the huge
tection Councils at the Centre as well as in each State amounts of data from various intelligence and
and District, with a view to promoting consumer enforcement agencies to help track suspected
awareness. The Central Council is headed by Minister terrorists and prevent terrorist attacks.
In-charge of the Department of Consumer Affairs in 3. It will connect, in different phases, data pro-
the Central Government and the State Councils by the viding organisations and users besides devel-
Minister In-charge of the Consumer Affairs. oping a legal structure through which informa-
tion can be accessed by the law enforcement
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commis- agencies.
sion (NCDRC), India is a quasi-judicial commission in 4. NATGRID is a post Mumbai 26/11 attack meas-
India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer ure.
Protection Act of 1986. Its head office is in New Del-
hi. The commission is headed by a sitting or retired Who can access the data?
judge of the Supreme Court of India. The database would be accessible to authorised per-
Section 21 of Consumer Protection Act, 1986 posits sons from 11 agencies on a case-to-case basis, and
that the National Commission shall have jurisdiction: only for professional investigations into suspected cas-
- to entertain a complaint valued more than two crore es of terrorism.
and also have Appellate and Revisional jurisdiction
from the orders of State Commissions or the District NATGRID has also access to the Crime and Criminal
fora as the case may be. Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) database of
the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB),
NATGRID is exempted from the Right to Information
Act, 2005 under Section 24.
21. Solution: D
Section 24 in The Right To Information Act, 2005
The ISA is guided by its ‘Towards 1000’ strategy which 24. Act not to apply to certain organizations.—
aims to mobilise USD 1,000 billion of investments in (1) Nothing contained in this Act shall apply to the in-
solar energy solutions by 2030, while delivering ener- telligence and security organisations specified in the
gy access to 1,000 million people using clean energy Second Schedule, being organisations established by

16 www.insightsonindia.com
the Central Government or any information furnished
by such organisations to that Government: Provided
that the information pertaining to the allegations of
corruption and human rights violations shall not be
excluded under this subsection: Provided further that
in the case of information sought for is in respect of
allegations of violation of human rights, the informa-
tion shall only be provided after the approval of the
Central Information Commission, and notwithstanding
anything contained in Section 7, such information shall
be provided within fortyfive days from the date of the
receipt of request.
23. Solution: D
The International Police Organization, more commonly
known as INTERPOL, is the world’s largest police organ-
ization with 195 member countries
1766 to 1816 by the tribal inhabitants of the coun-
tryside surrounding the Jungle Mahals settlements of
Midnapore, Bankura and Manbhum against the rule
of the East India Company (EIC).
The Rampa Rebellion of 1922, also known as the
Manyam Rebellion, was a tribal uprising led by Alluri
Sitarama Raju in Godavari Agency of Madras Presiden-
cy, British India. It began in August 1922 and lasted un-
til the capture and killing of Raju in May 1924.
The Namdhari Movement was founded by Baba Ram
Singh (1816-1885) in 1857 after becoming a disciple
of Balak Singh of the Kuka movement in 1841. The
movement was founded on a set of rituals modeled af-
ter Guru Gobind Singh’s founding of the Khalsa, with
the requirement of wearing the five symbols but
carrying a stick instead of a sword.
h tt p s : / / p i b . g o v. i n / P re s s Re l e a s e I f ra m e Pa g e .
aspx?PRID=1863913

24. Solution: A
The Logistics Performance Index is an interactive
benchmarking tool created to help countries identify
the challenges and opportunities they face in their
performance on trade logistics and what they can do
to improve their performance. The LPI 2018 allows
for comparisons across 160 countries.
It is being released biannually by World Bank

25. Solution: A
Chuar rebellion, also known as Jungle Mahal move-
ment was a series of peasant movements between

www.insightsonindia.com 17
 CSAT QUIZ SOLUTIONS
1 is neither composite number nor prime number.
1). Ans. C) Both 1 and 2
Hence, we have to find out the average of numbers
1 is true as we in India have been condemned to live in from 2 to 100.
apartments due to paucity of houses with courtyards.
2 is true as the focus of the passage is on explaining the The average of numbers from 2 to 100 = (sum of first
benefits of indigenous architecture which is in line with number and last number)/2
the demands of Indian climatic conditions.
= (2 + 100)/2
= 51.
2) . Ans. B)
To deal with extreme heat in India, it is prudent to take 5) Correct Answer : B) 51 years
lessons from our architectural history
The passage talks about the advantages of India’s ar- Answer Justification :
chitectural style and the disadvantages of apartments Justification:
that we occupy currently. Hence the natural corollary In 1984, the average age of 100 employees = 50 + 2 =
is B 52 years.

In 1984, the total of ages of 100 employees = 52 × 100

= 5200 years.
3). Correct Answer : A) Rs.3000
In 1984, when 20 employees retire at the age of 60, the
Answer Justification :
total of ages of remaining 80 employees = 5200 – 20 ×
Justification:
60
Let the prices of 3 mobiles be Rs.’x’, Rs.’y’ and Rs.’z’ re-
5200 – 1200
spectively.
4000 years
Let the price of the cheapest mobile = Rs. x
In 1984, the average age of remaining 80 employees =
The average price of the costliest mobiles = Rs. (y+z)/2
4000/80 = 50 years
So,
In 1987, the average age of remaining 80 employees =
50 + 3 = 53 years
(y+z)/2 = 2x
In 1987, the total of ages of remaining 80 employees =
y+z = 4x ...Eq1
53 × 80 = 4240 years.
The total of prices of 3 mobiles = 3 × Rs.5000 = Rs.15000
In 1987, the total of ages of 40 new employees = 38 ×
i.e. x + y + z =15000 …Eq2
40 = 1520 years.
On substituting Eq1 in Eq2, we get
x + 4x = 15000
In 1987, the total of ages of all 120 employ-
5x = 15000
ees = 4240 + 1520 = 5760 years.
x = 3000
Hence, the price of the cheapest mobile = Rs.3000
In 1987, the average age of all 120 employ-
ees = 5760/120 = 48 years.

4) Correct Answer : A) 51 In 1990, the average age of all 120 em-

ployees = 5760/120 = 48 + 3 = 51 years.
Answer Justification :

Justification:
All the prime numbers and composite numbers include
all the natural numbers from 1 to 100 except 1 because

18 www.insightsonindia.com