DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17

PRELIMS SAMPOORNA
ALL INDIA MOCK TEST
GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - I
TEST BOOKLET
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
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without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
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alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
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PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17
 RE
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PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17 2
1. With reference to the Indian constitution, How many of the statements given above is/
consider the following statements: are incorrect?
Statement-I: (a) Only two
The term ‘minority’ is clearly defined in the (b) Only three
Indian Constitution.
(c) All four
Statement-II:
(d) None
Religious and linguistic minorities can be
determined on a state level rather than
4. Consider the following items:
nationally.
1. President’s emoluments and allowances
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements? 2. Attorney General’s pension, salary, and
benefits
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct 3. Debt charges for which the Indian
explanation for Statement-I government is responsible, including
interest
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
4. Any sums required to satisfy any

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are correct and Statement-II is not the
judgment, decree or award of any court
correct explanation for Statement-I
or arbitral tribunal
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
How many of the above type(s) of expenditure
is incorrect
that are charged on the Consolidated Fund of
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- India?
II is correct
(a) Only one

2.
feature/s of the Indian Constitution?
O
How many of the following is/are the federal (b)
(c)
Only two
Only three
1. Flexibility of the constitution (d) All four
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2. Unequal representation of states in the
Rajya Sabha 5. Consider the following statements:
3. Single constitution 1. Every Indian citizen is guaranteed all of
4. Supremacy of Constitution his or her fundamental rights under the
Select the correct answer using the code given Constitution.
below: 2. The Constitution guarantees all political
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rights, which are known as fundamental

(a) Only one
rights.
(b) Only two
3. The Directive Principles of State Policies
(c) Only three are socioeconomic rights mentioned in
Part-IV of the Constitution.
(d) All four
4. Fundamental rights limit the
government’s power, whereas DPSPs
3. Consider the following statements regarding
the Speaker of Lok Sabha: allow the government to make laws.

1. Speaker does not vacate his/her office Which of the following statements is/are
with the dissolution of Lok Sabha. correct?
2. On the request of the Cabinet secretary, (a) 4 only
he or she may allow a secret sitting of the (b) 1 and 2 only
House.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. The powers and duties of speaker are
solely derived from the constitution. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. While a removal resolution is being
considered, the Speaker will preside but 6. Consider the following statements regarding
will have no right to speak or vote. Legislative Council of states:

3 PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17
 Assertion (A): The Legislative Council of 9. Consider the following statements about
State functions similarly to the Rajya Sabha the relationship between the two Houses of
in the State Legislature. Parliament:
Reasion (R): Similar to the Lok Sabha, the 1. Even if the whole Council of Ministers
State Legislative Assembly cannot overturn is from the Rajya Sabha, it is still
the Legislative Council’s judgement on any accountable only to the Lok Sabha.
topic other than financial. 2. The process of formation of a new All
Select the correct answer using the code given India Services can only be initiated in
below: Rajya Sabha.
(a) A and R both are correct and R is the 3. If an emergency proclamation is made
correct explanation for A. after the Lok Sabha has been dissolved,
it will remain effective if approved till
(b) A and R both are correct but R is not the
the re-constitution of Lok Sabha.
correct explanation for A.
Codes:
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(a) Only one statement is correct.
(d) Both A and R are incorrect.
(b) Only two statements are correct.

RE
7. Consider the following statements: (c) All three statements are correct.
1. If there is a dispute between central and (d) All three statements are incorrect.
state law on contemporaneous issues, the
central law takes precedence.
10. Which of the following statements about the
2. If the State law has been reserved for advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is/
the President’s consideration and has
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received his/her consent, the State law
are correct?
takes precedence in that State. 1. The Supreme Court is bound to tender its
opinion on any matter referred to it by
Which of the above statements is/are correct? the President.
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(a) 1 only 2. The opinion expressed by the Supreme
(b) 2 only Court is a judicial pronouncement.

(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the following
code:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
8. Consider the following statements regarding (b) 2 only
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emergency provisions in India:

(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Article 19 cannot be suspended when a
national emergency is declared due to (d) Neither 1 nor 2
war.
2. Every resolution approving the 11. How many of the following Indus Valley
proclamation or continuance of President’s civilization sites is/are in India?
Rule requires a special majority vote in 1. Rangpur
both Houses of Parliament.
2. Amri
3. Financial emergency has been declared
3. Deslapur
only once so far in 1991 during the
financial crisis. 4. Kot diji
How many of the statements given above is/ Select the correct answer from the cods given
are correct? below:
(a) Only one (a) Only two
(b) Only two (b) Only three
(c) All three (c) All four
(d) None (d) None

PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17 4
12. Consider the following statements regarding Literary work Author
administration during the Gupta Empire:
1. Muntkhab-ul-Twarikh – Abdul Qadir
1. Guptas focused on creating political Badayuni
hierarchies rather than an exclusive
complicated bureaucracy in 2. Padshahnama – Abdul Hamid
administration, as the Mauryans had 3. Razmnama – Inayat Khan
done.
How many of the pairs given above is/are
2. The Guptas’ agreement helped them
maintain peace among the numerous correctly matched?
ruling families. (a) Only one
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) Only two
(a) 1 only (c) All three
(b) 2 only (d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 16. Consider the following pairings about Gandhi’s
early activities and their forms:

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13. During the Pallava era, free-standing 1. Champaran Satyagraha: First Civil
structural temples replaced rock-cut temples. Disobedience
Consider the following pairs in this regard:
2. Ahmedabad Mill Strike: First Non-
1. Temple at Mahendravadi: Rock-cut Cooperation
temple.
3. Kheda Satyagraha: First Hunger Strike
2. Shore Temple at Mamallapuram:
Monolithic Ratha.
3. Kailasanatha Temple at Kanchipuram:
Structural temple.
O Codes:
(a) Only one pair is correct.
(b) Only two pairs are correct.
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Codes:
(c) All three pairs are correct.
(a) Only one pair is correct.
(d) All three pairs are incorrect.
(b) Only two pairs are correct.
(c) All three pairs are correct. 17. Which of the following statements about the
(d) All three pairs are incorrect. Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) is/
are correct?
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14. Which of the following statements about
Sangam period is/are correct?
1. Hereditary Monarchy was the form of
government during the Sangam period.
2. Land revenue was the chief source of
state’s income while custom duty was
also imposed on foreign trade.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was one of
the founder of the HRA.
2. Sachin Sanyal wrote a manifesto for the
HRA called “Philosophy of the Bomb”.
3. The HRA aimed to build a “Federal
Republic of the United States of India”
based on the basis of adult franchise.
4. HRA was renamed Hindustan Socialist
Republican Association under Chandra
Shekhar Azad’s leadership.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
15. Consider the following pairs as examples of
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
literary advancements during the Mughal
era: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

5 PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17
18. How many of the following statements about Above passage describes which of the following
Cornwallis code is/are correct? revolutionaries?
1. It separated the revenue and judicial (a) Kartar Singh Sarabha
administration.
(b) Lala Hardyal
2. European subjects also were brought
(c) Vishnu Ganesh Pingle
under the jurisdiction.
(d) Sohan Lal
3. The principle of sovereignty of law was
established.
21. In India, the Central Bank’s role as “lender
4. Government officials were made non-
of last resort” typically relates to which of the
answerable to the civil courts for actions following?
done in their official capacity.
(a) Lending to trade and industry
Select the correct answer from the cods given organisations when they are unable to
below: borrow from other sources.
(a) Only two (b) Providing liquidity to banks experiencing
(b) Only three a brief crisis.

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(c) All four (c) Lending to governments to finance their
budget deficits.
(d) None
(d) Being the final authority in determining
the lending rates supplied by banks to
19. Match the following pairs: customers.
Commission their objectives
22. Which of the following is/are grounds for
1. Lee - To consider the ethnic
O invoking the FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and
Commission composition of the Budget Management) Act’s ‘escape clause’?
superior Indian public
services of the 1. National security
government of India. 2. Severe collapse of agricultural activity
SC
2. MacDonnel - Inquire into the 3. Sharp decline in real output growth since
Commission “conditions and last two quarters
prospects of the 4. Structural reforms in the economy
University of Calcutta”. Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Saddler - To inquire into the below:
Commission conditions of famine. (a) 4 only
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How many of the pairs given above is/are (b) 2 and 3 only
correctly matched?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) Only one
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) Only two
(c) All three 23. Consider the following statements:
(d) None 1. Only CPSEs with ‘Navratna’ status are
eligible for ‘Maharatna’ rank.
20. He was the only son born in a humble Sikh 2. A ‘Maharatna’ CPSE can implement
household and was raised by his grandfather people and human resource management,
after the early death of his father. He began to as well as training programmes.
take an active part in meetings of Ghadar Party 3. The grant of Maharatna status provides
in San Francisco. He with others like Rash greater operational and financial
Behari Bose carried on the task of organizing autonomy to the CPSE board.
soldiers against the British by filtering the How many of the above statements are
cantonments in Punjab, however, got arrested correct?
them. This resulted in the Lahore Conspiracy
(a) Only one
Case. He was only nineteen years old when he
was hanged by the British authorities. (b) Only two

PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17 6
 (c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

24. Consider the following: 27. Regarding a Global Minimum Tax Rate,
1. Building hospitals consider the following statements:
2. Increasing MSP 1. It refers to the lowest tax rate at which
a government cannot impose a local
3. Improving road connectivity company tax.
4. Increasing PDS availability 2. It will mitigate base erosion and profit
5. Expenditure on airways network shifting.
Which of the above can be considered as capital Which of the above statements is/are correct?
expenditure of the Indian government?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 5 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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(d) 3, 4 and 5 only
28. How many of the following situations given
25. Consider the following statements: below may not lead to depreciation of rupee?
1. The Government of India launched the 1. More foreign investment coming into
iDEX project to encourage MSMEs and India
startups to participate in the defence
2. Indian government taking loans from
industry.
2. Under iDEX, the Ministry of Defence
O
ensures the purchase of defence equipment
from the approved enterprises.
World Bank
3. Indian government repaying loan interest
to foreign country.
4. Oil India Limited investing in foreign
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3. The iDEX will be funded with a
separate budget allocated by the Indian coastal region.
government. Select the correct answer using the code given
Codes: below:

(a) Only one statement is correct. (a) Only one

(b) Only two statements are correct. (b) Only two

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(c) All three statements are correct. (c) Only three

(d) All three statements are incorrect. (d) All four

26. Consider the following statements about 29. How many of the following statements about
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural the Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS)
Development (NABARD): is/are correct?
1. These banks are fully operational by 1. It is a scheme of the Ministry of Commerce
RBI. and Industry.
2. It was established through an executive 2. SISFS aims to provide financial support
order. to businesses for proof of concept,
prototype development, product trials,
3. It provides financial assistance for rural
market entry, and commercialization.
development and oversees the operations
of cooperative banks and regional rural 3. Individual entrepreneurs are ineligible
banks. to apply for support under this scheme.
How many of the above statements are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct? below:
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two

7 PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17
 (c) All three 3. Only animals transport nutrients in a
biogeochemical cycle.
(d) None
Select the correct answer from the code given
30. Consider the following statements about non- below:
fungible tokens (NFTs): (a) All three
1. NFT is powered by blockchain (b) Only one
technology.
(c) Only two
2. NFTs have tangible form and exist in
form of certificates only. (d) None
3. The NFTs have unique value and they
can be duplicated. 33. Consider the following statements about
International Convention on Oil Pollution
4. NFTs cannot trace back to their original
Preparedness, Response and Co-operation
user/supplier.
(OPRC):
Codes: 1. It establishes national and international
(a) Only statement 1 is correct. response plans for maritime oil
contamination occurrences.

RE
(b) Only statement 1 and 2 are correct.
2. The convention does not apply to warships
(c) Only statement 3 and 4 are correct. or naval auxiliary.
(d) All statements are correct. 3. All QUAD members are signatory to this
convention.
31. In what ways does Green Hydrogen differ from How many of the above statements is/are
other kinds of hydrogen that can be utilised as correct?
a fuel, such as Blue and Grey?
O
(a) Only one
Statement-I:
(b) Only two
It is obtained through electrolysis of water
unlike the other forms of the Hydrogen. (c) All three
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Statement-II: (d) None

Hydrogen is produced by using Carbon capture

and storage (CCS) technologies paired with 34. Which of the following atmospheric elements
burning of fossil fuels. are measured as part of National Ambient Air
Quality Standards?
Which one of the following is correct in respect
1. Carbon Dioxide
of the above statements?
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2. Benzene
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct 3. Arsenic
explanation for Statement-I 4. Nickel
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II 5. Helium
are correct and Statement-II is not the Select the correct answer using the code given
correct explanation for Statement-I below:
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (a) Only three
is incorrect
(b) Only four
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct (c) All five
(d) None
32. Regarding nutrient flow in an ecosystem,
consider the following: 35. How many of the following statements
1. In an ecosystem, energy flow is linear, regarding Plastic Waste Management
but nutrient flow is cyclical. (Amendment) Rules, 2022 is/are correct?
2. The vast majority of nutrient storage 1. It authorised the first sale and purchase of
in every biogeochemical cycle occurs in surplus extended producer responsibility
either the atmosphere or rocks. certificates.

PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17 8
 2. Environmental compensation will be Statement-II:
assessed in the event that manufacturers
The goal is to have at least thirty percent of
fail to meet EPR targets, based on the
the world’s land and sea covered by protected
polluter pays principle.
areas.
3. It directs the State Pollution Control
Boards (SPCBs) to submit an annual Which one of the following is correct in respect
report to the CPCB on the compliance of the above statements?
of manufacturers, importers, and brand (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
owners in the state/union territory. correct and Statement-II is the correct
Select the correct answer using the code given explanation for Statement-I
below: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(a) Only one are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Only two
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
(c) All three is incorrect
(d) None (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-

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II is correct
36. How many of the following statements about
the Renewable Energy Certificates (REC) 39. Which of the following biosphere reserves
process in India is/are correct? in India are parts of the World Network of
1. One Renewable Energy Certificate (REC) Biosphere Reserves?
indicates the environmental advantages
O 1. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
of one Megawatt-hour of electricity
generated using a renewable energy 2. Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
resource. 3. Simlipal Biosphere Reserve
2. The power distribution firms are not 4. Panna Biosphere Reserve
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eligible to purchase the REC.
Select the correct answer using the code given
3. The REC remains valid until sold. below:
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
below:
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) All three
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) Only one
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(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only two
(d) None 40. Consider the following statements:
1. Homeostasis is a negative feedback
37. India’s first dugong conservation reserve has process that maintains equilibrium in an
been established in which region? ecosystem.
(a) Palk Bay 2. Compensatory dynamics, an important
(b) Gulf of Kutch homeostatic process, occur when gains
in the abundance, biomass, or energy use
(c) Sundarban of one species are offset by declines in
(d) Baratang Island another.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
38. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only
Statement-I:
(b) 2 only
The Global Biodiversity Framework was
(c) Both 1 and 2
released as a spin-off of the United Nations
Decade on Biodiversity 2011-2020. (d) Neither 1 and 2

9 PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17
41. Consider the following statements about
Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) program:
Statement-I:
IRS data is available to users through the
National Remote Sensing (NRSC) Data
Centre.
Statement-II:
The NRSC data centre provides data in the
free and open domain.
1. RADTs are less sensitive than RT-PCR
because they detect only accessible viral
antigens in the sample, whereas RT-PCR
increases by producing copies of viral
genetic material.
2. RADT identifies the presence of antibodies
in an infected person’s bodily fluids.
3. RT-PCR is only effective for RNA viruses,
although RADT may be beneficial for
both DNA and RNA viruses.

Which one of the following is correct in respect How many of the statements given above is/
of the above statements? are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct (b) Only two
explanation for Statement-I
(c) All three
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II

RE
(d) None
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
44. Consider the following element:
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
1. Graphite
is incorrect
2. Fullerene
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct 3. Zeolite
O 4. Willemite
42. Consider the following statements with respect How many of the above are allotropes of
to the ‘Meghraj’ initiative of the government of carbon?
India:
SC
(a) Only two
1. It is ISRO’s planned endeavour to improve
weather forecasting in the Himalayan (b) Only three
region. (c) All four
2. The Ministry of Electronics and (d) None
Information Technology has launched
an initiative to facilitate the use
45. With reference to Advance Medium combat
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of supercomputers in government
Aircraft (AMCA), consider the following
functions.
statements:
3. It is also known as MeitY’s Cloud
Statement-I:
Computing Initiative (GI-Cloud).
4. It is a ground-based data centre that The AMCA is a twin-engine, supersonic
persistence fighter developed for the IAF.
collects data from IRS satellites.
Statement-II:
How many of the statements given above is/
are correct? The AMCA is currently India’s only 5th
generation fighter under development with
(a) Only one
stealth technology.
(b) Only two
Which one of the following is correct in respect
(c) Only three of the above statements?
(d) All four (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
43. Consider the following differences between explanation for Statement-I
rapid antigen detection tests (RADT) and RT- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
PCR testing performed for viral infection in are correct and Statement-II is not the
patients: correct explanation for Statement-I

PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17 10
 (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct
46. Consider the following statements with
reference to Research and development of
Artificial Intelligence in India:
1. The Centre for Artificial Intelligence and
Robotics (CAIR) is a DRDO facility that
intends to integrate AI into defence.
2. MEITY and NASSCOM jointly created
a Portal to award research funds to
academic institutions for AI research and
application in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct
49. How many of the microorganisms listed below
are used as biofertilizers?
1. Rhizobium

RE
correct? 2. Azotobacter
(a) 1 only 3. Azospirilium
(b) 2 only 4. Blue green algae
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 O (a) Only one
47. Consider the following statements about (b) Only two
India’s Technology Vision Document (TVD)
(c) Only three
for 2035:
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(d) All four
1. It was launched by the Technology
Information, Forecasting, and Assessment
Council (TIFAC) of the Department of 50. Coal gasification produces which of the
Science and Technology. following compounds?
2. The main purpose of vision document 1. Methane
is to ensure the security, enhancing of 2. Carbon monoxide
prosperity, and enhancing identity of 3. Hydrogen
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individual.
4. Carbon dioxide
Which of the following statements is/are
5. Water vapor
incorrect?
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 only
below:
(b) 2 only (a) All five
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Only four
(d) None
48. Consider the following statements about the
Saguna Rice Technique.
51. Consider the following:
Statement-I:
1. Intense heating of Tibetan plateau during
This is a zerotill Conservation Agriculture summer
(CA) cultivation method. 2. Permanent high pressure cell in southern
Statement-II: Indian Ocean

It is a labour-intensive technique that requires 3. Tropical Easterly Jet

more workers on the field. 4. Positive Indian Ocean dipole

11 PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17
 How many of the above factors responsible for Statement-II:
‘onset of monsoon in India’?
In India, the National Commission on
(a) Only one Agriculture coined the term “social forestry” in
order to support environmental preservation
(b) Only two
and rural development.
(c) Only three
Which one of the following is correct in respect
(d) All four of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
52. Regarding Nomadic Tribes, consider the correct and Statement-II is the correct
following statements: explanation for Statement-I
1. Bushmen are Africa’s native people. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
2. Pygmies are hunting nomads living in are correct and Statement-II is not the
the Congo Basin. correct explanation for Statement-I
3. In India, nomadic tribes are primarily (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
from the Banjara community. is incorrect

RE
4. Chakmas are natives of Nepal who have (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
sought shelter in India. II is correct
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 55. How many factors listed below can influence
the location of Industries?
(a) 4 only
1. Vulnerability to natural resources
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
O 2. Storage and warehousing
3. Transport and connectivity
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only 4. Skilled human resource
Select the correct answer using the codes given
SC
53. Consider the following statements:
below:
1. Oceanic water has a higher specific heat
(a) Only two
capacity than terrestrial water, therefore
its warming and cooling processes happen (b) Only three
more slowly. (c) All four
2. Evaporation and precipitation on ocean
(d) None
surfaces release heat from marine
GS

water.
56. Consider the following statements about the
3. The ocean’s salinity affects how much
climate of India:
heat escapes from its surface as well.
1. The majority of the rainfall in the
How many of the statements given above is/ southern-eastern region is attributed
are correct? to both the retreating and northeast
(a) Only one monsoons.

(b) Only two 2. The receding monsoon brings rainfall to

the northwest of India.
(c) All three
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) None
(a) 1 only

54. Consider the following statements regarding (b) 2 only

social forestry: (c) Both 1 and 2
Statement-I: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Social forestry is the management and
development of forests with afforestation on 57. Which of the following are tributaries of River
barren land. Krishna?

PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17 12
 1. Koyna (c) Only three
2. Purna (d) All four
3. Musi
4. Bhima 61. Arrange the following events in chronological
order:
Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Adoptation of the Preamble
below:
2. First sitting of Constituent Assembly
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. Enforcement of the Constitution
(b) 2 and 4 only
4. Adoptation of objective resolution
(c) 1 and 3 only Select the correct option using the code given
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 below:
(a) 2-3-4-1
58. Which of the two water bodies are connected (b) 2-1-3-4
with Strait of Gibraltar?
(c) 4-2-3-1
(a) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea

RE
(d) 2-4-1-3
(b) English Channel and Bay of Biscay
(c) North Sea and Atlantic Ocean 62. On which of the following fundamental rights
(d) Atlantic Ocean and Mediterranean Sea can a state impose justifiable restrictions
taking recourse to the reason of ‘public order’?
1. Freedom of speech and expression
59. Which requirements must be met for a O
community in India to be designated as a 2. Freedom to form associations or unions
census town? 3. Freedom to reside and settle in any part
1. The population size should not exceed of the territory of India
1000 people. 4. Freedom of religion
SC
2. At least 400 people per square kilometre Select the correct answer using the code given
should live there. below:
3. Its economically productive population (a) 1 and 4 only
should be involved in non-agricultural
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
activities to the tune of more than 50%.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Select the correct option using the code given
below: (d) 2 and 3 only
GS

(a) 1, 2 and 3
63. Consider the following statements about ‘Right
(b) 1 and 3 only to Protect’:
(c) 2 only 1. India’s Constitution specifically provides
(d) 2 and 3 only the right to protest.
2. Every citizen has the freedom to assemble
peacefully and without armaments on
60. How many of the following countries share
public territory.
borders with Ukraine?
3. People have the freedom to peacefully
1. Poland demonstrate in public places for an
2. Russia unlimited period of time.
3. Finland How many of the above statements is/are
4. Belarus correct?

Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) Only one
below: (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None

13 PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17
64. Consider the following statements: 67. Regarding an Anticipatory Bail, consider the
1. The Indian Constitution does not provide following statements:
for a secretarial staff in each House of 1. It is a directive to release a person on bail
Parliament. even before they are arrested.
2. The Secretary General aids the 2. Anticipatory bail can be awarded as a
Speaker/Chairman in carrying out their matter of right in instances when the
constitutional and statutory tasks. offence is not bailable.
3. The Secretary General enjoys the same 3. It can only be issued by the Sessions
rank as the Cabinet Secretary. Court or the High Court.
Codes: Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one statement is correct. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two statements are correct. (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) All three statements are correct. (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All three statements are incorrect. (d) 1, 2 and 3

RE
65. Consider the following statements: 68. ‘Bharat’ Atta Scheme was recently launched
1. Unlike a member, a stranger can be by the Government of India, which of the
arrested within the House’s grounds following statements is/are correct?
without the Chairman/Speaker’s
1. The Scheme was launched by Union
authorization.
Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food and
2. When detaining a minister, the police Public Distribution.
must notify the Chairman/Speaker of the
O
Houses of the reason for the arrest and
2. The government intends to reduce
inflation through this scheme.
the location of custody or jail.
3. Bharat Atta will also be available to
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
consumers in the physical retail outlets
SC
(a) 1 only and mobile vans of NAFED.
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) Both 1 and 2 below:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only
66. Consider the following statements: (c) 1 and 3 only
GS

1. According to the Indian Constitution, (d) 2 and 3 only

a High Court judge is appointed by the
President in consultation with the Chief
Justice of India (CJI) and the Governor 69. Which one of the following is not correct about
of the State. the objectives of SHRESHTA Initiative?
2. The Constitution does not provide for the (a) To enhance the reach of the development
nomination of a distinguished jurist as a initiative of the government.
high court judge.
(b) To fill the gap in service-deprived ST
3. The Chief Justice of India initiates the dominant areas in the sector of education
proposal to nominate a High Court by collaborating with voluntary
judge. organizations.
How many of the above statements is/are (c) To provide an environment for socio-
correct regarding the appointment of judges of economic upliftment and overall
High Court? development of the Scheduled Castes
(a) Only one (SCs).
(b) Only two (d) To provide access to high-quality
education to bright Scheduled Caste (SC)
(c) All three
students so that they can explore future
(d) None opportunities.

PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17 14
70. How many of the following criteria are followed 73. Consider the following statements about the
by the Government of India to identification of ‘C Rajagopalachari Formula’.
PVTGs? 1. Gandhi urged for the formation of a
1. Pre-agricultural level of technology provisional administration with the
Muslim League at the centre.
2. Low level of literacy
2. The division was agreed upon only if
3. Economic backwardness
India held a plebiscite on whether or not
4. A declining or stagnant population to create an independent state.
Select the correct answer using the code given Codes:
below:
(a) Statement 1 is correct.
(a) Only one
(b) Statement 2 is correct.
(b) Only two
(c) Both statements are correct.
(c) Only three (d) Both statements are incorrect.
(d) All four
74. In which of the following conspiracy cases,

RE
71. Regarding the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, consider Government arrested 31 labour leaders, and
the following statements: the three-and-a-half-year trial resulted in the
conviction of Muzaffar Ahmed, S.A. Dange,
1. The government agreed to release all
Joglekar, Philip Spratt, Ben Bradley, Shaukat
political prisoners immediately. Usmani and others?
2. It also agreed to return all land confiscated
(a) Meerut Conspiracy Case
during the civil disobedience action.O (b) Kanpur Conspiracy Case
3. The government recognised the right
of coastal villages to produce salt for (c) Nashik Conspiracy Case
personal consumption. (d) Alipore Conspiracy Case
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
SC
(a) 1 and 2 only 75. Consider the following statements about
Paramahansa Mandali:
(b) 1 and 2 only
1. It was founded in Maharashtra in 1849
(c) 3 only by Dadoba Pandurang and Mehtaji
Durga Ram.
(d) 2 only
2. The Mandalis encouraged widow
remarriage and women’s education.
GS

72. Consider the following statements in relation

to the Wood’s Dispatch of 1954: 3. It began as a secret organisation aimed
to reform Hindu religion and society in
1. It suggested English as the medium
general.
of instruction for school and higher
education. Which of the above statements are correct?
2. It said that education in government (a) 1, 2 and 3
institutions should be secular. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. It urged the Indian government to
(c) 2 and 3 only
take responsibility for mass education,
effectively rejecting the ‘downward (d) 1 and 3 only
filtration theory’.
How many of the above statements is/are 76. Consider the following statements about the
correct? Account Aggregator System.
1. An Account Aggregator is a non-banking
(a) Only one
financial company engaged in the
(b) Only two business of providing, under a contract,
the service of retrieving or collecting
(c) All three
financial information pertaining to its
(d) None customer.

15 PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17
 2. The Financial Stability and Development
Council (FSDC) issues the licence for
Account Aggregator.
3. It will help banks decrease transaction
costs, allowing them to provide more
personalised products and services to
clients.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
77. Consider the following statements about the
Minimum Support Price (MSP):
1. MSP is a form of market intervention
by the Government of India to insure
agricultural producers against any sharp
fall in farm prices.
2. The MSPs are announced at the beginning
O
of the sowing season for certain crops on
the basis of the recommendations of the
Commission for Agricultural Costs and
Prices (CACP).
SC
3. Fixing the MSP at a level of at least 1.5
times of the All-India weighted average
Cost of Production.
How many of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
(a) Only one
GS
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
78. Match the following:
1. Skewflation: The prices of a single
commodity or a set of commodities reduce
while the overall price level remains
stable
2. Stagflation: High unemployment and
high inflation
3. Hyperinflation: Price increases at an
extremely rapid rate, resulting in the
collapse of the economy
4. Structural Inflation: Arises as a result
of fundamental vulnerabilities in an
economy, such as supply bottlenecks,
etc.
PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17
Codes:
(a) Only one pair is correctly matched.
(b) Only two pairs are correctly matched.
(c) Only three pairs are correctly matched.
(d) All four pairs are correctly matched.
79. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Federal tapering represents a prospective
reversal of Quantitative Easing programmes.
Statement-II:
Federal tapering especially refers to the initial
reduction in the purchase and accumulation of
central bank securities.
RE
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct
80. With reference to the payments bank in India,
consider the following statements:
1. The primary goal of a payments bank is to
increase the availability of payment and
financial services to small businesses,
low-income households, and migratory
labour workforces in a safe technology-
driven environment.
2. The RBI aims to boost financial service
penetration in the country’s remote
locations through payments banks.
3. Existing prepaid payment instruments
(PPI models), such as Airtel Money
provides interest on deposits.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
16
81. Regarding anti-dumping duties, consider the
following statements:
1. Dumping is defined as the export of
commodities from one country to another
at a lower price than their normal value.
2. Anti-dumping is a tool for maintaining
fair trade and protecting domestic
industry before it causes harm.
3. Anti-dumping duties are levied by India’s
Directorate General of Anti-dumping and
Allied Duties (DGAD).
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
84. How many of the following statements about
the Wildlife Conservation Bond, recently
reported in the news, are correct?
1. The World Wide Fund for Nature and
UNEP have created the world’s first
wildlife bond, which will channel money
towards the conservation of black rhino
populations.
2. Instead of paying a coupon, the issuer
will contribute to animal conservation
efforts.
3. The bond buyers will get a payment from
the Global Environment Facility based
on predetermined targets for the increase
of the animal population.
Select the correct answer using the code given

RE
(c) All three below:
(d) None (a) All three
(b) Only one
82. Consider the following statements:
(c) Only two
1. Flex Fuel Vehicles (FFV) can run on 100%
petrol, 100% bioethanol, or a combination
O (d) None
of the two.
2. Bioethanol is a high-octane fuel with 85. Consider the following statements:
more calorific value than petrol.
1. It does not emit greenhouse gases during
Which of the statements given above is/are manufacture or combustion.
SC
correct?
2. It can be converted into electricity or
(a) 1 only synthetic gas, which can then be used for
home purposes.
(b) 2 only
3. It is easy to transport if blended with
(c) Both 1 and 2
natural gas.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. It is not suitable for long-term storage.
GS

83. Consider the following statements: How many of the statements given above is/
are correct about Green hydrogen?
1. A community’s adaptation is determined
by the region’s climate. (a) Only one
2. Individual genomes limit the level of (b) Only two
adaptation.
(c) Only three
3. Acclimatisation differs from adaptation
in that it involves the acquisition or (d) All four
recombination of genetic characteristics
that boost performance or survival across 86. Consider the following statements:
generations. 1. These bats dwell in only one cave in
Which of the statements given above is/are Karnataka.
correct? 2. There are only about 150-200 mature,
(a) All three adult Kolar leaf-nosed bats remaining in
the world.
(b) Only one
3. As a result, the International Union for
(c) Only two
Conservation of Nature has designated
(d) None this species as “critically endangered”.

17 PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17
 Determine the proper species using the laboratory to express a special protein
information provided above. called a chimeric antigen receptor
(CAR).
(a) Wroughton’s free-tailed bat
4. CAR-T cell therapy is then reinfused in
(b) Rodrigues fruit bat
the patient as this CAR protein helps the
(c) Salim Ali’s fruit bat T cells recognise and fight the HIV cells.
(d) Kolar Leaf-nosed Bat Codes:
(a) Only one statement is correct.
87. Consider the following statements:
(b) Only two statements are correct.
1. Major automakers do not exchange
battery-related technology. (c) All three statements are correct.
2. Lithium and cobalt are prohibitively (d) All four statements are correct.
expensive to store across the country.
3. Getting all of the automobile 90. Consider the following statements about
manufacturers to adopt the same battery Environmental Technology:
design and technology is difficult. 1. It refers to the use of environmental

RE
How many of the above are the limitations sciences in the development of new
of India’s ‘Battery Swapping Policy’ is/are technologies with the goal of conserving,
correct? monitoring, or reducing the harm that
humans bring to the environment while
(a) Only one
consuming its resources.
(b) Only two 2. Sustainable development is at the core
(c) All three of environmental technology - techniques
O that promote economic growth by
(d) None
preventing the depletion of natural
resources and pollution.
88. Which of the following statements is/are
SC
correct about the usage of transgenic plants in Which of the above statements is/are
India? incorrect?

1. Commercially, India has approved only (a) 1 only

one GM crop, Bt-cotton, for cultivation. (b) 2 only
2. Bt Brinjal was initially approved for
(c) Both 1 and 2
commercial cultivation, but it was later
revoked. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
GS

Codes:
91. Which of the following statements concerning
(a) Statement 1 is correct. deepfake AI (deep fake) that has lately
(b) Statement 2 is correct. appeared in the media is incorrect?
(c) Both statements are correct. (a) Deepfake AI is a sort of artificial
intelligence that generates realistic
(d) Both statements are incorrect.
pictures, audio, and video hoaxes.

89. India’s indigenous CAR-T cell therapy has (b) Deepfakes creates and refines fake
recently been in the news; consider the content using discriminator algorithms.
following statements in this regard: (c) Lip syncing is another prominent
1. The CAR-T cell therapy is a type of deepfake method.
immunotherapy that involves genetically (d) The greatest threat posed by deepfakes is
engineering a patient’s T cells to attack their potential to disseminate misleading
HIV cells. material that looks to be from credible
2. T cells are a type of white blood cells that sources.
help the body fight infection.
3. In CAR-T cell therapy, T cells are taken 92. The cancer tropic zone crosses over which of
from the patient and modified in the the following Indian states?

PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17 18
 1. Meghalaya 95. Consider the following statements regarding
2. Tripura the ‘Soils in India’:
3. Rajasthan 1. Cereals like wheat and gramme can be
grown in both clayey and loamy soils.
4. Jharkhand
2. Loamy or sandy loam soils are ideal for
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: growing cotton.
3. “Masoor” lentils require soil that has an
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
easy water-draining capacity.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only correct?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3

93. Consider the following statements about Aral (b) 1 and 3 only
Sea: (c) 2 and 3 only
1. It is a lake that separated Uzbekistan to
(d) 1 and 2 only

RE
the south and Kazakhstan to the north.
2. Since Soviet irrigation projects redirected
96. Which one of the following is California’s
the rivers that feed the Aral Sea, the sea
has been gradually receding since the largest lake, located in the southern Riverside
1960s. and northern Imperial counties in Southern
California?
3. The dry continental environment of the
Aral Sea contributes to the region’s daily (a) Salton Sea
temperature variation.
How many of the statements given above is/
are incorrect?
O (b)
(c)
Caribbean Sea
Bering Sea
(d) Caspian Sea
SC
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
97. Regading the Vibrant Villages Programme,
(c) All three consoider the following statements:
(d) None 1. It is a central and state sponsored
scheme.
94. Consider the following statements about
2. The plan aims to improve the quality of
GS

‘Earth’s magnetism’:
life for people living in border villages
1. The outer core of the earth is where the of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand,
magnetic field of Earth is produced. Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and
2. The area above the ionosphere that is Ladakh.
bounded in space by the earth’s magnetic
3. The state administration collaborated
field is known as the magnetosphere.
with Panchayats to establish Vibrant
3. The magnetopause, which marks the Village Action Plans.
magnetosphere’s edge, is the location
where pressure equalisation occurs. How many of the statements given above is/
4. The magnetic field that exists on Earth are correct?
is self-sustaining and is not created by (a) Only one
outside forces.
(b) Only two
Codes:
(c) All three
(a) Only one statement is correct.
(d) None
(b) Only two statements are correct
(c) Only three statements are correct 98. Regarding the Places of Worship Act in India,
(d) All four statements are correct consider the following statements:

19 PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17
 Statement-I: 1. The MNDAA and Arakan Army and
TNLA have spearheaded Operation
This Act ensures that the religious character
1027.
of place of worship remains unchanged and
protected, regardless of any historical disputes 2. These groups have taken control of
or claims. Chinshwehaw, a crucial border crossing
with Bangladesh.
Statement-II:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
The Act specifically prohibits the conversion of
any place of worship and the removal of any (a) 1 only
structure within such places. (b) 2 only
Which one of the following is correct in respect (c) Both 1 and 2
of the above statements?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I 100. Consider the following statements:
1. The ‘Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana’
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
aims to equip one crore poor to middle-
are correct and Statement-II is not the

RE
class households with rooftop solar
correct explanation for Statement-I
panels in a bit to provide electricity from
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II solar energy.
is incorrect
2. The Centre currently has a National
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- Rooftop Scheme that provides financial
II is correct assistance to solar rooftop project.
Codes:
99. With reference to Myanmar National
O
(a) Only statement 1 is correct.
Democratic Alliance Army (MNDAA) and
Arakan Army and Ta’ang National Liberation (b) Only statement 2 is correct.
Army (TNLA), consider the following
(c) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct.
SC
statements:
(d) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.

™™™™™
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PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17 20
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21 PTS2024/AIMT/022024/17
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