DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PTS2023/ITS-07/052022/01

Test No.
GENERAL STUDIES

POLITY - 1 01
Time Allowed: One Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

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1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number carefully
without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
O
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
SC
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
GS

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the
Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.

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1 PTS2023/ITS-07/052022/01

PTS2023/ITS-07/052022/01
1. Which of the following statements regarding (c) 1 and 3 only
Doctrine of Eclipse are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It states that any law that violates
fundamental rights do not become null or
void completely but remains inoperative 4. Which of the following best characterizes a
and unenforceable. ‘Republic’ state?
2. The law in question can only become (a) The state has its own independent
operative after the conflict is removed by authority and it is not a dominion of any
constitutional amendment. other external power.
3. It does not apply to post-constitutional
(b) The state’s government gets its authority
laws.
from the will of the people expressed in
Select the correct answer using the codes given an election.
below:
(c) The head of state is elected by the
(a) 1 and 2 only
people.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) The Constitution of the state is supreme
(c) 1 and 3 only and immutable.

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(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Consider the following statements:
2. Consider the following statements regarding 1. Admission or establishment of new
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution: states needs only a simple majority of
1. Due Process of Law is now explicitly Parliament.
mentioned in the Article 21.
2. Amendments in the jurisdiction of
O
2. Article 21 is inherently related with high courts need a special majority of
Article 19 and Article 14.
Parliament and consent of half of the
3. Power of ‘Judicial Review’ has been states.
expanded with Maneka Gandhi
SC
judgement, hence, it has got equal to Which of the above statements is/are
power given to US Supreme Court. incorrect?
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 or 2
GS

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only 6. Consider the following statements:
1. Fundamental rights can be amended
3. Which of the following statements regarding
by the Parliament by a constitutional
Procedure established by Law are correct?
amendment but only if the amendment
1. Our constitution makers adopted does not alter the basic structure of the
this provision from the American
Constitution.
Constitution.
2. Doctrine extends protection to an 2. In the Golaknath case of 1967, the
individual against arbitrary action of the Supreme Court held that the Parliament
executive and not of legislature. can amend any part of the Constitution
including fundamental rights.
3. The protection under this provision of
Article 21 is available to both citizens Which of the above statements is/are correct?
and non-citizens.
(a) 1 only
Choose the correct option using the codes
given below: (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 or 2

PTS2023/ITS-07/052022/01 2
7. Which of the following is not the part of the 1. It ended the British trade monopoly in
Basic Structure of the Indian constitution India as the Indian trade was opened to
as established by various Supreme Court all the British merchants.
judgments over the years? 2. It explicitly defined the constitutional
(a) The parliamentary system of position of the British territories in
government India.
(b) Welfare state 3. It empowered the local governments to
impose taxes on persons subject to the
(c) Free and fair elections
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
(d) The absolute power of the parliament to
Which of the statements given above is/are
amend the Constitution
correct?

8. Match the following List I with List II: (a) 1 only

List I List II (b) 2 only

A. Procedure 1. British (c) 1, 2 and 3

established by law Constitution (d) 1 and 3 only

RE
B. Prerogative Writs 2. South African
Constitution 11. Which of the following was/were features of
C. Nomination of 3. Japanese the Government of India Act 1858?
members of Constitution 1. It abolished the Board of Control and
Rajya Sabha Court of Directors and ended the system
of double government.
D. Election of 4. Irish
Members of Constitution 2. It separated the executive and legislative
Rajya Sabha
O
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
functions of the Governor-General’s
council for the first time.
3. A new office of Secretary of State for India
was established with complete authority
SC
A B C D
and control over Indian administration.
(a) 1 4 2 3
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(b) 2 3 1 4 below:
(c) 3 1 4 2 (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 only
2 and 3 only
GS

(c)
9. Consider the following pairs:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Provincial Constitution Committee -
Jawaharlal Nehru
12. Consider the following statements regarding
2. Special Committee to Examine the Draft Indian Council Act of 1909:
Constitution - Alladi Krishnaswami
Ayyar 1. The non-official majority was allowed in
the provincial legislative council whereas
3. Advisory Committee on Fundamental the official majority was retained in the
Rights - BR Ambedkar
Central legislative council.
Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly 2. It introduced the association of Indians
matched? in the Viceroy’s executive council.
(a) 1 only 3. The concept of separate electorate was
(b) 2 and 3 only introduced and it legalized communalism
in British India.
(c) 2 only
Which of the statements given above were
(d) 1 and 3 only features of Indian Council Act of 1909?
(a) 1 and 3 only
10. Consider the following statements about
Charter Act, 1813: (b) 2 and 3 only

3 PTS2023/ITS-07/052022/01
 (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Which of the following statement(s) regarding
Government of India Act of 1919 is/are
correct?
1. It separated the central and provincial
subjects but the structure of the
government continued to remain
centralized and unitary.
2. The transferred subjects were to be
administered by the Governor and his
executive council and they were not
responsible to the legislative council.
3. The Indian legislative council was
replaced by a bicameral legislature
consisting of a Council of State and
Legislative Assembly.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
O (a)
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
SC
14. Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution
contains the forms of oath and affirmation of
many of the constitutional post. Which of the
following is not one of them?
(a) State Legislature Elections’ Candidates
(b) Parliament Election Candidates
GS
(c) Union Ministers of India
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
15. Which of the following statements regarding
the political classification of the territory of
India is not correct?
(a) A state’s legislature consists of a
Governor and a unicameral or a bicameral
legislature.
(b) In 1950, the Constitution of India
described territories of India under four
heads namely part A, B, C, and D.
(c) ‘Union Territories with legislature’ have
the Chief Minister as their executive
head while the ‘Union Territories without
legislature’ have the President as their
executive head.
PTS2023/ITS-07/052022/01
(d) ‘Union territories without legislature’
do not have representation in the Rajya
Sabha of the Parliament.
16. Which of the following statements is/are correct
about the power of the Parliament regarding
the alteration of states and their boundaries
within the territory of the Union of India?
1. Any bill that is to be introduced relating
to altering the area, boundary, or name
of one or more existing state(s) of India
must have the prior recommendation of
the President of India.
2. President can recommend any such bill
mentioned in statement 1, only after
taking the formal view of the members of
the Union Cabinet.
3. The President (or Parliament) is not
RE
bound by the views of the state legislature
and may either accept or reject them,
regarding the bill mentioned in statement
1, even if the views are received in time.
Select the correct answer using the following
code:
1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
17. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding the organization of the
States in the Union of India under the Indian
Constitution?
1. The State of Andhra became the first
linguistic state formed in the year 1953,
on the recommendation of Fazl Ali
Commission.
2. By the States Reorganisation Act (1956)
and the 7th Constitutional Amendment
Act (1956), some of the Part C states
gave rise to the special type of territories
known as the Union territories.
3. In the year 1972, the NEFA (North-
East Frontier Agency) was reorganised
into two separate states of Mizoram and
Arunachal Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the following
code:
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4
18. Which of the following statements regarding (c) 1 and 3 only
evolution and features of Fundamental Duties
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
are correct?
1. The Fundamental Duties in the Indian 21. Consider the following statements:
Constitution are inspired by the
Constitution of erstwhile USSR. 1. Only Parliament can make laws which
prescribe residence as a condition
2. The original constitution had 10 of employment in a state or union
fundamental duties and 11th was added territory.
by 42nd amendment act.
2. Human trafficking is a subject in
3. They are confined to citizens of India only Concurrent list, and thus both Centre
and not to any foreigner. and State can make laws prescribing
punishments for the same.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
given below: Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 only
(b) 2 only

RE
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
19. Consider the following statements regarding
significance of Fundamental Duties: 22. Consider the following statements:
1. They help the courts in examining and
O 1. Article 31A specifies that any law made to
determining the constitutional validity implement Article 39 (b) and 39 (c), shall
of a law. not be held void even if it contravenes
Fundamental right Article 14 and 19.
2. They serve as a warning against the
2. Article 31A was inserted through the
anti-national and antisocial activities in
SC
25th Constitutional Amendment Act.
public sphere.
3. DPSPs are non-justiciable.
Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect? Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
GS

(c) Both 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. Which of the following statements regarding

23. Which of the following is/are the philosophy
Fundamental rights and duties are correct?
based on which the Indian Constitution was
1. Rights of a Citizen also imply Duties for created?
him.
1. Federalism
2. Right of One is the Duty of Others. 2. National Identity
3. Rights of a person also bring with them 3. Individual Freedom
the duty towards the State.
4. Secularism
4. A duty-centred society is more concerned
about the rights and freedoms of others Select the correct option using the code given
than a right cantered society. below:

Choose the correct option using the codes (a) 1 and 4 only
given below: (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

5 PTS2023/ITS-07/052022/01
24. Consider the following statements:
1. Freedom of press is an essential element
of the right to freedom of speech and
expression under Article 19 of the
constitution of India
2. The Constitution guarantees the right
to peaceful protest, therefore any public
way and public space can be occupied for
assembly.
27. Which of the directive principles mentioned
under Part IV of the constitution can be
classified under Gandhian principles?
(a) Organize agriculture and animal
husbandry on modern and scientific
lines
(b) Promote cottage industries on an
individual or co-operation basis in rural
areas

Which of the above statements is/are correct? (c) Take steps to secure the participation
of workers in the management of
(a) 1 only industries
(b) 2 only (d) Separate the judiciary from the executive
(c) Both 1 and 2 in the public services of the State

(d) Neither 1 or 2
28. Which of the following reasons is often stated

RE
for the criticism of Directive Principles of State
25. Consider the following statements: Policy?
1. A State is a Political Organisation while a 1. It has no legal force.
Nation is a social, cultural, psychological, 2. It may produce constitutional conflict
emotional and political unity. between center and state.
2. Possession of a Definite Territory is 3. It is arranged logically but it is not
essential for the State but not for a
Nation.
O exhaustive.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
3. Sovereignty is essential for State but not below:
for Nation.
(a) 1 and 2 only
SC
4. The State uses police power (force) for
preserving its unity and integrity, the (b) 1 and 3 only
Nation is bound by strong cultural and (c) 2 and 3 only
historical links.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the above statements are correctly
highlighting the difference between a Nation 29. Which of the following best describes the
and a State? purpose of Part IV of the constitution?
GS

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) It seeks to establish economic and social

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only democracy in the country.

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) It essentially contains a codification of

tasks integral to the Indian way of life.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) It preserves individual liberty and
democratic principles based on the
26. Which of the following was not a part of the equality of all members of society.
original Constitution in 1949?
(d) It serves as a constant reminder to every
(a) To promote equal justice and to provide citizen to observe certain basic norms
free legal aid to the poor of democratic conduct and democratic
behaviour.
(b) Secure for all citizens a uniform civil code
throughout the country
30. Which of the following laws restrict the
(c) Make provision for just and humane Freedom of Speech and Expression in India?
conditions of work and maternity relief
1. Whoever, by words, either spoken
(d) Organize agriculture and animal or written, or by signs, or by visible
husbandry on modern and scientific representation, brings or attempts to
lines bring into hatred or contempt, or excites

PTS2023/ITS-07/052022/01 6
 or attempts to excite disaffection towards Select the correct answer using the code given
the Government can be punished with below:
imprisonment.
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
2. The punishment for words, either
spoken or written, or signs or visible (b) 3, 4 and 5 only
representations that promote, on grounds (c) 1, 2 and 6 only
of religion, race, place of birth, residence,
language, caste or community, feelings of (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
enmity, hatred or ill-will between different
religious, racial, language or regional 33. With reference to Constitutional provision of
groups or castes or communities. citizenship, which of the following statements
3. The punishments for deliberate and is/are incorrect?
malicious acts, intended to outrage 1. People voluntarily acquiring citizenship
religious feelings or any class by insulting of a foreign country will not be citizens
its religion or religious beliefs, by words, of India.
either spoken or written, or by signs or 2. If a foreigner is staying in India for more
by visible representations.
than 20 years, then he/she becomes a
Select the correct answer using the codes given citizen of India due to the continuous

RE
below: stay for such a long time.
(a) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
O
31. Which of the following statements regarding
Constitutionalism are correct?
(c)
(d)
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

1. It is a complex of ideas, attitudes, and

SC
34. With reference to Renunciation of Indian
patterns of behavior elaborating the Citizenship, consider the following
principle that the authority of government statements:
derives from and is limited by a body of
1. The Government of India may terminate
fundamental law.
the citizenship of an Indian citizen if the
2. Under this system, the rulers demand citizen has been living outside India for 5
unquestioning obedience from the ruled. years continuously.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
GS

2. When a person relinquishes his

correct? citizenship, every minor child of that
(a) 1 only person also loses Indian citizenship.

(b) 2 only 3. Provisions have been made with an upper

limit of 45 days for the renunciation
(c) Both 1 and 2 process to be completed.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
32. Citizenship of India can be acquired in which
of the following ways? (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Citizenship at the commencement of the (c) 2 only
Constitution (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Citizenship by birth
3. Citizenship by descent 35. Which of the following is not a key fundamental
4. Citizenship by registration duty enshrined in our constitution?
5. Citizenship by naturalization (a) To render national service when called
upon to do so.
6. By incorporation of territory (by the
Government of India) (b) To safeguard public property.

7 PTS2023/ITS-07/052022/01
 (c) To protect the weaker sections from social B. Certiorari 2. To enforce
injustice. individual
(d) To renounce practices derogatory to the liberty against
dignity of women. unlawful detention
C. Mandamus 3. To direct inactivity
36. Consider the following statements: D. Prohibition 4. For transfer of a
1. The State cannot place restrictions on case from lower to
freedom of religion only on the basis of higher court
social justice violations.
Select the correct option using the code given
2. Fundamental Rights guaranteed by below:
Article 25 are available to citizens alone.
A B C D
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 4 3 1 2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 only (c) 1 4 3 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 2 4 3 1

RE
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Consider the following statements:
37. Consider the following statements: 1. Fundamental Rights are essential to
1. For Article 30, a community can be ensure the supremacy of the state over
declared a minority on the basis of the people at large.
religion, language or race. 2. Fundamental Rights facilitate people’s
2. The right to establish and administer
O participation in the political and
educational institutions by the minorities administrative process.
is not absolute. 3. Fundamental Rights ensure reservation
3. Article 30 intends to place minorities of seats for SCs and STs in educational
SC
at an advantageous position over the institutions under Article 29 and 15.
majority.
Which of the statements given above is/ are
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
incorrect?
(a) 2 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
GS

(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
41. Which of the following statements regarding
38. Which of the following can be best described fundamental rights is/are correct?
as the most important Article and ‘heart and
soul’ of the Indian Constitution? 1. They are meant for promoting the ideal
of political democracy in India.
(a) Article 21
2. Right for protection of language, script
(b) Article 14 and culture of minorities is available to
(c) Article 32 citizens of India only.

(d) Article 15 3. They are justiciable and sacrosanct.

Select the correct answer using the code given
39. Match the following List I with List II. below:
List I List II (a) 1 only
A. Habeas Corpus 1. Against public (b) 2 and 3 only
official for failing
(c) 1 and 3 only
to perform their
duty (d) 1 and 2 only

PTS2023/ITS-07/052022/01 8
42. Consider the following statements: 1. The protection from human trafficking
1. A private body merely working as an under Article 23 is availed against both
instrument of the State does not come state and private person.
within the meaning of the ‘State’ under 2. No child below the age of 14 years in
Article 12. India is permitted to be employed in any
2. Article 13 implicitly provides for the occupation and process.
doctrine of judicial review. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which of the above statements is/are (a) 1 only
incorrect?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 46. Which of the following statements regarding
Directive Principles of State Policy is/are
43. Which of the following statements regarding correct?

RE
Right to Equality is incorrect?
(a) Rule of Law indicates different treatment
in different circumstances.
(b) President of India has immunity of
getting no criminal proceedings instituted
against them during his tenure.
O help the courts in examining and
(c) The concept of ‘equal protection of laws’
has been taken from the American
Constitution.
SC
(d) A Member of Parliament is not be liable to
any proceedings in any court in respect of
anything said by him in the Legislature.
44. Which of the following statements regarding
the ‘Right to Freedom’ is/are correct?
1. Right to elementary education is available
GS
1. The meaning of the term “State” in DPSP
is different from the same term used in
Fundamental Rights.
2. The Directive Principles are non-
justiciable in nature and hence cannot
determining the constitutional validity
of a law.
3. The Directive Principles constitute a
very comprehensive economic, social
and political programme for a modern
democratic State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

to the children of Indian citizens only.

(c) 1 and 2 only
2. Punitive detention is to punish a person
for an offence committed by him after (d) 1 and 3 only
trial and conviction in a court.
3. In preventive detention case, a person 47. Consider the following pairs:
cannot be detained for more than three
months without the report of an advisory Articles Directives
board report. 1. Article 40 To organise village panchayats
and endow them with necessary
Choose the correct option using the codes powers and authority to enable
given below: them to function as units of self-
(a) 1 and 2 only government
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. Article 43 To prohibit the slaughter of
cows, calves and other milch and
(c) 2 only draught cattle and to improve
(d) 3 only their breeds
3. Article 48 To promote cottage industries on
45. Consider the following statements regarding an individual or corporation basis
the ‘Right against exploitation’: in rural areas

9 PTS2023/ITS-07/052022/01
 Which of the above pairs is/are correctly and make it a mandatory medium of
matched? instruction in schools throughout the
territory of India.
(a) 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
48. ‘To protect and improve the environment and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
to safeguard forests and wildlife’ a part of
Liberal Directive Principles, was enshrined in
50. Consider the following statements:
the Constitution by:
1. Only parliament has the power to make
(a) Original Constitution a law to make fundamental rights
(b) 42nd Constitutional Amendment act enforceable.
(c) The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 2. It is obligatory for the Parliament to
enact laws for prescribing punishment for
44th Constitutional Amendment act

RE
(d) those acts that are declared to be offences
under the fundamental rights.
49. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the above statements is/are correct?
directives outside part IV:
(a) 1 only
1. Unlike Part IV, these are enforceable
under the court of law. (b) 2 only
2. Under article 351, it is the duty of the
O
Union to promote Hindi as a language
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
SC
™™™™™
GS

PTS2023/ITS-07/052022/01 10