PRELIMS

TEST SERIES 2023

PT MAXIMA
TEST: 11
CURRENT AFFAIR
(July – August 2022)

8448496262 iasscore.in
 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

GENERAL STUDIES Test No.

CURRENT AFFAIRS - 2
(July-August, 2022) 11
Time Allowed: Two Hour Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number carefully
without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
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3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
SC
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
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7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the
Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
1. With reference to the Plastic Waste of unmanned aerial combat vehicles
Management (Amendment) Rules, 2021, (UCAV).
consider the following statements:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. They prohibit manufacture, import and
(a) 1 only
sale of single-use plastics including
the commodities made of compostable (b) 2 only
plastics.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. They provide for increased thickness
of plastic carry bags in order to stop (d) Neither 1 nor 2
littering.
3. They aim to set-up a market mechanism 4. With reference to election of the Vice-President
for plastic waste management. of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Electoral College to elect a person
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
to the office of the Vice-President
correct?
consists of all members of both Houses of
(a) 1 only Parliament.
(b) 1 and 2 only 2. An election to fill a vacancy in the office

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of Vice-President shall be held within six
(c) 2 and 3 only
months from the date of occurrence of
(d) 3 only vacancy.
3. The Secretary-General of Rajya Sabha
2. Which of the following statement(s) regarding is usually appointed as the Returning
the Code on Wages, 2019 is/are correct? Officer to conduct the Vice-Presidential
elections.
1. According to the Code, the central
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government may set different floor wages 4. A petition challenging the election of the
for different geographical areas. Vice-President is heard by a five-judge
2. The Code prohibits employers from bench of the Supreme Court of India.
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paying wages less than the minimum Which of the above statements are correct?
wage, which must be higher than the
floor wage. (a) 1 and 4 only

3. Employees working in excess of a normal (b) 2 and 3 only

working day are entitled to an overtime (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
wage, which must be at least twice the
normal rate of wages. (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
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Select the correct answer using the code given

5. With reference to chemical fertilisers in India,
below:
consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. At present, the retail price of chemical
(b) 1 and 2 only fertilizers is market-driven and not
administered by the Government.
(c) 3 only
2. All Non-Urea based fertilisers are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 regulated under Nutrient Based Subsidy
Scheme.
3. Defence Research and Development 3. Supply disruptions due to sanctions on
Organisation (DRDO) recently carried out the Russia and export restrictions in China
maiden test flight of a Flying Wing Technology are the major reasons for the current rise
Demonstrator. In this context, consider the in fertiliser prices in India.
following statements:
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. The flying wing type of aircraft refers to a
tailless fixed-wing aircraft which houses (a) 1 and 2 only
its payload and fuel in its main wings
(b) 2 and 3 only
unlike the conventional aircrafts.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. The Flying Wing Technology
Demonstrator aims help in development (d) 1, 2 and 3

PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11 2
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6. With reference to Indian history, who among 1. Reduced plant density
the following were the founders of the South 2. Reduced seed requirement
Indian Liberal Federation?
3. Reduced water application
1. Sir Pitti Theagaraya Chetty
4. Reduced labor costs
2. Dr. C Natesa Mudaliar
3. E.V. Ramaswamy Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
4. G. Subramania Iyer
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
10. “Nord Stream” is a pair of offshore natural gas
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 pipelines that connects Russia and Germany
via:
7. Which of the following factors can lead to

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(a) Baltic Sea
emergence of zoonotic diseases?
(b) Black Sea
1. Intensive farming
2. Travel and transportation (c) Barents Sea
3. Unsustainable utilization of natural (d) Bothnian Sea
resources
4. Increased demand for animal protein 11. With reference to SARFAESI Act, 2022,

below:
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Select the correct answer using the code given
consider the following statements:
1. Unlike Insolvency and Bankruptcy code,
the SARFAESI Act, 2022 covers only
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only secured financial creditors.
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(b) 3 and 4 only 2. Co-operative banks cannot invoke
(c) 1 and 2 only SARFAESI Act.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. The act covers all assets, movable or
immovable, promised as security to the
lender.
8. Consider the following statements:
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. The constitution empowers the
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Parliament to appoint a Commission to (a) 1 and 2 only

investigate the conditions of socially and
(b) 1 and 3 only
educationally backward classes.
2. At present, there is no sub-categorisation (c) 2 and 3 only
within the 27% reservation for socially (d) 1, 2 and 3
and educationally backward classes in
jobs and education under the central
government. 12. What is ‘XpoSat’, sometimes seen in news?

Which of the above statement(s) is/are (a) It is a ISRO planned space observatory to
correct? study polarisation of cosmic X-rays.

(a) 1 only (b) It is a test vehicle for the first abort

demonstration for ISRO’s Gaganyaan
(b) 2 only mission.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) It is ISRO’s space docking experiment
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 which will be used for setting up modular
space stations.
9. Which of the following are the advantages (d) It is an Indian spacecraft going to the
of the System of Rice Intensification (SRI) L1 or Lagrangian point between the Sun
method of paddy cultivation? and Earth.

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13. Consider the following statements:
1. Under the new semiconductor policy, the
government will provide up to 50% of
Project cost for two semiconductor and
two display fabrication units.
2. C-DAC (Centre for Development of
Advanced Computing) is the nodal
agency for implementation of the India
Semiconductor Mission (ISM).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
17. With reference to Forest Conservation Act,
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
.
(a) The Mediation council formed works
with a very flexible process that can be
effectively used at the course of dispute.
(b) It allows for court annexed mediation.
(c) Pre-litigation Mediation is mandatory
for the litigants before presenting case
before the courts.
(d) The Higher courts can frame rules for the
sub-ordinate courts.
1980, consider the following statements:
1. It gives to the Centre, the freedom to
define land as forest, not already classified
as forest in the Central or state records.
2. It puts restrictions on states for use of

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14. With reference to cloudbursts, consider the
forest land for non-forest purpose.
following statements:
1. If 10 cm rainfall is received at a station 3. It defines the concept of deemed forests
in one hour, the rain event is termed as in India.
cloud burst. Which of the above statements is/are
2. During a cloudburst, the relative humidity incorrect?
and cloud cover is at the maximum level
with low temperature and slow winds.
O (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
3. Cloud bursts do not occur at plain areas.
(c) 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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(d) 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
18. Regarding the Information Technology Act
(c) 2 and 3 only 2000, consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Section 69A of the act mentions the
provision for jail up to 7 years under any
15. With reference to ‘derechos’, consider the online offence violating sovereignty or
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following statements: integrity of India.

1. Derechos are wide-spread and long- 2. The Government can issue Blocking
lived windstorms that are similar to a Rules against any individual under the
tornado. act.
2. These are a warm-weather phenomenon. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. These are limited to central and eastern correct?
parts of the United States. (a) 1 only
Which of the above statements is/are (b) 2 only
incorrect?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only 19. What do you understand by the term
(d) 1 and 3 only Shrinkflation seen in news recently?
(a) Shrinkflation allows companies to
16. Which of the following statements is incorrect increase their operating margin and
regarding Mediation Bill, recently put forward profitability by reducing costs whilst
by the parliamentary committee? maintaining sales volume.

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(b) It is a term which is used to define the Which of the above statement(s) is/are
economic situation when Inflation causes correct?
the rise in prices and consequently the
(a) 1 only
employment decreases.
(b) 2 only
(c) Shrinking economy with low foreign
reserves and High debt is known as (c) Both 1 and 2
Shrinkflation.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) The Consumer protection is considered
under Shrinkflation for welfare society 23. With reference to the Kerala Fibre Optic
and making goods prices less than the Network (KFON), consider the following
average price of the commodity. statements:
1. It aims to provide Internet connections
20. With reference to sources of direct information only to below-poverty-line (BPL)
about the Dark matter, which of the following
households in the state.
statements is/are correct?
2. Under the project, KFON Ltd. will offer
1. Chandra X-ray Observatory
its own Internet service rather than

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2. Big-Bang Theory leasing the KFON network to Internet
3. Motion of galaxies in Coma clusters Service Providers (ISPs).
4. Newton’s law of motion 3. The project will augment the launch of
5G services in the state.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below: Which of the above statement(s) is/are
incorrect?
(a)
(b)
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
O (a)
(b)
1 and 2 only
2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
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(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
(d) 3 only
21. Which of the following statements is not true
regarding the EU taxonomy, seen in news 24. Consider the following:
recently? 1. Russell’s Viper
(a) It is an agency which classifies the 2. Reticulated Pythons
investment projects as sustainable for
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3. Pit Viper
the environment.
4. Common Krait
(b) It provides ranking to the industries
as a clearance allowance for better Which of the following Snake species is
performance. endemic to India?
(c) The Nuclear power plants and Oil (a) 1 and 3 only
refineries were also considered
(b) 2 and 4 only
sustainable.
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) None of the above.
(d) 2 and 3 only
22. With reference to ‘Right to be forgotten’,
consider the following statements: 25. Consider the following statement regarding
Mission Vatsalya launched recently:
1. The Supreme Court of India has
recognized the right to be forgotten as a 1. It is launched as a mission mode
fundamental right under Article 21. programme to focus on Child Protection
2. India, at present does not have any Services.
statutory provision that provides for 2. It is a renamed version of the scheme
right to be forgotten. Child Protection services.

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Which of the statements given above is/are 3. It is a centrally sponsored scheme divided
correct? in two components.
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 2 only
26. Arrange the following core industries in (d) 1, 2 and 3
increasing order of their weightage in the
Index of Eight Core Industries? 29. Consider the following statements:
1. Petroleum refinery 1. The writ of ‘certiorari’ is issued by a
2. Natural Gas higher court to a lower court or tribunal
to prevent the latter from exceeding its
3. Steel
jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction
4. Electricity that it does not possess.

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Select the correct answer using the code given 2. The writ of ‘prohibition’ can be issued
below: only against judicial and quasi-judicial
authorities.
(a) 1-4-3-2
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) 2-3-4-1
(a) 1 only
(c) 3-2-1-4
(b) 2 only
(d) 4-1-2-3
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(c) Both 1 and 2
27. Which of the following statement regarding the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
National Institutional Ranking Framework
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(NIRF) is correct? 30. Which of the following statement(s) regarding
1. The NIRF outlines a methodology to rank the ‘I2U2 group’ is/are correct?
higher education institutions across the 1. It is also known as ‘West Asian Quad’ as
country. it comprises of four west Asian nations.
2. National Board of Accreditation (NBA) is 2. It aims to strengthen the economic
the agency to rank Institutions. partnership in trade and investment in
the west Asian region.
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3. Participation in the rankings is currently

voluntary. 3. India participates as an observer in the
I2U2 group.
Select the correct answer from the code given
below: Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
28. With reference to the Integrated Development
of Horticulture (MIDH) Scheme, consider the 31. Which of the following statements is correct
following statements: about ‘Pokkali’, seen in news recently?
1. Under the scheme, Local vegetables 1. Pokkali is a variety of rice endemic to
and fruits are promoted except exotic coastal Tamil Nadu.
species. 2. It is salt resistant variety of rice, grown
2. MIDH is implemented as a part of Green twice a year.
Revolution. 3. It got its GI tag in the year 2008.

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 .
Select the correct answer from the code given 35. Which of the following Indian states has Red
below: Panda population, listed Endangered under
the IUCN?
(a) 1 only
1. West Bengal
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. Sikkim
(c) 1, 2 and 3
3. Meghalaya
(d) 2 only 4. Odhisa
Select the correct answer from the code given
32. For the purpose of Women Safety, Delhi below:
Police has organized an initiative to train
girls, working women and housewives by their (a) Only one
special police unit. Which of the following is (b) Only two
the name of the initiative?
(c) Only Three
(a) Sashakti
(d) All four are correct.
(b) NariShakti

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(c) NIRBHAYA 36. Which of the following adaptations help
mangroves survive in salinity stress and
(d) None of the above water-logged anaerobic conditions?
1. Viviparity mode of reproduction
33. Consider the following statements regarding
‘Ecological Sensitive Zone (ESZ)’: 2. Areal roots

1. The term ‘ESZ’ is defined in the Wild Life

O 3. Thin leaves to excrete more salt
(Protection) Act of 1972. 4. Foliar water uptake
2. An ESZ could go up to 50 kilometres 5. High nutrient recycling
around a protected area. Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
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3. Only Central government can declare a
region to be an ESZ. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer from the code given (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
below:
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2 and 3 only
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(c) 3 only 37. With reference to the criterion for declaring

heat wave in India, consider the following
(d) 1, 2 and 3
statements:
1. Heat wave is considered if maximum
34. Consider the following statements:
temperature of a station reaches at least
1. It is possible to observe different life 35°C or more for Plains and at least 30°C
stages of galaxies and stars by observing or more for Hilly regions.
light emitted by the galaxies in time 2. For coastal stations, when maximum
space. temperature departure is 4.5°C or more
2. The present James Webb Telescope can from normal, heat wave may be described
reveal the birth of stars and planets. provided actual maximum temperature
is 37°C or more.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct? 3. When temperature departure from
normal is >6.4°C, it is called a severe
(a) 1 only heat wave.
(b) 2 only Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor2 (b) 1 and 3 only

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(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

38. Consider the following statements regarding
Central Vista Redevelopment Project:
1. It envisages demolishing the existing
Parliament building and constructing a
new Parliament and Secretariat in its
place.
2. It is proposed by the Union Ministry of
Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
41. Which of the following are the key provisions
of the draft Drugs, Medical Devices and
Cosmetics Bill, 2022?
1. Complete prohibition on operation of
online pharmacies.
2. Regulation of Sowa Rigpa and
Homoeopathy system of medicines.
3. Regulation of medical devices as a
separate entity.
4. Provision for compensation to participants
for injury or death suffered in clinical
trials.
Select the correct answer using the code given

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(c) Both 1 and 2 below:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
39. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
the International Space Station (ISS):
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. ISS is the first and the only operational
space laboratory as of now.
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42. Consider the following statements regarding
2. Astronauts working and living on the
Public Health Emergency of International
ISS experience more than 10 sunrises
Concern (PHEIC):
and sunsets each day.
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1. As per the International Health
3. Blue Origin’s ‘New Shephard’ became
Regulations (IHR), only epidemic-
the first privately-owned spacecraft to
prone diseases that actually spread
transport people to the ISS.
internationally can be declared a
Which of the above statements is/are correct? PHEIC.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Determining the existence of a PHEIC is
the prerogative of the Director-General
(b) 2 only of WHO.
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(c) 1 and 3 only 3. PHEIC is highest alert level by the World

(d) 3 only Health Organisation (WHO).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
40. Consider the following statements regarding (a) 1 only
Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on
Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES): (b) 1 and 2 only

1. It aims to strengthen the science-policy (c) 2 and 3 only

interface for biodiversity and ecosystem (d) 3 only
services.
2. It is a United Nations (UN) Body. 43. Under the Universal Immunization Programme
3. The United Nations Environment (UIP), immunization is provided at national
Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat against which of the following diseases?
services to IPBES. 1. Pneumococcal Pneumonia
Which of the above statement(s) is/are 2. Japanese Encephalitis
incorrect? 3. Pertussis
(a) 1 and 3 only 4. Meningitis
(b) 2 only 5. Measles

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 .
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the above statements is/are correct?
below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 5 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
47. Consider the following statements regarding
44. With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation the National Coal Index (NCI):
Organization (SCO), consider the following 1. NCI was created to provide a benchmark
statements: for revenue-sharing contracts being
1. SCO is an economic and security bloc executed after the auctions for commercial
headquartered in Beijing. mining of coal.
2. All the founding members of SCO were 2. Prices of coal from all the sales channels
previously members of the ‘Shanghai of coal, excluding import are taken into
Five’ mechanism. account for compiling the NCI.

RE
3. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is a Which of the following statement(s) is/are
member of the SCO Interbank Consortium correct?
(SCO IBC). (a) 1 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 2 only O (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
48. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Indians renouncing their citizenship:
1. The number of Indians renouncing
SC
45. Consider the following statements:
citizenship in 2021 is highest during last
1. Cervical cancer is the second-most five years.
common cancer in India and is one of the
2. There has been a consistent rise in people
only vaccine-preventable cancers.
renouncing citizenship during 2017-
2. ‘Cervavac’ is India’s first quadrivalent 2021.
human papillomavirus vaccine (qHPV) 3. Mentioning reasons/circumstances
which protects women against cervical for renouncing Indian citizenship is
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cancer. mandatory for applicant who intends to

3. ‘Cervavac’ has been developed by Bharat acquire foreign citizenship.
Biotech. Which of the above statement(s) is/are
Which of the above statements are correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All are correct

46. With reference to Asian games, consider the
following statements:
1. India is the only country to have won
at-least one gold medal in every event of
Asian Games.
2. The 19th edition of the Asian games
will be hosted in the Chinese city of
Guangzhou.
49. Consider the following statements about
cowpea/ Black Eyed Pea:
1. Cowpea is a legume-based plant.
2. It is tolerant to low rainfall and sandy
soil.
3. Ghana is the only country where
genetically modified (GM) cowpea is
cultivated.

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 .
Which of the above statement(s) is/are Select the correct answer from the code given
correct? below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

50. Which one of the following is the most likely
measure the Government/RBI can take to stop
Indian rupee from depreciating?
1. Government should contain borrowing
2. RBI must stick to its legal mandate of
containing inflation
3. Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue
rupee denominated Masala Bonds
53. Consider the following:
1. Suffering From Mental breakdown
2. Unmarried women
3. Foetal Abnormalities
4. Risk to life
5. Rape and sexual assault victims
Which of the criteria given above are correct in

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4. Easing conditions relating to external
accordance with aborting a child in 24 weeks
commercial borrowing
as per the medical termination of pregnancy
Which of the above statements are correct? Amendment Act, 2021?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 5 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
O (c) 1, 2, 3,4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

51. Consider the following statements regarding

54. Regarding Open network to Digital Commerce
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rare earth metal reserves:
(ONDC), consider the following statements:
1. China holds more than 50 percent of the
World’s Lithium reserves. 1. It is an open network to exchange only
goods on an electronic platform.
2. India is the biggest importer of Lithium
from China. 2. Department for Promotion of Industry
and Internal Trade (DPIIT) is the agency
3. Mineral Security partnership is an
governing ONDC platforms.
alliance formed by the US to reduce
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dependence on China. Which of the statements given above is/are

incorrect?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
55. Which of the following are parliamentary
52. With reference to Antarctica Bill 2022, consider privileges?
the following statements: 1. Freedom of Speech
1. The Bill includes environmental and 2. Freedom from Arrest
wastes management concern over
Antarctica. 3. Exemption from Attendance as
Witnesses
2. It is applicable to both foreigners and
private corporations. 4. Right to Publish Debates and
3. The Bill does not prohibit ongoing Proceedings
research expeditions in the region. 5. Right to Punish Members and Outsiders

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 .
Select the correct code given below: (d) The index calculates the indicators as set
by World Economic forum (WEF).
(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, and 5 only 59. Consider the following pairs:
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 only Elephant Reserves State
(d) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only 1. Dandeli - Uttarakhand
2. Singphan - Mizoram
56. With reference to the personal data protection
bill 2019, consider the following statements: 3. Lemru - Chhattisgarh
1. Data localization rights from the big tech 4. Srivilliputhur - Tamil Nadu
companies have been transferred to the
How many pair(s) given above is/are correctly
Government.
matched?
2. The Bill has been abolished after
(a) Only one pair
the recommendations of the Joint
parliamentary committee. (b) Only two pairs
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Only three pairs

RE
incorrect?
(d) All four pairs
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 60. With reference to the “Air Quality and Health
in Cities” report, consider the following
(c) Both 1 and 2 statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 O 1. Indian cities see high PM emissions, but
low NO2 emissions.
57. With reference to blue bonds in India, consider 2. Delhi ranked first in the list of top 10
the following statements: most polluted cities in both PM2.5 and
1. They are issued by RBI against the Blue NO2 levels.
SC
economic activities to be traded in the 3. PM 2.5 has shorter lifetime compared
markets. with NO2 and thus show very high
2. SEBI is the watchdog to provide clearance variability in space and time.
of blue bonds in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. They can also be issued for fishing (a) 1 only
activities.
(b) 1 and 2 only
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Which of the statements given above is/are

correct? (c) 2 and 3 only

(a) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

61. It is an Indian Classical Dance form inspired
(c) 1 and 2 only by neo-Vaishnavism and evolved during 15th
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Century AD in Assam. The act during the
dance is performed on ‘Borgeets’ sung by
artists. Which of the following is the correct
58. Regarding the financial Inclusion index 2022, description of the dance forms given below?
which of the statements is correct?
(a) Bihu
(a) The index aims to incorporate the
insurance and banking sector exempting (b) Odissi
postal services. (c) Sattriya
(b) It is released by the Reserve Bank of (d) Thang-ta
India annually.
(c) It measures the state-wise data for 62. With reference to the United Nations
collection of financial activities in the Convention on laws of Seas (UNCLOS),
country. consider the following statements:

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 .
1. It is the only international convention 3. Environment conservation
which stipulates a framework for state 4. Marine life security
jurisdiction in maritime spaces.
5. Avoiding water pollution
2. There is no right of innocent passage
through internal waters. Which of the above are objectives of Swachh
Sagar, Surakshit Sagar campaign, seen in
3. A coastal state has the right to prohibit or news recently?
limit freedom of navigation or overflight
in its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). (a) 1, 2 and 5 only

Which of the above statements are correct? (b) 2, 4 and 5 only

(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 66. Consider the following regarding Diammonium
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Phosphate (DAP):
1. DAP is soluble compound used in
63. With reference to Combined Maritime forces Agriculture to maintain pH of the soil.

RE
(CMF), consider the following statements: 2. It is a fertilizer but also used as Fire
1. It has established in 2001 against the retardants in Cigarettes.
piracy activities in the Indian Ocean. 3. The Prices of DAP is fixed by the
2. India has joined as partner country with government in India.
United States at CMF in 2022. 4. The subsidy for DAP is regulated by the
3. It has 34 member nations. state governments.
O Select the correct answer from the code given
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
SC
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only
(d) None of the above

67. Consider the following statements:

64. With reference to India- Maldives strategic
relations, consider the following: 1. ‘Exercise VINBAX’ is a joint exercise
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between the militaries of India,

1. Maldives has the largest number of Bangladesh and Vietnam.
Indian diaspora than any other country.
2. India is the first country with which
2. Both the countries are the founding Vietnam has signed a mutual logistics
members of SAARC. support agreement.
3. India signed a pact with Maldives for Which of the above statement(s) is/are
essential goods in 1981. correct?
Select the correct answer from the code given (a) 1 only
below:
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 68. The ‘Red Data Books’ published by the
International Union for Conservation of
Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain
65. Consider the following: lists of:
1. To boycott single use plastics 1. Endemic plant and animal species
2. Coastal cleaning present in the biodiversity hotspots.

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 .
2. Threatened plant and animal species. 3. It has been discovered by the Hubble
3. Protected sites for conservation of Telescope developed by NASA.
nature & natural resources in various Select the correct answer from the code given
countries. below:
Which of the statement given above is/are (a) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only 73. With reference to places under National
importance tag in India, consider the
69. With reference to invasive alien species (IAS), following:
consider the following statements:
1. Kaleshwar Mahadev Temple, an ancient
1. They occur in all taxonomic groups, site in Himachal Pradesh was included
including animals, plants, fungi and under the list.
microorganisms.

RE
2. Archeological Survey of India is
2. Islands are more vulnerable to IAS than responsible for maintenance of the places
dry regions. in the list.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are 3. Ministry of culture enlists the places as a
correct? site of National Importance.
(a) 1 only O Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
SC
(c) 1, 2 and 3
70. The ‘G219 highway’, seen in news recently,
passes through a region claimed by India. The (d) 2 only
region is:
(a) Doklam 74. With reference history of India, which among
the following events took place during the
(b) Aksai Chin viceroyship of Lord Curzon?
(c) Tibet
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1. Establishment of separate public works

(d) Transnistria department in every province
2. Establishment of Department of
71. Which of the Following country has developed Commerce and Industry
a Nano-technology based Tattoo to monitor 3. Creation of a separate Muslim majority
Health conditions using an ECG device? North-West Frontier Province
(a) Japan 4. Ganges canal declared open
(b) China Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Indonesia below:
(d) South Korea (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
72. Which of the following statement is correct
about the Cartwheel galaxy, seen in news (c) 3 and 4 only
recently? (d) 1 and 4 only
1. It is located in the Sculptor constellation
about 500 million light years away. 75. With reference to Prevention of Money
2. It contains ring structure made up of dust Laundering Act, 2002, consider the following
particles exist in transitory stage. statements:

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 .
1. It enables government authorities (c) 2 and 3 only
to confiscate property and/or assets
(d) 1, 2 and 3
earned from illegal sources and through
laundering of public money.
78. With reference to the legal provisions regarding
2. The provision of this act applies to all
financial institutions, their financial corporal punishment in India, consider the
intermediaries and banks, including following statements:
RBI. 1. The Juvenile Justice Act prohibits
3. No person accused of an offence under ‘physical punishment’ and ‘mental
the act can be released on bail. harassment’ of children and makes it a
punishable offence.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct? 2. Under the Right of Children to Free and
Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009,
(a) 1 only every school has to constitute a ‘Corporal
(b) 1 and 2 only Punishment Monitoring Cell’ to look into
complaints of corporal punishments.
(c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3

RE
(a) 1 only
76. Which of the following is/are the grounds of (b) 2 only
disqualification for membership of a State
Legislative Assembly as mentioned in the (c) Both 1 and 2
Constitution? (d) Neither 1 and 2
1. Holding an office of profit under
Government of India or State.
O 79. With reference to the India State of Forest
2. Proven guilty of certain election Report, 2021, arrange the following states in
offences. increasing order of mangrove cover distribution
3. Convicted for any offence resulting in (area wise)?
SC
imprisonment for two or more years. 1. Maharashtra
4. Voluntary acquisition of citizenship of 2. Gujarat
foreign state.
3. West Bengal
Select the correct answer using the code given
4. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
below:
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 only
below:
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(b) 1 and 4 only

(a) 1-4-2-3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2-3-4-1
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3-2-1-4

77. With reference to monkeypox virus, consider (d) 4-1-3-2

the following statements:
1. Monkeypox virus is an enveloped double- 80. What is true regarding Ocean Thermal
stranded DNA virus that is less prone to Energy?
rapid mutations. (a) It results from the interaction of the wind
2. Smallpox vaccines can be used to treat with the surface of the sea.
monkeypox as well.
(b) It is the energy that can be extracted
3. Vaccines contribute to passive immunity from tides in oceans.
by providing us with a controlled way to
create an immune response. (c) It is energy derived from temperature
difference between surface and ocean
Which of the above statements is/are correct? depths.
(a) 1 only
(d) It is the electricity generated from
(b) 1 and 2 only underwater marine currents.

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 .
81. With reference to carbon nanotubes (CNTs), (c) 1 and 3 only
consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. They exhibit remarkable electrical
conductivity, exceptional tensile strength
but poor thermal conductivity. 85. Consider the following statements regarding
the One Nation One Fertiliser Scheme:
2. They can be used for drug delivery inside
human body. 1. Under this scheme, companies are no
longer allowed to display their name,
3. Ink formulations based on CNT
dispersions can be used as biosensors. brand, logo etc. on fertilizer bags.

4. They are extremely resistant to 2. Both public and private sector companies
corrosion. will be required to sell subsidized
fertilisers under a single brand name.
Which of the above statements are correct?
3. It aims to establish ‘one stop shops’ for
(a) 1 and 2 only Indian farmers for all quality agri-inputs
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only like fertilizers, seeds, pesticides at
reasonable prices.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

RE
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only
82. Arrange the following languages in correct (b) 2 only
chronological order of their being declared a
‘classical language’? (c) 1 and 3 only
1. Sanskrit (d) 2 and 3 only
2. Telugu
3. Malayalam
4. Tamil
O 86. Consider the following statements regarding
‘Manusmriti’:
1. It is a Sanskrit text belonging to the
5. Odia
Dharmasutra, literary tradition of
SC
Select the correct answer using the code given Hinduism.
below:
2. While it classifies the society into four-
(a) 1-4-3-2-5 fold varna system, it does not cover
(b) 2-4-1-5-3 subjects such as the social obligations
and duties of the various castes.
(c) 4-1-2-3-5
3. It was one of the first Sanskrit texts to be
(d) 1-2-4-5-3
GS

translated into English and was used to

construct the Hindu law code, for the East
83. Bati’, ‘Kang’, ‘Cheena’ and ‘Gujro’ are local India Company administered enclaves.
names for different varieties of:
Which of the above statements is/are
(a) Wheat incorrect?
(b) Millets (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Rice
(b) 2 only
(d) Maize
(c) 1 and 3 only

84. Consider the following: (d) 3 only

1. High in silica and alumina
87. Government of India recently undertook the
2. High ash fusion temperature
“Aashwasan Campaign” to:
3. Low Sulphur content
(a) Address the acute shortage of certain
Which of the above are the characteristics of Antiretroviral (ARV) drugs in Anti-
Bituminous coal found in India? Retroviral Therapy (ART) centers.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Identify and rehabilitate persons engaged
(b) 2 and 3 only in begging across India.

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 .
(c) Detect instances of Tuberculosis (TB) Select the correct answer using the code given
among tribal populations. below:
(d) Identify children that have been (a) 1 and 4 only
orphaned, abandoned or have lost a
parent during the COVID pandemic. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
88. Consider the following statements: (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. A swarm drone system consists of a
number of small drones which are AI-
91. Consider the following statements:
enabled and capable of communicating
with the control station as well as among 1. The Vienna Convention of 1985 requires
themselves. countries to take concrete actions to
2. ‘Zorawar’ is an Autonomous Surveillance control ozone-depleting substances.
and Armed Drone Swarm (A-SADS) 2. The Vienna Convention and its Montreal
system being developed indigenously. Protocol are the first treaties to achieve
Which of the above statements is/are correct? universal ratification.
3. Hydro-fluorocarbons do not deplete the

RE
(a) 1 only
ozone layer.
(b) 2 only
Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
89. Which of the following statements regarding (c) 1 and 3 only
O
the Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana (RVY) are
correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It is a scheme for providing physical
aids and assisted-living devices only to 92. With reference to Anang Tal Lake, seen in news
SC
those senior citizens belonging to BPL recently, consider the following statements:
category. 1. It was built by Alauddin Khalji to provide
2. 30% of the beneficiaries in each district water for construction of Qutab Minar.
shall be women.
2. It has been declared as a monument of
3. The devices are provided at doorsteps national importance.
only for the senior citizens aged 80 years
or more. Which of the above statement(s) is/are
GS

correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
93. Consider the following statements regarding
90. Which of the following can be the possible Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
impacts associated with a La Nina event? (PMJAY):
1. Rainfall associated with the northeast 1. It aims to make secondary and tertiary
monsoon in India tends to be greater healthcare completely cashless for the
than normal. underprivileged sections of the society.
2. Rainier-than-normal conditions are over 2. It is implemented by the National Health
southeastern Africa. Authority (NHA) in all states and UTs.
3. Drier-than-normal conditions along the 3. The Ayushman Bharat health cards
pampas region of South America. issued under the scheme can be used only
4. Flooding in Australia. for the central health schemes.

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 .
Which of the above statements is/are (c) Celebes Sea
incorrect?
(d) Sea of Japan
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 98. Which of the following statements regarding
the Construction and Demolition Waste
(c) 2 and 3 only
Management Rules, 2016 is/are correct?
(d) 3 only
1. Under the rules, the Central Pollution
Control Board is responsible for preparing
94. With reference to ‘Mandala’ art, consider the a code of practices and standards for
following statements: products of construction and demolition
1. A mandala is defined by a geometric waste.
configuration that usually incorporates 2. As per these rules, the local bodies have to
the circular shape in some form.
utilize 10-20% material from construction
2. It is rooted in Hinduism and Buddhism. and demolition waste in municipal and
3. This art form appears in the Thangka government contracts.
paintings. 3. Large generators of wastes are liable

RE
Which of the above statements are correct? to pay relevant charges for collection,
transportation, processing and disposal
(a) 1 and 2 only of construction and demolition waste.
(b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) 1 and 3 only below:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only
O
95. With reference to history of India, Kedambady
Ramayya Gowda led an army of farmers to
(b)
(c)
2 and 3 only
3 only
fight against the British in which among the
SC
(d) 1, 2 and 3
following rebellions?
(a) Amara Sullia Rebellion 99. Martand Sun Temple is located in which State/
(b) Punnapara-Vayalar Revolt UT, seen in news recently?

(c) Moplah Rebellion (a) Karnataka

(d) Narkelberia Uprising (b) Jammu and Kashmir

GS

(c) Gujarat
96. Consider the following statements:
(d) Bihar
1. Narmada is the largest west flowing river
of the Indian peninsula.
100. With reference to the tribal communities
2. The Narmada Canal is the largest lined of central and eastern India, the term ‘Johar’
irrigation canal in the world. relates to:
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) A traditional way of greeting which
(a) 1 only essentially means ‘salutation and
welcome’.
(b) 2 only
(b) The practice of mass self-immolation
(c) Both 1 and 2
by women to avoid capture and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 enslavement.
(c) A community-owned traditional
97. Taiwan Strait connects South China Sea harvested rainwater storage wetland
with: principally used for effectively harnessing
(a) Philippine Sea water resources.
(b) East China Sea (d) None of the above

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 Space for Rough Work

.
RE
O
SC
GS

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Test No.

IAS Prelims - 2023

11
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

GENERAL STUDIES

RE
CURRENT AFFAIRS - 2
(July-August, 2022)
O
Answer Key

Q. 1 (c) Q. 21 (d) Q. 41 (d) Q. 61 (c) Q. 81 (b)

SC
Q. 2 (d) Q. 22 (c) Q. 42 (c) Q. 62 (a) Q. 82 (c)
Q. 3 (c) Q. 23 (b) Q. 43 (c) Q. 63 (c) Q. 83 (b)
Q. 4 (a) Q. 24 (c) Q. 44 (a) Q. 64 (c) Q. 84 (d)
Q. 5 (b) Q. 25 (c) Q. 45 (a) Q. 65 (d) Q. 85 (b)
Q. 6 (a) Q. 26 (b) Q. 46 (d) Q. 66 (d) Q. 86 (a)
GS

Q. 7 (d) Q. 27 (c) Q. 47 (a) Q. 67 (b) Q. 87 (c)

Q. 8 (b) Q. 28 (b) Q. 48 (c) Q. 68 (b) Q. 88 (a)
Q. 9 (a) Q. 29 (b) Q. 49 (b) Q. 69 (c) Q. 89 (d)
Q. 10 (a) Q. 30 (b) Q. 50 (d) Q. 70 (b) Q. 90 (d)
Q. 11 (b) Q. 31 (b) Q. 51 (c) Q. 71 (d) Q. 91 (b)
Q. 12 (a) Q. 32 (a) Q. 52 (c) Q. 72 (c) Q. 92 (b)
Q. 13 (a) Q. 33 (c) Q. 53 (c) Q. 73 (c) Q. 93 (c)
Q. 14 (b) Q. 34 (c) Q. 54 (c) Q. 74 (b) Q. 94 (d)
Q. 15 (d) Q. 35 (c) Q. 55 (c) Q. 75 (b) Q. 95 (a)
Q. 16 (d) Q. 36 (b) Q. 56 (a) Q. 76 (b) Q. 96 (c)
Q. 17 (b) Q. 37 (c) Q. 57 (b) Q. 77 (b) Q. 97 (b)
Q. 18 (c) Q. 38 (d) Q. 58 (b) Q. 78 (d) Q. 98 (b)
Q. 19 (a) Q. 39 (b) Q. 59 (b) Q. 79 (a) Q. 99 (b)
Q. 20 (a) Q. 40 (b) Q. 60 (a) Q. 80 (c) Q. 100 (a)

1
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1. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: These rules
prohibit specific single-use plastic items
which have “low utility and high littering
potential” by 2022. The ban will not apply to
commodities made of compostable plastic.
Supplementary notes:
Plastic Waste Management (Amendment)
Rules, 2021
 These rules prohibit specific single-use
plastic items which have “low utility and
high littering potential” by 2022. The
manufacture, import, stocking, distribution,
sale and use of the identified single-use
plastic will be prohibited with effect from
the 1st July, 2022.
 The ban will not apply to commodities made
of compostable plastic. Instead of using
plastic made from petrochemicals and fossil
fuels, compostable plastics are derived from
renewable materials like corn, potato, and
tapioca starches, cellulose, soy protein,
O
and lactic acid. These are non-toxic and
decompose back into carbon dioxide, water,
and biomass when composted.
 The permitted thickness of the plastic bags,
currently 50 microns, will be increased to 75
SC
microns from 30th September, 2021, and to
120 microns from the 31st December, 2022.
Currently the Plastic Waste Management
Rules, 2016, prohibits manufacture, import,
stocking, distribution, sale and use of carry
bags and plastic sheets less than 50 microns
in thickness in the country.
GS
 Plastic bags with higher thickness are more
easily handled as waste and have higher
recyclability.
 The plastic packaging waste shall be
collected and managed in an environmentally
sustainable way through the Extended
Producer Responsibility (EPR) of the
Producer, importer and Brand owner.
 For effective implementation of EPR, the
Guidelines for the same being brought out
have been given legal force through Plastic
Waste Management Amendment Rules,
2021.
 The guidelines allow for sale and purchase
of surplus extended producer responsibility
certificates. This allows to set-up a market
mechanism for plastic waste management.
 The Central Pollution Control Board, along
with state pollution bodies, will monitor
the ban, identify violations, and impose
penalties already prescribed under the
Environmental Protection Act.
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.
 States/UTs have been requested to constitute
a Special Task Force for elimination of single
use plastics and effective implementation
of the rules. A National Level Taskforce
has also been constituted for coordination
efforts.
Why in News?
 The ban on certain single-use plastic (SUP)
items kicked in recently. The violation of the
ban will invite punitive action, including a
fine or a jail term or both, detailed under
Section 15 of the Environment Protection
Act (EPA) and under the bylaws of the
respective municipal corporations.
 State governments have initiated an
enforcement campaign and close down units
engaging in the production, distribution,
stocking and sale of such items.
RE
 For effective enforcement of the ban,
national and State-level control rooms have
been set up, and special enforcement teams
formed to check the illegal manufacture,
import, stocking, distribution, sale and use
of banned SUP items
 The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
has also launched a grievance redressal
application to empower citizens to help curb
the use of plastic.
2. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
The Code on Wages
 The Code on Wages, 2019 seeks to
regulate wage and bonus payments in all
employments where any industry, trade,
business, or manufacture is carried out.
 The Code replaces the following four laws:
(i) the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, (ii)
the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, (iii) the
Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and (iv) The
Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
 The Code will apply to all employees. The
central government will make wage-related
decisions for employments such as railways,
mines, and oil fields, among others. State
governments will make decisions for
all other employments. Wages include
salary, allowance, or any other component
expressed in monetary terms. This does not
include bonus payable to employees or any
travelling allowance, among others.
 According to the Code, the central government
will fix a floor wage, taking into account
2

living standards of workers. Further, it
may set different floor wages for different
geographical areas. Before fixing the floor
wage, the central government may obtain
the advice of the Central Advisory Board
and may consult with state governments.
The minimum wages decided by the
central or state governments must
be higher than the floor wage. In case
the existing minimum wages fixed by the
central or state governments are higher
than the floor wage, they cannot reduce the
minimum wages.
 The Code prohibits employers from
paying wages less than the minimum
wages. Minimum wages will be notified
by the central or state governments. This
will be based on time, or number of pieces
produced. The minimum wages will be
RE
revised and reviewed by the central or state
governments at an interval of not more than
five years. While fixing minimum wages, the
central or state governments may take into
account factors such as: (i) skill of workers,
and (ii) difficulty of work.
The central or state government may fix the

working day. In case employees work in
O
number of hours that constitute a normal
excess of a normal working day, they will be
entitled to overtime wage, which must be at
SC
least twice the normal rate of wages.
Why in News?
 Recently, there have been speculations
that the Union government may implement
four labour codes on wages, social security,
industrial relations and occupation safety,
health and working conditions from July 1.
GS
 If these labour codes are implemented,
the new wage code will impact employees’
working hours, salary restructuring, PF
contribution, gratuity aspect and encasing
of Earned Leaves among the prominent
ones.
3. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
4. Correct Option: (a)
Flying Wing Technology Demonstrator
 The flying wing type of aircraft refers to a
tailless fixed-wing aircraft which houses its
payload and fuel in its main wings and does
not have a defined fuselage-like structure
found in conventional aircrafts.
 The design, scientists say, has the potential
to deliver high fuel efficiency and stability,
3
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.
if executed with precision, as demonstrated
by some advanced bombers in the USA.
 The Autonomous Flying Wing Technology
Demonstrator is a precursor to an
autonomous stealthy unmanned aerial
combat vehicles (UCAV) being developed
by the DRDO’s Aeronautical Development
Establishment (ADE), primarily for the
Indian Air Force. A deck launched version
for the Indian Navy is also said to be in
the pipeline. The UCAV will be capable of
launching missiles and precision-guided
munitions.
 The Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) is
powered by a small turbofan engine. The
airframe, undercarriage and entire flight
control and avionics systems used for the
aircraft were developed indigenously.
 The engine is Russian TRDD-50MT
originally designed for cruise missiles.
 DRDO is in the process of developing UAVs of
different classes to meet the requirements of
the armed forces. Rustom-2, the indigenous
Medium Altitude Long Endurance (MALE)
UAV under development, had crossed a
milestone by reaching an altitude of 25,000
feet and an endurance of 10 hours and is
being designed to reach an altitude of 30,000
feet and 18 hours endurance.
Why in News?
 The Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) recently carried out
the maiden test flight of a new Unmanned
Aerial Vehicle (UAV), an autonomous Flying
Wing Technology Demonstrator, from the
Aeronautical Test Range, Chitradurga,
Karnataka.
 Operating in a fully autonomous mode, the
aircraft exhibited a perfect flight, including
take-off, way point navigation and a smooth
touchdown.
 This flight marks a major milestone in terms
of proving critical technologies towards the
development of future unmanned aircraft
and is significant step towards self-reliance
in such strategic defence technologies.
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article
68, an election to fill a vacancy in the office
of Vice-President occurring by reason of his
death, resignation or removal, or otherwise
shall be held as soon as possible after the
occurrence of the vacancy, and the person
elected to fill the vacancy shall, subject to
the provisions of article 67, be entitled to
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

hold office for the full term of five years from
the date on which he enters upon his office.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The Returning
Officer usually appointed to conduct the
Vice-Presidential elections is the Secretary-
General of either House of the Parliament,
by rotation.
Supplementary notes:
Election of the Vice-President
 Under Article 66 of the Constitution,
the Vice-President is elected by an electoral
college consisting of members of both
Houses of Parliament, in accordance with
the system of proportional representation
by means of the single transferable vote
and the voting in such election is by secret
ballot.
 The Vice-President is not a member of
either House of Parliament or of a House of
a Legislature of any state. If a member of
either House of Parliament or of a House of
a Legislature of any state is elected as Vice-
President, he is deemed to have vacated his
seat in that House on the date he/she enters
his office as Vice-President.
O Why in News?
 A person cannot be elected as Vice-
President unless he -
 is a citizen of India;
SC
 has completed the age of 35 years, and
 is qualified for election as a member of
the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
 A person is not also eligible if he holds
any office of profit under the Government
of India or a State Government or any
subordinate local authority.
GS
 An election to fill a vacancy caused by the
expiry of the term of office of Vice-President
is completed before the expiry of the term.
In case a vacancy arises by reasons of death,
resignation or removal or otherwise, the
election to fill that vacancy is held as soon
as possible after the occurrence. The person
so elected is entitled to hold office for a full
term of 5 years from the date he enters
office.
 The Election Commission of India conducts
the election to the office of the Vice-
President.
 The Returning Officer usually
appointed to conduct the Vice-
Presidential elections is the Secretary-
General of either House of the Parliament,
by rotation. The Returning Officer issues
a public notice of the intended election in
a prescribed form, inviting nomination of
candidates and specifies the place where
the nomination papers are to be delivered.
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.
 Any person qualified to be elected and
intending to stand for election as Vice-
President is required to be nominated by at
least 20 MPs as proposers and at least 20
MPs as seconders.
 Nomination papers are to be presented
to the Returning Officer at the place
and upto the time and date, specified in the
public notice. A maximum of 4 nomination
papers by, or on behalf of, any candidate
may be presented to, or accepted by, the
Returning Officer.
 A candidate seeking election as Vice-
President is required to make a security
deposit of Rs.15,000/-. This is the only
amount that is required to be deposited by
a candidate irrespective of the number of
nomination papers filed on his behalf.
RE
 All doubts and disputes arising in connection
with the election of the Vice-President are
enquired into and decided by the Supreme
Court of India whose decision is final.
 A petition challenging the election of the
Vice-President is heard by a five-judge
bench of the Supreme Court of India.
 The Election Commission recently
announced that the poll for the post of Vice-
President will be held on August 6, as M.
Venkaiah Naidu’s term was coming to an
end on August 10.
 The Lok Sabha Secretary-General would be
appointed as the Returning Officer.
5. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Centre pays
subsidy on urea to fertilizer manufacturers
on the basis of cost of production at each
plant and the units are required to sell the
fertilizer at the government-set Maximum
Retail Price (MRP).
Supplementary notes:
Fertilizers’ Price Rise
 Fertilizer prices have risen nearly 30 per
cent since the beginning of 2022, following
last year’s 80 per cent surge. The rise was
driven by factors like surging input costs,
supply disruptions due to sanctions (Belarus
and Russia) as well as export restrictions in
China.
 According to the Centre’s monthly bulletin,
the international prices of DAP have
increased by about 65.66 per cent from $565
(Rs 44,645) per tonne in May, 2021 to $936
per tonne in May, 2022. Urea prices have
4
 6. Correct Option: (a)
increased by about 94.09 per cent from $372
per tonne in May, 2021 to $722 per tonne
in May, 2022. Urea production is based
on natural gas, prices of which are closely
related to international oil prices. Sulphur
prices have increased by about 138.8 per
cent from $216 per tonne in May, 2021 to
$516 per tonne in May, 2022.
 In efforts to control price rise, the
government increased the nutrient-based
subsidy rate for Kharif 2022. The Centre’s
fertiliser subsidy expenditure is likely to be
in the range of Rs 2.10-2.30 lakh crore in
the current financial year
 Apart from being the second-largest
importer of fertilisers, India imports raw
materials for domestic production such as
natural gas to make urea and phosphoric
RE
acid to make DAP.
 The government pays a subsidy to fertilizer
producers to make this critical ingredient
in agriculture affordable to farmers. This
allows farmers to buy fertilisers at below-
market rates. The difference between the
cost of production/import of a fertilizer and
O 
the actual amount paid by farmers is the
subsidy portion borne by the government.
 Subsidy on Urea: The Centre pays subsidy
on urea to fertilizer manufacturers on the
basis of cost of production at each plant and
SC
the units are required to sell the fertilizer at
the government-set Maximum Retail Price
(MRP).
 Subsidy on Non-Urea Fertilisers: The MRPs
of non-urea fertilisers are decontrolled
or fixed by the companies. The Centre,
however, pays a flat per-tonne subsidy on
GS
these nutrients to ensure they are priced at
“reasonable levels”.
 All Non-Urea based fertilisers are regulated
under Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS)
Scheme. Under NBS, a fixed amount
of subsidy decided on an annual basis,
is provided on each grade of subsidized
Phosphatic & Potassic (P&K) fertilizers
depending on its nutrient content. It aims
at ensuring the balanced use of fertilizers,
improving agricultural productivity,
promoting the growth of the indigenous
fertilizers industry and also reducing the
burden of Subsidy.
Why in News?
 The recent global rise in fertiliser prices
due to shortage has dealt a severe blow to
farmers across India, which is the second-
largest importer of fertilisers. Many states
have seen cultivators erupting in protest,
even as the Centre dismissed news of low
availability of fertilisers.
5
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Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: The South Indian
Liberal Federation, popularly known as
Justice Party, was founded in 1917 by Sir
Pitti Theagaraya Chetty, Dr. T M Nair, and
Dr. C Natesa Mudaliar.
 It was the first party to raise the flag of anti-
Brahminism, and oppose the caste system
that put Brahmins at the top of the social
hierarchy.
Supplementary notes:
Dravida Nadu
 The movement for a separate Dravida
country has passed through several stages
and meanings. The early 20th century
agitations against the colonial government
of Madras state (of which, along with Tamil
Nadu, portions of modern-day Andhra
Pradesh, Karnataka, and Kerala were
part) often included expressions of regional
aspirations.
The South Indian Liberal Federation,
popularly known as Justice Party, which
was founded in 1917 by Sir Pitti Theagaraya
Chetty, Dr. T M Nair, and Dr. C Natesa
Mudaliar, was the first to raise the flag of
anti-Brahminism, and oppose the caste
system that put Brahmins at the top of the
social hierarchy.
 At the time, the presence of Brahmins in the
Madras government was disproportionately
higher than their population in the state, and
the Justice Party demanded opportunities
for those lower in the caste hierarchy.
 In 1920, the Justice Party won the first
legislative council elections held under the
Government of India Act, 1919, and formed
the government. The Congress had boycotted
the elections. The Justice Party remained in
power until 1926, and then from 1930-37.
 Periyar, the founder of the Self-Respect
Movement (1925), was both anti-caste and
anti-religion. He advocated major social
reforms, including equality for women in
society, and supporting birth control for
women for their health and well-being. He
also opposed the domination of Hindi and
emphasised the distinct cultural identity of
the Tamil nation.
 In 1938, the Justice Party and Self-Respect
Movement came together, representing the
merger of the party and the movement. In
1944, the new outfit was named Dravidar
Kazhagam. DK was anti-Brahmin, anti-
Congress, and anti-Aryan (read North
Indian), and launched a movement for an
independent Dravida nation.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

 Post-independence, DK continued to
demand Dravida Nadu. and Periyar refused
to contest elections. In 1949, Annadurai split
from Periyar due to ideological differences,
and his DMK joined the electoral process.
The DMK’s platforms were social democracy
and Tamil cultural nationalism, but
Annadurai was silent on Dravida Nadu. In
1967, Annadurai became Chief Minister.
 The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 redrew
the boundaries of states along linguistic
lines, and created the states of Tamil Nadu,
Andhra Pradesh, Mysore and Kerala in
southern India. In the process, a major
demand of the linguistic movements was
fulfilled, and the idea of an independent
Dravida Nadu was weakened further.
Why in News?
 Andimuthu Raja, the DMK MP from
Nilgiris, recently said in the presence of
Chief Minister M K Stalin that if the central
government did not give Tamil Nadu greater
autonomy, the DMK could be “compelled” to
revive the demand for a separate “Dravida
Nadu”.
7. Correct Option: (d)
O 8. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
SC
Supplementary notes:
Zoonotic Diseases
 Zoonosis or zoonotic disease is a disease
that has passed into the human population
from an animal source directly or through
an intermediary species.
GS
 Zoonotic infections can be bacterial, viral,
or parasitic in nature, with animals playing
a vital role in maintaining such infections.
Examples of zoonosis include HIV-AIDS,
Ebola, malaria, rabies, West Nile fever,
and the current novel coronavirus disease
(COVID-19) disease.
 A UN Report on Zoonotic Diseases identifies
seven anthropogenic driving factors leading
to the emergence of zoonotic diseases:
 Increased demand for animal protein
 Rise in intense and unsustainable
farming
 Increased use and exploitation
wildlife
 Unsustainable utilization of natural
resources
 Travel and transportation
 Changes in food supply chains
 Climate change crisis
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.
 According to the World Organization
for Animal Health, more than 65% of
communicable diseases are zoonotic in
origin.
 The One Health strategy consisting of
comprehensive health of human beings,
animals and the environment needs to be
implemented to control hundreds of zoonotic
diseases.
 Adopting a One Health approach, which
unites medical, veterinary and environmental
expertise, will help governments, businesses
and civil society achieve enduring health for
people, animals and environments alike.
Why in News?
 Indian Immunological Limited (IIL)
recently organized a nationwide free
RE
vaccination camp against zoonotic diseases
on account of World Zoonosis Day 2022.
 The ‘Anti-Rabies vaccine drive’ aimed to
spread awareness on the disease and need
to restrain it.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 340
of the Indian Constitution empowers
the President to appoint a Commission
consisting of such persons as he thinks fit
to investigate the conditions of socially and
educationally backward classes within the
territory of India.
 A Commission so appointed shall investigate
the matters referred to them and present
to the President a report setting out the
facts as found by them and making such
recommendations as they think proper.
 The President shall cause a copy of the report
so presented together with a memorandum
explaining the action taken thereon to be
laid before each House of Parliament.
Supplementary notes:
Sub-categorisation of OBCs
 The Kalelkar Commission, set up in 1953,
was the first to identify backward classes
other than the Scheduled Castes (SCs)
of and Scheduled Tribes (STs) at the national
level.
 The Mandal Commission Report, 1980
estimated the OBC population at 52% and
classified 1,257 communities as backward.
 It recommended increasing the existing
quotas, which were only for SC/ST, from
22.5% to 49.5% to include the OBCs.
6

 The central government reserved 27% of
seats in union civil posts and services for
OBCs [Article 16(4)]. The quotas were
subsequently enforced in central government
educational institutions [Article 15 (4)].
 In 2008, the Supreme Court directed the
central government to exclude the creamy
layer (advanced sections) among the OBCs.
 OBCs are granted 27% reservation in jobs
and education under the central government
but only a few affluent communities among
the over 2,600 included in the Central List
of OBCs have secured a major part of this.
At present, there is no sub-categorisation
and 27% reservation is a monolithic entity.
 Sub-categorisation or creating categories
within OBCs for reservation would ensure
“equitable distribution” of representation
among all OBC communities.
 However, sub-categorisation can be used to
appease one vote-bank or the other within
the category and thus a cause of social
justice would end up being politicized.
 The commission requested for an
appropriate budget provision for a
O agro-ecological methodology for increasing
proposed all-India survey for an estimate
of the caste-wise population of OBCs.
 The reason given was the absence of data
for the population of various communities
SC
to compare with their representation in
jobs and admissions as the data of the
Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC)
were not considered reliable.
 Justice G Rohini Commission was
constituted under Article 340 of the
Constitution with the approval of the
President, to complete the task of sub-
GS
categorizing 5000-odd castes in the
central OBC list so as to ensure more
equitable distribution of opportunities in
central government jobs and educational
institutions.
 Commission’s Terms of References:
 To examine the uneven distribution of
reservation benefits among different
castes in the central OBC list.
 To work out the mechanism, criteria,
norms and parameters in a scientific
approach for sub-categorisation
within such OBCs.
 To take up the exercise of
identifying the respective castes/
communities/sub-castes/synonyms
for comprehensive data coverage.
 To study and recommend correction
of any repetitions, ambiguities,
inconsistencies and errors of spelling
or transcription
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.
Why in News?
 The Union Cabinet recently gave the
13th extension to the Justice Rohini
Commission, giving it time until January
31, 2023 to submit its report.
 The commission was set up in 2017 under
Article 340 of the Constitution. It was
tasked with sub-categorization of the Other
Backward Classes (OBCs) and equitable
distribution of benefits reserved for them.
Its initial deadline to submit its report was
12 weeks — by 2018.
9. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 4 is incorrect: SRI is initially
RE
labour intensive as it needs 50% more man-
days for transplanting and weeding.
Supplementary notes:
System of Rice Intensification (SRI)
 The System of Rice Intensification is an
the productivity of irrigated rice by changing
the management of plants, soil, water and
nutrients.
 SRI originated in Madagascar in the 1980s
and is based on the cropping principles of
significantly reducing plant population,
improving soil conditions and irrigation
methods for root and plant development, and
improving plant establishment methods.
 SRI methodology is based on four main
principles that interact with each other:
 Early, quick and healthy plant
establishment
 Reduced plant density
 Improved soil conditions through
enrichment with organic matter
 Reduced and controlled water
application
 Based on these principles, farmers can
adapt recommended SRI practices to
respond to their agro-ecological and
socioeconomic conditions. Adaptations are
often undertaken to accommodate changing
weather patterns, soil conditions, labor
availability, water control, access to organic
inputs, and the decision whether to practice
fully organic agriculture or not.
 The benefits of SRI include: 20%-100%
or more increased yields, up to a 90%
reduction in required seed, and up to 50%
water savings. SRI principles and practices
have been adapted for rainfed rice as well
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

as for other crops (such as wheat, sugarcane
etc.), with yield increases and associated
economic benefits.
Why in News?
 According to data released by the
Department of Agriculture and Farmers
Welfare, just 7.22 million hectares (mha)
have been sown with paddy, the lowest
area sown till the second week of July when
compared to the last 10 years.
O
SC
Supplementary notes:
Nord Stream 1
 Nord Stream 1 is a 1,224 km underwater gas
pipeline that runs from Vyborg in northwest
Russia to Lubmin in northeastern Germany
via the Baltic Sea.
 Majority owned by the Russian energy giant
GS
Gazprom, the pipeline is the primary route
through which its gas enters Germany.
 It transports 55 billion cubic metres of
gas a year, of which most goes directly to
Germany, while the rest travels west and
southwards through onshore links to other
countries and into storage caverns.
 Germany is Russia’s biggest European gas
consumer, and most of it comes through the
Nord Stream Pipeline. Its share of Russian
gas supplies was 55% in 2021, and currently
lies at 35%.
 Nord Stream 2 is a 1200-km long Russian
undersea gas pipeline project that intends
to deliver natural gas from Siberia to
Germany.
 It runs from Ust-Luga in Russia to
Greifswald in Germany through the Baltic
Sea.
 The pipelines will double supplies of cheap
natural gas from Russia to Germany from
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
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.
 The area sown this time is also 24 per cent
less than the corresponding period of 2021.
The primary reason being attributed to
the reduced sown area is the failure of the
monsoon in the month of June in most parts
of the country.
10. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
RE
the original 2011 Nord Stream, which runs
parallel to the new project.
Why in News?
 The Nord Stream 1, Germany’s main source
of gas from Russia, was shut down recently
for 10 days of scheduled maintenance work.
 There are growing concerns in European
countries that Russia would extend the
temporary suspension of gas supplies in
retaliation against the current sanctions
leveled against Moscow.
 If Nord Stream 1 does not resume its supply
to Europe, it will not have adequate gas
supply by the end of the year.
 As an alternative source for energy,
European countries have increasingly
turned towards the US, from whom they
purchase liquefied natural gas (LNG) that
comes via ships. Since ship delivered gas
ends up being far more expensive, there are
also attempts to get non-Russian pipeline
gas from Norway and Azerbaijan.
11. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: According to a
2020 Supreme Court judgment, co-operative
banks can also invoke SARFAESI Act.
8

Supplementary notes:
SARFAESI Act
 The Securitization and Reconstruction
of Financial Assets and Enforcement of
Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act, 2002 was
brought in to guard financial institutions
against loan defaulters. To recover their
bad debts, the banks under this law can
take control of securities pledged against
the loan, manage or sell them to recover
dues without court intervention.
 The law is applicable throughout the country
and covers all assets, movable or immovable,
promised as security to the lender.
 Before the law was enacted in December
2002, banks and other financial institutions
were forced to take a lengthy route to recover
their bad debts. The lenders would appeal
in civil courts or designated tribunals to
get hold of ‘security interests’ to recovery
of defaulting loans, which in turn made the
recovery slow and added to the growing list
of lender’s non-performing assets.
 The Act comes into play if a borrower O
defaults on his or her payments for more
than six months. The lender then can send
a notice to the borrower to clear the dues
within 60 days. In case that doesn’t happen,
the financial institution has the right to
SC
take possession of the secured assets and
sell, transfer or manage them.
 The defaulter, meanwhile, has recourse to
move an appellate authority set up under
the law within 30 days of receiving a
notice from the lender. According to a 2020
Supreme Court judgment, co-operative
GS
banks can also invoke SARFAESI Act.
According to the Finance Ministry, the non-
banking financial companies (NBFCs) can
initiate recovery in Rs 20 lakh loan default
cases.
 SARFAESI Act is different from IBC in the
following ways:
 The SARFAESI Act protects financial
creditors, who are mostly banks and
other financial institutions, by allowing
them to impose their security interests
without the need for court interference.
The IBC, on the other hand, guarantees
the interests of all forms of creditors,
which are further divided into Financial
and Operational Creditors by the IBC.
 IBC takes precedence over SARFAESI
during the Insolvency Resolution
Process.
 Individuals and unincorporated
companies are handled differently under
the IBC, which distinguishes between
9
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.
corporate debtor liquidation (which falls
under the jurisdiction of the NCLT) and
individual and company liquidation
(which falls under the jurisdiction of the
DRT), while the same has not been done
by the SARFAESI Act.
Why in News?
 Banks have invoked the Securitization
and Reconstruction of Financial Assets
and Enforcement of Security Interest
(SARFAESI) Act against telecom
infrastructure provider GTL to recover their
pending dues.
 The recovery action has been initiated by
IDBI Bank on behalf of lenders, whose total
exposure to GTL stood at Rs.7,250 crore as
of December, 2021.
RE
12. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: The X-ray
Polarimeter Satellite is a ISRO planned
space observatory to study polarisation of
cosmic X-rays. It is planned to be launched
in second Quarter of 2023 on a Small
Satellite Launch Vehicle, with mission life
of at least five years.
Supplementary notes:
ISRO Missions
 To Study how radiation is polarised gives
away the nature of its source, including the
strength and distribution of its magnetic
fields and the nature of other radiation
around it.
 XPoSat will study the 50 brightest
known sources in the universe,
including pulsars, black hole X-ray
binaries, active galactic nuclei, and non-
thermal supernova remnants.
 The Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO) has set new deadlines for major
missions, with its first solar mission and
third lunar mission set to take place in the
first quarter of the year 2023.
 The space agency’s third scientific mission
scheduled for next year is the space
observatory, XpoSat, designed to study
cosmic x-rays. The XpoSat will be India’s
second astronomical observatory in space
after the Astrosat.
 ISRO would also carry out a ‘space docking
experiment’ in the third quarter of 2024.
Space docking is a process of joining two
separately launched spacecraft, and is
mainly used for setting up modular space
stations.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

Why in News?
 The Indian Space Research Organization
(ISRO) has recently set new deadlines for
its solar and lunar missions.
 All these scientific missions have been
repeatedly pushed back since 2020 amidst
the pandemic that slowed down all activities
of the space agency, including the number
of launches.
13. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: ISM has been
setup as a specialized and independent
business division of ‘Digital India
Corporation’. C-DAC (Centre for
Development of Advanced Computing)
is the nodal agency for implementation
of the Design Linked Incentive (DLI)
scheme.
Supplementary notes:
New Semiconductor Policy
 The Ministry of Electronics and Information
O
Technology unveiled the new semiconductor
policy. Key provisions are:
 Government will provide up to 50% of
Project cost for two semiconductor and
SC
two display fabs.
 Support shall be provided for a period
of six years. The tenure of the actual
fiscal support outflow may be extended
based on the approval of the Minister
of Electronics and Information
Technology.
GS
 Further, for additional support, the
government will offer infrastructure
support through “Modified Electronics
Manufacturing Clusters (EMC 2.0)
Scheme for development of infrastructure
/ Common Facility Centre subject to
the proposal satisfying the EMC 2.0
framework requirements.
 The semiconductor fabs set up in India
will be supported through purchase
preference in procurement of electronic
products by the Government under the
Public Procurement (Preference to Make
in India) Order 2017.
 Additionally, up to 5% of the outlay
of the scheme shall be earmarked for
meeting the research and development
(R&D), skill development and training
requirements for the development of
semiconductor ecosystem in India.
 Companies / Consortia / Joint Ventures
proposing to set up a Silicon CMOS
based Semiconductor Fab in India for
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.
manufacturing Logic / Memory / Digital
ICs / Analog ICs / Mixed Signal ICs /
SoCs will be eligible.
 India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) has been
setup as an Independent Business Division
within Digital India Corporation having
administrative and financial autonomy
to formulate and drive India’s long term
strategies for developing semiconductors
and display manufacturing facilities
and semiconductor design ecosystem.
Envisioned to be led by global experts in the
Semiconductor and Display industry, ISM
will serve as the nodal agency for efficient,
coherent and smooth implementation of the
schemes.
 Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme
under the India Semiconductor Mission
RE
(ISM) offers financial incentives, design
infrastructure support across various
stages of development and deployment of
semiconductor design for Integrated Circuits
(ICs), Chipsets, System on Chips (SoCs),
Systems & IP Cores and semiconductor
linked design. The scheme provides
“Product Design Linked Incentive” of up to
50% of the eligible expenditure subject to a
ceiling of Rs. 15 Crore per application and
“Deployment Linked Incentive” of 6% to 4%
of net sales turnover over 5 years subject
to a ceiling of Rs. 30 Crore per application.
C-DAC (Centre for Development of Advanced
Computing), a scientific society operating
under MeitY, will serve as the nodal agency
for implementation of the DLI scheme.
Why in News?
 India, which currently imports 100 per cent
of its chips, was hit hard by the worldwide
chip shortage, exacerbated by COVID and
the Russia-Ukraine conflict. Like the rest
of the world, the country is keen to achieve
some chip self-sufficiency.
14. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Cloud bursts
do occur at plains, however, mountainous
regions are more prone to cloud bursts due
to orography.
Supplementary notes:
Cloudburst
 A cloudburst refers to an extreme amount
of rain that happens in a short period,
sometimes accompanied by hail and
thunder.
 The India Meteorological Department
(IMD) defines it as unexpected precipitation
10

exceeding 100mm (or 10 cm) per hour over a
geographical region of approximately 20 to
30 square km.
 Significant amounts of rainfall such as this
can result in floods.
 Basically, all instances of cloudbursts
involve heavy rain in a short period, but
all instances of heavy rain in a short period
are not cloudbursts if they do not fit this
criterion.
 It is difficult to predict when exactly a
cloudburst will occur, and there is little
definitive data on the exact number of
cloudbursts that occur in India. Due to their
definition dealing with a very small area, it
is difficult to accurately predict and identify
cloudbursts immediately. However, they are
more likely to occur in mountainous zones
mainly because of terrain and elevation.
This is because, in hilly areas, sometimes
saturated clouds ready to condense into
rain cannot produce rain, due to the upward
movement of the very warm current of air.
Instead of falling downwards, raindrops are
carried upwards by the air current. New
drops are formed and existing raindrops
O
increase in size. After a point, the raindrops
become too heavy for the cloud to hold on
to, and they drop down together in a quick
flash.
SC
 A study published in 2020 examined the
meteorological factors behind the cloudburst
over the Kedarnath region, where a
cloudburst aided the devastating 2013
floods. It found that during a cloudburst,
the relative humidity and cloud cover was
at the maximum level with low temperature
and slow winds. “It is expected that because
GS
of this situation a high amount of clouds
may get condensed at a very rapid rate and
result in a cloudburst.
Why in News?
 Sudden, “highly-localised rains” in
Amarnath, Jammu and Kashmir, recently
caused flooding and led to the deaths of at
least 16 people and injuries to more than 20
others.
15. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: A derecho, is
“a widespread, long-lived, straight-line
windstorm” that is associated with a “band of
rapidly moving showers or thunderstorms”.
Straight-line storms are those in which
thunderstorm winds have no rotation unlike
a tornado.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Derechos mostly
occur across central and eastern parts
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of the United States but have also been
documented elsewhere across the world. In
2010, Russia witnessed its first documented
derecho. They have also swept through
Germany and Finland, and more recently in
Bulgaria and Poland.
Supplementary notes:
Derecho
 A derecho, is “a widespread, long-lived,
straight-line windstorm” that is associated
with a “band of rapidly moving showers or
thunderstorms”.
 The name comes from the Spanish word ‘la
derecha’ which means ‘straight’.
 Straight-line storms are those in which
thunderstorm winds have no rotation unlike
a tornado. These storms travel hundreds of
RE
miles and cover a vast area.
 Being a warm-weather phenomenon, a
derecho generally – not always – occurs
during summertime beginning May, with
most hitting in June and July. However,
they are a rare occurrence as compared
to other storm systems like tornadoes or

hurricanes.
For a storm to be classified as a derecho it
must have wind gusts of at least 93 km per
hour; wind damage swath extending more
than 400 km.
 Severe thunderstorms result in a ‘green
sky’ due to light interacting with the huge
amount of water they hold. It is believed
that the big raindrops and hail scatter
away all but the blue wavelengths due to
which primarily blue light penetrates below
the storm cloud. This blue then combines
with the red-yellow of the afternoon or the
evening sun to produce green.
 Derechos fall into three categories –
progressive, serial and hybrid.
 A progressive derecho is associated with
a short line of thunderstorms that may
travel for hundreds of miles along a
relatively narrow path. It is a summer
phenomenon.
 A serial derecho, on the other hand, has
an extensive squall line – wide and long
– sweeping across a large area. It usually
occurs during spring or fall.
 Hybrid ones have the features of both
progressive and serial derechos.
 Derechos mostly occur across central and
eastern parts of the United States but have
also been documented elsewhere across the
world. In 2010, Russia witnessed its first
documented derecho. They have also swept
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through Germany and Finland, and more
recently in Bulgaria and Poland.
Why in News?
 Recently, the states of Nebraska, Minnesota
and Illinois in the US were hit by a storm
system called a derecho.
 As the storm rolled in, winds gusting at
around 140 km per hour, snapped power
lines and knocked down trees. As the storm
hit, it turned the skies green.
16. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Mediation Bill
 The panel has cautioned against making
pre-litigation mediation compulsory
and warned the Centre against the
provision to give higher courts the power to
frame rules for mediation.
O
SC
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 Hence higher courts cannot define rules for
lower courts, as per the Panel.
 Clause 26 of the Bill: It provides for the
court-annexed mediation. This clause gives
the powers to the court to make rules for
‘court-annexed mediation’, which is
unconstitutional.
 Pre-litigation mediation mandatory:
Making pre-litigation mediation mandatory
may actually result in the delaying of cases
and may prove to be an additional tool in
the hands of truant litigants to delay the
disposal of cases.
 Non-applicability of provisions to non-
commercial matters: Non Applicability
of the provisions of the Bill to disputes/
matters of non-commercial nature involving
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the Government and its agencies.
 Appointment of chairperson and
members: Appointment of the Chairperson
and Members of the Mediation Council
of India should be made by a Selection
Committee constituted by the Centre.
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Why in News?
 The Parliamentary Standing
Committee on Law and Justice, headed
by Sushil Kumar Modi, has recommended
substantial changes to the Mediation
Bill, meant for the institutionalization
of mediation and establishment of the
Mediation Council of India.
17. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, the
freedom to define land as forest, not already
classified as forest in the Central or state
records, is the prerogative of states.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The concept of
deemed forests has not even been clearly
defined in any law including the Forest
Conservation Act 1980.
Supplementary notes:
Forest Conservation Act, 1980
 The act aims to provide for the conservation
of forests and its resources. The broad aims
O
of the Forest Conservation Act are to protect
forest and wildlife, put brakes on State
governments’ attempts to hive off forest
land for commercial projects and striving to
SC
increase the area under forests.
 As per this act, no State Government or
other authority shall make, except with the
prior approval of the Central Government,
any order directing that any reserved forest
or any portion thereof, shall cease to be
reserved and that any forest land or any
portion thereof may be used for any non-
GS
forest purpose. “Non-forest purpose” means
the breaking up or clearing of any forest
land or portion thereof for any purpose
other than reforestation.
 The Central Government may constitute
a Committee (Forest Advisory Committee)
consisting of such number of persons as it
may deem fit to advise that Government
with regard to the grant such an approval.
 The Act gives complete authority to the
Central government to carry out the
objectives of the act.
 The Act levies penalties in case of violations
of the provisions of FCA.
 The FCA does not clearly define the concept
of deemed forests. In the T N Godavarman
Thirumalpad case 1996, the Supreme
Court (SC) accepted a wide definition of
forests under the Act and held that the
word ‘forest’ must be understood according
to its dictionary meaning. This description
covers all statutorily recognized forests,
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whether designated as reserved, protected
or otherwise for the purpose of Section 2
(1) of the Act and also includes any areas
recorded as forest in the government record
irrespective of the ownership. The provisions
for the conservation of forest and the
matters connected therewith apply clearly
to all forests irrespective of the ownership
or classification.
 Thus the freedom to define which tracts
of forest qualify as forest has been the
prerogative of States since 1996.
 The Forest Conservation Rules deal with the
implementation of the Forest Conservation
Act (FCA), 1980. They prescribe the
procedure to be followed for forest land to
be diverted for non-forestry uses such as
road construction, highway development,
RE
railway lines, and mining.
Why in News?
 The Congress and the Bharatiya Janata
Party (BJP) recently sparred on the latest
version of the Forest Conservation Rules.
 The new rules, according to the Centre,
“streamline” the process of approvals. The
rules make a provision for private parties to
cultivate plantations and sell them as land to
companies who need to meet compensatory
forestation targets. This will help India
increase forest cover as well as solve the
problems of the States of not finding land
within their jurisdiction for compensatory
purposes.
 The latest point of contention is the absence of
wording, in the updated Forest Conservation
Rules, of what happens to tribals and forest-
dwelling communities whose land would
be hived off for developmental work. Prior
to the updated rules, state bodies would
forward documents to the FAC that would
also include information on the status of
whether the forest rights of locals in the
area were settled.
18. Correct option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Information Technology Act, 2000
 The Information Technology Act, 2000
was enacted by the Indian Parliament in
2000. It is the primary law in India for
matters related to cybercrime and
e-commerce.
 The act was enacted to give legal sanction
to electronic commerce and electronic
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transactions, to enable e-governance, and
also to prevent cybercrime.
 Under this law, for any crime involving
a computer or a network located in
India, foreign nationals can also be
charged. The law prescribes penalties for
various cybercrimes and fraud through
digital/electronic format.
 It also gives legal recognition to digital
signatures.
 Section 69A grants to the government the
power to issue directions to intermediaries
for blocking access to any information that
it considers prejudicial to, among other
things, the sovereignty and integrity of
India, national security, or public order.
 Section 69A (3) envisages a jail sentence
for up to seven years for intermediaries who
fail to comply.
 In 2009, the government also issued
“Blocking Rules”, which set up the
procedure for blocking (including regular
review by government committees), and
also stated that all requests and complaints
would remain strictly confidential.
O Explanation:
Why in News?
 There is a growing push and pull between
Big Tech and the state over the governance
SC
of global public platforms.
 The social media platform, Twitter,
moved the Karnataka High Court over
the government’s orders to block certain
tweets and handles under Section 69 of the
Information Technology Act 2000.
GS
19. Correct option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Shrinkflation
 In economics, shrinkflation, also
known as the grocery shrink
ray, deflation or package downsizing, is
the process of items shrinking in size or
quantity, or even sometimes reformulating
or reducing quality, while their prices
remain the same or increase.
 Shrinkflation allows companies to increase
their operating margin and profitability
by reducing costs whilst maintaining sales
volume, and is often used as an alternative
to raising prices in line with inflation.
 Consumer protection groups are
critical of the practice.
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.
 Shrinkflation is a rise in the general price
level of goods per unit of weight or volume,
brought about by a reduction in the weight
or size of the item sold.
 The price for one piece of the packaged
product remains the same or could even be
raised.
 This sometimes does not affect inflation
measures such as the consumer price
index or Retail Price Index, i.e. might not
increase in the cost of a basket of retail
goods and services but many indicators of
price levels and thus inflation are linked to
units of volume or weight of products, so that
shrinkflation also affects the statistically
represented inflation figures.
Why in News?
RE
 As India’s inflation surges, the increase
in prices of commodities in the market is
hitting the common man for several months
in the country.
20. Correct Option: (a)
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Dark Matter
 All interactions in the universe are a
result of four fundamental forces acting on
particles — strong nuclear force, weak
nuclear force, electromagnetic force
and gravitation.
 Dark matter is made up of particles that
do not have a charge — which means they
do not interact through electromagnetic
interactions.
 So, these are particles that are “dark”,
namely because they do not emit light,
which is an electromagnetic phenomenon,
and “matter” because they possess mass like
normal matter and hence interact through
gravity.
 The existence of dark matter can be traced
back to the pioneering discoveries of Fritz
Zwicky and Jan Oort that the motion of
galaxies in the Coma cluster, and of nearby
stars in our own Galaxy, do not follow the
expected motion based on Newton’s law of
gravity and the observed visible masses.
 Since then a host of experimental data
from precise measurements of the cosmic
microwave background, of gravitational
lensing of galaxy clusters, and of the
rotational speeds of stars and galaxies,
provide strong, internally consistent,
14

evidence for the existence of dark matter as
a particle.
 The Chandra X-ray Observatory (CXO),
previously known as the Advanced
X-ray Astrophysics Facility (AXAF),
is a Flagship-class space
telescope launched aboard the Space
Shuttle Columbia during STS-
93 by NASA on July 23, 1999.
 Chandra is sensitive to X-ray sources 100
times fainter than any previous X-ray
telescope, enabled by the high angular
resolution of its mirrors.
 Since the Earth’s atmosphere absorbs
the vast majority of X-rays, they are not
detectable from Earth-based telescopes;
therefore space-based telescopes are
required to make these observations.
RE
 Chandra is an Earth satellite in a 64-hour
orbit, and its mission is on-going as of
2022.
 NASA claimed to have the direct
information regarding Dark matter using
the observatory. O needed to quit more-polluting coal. Others,
Why in News?
 Many physicists strongly believe that the
entire visible part of the universe forms
only 5% of all matter in it. They believe the
SC
rest is made up of dark matter and dark
energy. Once this was convincingly
demonstrated through various indirect
observations and calculations, experiments
started being set up to hunt for these elusive
particles.
GS
21. Correct option: (d)
Explanation:
22. Correct Option: (c)
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
EU taxonomy
 The EU taxonomy is a complex system to
classify which parts of the economy may
be marketed as sustainable investments.
It includes economic activities, as well as
detailed environmental criteria that each
economic activity must meet to earn a green
label. Rules for most sectors came into effect
this year, covering investments including
steel plants, electric cars and building
renovations.
 The rules for gas and nuclear energy,
however, have been long delayed amid
intense lobbying from governments who
disagree on whether the fuels help fight
climate change.
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What does it say about gas and nuclear
energy?
 The European Commission made a
proposal in February 2022 to add gas and
nuclear power plants to the taxonomy if
they meet certain criteria. The European
Parliament supported that proposal in a
vote on Wednesday, paving the way for it
to become law and apply from 2023. Twenty
of the EU’s 27 member states could veto the
proposal, but that is seen as unlikely.
 Under the Commission proposal, for a gas-
fuelled power plant to be deemed green,
it must emit no more than 270 grams of
CO2 equivalent per kilowatt hour, or have
average emissions of 550g CO2e/kW over 20
years. It must also commit to switch to low-
carbon gases by 2035.
 The Commission’s original proposal for gas,
published in late 2020, had included a lower
100g CO2 limit. It was amended following
backlash from countries including Poland
and Bulgaria, who say gas investments are
such as Denmark and Luxembourg, say it
is not credible to label gas, a fossil fuel, as
green.
Why in News?
 It is considered as the world’s most ambitious
green investment rulebook and could direct
huge sums of money into fighting climate
change. However, the Critics say it’s a
“green washing” exercise that puts the
European Union’s climate change targets at
risk.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: In the landmark
case of K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of
India, the Supreme Court recognised the
right to be forgotten as part of the right to
life under Article 21.
 Statement 2 is correct: The proposed
Personal Data Protection Bill introduces
the concept of right to be forgotten.
 The draft law envisages creation of an
authority where one can apply to restrict
dissemination of information that may
be private in nature and is sensitive,
impacting one’s life. But till now it has not
been envisaged.
 India, at present does not have any
statutory provision that provides for
‘Right to be forgotten (RTBF)’.
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Supplementary notes:
Right to be forgotten
 The right to be forgotten refers to the right
to have private information removed from
the internet under certain circumstances.
It proceeds on the basis that an individual
must decide the course of their life in
an autonomous manner, without being
‘stigmatised’ due to an action of the past.
Likewise, a traceable procedure must be in
place to ensure that removed data is also
erased from backup storage media.
 The right to privacy has been recognised
implicitly in Article 21 (the right to life
and liberty). In Puttaswamy, the Supreme
Court had noted the existence of such a
right. Referring to a regulation which had
allowed the Unique Identification Authority
of India (UIDAI) to retain authentication
transaction data for six months and archive
the same for five years, the court noted the
infringement of such a right.
 There is an intricate system envisaged
under the Section 20 of Personal Data
Protection Bill (PDP) for setting off the
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right to be forgotten. The Bill articulates
that the right can be sanctioned only on
the order of an adjudicating officer after an
application recorded by the data principal.
SC
 Whereas, the choice on whether the right
to be forgotten can be granted with respect
to any information will rely upon “the
right to the right to freedom of speech and
expression and the right to information of
some other citizen”.
 The Supreme Court had stated that the
right to be forgotten was subject to certain
GS
restrictions, and that it could not be used
if the material in question was required for
the—
 Exercise of the right to freedom of
expression and information;
 Fulfillment of legal responsibilities;
 Execution of a duty in the public interest
or public health;
 Protection of information in the public
interest;
 For the purpose of scientific or historical
study, or for statistical purposes; or
 The establishment, executing, or
defending of legal claims.
Why in News?
 Recognizing ‘right to be forgotten’ as part
of ‘right to privacy’, the Supreme Court
recently ordered its registry to work out
a mechanism to remove personal details
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of litigants entangled in matrimonial
litigation.
 A bench led by Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul
saw merit in the woman’s plea, which
said her personal information, such as her
husband’s name and residential address
should either be deleted or masked from the
judgment of her case that is now uploaded
on the SC website, from where it has been
shared by different online platforms.
23. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It will receive
IP-1 license from the Department of
Telecommunications (DoT), KFON can
lease out, rent out or sell the equipment
RE
to other providers. Moreover, with the
ISP license, it can now provide Internet
connection as well. So, it will not provide
its own internet services.
Supplementary notes:
Kerala Fibre Optic Network (KFON)
 KFON project is aimed to provide Internet
connections to 20 lakh below-poverty-line
(BPL) households in the State, and ensure
universal Internet access and address the
problem of digital divide.
 KFON Ltd is primarily an infrastructure
provider for other ISPs operating in the
State.
 Under the project, a venture of equal
partnership between Kerala State
Information Technology Infrastructure Ltd
(KSITIL) and Kerala State Electricity Board
(KSEB), 30,000 km of fibre optic cable will
be laid connecting all parts of the State. The
cable is being laid using the existing network
of KSEB that has a network capacity of 2
lakh km in the State.
 ISPs can lease the KFON network to
provide Internet service to customers across
the State at an affordable rate. It will also
provide free high-speed Internet connectivity
to over 20 lakh financially disadvantaged
people, and 30,000 government officers and
educational institutions.
 However, KFON will also be offering its
own Internet service.
 The initiative also aims to augment the
launch of 5G services in the state. At
present, 80% of the towers are not fiberized,
an issue for the 4G to 5G transition. High-
speed wireless connectivity (3G/4G) is
limited in rural areas as more telecom towers
need to be set-up to provide such services.
Moreover, the majority of the existing
16

towers are connected via radio, which limits
the bandwidth that can be provided to the
public. KFON is expected to solve this issue
by connecting the nearly 8,000+ mobile
towers in Kerala and significantly enhance
the mobile call quality and accelerate the
transition to 5G.
 KFON has shortlisted six ISPs to provide
internet connection to 14,000 BPL families.
A total of 100 BPL families in each of the
State’s 140 assembly constituencies are
being identified in the first phase through
the respective local bodies to provide the
free Internet connection.
 K-FON will contribute substantially to
reducing the digital divide and scale-up
e-governance in the State. It would also
make Internet access more affordable as the
State Government is effectively subsidizing
RE
the infrastructure cost for ISPs and cable
operators who can provide last mile
Internet connectivity, and thus facilitating
competition. Further, the extensive fibre
optic network is also expected to greatly
improve the Internet speed, especially in
rural areas. O 
 All these would in turn help boost
economic growth by providing robust
digital infrastructure support required for
industrial growth, education, healthcare,
SC
skill development, smart urban and transport
management, and rural engagement via
concepts such as smart village.
Why in News?
 Having recently received both the
Infrastructure Provider and Internet
Service Provider (ISP) licenses from the
GS
Central government, the Kerala Fibre Optic
Network (KFON) is just a few bureaucratic
steps away from reaching its beneficiaries.
 Having received the IP-1 license from the
Department of Telecommunications (DoT),
KFON can lease out, rent out or sell the
equipment to other providers. Moreover,
with the ISP license, it can now provide
25. Correct Option: (c)
Internet connection as well.
24. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary notes:
 Russell’s viper is a venomous snake in
the family Viperidae native to the Indian
subcontinent and one of the big four snakes
in India.
 The Crotalinae, commonly known as pit
vipers, crotaline snakes or pit adders,
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are a sub-family of venomous vipers found
in Eurasia and the Americas.
 They are distinguished by the presence of
a heat-sensing pit organ located between
the eye and the nostril on both sides of the
head.
 The common krait (Bungarus caeruleus),
also known as Bengali krait, is
a species of highly venomous snake of
the genus Bungarus native to the Indian
subcontinent.
 It is a member of the “Big Four” species
that inflict the most snake bites on humans
in Pakistan, India and Bangladesh.
 Reticulated Python was not common in
India but is found in the Andaman and
Nicobar islands.
 The reticulated python (Malayopython
reticulatus) is a python species native
to South and Southeast Asia.
 It is the world’s longest snake, and
listed as least concern on the IUCN Red
List because of its wide distribution.
In several countries in its range, it is hunted
for its skin, for use in traditional medicine,
and for sale as pets.
Why in News?
 The Pilikula Park had brought five
Reticulated Pythons from Chennai about
five years ago. Of them, one python had laid
seven eggs for the first time in the park.
Later, another one laid 25 eggs.
 Reticulated Python was under threat owing
to the high demand for its skin as it was
hunted.
 Malabar Pit Viper, Stump Nosed Pit Viper,
Common Krait and many other species of
snakes have bred under captivity in the
park.
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Mission Vatsalya Scheme
 It focuses on Child Protection Services
and child welfare services.
 It is essentially a renamed version of
the pre-existing scheme called Child
Protection Services.
 It will include statutory bodies; service
delivery structures; institutional care/
services; non-institutional community-
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based care; emergency outreach services
(through Childline or the national helpline
1098 for children); training and capacity
building.
 Implementation:
 Under the mission, the Government
plans to partner with the private sector
as well as volunteer groups for its scheme
for the protection of vulnerable children
such as those abandoned or missing.
 For this, a Vatsalya portal will be
developed that will allow volunteers
to register so that State and District
Authorities can engage them in executing
various schemes.
Objectives of the Mission:
 To secure a healthy and happy childhood for
every child in India.
 To foster a sensitive, supportive and
synchronized ecosystem for the development
of children.
 To assist States/UTs in delivering the
mandate of the Juvenile Justice Act 2015.
 To achieve the SDG goals.
O Steel, and Natural Gas industries increased
Why in News?
 The Ministry of Women and Child
SC
Development has sent its draft guidelines
for Mission Vatsalya Scheme to States and
Union Territories to seek their suggestions.
 Mission Vatsalya is one of the new triad
of schemes along with Mission Shakti,
and Poshan 2.0, that aims at securing
a healthy and happy childhood for every
child.
GS
26. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: Petroleum Refinery
(weight: 28.04 per cent) has the highest
weightage in the index of eight core
industries followed by Electricity generation
(weight: 19.85 per cent), Steel (weight:
17.92 per cent), Coal (weight: 10.33 per
cent), Crude Oil Production (weight: 8.98
per cent), Natural Gas (weight: 6.88 per
cent), Cement Production (weight: 5.37 per
cent) and Fertilizers (weight: 2.63 per cent)
respectively.
Supplementary notes:
Index of Eight Core Industries
 Office of the Economic Adviser, Department
for Promotion of Industry and Internal
Trade is responsible for the release of the
Index of Eight Core Industries.
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 It maps the volume of production in the
eight most fundamental industries of our
economy.
 Petroleum Refinery (weight: 28.04 per cent)
has the highest weightage in the index of
eight core industries followed by Electricity
generation (weight: 19.85 per cent), Steel
(weight: 17.92 per cent), Coal (weight: 10.33
per cent), Crude Oil Production (weight:
8.98 per cent), Natural Gas (weight: 6.88
per cent), Cement Production (weight: 5.37
per cent) and Fertilizers (weight: 2.63 per
cent) respectively.
 These core industries consist of 40.27 per
cent of the total weight of items included in
the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
 At present, the base year for the Index of
Eight Core Industries (ICI) index is 2011-
RE
12.
Why in News?
 The combined Index of Eight Core Industries
recently increased by 12.7 per cent
(provisional) as compared to the Index of
June 2021. The production of Coal, Cement,
Electricity, Refinery Products, Fertilizers,
in June 2022 over the corresponding period
of last year.
27. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary notes:
National Institutional Ranking
Framework (NIRF)
 The NIRF outlines a methodology to
rank institutions across the country.
The methodology draws from the overall
recommendations of broad understanding
arrived at by a core committee set up by
MHRD to identify the parameters for ranking
various universities and institutions.
 The parameters broadly cover “Teaching,
Learning and Resources,” “Research and
Professional Practices,” “Graduation
Outcomes,” “Outreach and Inclusivity,”
and “Perception”. These parameters have
been grouped into five clusters and these
clusters were assigned certain weightages.
The weightages depend on the type of
institution.
 Depending on their areas of operation,
institutions have been ranked under 11
different categories – overall, university,
colleges, engineering, management,
pharmacy, law, medical, architecture,
dental and research.
18

 The first NIRF ratings were released in
2016.
 The National Board of Accreditation (NBA)
is the Ranking Agency on behalf of NIRF.
 NIRF is the first-ever effort by the
government to rank higher education
institutions (HEIs) in the country. Before
NIRF’s launch in 2016, HEIs were usually
ranked by private entities, especially news
magazines.
 Participation in the rankings is currently
voluntary.
Why in News?
 The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)
Madras stayed on top of the latest National
Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF)
rankings for the fourth consecutive year.
 IIT was followed in the overall ranking
by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
Bengaluru and IIT Bombay in the seventh
edition of the rankings released recently.
 IISc also topped the universities and
research institutions category, Delhi’s
Miranda House, the colleges category, IIT
O
Madras, the engineering category, the Indian
Institute of Ahmedabad, the management
schools category, the All India Institute of
Medical Sciences, Delhi, the medical colleges
SC
category, and the National Law School of
India, Bengaluru, the law schools category.
NIRF also ranks pharmacy, dental, and
architecture colleges.
 The first non-engineering institute in the
ranking is AIIMS, at 9; Delhi’s Jawaharlal
Nehru University is in 10th rank.
GS
28. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: MIDH
is a scheme for the holistic growth of
the horticulture sector covering fruits,
vegetables, root & tuber crops, mushrooms,
spices, flowers, aromatic plants, coconut,
cashew, cocoa and bamboo with exotic
species.
Supplementary notes:
MIDH
 MIDH is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme
for the holistic growth of the horticulture
sector covering fruits, vegetables, root &
tuber crops, mushrooms, spices, flowers,
aromatic plants, coconut, cashew, cocoa and
bamboo.
 Nodal Ministry: The Ministry of Agriculture
and Farmers Welfare is implementing
MIDH with effect from 2014-15.
19
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.
 MIDH is implemented under Green
Revolution - Krishonnati Yojana.
 Funding Pattern: Under MIDH,
Government of India (GoI) contributes
60% of total outlay for developmental
programmes in all the states except states
in North East and Himalayas, 40% share is
contributed by State Governments.
 In the case of North Eastern States and
Himalayan States, GoI contributes 90%.
Why in News?
 Following the footsteps of the Gujarat and
Haryana Governments, the Centre has
decided to promote the cultivation of dragon
fruit, known as a “super fruit” for its health
benefits.
 The Centre feels that considering the cost
RE
effectiveness and global demand for the fruit
due to its nutritional values, its cultivation
can be expanded in India.
 At present, this exotic fruit is cultivated
in 3,000 hectares; the plan is to increase
cultivation to 50,000 hectares in five years.
29. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The writ of
‘prohibition’ is issued by a higher court to a
lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter
from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a
jurisdiction that it does not possess.
Supplementary notes:
Writs of Prohibition and Certiorari
 Prohibition: Literally, it means ‘to forbid’.
It is issued by a higher court to a lower
court or tribunal to prevent the latter from
exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a
jurisdiction that it does not possess. Thus,
unlike mandamus that directs activity,
the prohibition directs inactivity. The writ
of prohibition can be issued only against
judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It
is not available against administrative
authorities, legislative bodies, and private
individuals or bodies.
 Certiorari: In the literal sense, it means
‘to be certified’ or ‘to be informed’. It is
issued by a higher court to a lower court or
tribunal either to transfer a case pending
with the latter to itself or to squash the
order of the latter in a case. It is issued on
the grounds of excess of jurisdiction or lack
of jurisdiction or error of law. Thus, unlike
prohibition, which is only preventive,
certiorari is both preventive as well as
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curative. Previously, the writ of certiorari
could be issued only against judicial and
quasi-judicial authorities and not against
administrative authorities. However,
in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that
the certiorari can be issued even against
administrative authorities affecting rights
of individuals. Like prohibition, certiorari is
also not available against legislative bodies
and private individuals or bodies.
Why in News?
 The Supreme Court recently decided that the
Patna High Court exceeded its jurisdiction
by summoning Sahara group chief Subrata
Roy in an anticipatory bail case completely
unrelated to him and ordering him to come
up with a plan to return investors’ money.
30. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: I2U2 stands for
India, Israel, the UAE, and the US, and was
also referred to as the ‘West Asian Quad’ by
Ahmed Albanna, Ambassador of the UAE to
India.
O and is unique because it can grow in.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: India is a
member of this grouping.
Supplementary notes:
SC
I2U2 Group
 I2U2 stands for India, Israel, the UAE,
and the US, and was also referred to as
the ‘West Asian Quad’ by Ahmed Albanna,
Ambassador of the UAE to India.
 Back in October 2021, a meeting of the
foreign ministers of the four countries had
GS
taken place when External Affairs Minister S
Jaishankar was visiting Israel. At that time,
the grouping was called the ‘International
Forum for Economic Cooperation’.
 Its stated aim is to discuss “common areas of
mutual interest, to strengthen the economic
partnership in trade and investment in our
respective regions and beyond”.
 Six areas of cooperation have been identified
by the countries mutually, and the aim is
to encourage joint investments in water,
energy, transportation, space, health, and
food security. With the help of “private
sector capital and expertise”, the countries
will look to modernise infrastructure,
explore low carbon development avenues
for industries, improve public health,
and promote the development of critical
emerging and green technologies.
 The grouping also points to India’s growing
engagement with countries in West Asia
including Israel. The Abraham Accords of
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.
2020 had led to Israel formally normalising
diplomatic ties with the UAE and two
other countries in the region, marking an
important shift in the stance of West Asian
countries on Israel.
 It could serve Indian foreign-policy goals:
The arrangement enables New Delhi to
expand its role on the world stage, to
engage more deeply in the Middle East, and
to strengthen cooperation with the United
States.
 As with the other Quad, this arrangement
is a loose grouping, not an alliance.
Why in News?
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi will recently
participate in the first-ever I2U2 Virtual
Summit along with the heads of state of
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Israel, the UAE, and the US.
31. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Pokkali is a
variety of rice endemic to coastal Kerala,
Supplementary notes:
Pokkali Rice
 It is endemic to coastal regions of three
Kerala districts—Ernakulam, Thrissur and
Alappuzha.
 However, while this variety of rice seems
ideal to farm, several Pokkali farmers allege
that they are not receiving adequate support
to keep up with the crop cycle, which is vital
to pokkali farming.
Key Features
 Pokkali rice is famous for their salinity
tolerance gene SalTol QTL and is
significant for the International rice
improvement programmes for salinity
tolerance.
 The rice is cultivated once a year from April
to November, in the low-lying fields adjacent
to Kerala’s backwaters and the Arabian
Sea.
 The fields are mostly submerged in salt
water for a major portion of the year, and
are used for the cultivation of shrimp during
this time.
 Shrimp cultivation aids the Pokkali rice in
providing nutrition, since the paddy does not
require any artificial fertilisers or pesticides
to grow.
 Pokkali farms are supposed to adhere to a
double crop calendar — paddy between April
20

and October during the low saline phase of
monsoon and saline aquaculture between
November and March when salinity soars.
 It has got Geographical Indication Certificate
(GI) and Genome Community Award.
Why in News?
 Pokkali rice farming in Ernakulam
district of coastal Kerala is under threat
due to ‘mismanaged’ infrastructure.
32. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Sashakti
RE
 Delhi Police will provide self-defence training
to girls, working women and housewives
with a view of empowering them.
 These classes are conducted free of cost both
online and offline. This prepares women to
deal with any situation at any given point in
O (NSBL)—the
case they don’t have immediate help around
or when police may take time to reach the
spot.
Why in News?
SC
 Delhi Police’s Special Police Unit for Women
34. Correct Option: (c)
and Children (SPUWAC) organised the 18th
Summer Camp 2022 under its special
initiative ‘Sashakti’ for the purpose of
creating awareness about women’s safety.
33. Correct option: (c)
GS
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: ESZ draws its
power from the Environment Protection Act
of 1986
 Statement 2 is incorrect: An ESZ could go
up to 10 kilometres around a protected area
as provided in the Wildlife Conservation
Strategy, 2002.
Supplementary notes:
Ecological Sensitive Zone (ESZ)
 The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
does not mention the word “Eco-Sensitive
Zones”. However, Section 3(2)(v) of the Act,
says that Central Government can restrict
areas in which any industries, operations or
processes or class of industries, operations
or processes shall not be carried out or shall
be carried out subject to certain safeguards.
Besides Rule 5(1) of the Environment
(Protection) Rules, 1986.
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.
 Eco Sensitive Zones are notified by the
Ministry of Environment Forests and
Climate Change. State Governments
to forward proposals for declaration of
eco-sensitive zones around its Protected
Areas. However, only States like Haryana,
Gujarat, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Assam,
Goa have forwarded proposals. However,
several other States/Union Territories
have not come forward, perhaps for want of
guidelines in this regard.
 An ESZ could go up to 10 kilometres around
a protected area as provided in the Wildlife
Conservation Strategy, 2002.
 Moreover, in case where sensitive corridors,
connectivity and ecologically important
patches, crucial for landscape linkage, are
beyond 10 kilometers width, these should
be included in the Eco-Sensitive Zones.
Why in News?
 Three Indian skimmers, an endangered
bird species on the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN) list, were
spotted in Nal Sarovar Bird Sanctuary
famous wetland near
Ahmedabad. According to birders, although
spotted before in Gujarat, Indian skimmers
are rare sightings in Nal Sarovar.
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
James Webb Telescope
 JWST is a general-purpose observatory
with a large aperture telescope optimised
for infrared observations and a suite of
state-of-the-art astronomical instruments
capable of addressing many outstanding
issues in astronomy.
 It was named after former administrator
of NASA James E. Webb. It was launched
as an international collaboration between
NASA, ESA (European Space Agency) and
the Canadian Space Agency. It costs around
$9.7 billion, and is billed as the next-
generation space telescope (NGST).
Key features of JWST are-
 JWST will operate in an orbit around
the Earth-Sun L2 Langrage point, ~ 1.5
million kilometres away from Earth. This
makes its operation, pointing and stability
requirements much simpler in comparison
with HST
 It orbits around the Earth at an altitude of
~570 km above it.
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 The telescope and the instruments will
operate at the extremely low temperature
of -233°C, which prevents the instrument’s
own infrared emission from overwhelming
the signals from the astronomical targets.
Potential benefits of the JWST Mission-
 The launch of JWST is touted as the next
big event in study of space events. It has
the potential to explore following thing in
universe-
 Universe’s first galaxies-
 It is possible to observe different life
stages of galaxies and stars by observing
light emitted by the galaxies in time
space.
 Reveal the birth of stars and planets and
how they die.
Why in News?
 President Joe Biden and NASA released the
clearest-ever image of our young Universe,
dating to the time soon after the Big Bang.
 The first image from the $10 billion James
Webb Space Telescope is the farthest
O
humanity has ever seen in both time and
distance, closer to the dawn of time and the
edge of the universe.
SC
35. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
 Red Panda population is found in the
following states:
 West Bengal
GS
 Arunachal Pradesh
 Sikkim
 Meghalaya
Supplementary notes:
Red Panda
 Although sharing the same name as the
Giant Panda, they are only distantly related
to them, and are actually more closely
related to raccoons.
 Distribution: Most Red Pandas can be found
in the temperate forests of the Himalayas
and some high mountain areas of China and
Myanmar (Burma).
 Physical Features: Their fur is long, thick
and fuzzy to protect it against rain and cold
in its mountainous habitat of up to 5000m
altitude.
 Its colour helps the panda to blend with
the reddish moss and white lichen growing
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.
on fir trees. They are 50 – 60 cm long and
weigh between three and six kgs.
 Red pandas are generally quiet, but
subtle vocalizations—such as squeals and
twitters—can be heard at close proximity.
They are also capable of creating a high-
pitched whistle.
 Red Pandas are listed as endangered, this
is due to various factors, but the main one
being humans.
 Loss of habitat and poaching has seen
numbers of Red Pandas in the world drop to
as low as 10,000.
 Diet
 Bamboo constitutes 85 to 95 per cent of the
red panda’s diet. Unlike giant pandas which
RE
feed on nearly every portion of bamboo,
red pandas feed selectively on the most
nutritious leaf tips and, when available,
tender shoots.
Why in News?
The Singalila National Park, the highest

protected area in West Bengal, launches
programme that aims to release about
20 Red Pandas in a period of five years.
36. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Mangroves
have thick leaves to minimize water loss.
Supplementary notes:
Mangroves
 Mangroves are the characteristic littoral
plant formation of tropical and subtropical
sheltered coastlines with various limiting
factors like lack of oxygen, high salinity and
diurnal tidal inundation. They are basically
evergreen land plants growing on sheltered
shores, typically on tidal flats, deltas,
estuaries, bays, creeks and the barrier
islands.
22
 37. Correct Option: (c)
 Mangroves are trees and bushes growing
below the high water level of spring tides
which exhibits remarkable capacity for salt
water tolerance (halophytes).
 The best locations are where abundant silt is
brought down by rivers or on the backshore
of accreting sandy beaches.
 They require high solar radiation and have
the ability to absorb fresh water from saline/
brackish water.
 Mangroves exhibit Viviparity mode of
reproduction i.e. seeds germinate in the tree
itself (before falling to the ground). This is
an adaptive mechanism to overcome the
problem of germination in saline water.
 Leaves are thick and succulent with sunken
stomata for limiting water loss and contain
RE
salt secreting glands.
 It produces pneumatophores (areal roots)
to overcome respiration problem in the
anaerobic soil conditions. Adventitious
roots which emerged from the main trunk
of a tree above ground level are called stilt
roots. O 30°C or more for Hilly regions.
 Mangrove plants have special roots such as
prop roots, pneumatophores which help to
impede water flow and thereby enhance the
deposition of sediment in areas, stabilize
SC
the coastal shores, provide breeding ground
for fishes.
 Mangroves moderate monsoonal tidal floods
and reduce inundation of coastal lowlands.
 It prevents coastal soil erosion.
 It protects coastal lands from tsunami,
hurricanes and floods.
GS
 Mangroves enhance natural recycling of
nutrients and acts as a sink for heavy
metals.
Why in News?
 Researchers from Kerala Forest Research
Institute and Ghent University, Belgium
have recently found that mangrove plants
are heavily equipped to fight climate
change.
 Mangrove plants have a special phenomenon
called foliar water uptake (FWU), which is
a mechanism that enables plants to acquire
water from the atmosphere through their
leaves.
 As mangroves live in a saline sediment water
environment, the mechanism of FWU might
be of vital importance to acquiring fresh
water and growth. The amazing ability of
mangrove plants to take up water from the
rain and atmospheric water makes them a
good candidate to answer climate change.
23
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.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, heat
wave is considered if maximum temperature
of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for
Plains and at least 30°C or more for Hilly
regions.
Supplementary notes:
Heat Wave
 Qualitatively, heat wave is a condition of air
temperature which becomes fatal to human
body when exposed. Quantitatively, it is
defined based on the temperature thresholds
over a region in terms of actual temperature
or its departure from normal.
 In certain countries it is defined in term of
the heat index based on temperature and
humidity or based on extreme percentile of
the temperatures.
 In India, heat wave is considered if
maximum temperature of a station reaches
at least 40°C or more for Plains and at least
 Based on Departure from Normal
 Heat Wave: Departure from normal is
4.5°C to 6.4°C
 Severe Heat Wave: Departure from
normal is >6.4°C
 Based on Actual Maximum Temperature
 Heat Wave: When actual maximum
temperature ≥ 45°C
 Severe Heat Wave: When actual
maximum temperature ≥47°C
 If above criteria met at least in 2 stations
in a Meteorological sub-division for at least
two consecutive days and it is declared on
the second day.
 When maximum temperature departure is
4.5°C or more from normal, Heat Wave may
be described for coastal stations provided
actual maximum temperature is 37°C or
more.
 Heat wave generally occurs over plains of
northwest India, Central, East & north
Peninsular India during March to June.
It covers Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Uttar
Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal,
Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan,
Gujarat, parts of Maharashtra & Karnataka,
Andhra Pradesh and Telengana. Sometimes
it occurs over Tamil Nadu & Kerala also.
 Favorable conditions for Heat wave are:
 Transportation / Prevalence of hot dry
air over a region (There should be a
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region of warm dry air and appropriate
flow pattern for transporting hot air over
the region).
 Absence of moisture in the upper
atmosphere (As the presence of moisture
restricts the temperature rise).
 The sky should be practically cloudless
(To allow maximum insulation over the
region).
 Large amplitude anti-cyclonic flow over
the area.
Why in News?
 Temperatures across Europe are soaring
recently, at or near triple digits from Spain
to the British Isles and spreading east.
Wildfires stoked by the heat are burning in
many countries, and much of the continent
is in the throes of a lengthy drought.
 Heat waves in Europe are increasing in
frequency and intensity at a faster rate
than almost any other part of the planet,
including the Western United States.
38. Correct Option: (d)
O Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker who were
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The project
envisages: Constructing a triangular
SC
Parliament building next to the existing one,
constructing a common Central Secretariat
and revamping of the 3-km-long Rajpath
— from Rashtrapati Bhavan to India Gate.
The Parliament House and North and South
Blocks will not be demolished, but their
usage may change.
GS
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Union
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
proposed a Central Vista redevelopment
project in 2019.
Supplementary notes:
Central Vista Redevelopment Project
 The Central Vista is a 3 km stretch in
the heart of New Delhi that runs from
the Rashtrapati Bhavan to India Gate.
It is flanked by large green spaces and
significant structures such as Parliament,
the Secretariat buildings and the National
Archives.
 The Central government is redeveloping
the three-km-long Central Vista and
Parliament. A common Central secretariat
will be constructed for all ministries that
are currently spread over many buildings
across Delhi.
 The Parliament House and North and South
Blocks will not be demolished, but their
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.
usage may change. The rest of the buildings
that came up post-1947, including Shastri
Bhavan and Krishi Bhavan, are likely to be
demolished.
 Central Vista Project also includes a joint
central secretariat, revamp of the Rajpath,
a new Prime Minister’s residence, a new
Prime Minister’s Office, and a new Vice-
President’s enclave.
 The new Parliament building will coming up
adjacent to the existing Parliament complex,
and will be of almost the same size. Bimal
Patel of HCP Designs, Ahmedabad, is the
architect in charge of the building, which
is triangular in shape, and incorporates
architectural styles from around India.
 The new complex has 888 seats in the
Lok Sabha chamber and 384 seats in the
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Rajya Sabha chamber. Unlike the present
Parliament building, there is no Central
Hall, and the Lok Sabha chamber will be
able to house 1,272 members in case of a joint
session. The building will have an open-sky
area of 2,000 sq metre for a banyan tree.
 The existing building was designed by
responsible for the planning and construction
of New Delhi. It was inaugurated in 1927, by
then Governor General of India Lord Irwin.
Why in News?
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently
unveiled the National Emblem cast on the
roof of the new Parliament building.
 Cast at the top of the Central Foyer of the
new Parliament building, the 6.5-metre-
high National Emblem is made of bronze,
and weighs 9,500 kg. A supporting structure
of steel weighing around 6,500 kg has been
constructed to support the Emblem.
 The new building will have six granite statues
of important personalities, four galleries
each for the two Houses of Parliament, three
ceremonial foyers, three India galleries, and
one Constitution gallery.
 Each wall in the building will have a
dominant theme — dedicated, for instance,
to the contribution of tribal leaders, or to
showcasing the contribution of women.
Displays including a mix of portraits,
illustrative arts, installations, sculptures,
and decorative art will frame storylines.
39. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The ISS is
not the first space station to be built and
operated. Several smaller space stations
24

have been used earlier, the most famous
of which have been the Russian Mir space
station that operated in the 1980s, and the
American Skylab.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: In 2020,
SpaceX’s Crew Dragon capsule became the
first privately-owned spacecraft to transport
people to the ISS.
Supplementary notes:
International Space Station (ISS)
 Launched in 1998 and involving the U.S.,
Russia, Canada, Japan, and the participating
countries of the European Space Agency—
the International Space Station is one of the
most ambitious international collaborations
ever attempted. The largest space station
ever constructed, the ISS continues to be
assembled in orbit.
 The International Space Station is the only
operational space laboratory as of now,
orbiting the earth in a trajectory that is
about 400 km above the land surface. It is
operated by more than 15 partner countries.
It can be seen from Earth without the use
O International Space Station after 2024.
of a telescope by night sky observers who
know when and where to look.
 The football-field-sized ISS travels at a
speed of about 28,000 km per hour. It
completes one journey around the earth
SC
in about one and a half hours. In one day,
therefore, it makes about 16 trips around
the world. Astronauts working and living
on the Station experience 16 sunrises and
sunsets each day.
 The ISS has been manned continuously
since the start of operations in 1998. At any
GS
given time, there is a crew of six astronauts
on board. Right now, seven astronauts, four
from the United States, two from Russia (it
prefers to call them cosmonauts) and one
from Germany, are at ISS. According to
NASA, 240 individuals from 19 countries
have so far been to the ISS. The facility
is used for carrying out a variety of zero-
gravity experiments, space exploratory
studies, and technology development.
 Typically, astronauts travel to the space
station via a Russian Soyuz capsule (first
launched in 1967), which has long been the
only spacecraft that ferries people to the
ISS, since NASA’s space shuttle programme
retired in 2011. However, in 2020, SpaceX’s
Crew Dragon capsule became the first
privately-owned spacecraft to transport
people to the ISS.
 The ISS is not the first space station to be
built and operated. Several smaller space
stations have been used earlier, the most
famous of which have been the Russian Mir
25
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.
space station that operated in the 1980s,
and the American Skylab.
 ISS is not entirely in zero-gravity space. It
does encounter a little bit of gravity. Also,
it loses a bit of energy as it moves around
the earth. Left to itself, the ISS would
fall down. The Russians periodically send
thrusters that attach themselves to the ISS
and impart the required momentum to keep
it going.
 The ISS has been in operation since 1998
and is expected to continue at least till
2028. Russia, however, has indicated that it
might pull out of the collaboration earlier,
possibly by 2024. Replacements for ISS are
already being planned. Several countries
including India and China have a desire
to put their own space stations. China has
RE
already tested at least two prototypes.
Why in News?
 Moscow’s space agency Roscosmos ‘ newly-
appointed chief Yury Borisov recently
announced that Russia will quit the
 The announcement comes as tensions rage
between the Kremlin and the West over
Moscow’s military operation in Ukraine and
several rounds of unprecedented sanctions
against Russia.
 Russia and the United States have worked
side by side on the space station which has
been in orbit since 1998.
40. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It is not a
United Nations body. However, at the
request of the IPBES Plenary and with
the authorization of the UNEP Governing
Council in 2013, the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP)
provides secretariat services to
IPBES.
Supplementary notes:
Intergovernmental Science-Policy
Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem
Services (IPBES)
 Intergovernmental Science-Policy
Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem
Services (IPBES) is an independent
intergovernmental body established by
States to strengthen the science-policy
interface for biodiversity and ecosystem
services for the conservation and sustainable
use of biodiversity, long-term human well-
being and sustainable development.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

 IPBES recently released a report which
states that about 50,000 wild species globally
can meet the needs of billions of people.
 Key highlights of the report are:
 With about 50,000 wild species used
through different practices, including more
than 10,000 wild species harvested directly
for human food, rural people in developing
countries are most at risk from unsustainable
use, with lack of complementary alternatives
often forcing them to further exploit wild
species already at risk.
 One out of five sources their food from wild
plants, algae and fungi, while 2.4 billion
depend on firewood for cooking and around
90 per cent of the 120 million population
pursuing fisheries rely on small-scale
fishing.
 The use of wild species defines identities
and livelihoods and also holds cultural
significance. Certain species have cultural
importance as they offer multiple benefits
that define tangible and intangible features
of people’s cultural heritage.
 Helping indigenous and local communities
O
maintain their ability to use wild species
sustainably and protecting their cultural
practices associated with them would ensure
their survival.
SC
 Indigenous people and local communities
used local knowledge, practices and
spirituality for the sustainable use of wild
species. They respected nature and only
took what they needed. This ensured that
healthy populations of wild species were
maintained.
 It stressed that the sustainable use of wild
GS
species needed “constant negotiation and
adaptive management” along with a common
understanding of “sustainable use”.
Why in News?
 The ninth session of the Plenary of the
Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform
on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services
(IPBES 9) was recently concluded in
Germany.
41. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Permission
has to be taken to operate an e-pharmacy.
No person shall himself or by any other
person on his behalf sell, or stock or
exhibit or offer for sale, or distribute, any
drug by online mode (e-pharmacy) except
under and in accordance with a licence or
permission issued in such manner as may
be prescribed.
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.
Supplementary notes:
Draft Drugs, Medical Devices and
Cosmetics Bill, 2022
 The draft focuses on regulating medical
devices as a separate entity, makes
provision for fines and imprisonment for
injury and death related to clinical trials
or investigations, and seeks to regulate
e-pharmacies.
 For the first time, regulations for conduct
of clinical trials for new drugs and medical
devices have been brought under the draft
New Drugs, Medical Devices and Cosmetics
Bill, 2022 which seeks to replace the existing
Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940.
 The draft bill has a separate chapter for
AYUSH drugs which proposes to regulate
RE
Sowa Rigpa and Homoeopathy for the first
time. The existing act regulates Ayurveda,
Unani and Siddha drugs and cosmetics.
 The draft bill introduces various new
definitions or provisions like bioequivalence
study, bioavailability study, clinical trial,
clinical investigation, controlling authority,
manufacturer, medical device, new drugs,
over the-counter (OTC) drugs, adulterated
cosmetics, etc. for more clarity and smooth
functioning and implementation.
 It proposes the constitution of a separate
Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB)
and Medical Devices Technical Advisory
Board (MDTAB), comprising experts from
various associations to advise the central
government in technical matters.
 The penalties for offences related to import
of drugs and cosmetics have been enhanced
appropriately.
 It mentions where any person permitted
under sub-section (1) of section 72 fails to
provide the required medical management
or compensation under section 73, shall
be punishable with imprisonment which
may extend to one year or with fine which
shall not be less than twice the amount of
compensation.
 In the interest of public health or extreme
urgency of drugs, the central government
is empowered to make provisions for
Central Licensing Authority to waive the
requirement of conducting clinical trials
for manufacture or import of new drugs or
investigational new drugs in the country.
 Where a participant during a clinical trial
suffers injury or death on account of his
participation in such investigation, provision
has been made to provide compensation and
medical management to such participants.
26

 Permission has to be taken to operate an
e-pharmacy. No person shall himself or by
any other person on his behalf sell, or stock
or exhibit or offer for sale, or distribute, any
drug by online mode (e-pharmacy) except
under and in accordance with a licence or
permission issued in such manner as may
be prescribed.
 Provisions have been incorporated to
designate or establish medical device
testing centres by the central government
for testing and evaluation of medical devices
for regulators and industry.
Why in News?
 The Union Health Ministry recently released
a draft of a proposed The Drugs, Medical
Devices and Cosmetics Bill, 2022 to replace
the existing The Drugs and Cosmetics Act,
1940, and several sets of Rules by which the
industry is currently run.
42. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:

concern” is not limited to epidemic-
O
Statement 1 is incorrect: The concept of
a “public health emergency of international
prone diseases, but extends to biological,
chemical and nuclear hazards, including
SC
the chemical or nuclear contamination of
the environment, and contaminated food
and pharmaceuticals. The International
Health Regulations do not require actual
international spread but only a high
potential for that spread.
Supplementary notes:
GS
Public Health Emergency of International
Concern (PHEIC)
 Under the International Health Regulations
(IHR), a public health emergency is
defined as “an extraordinary event which
is determined, as provided in these
Regulations: to constitute a public health
risk to other States through the international
spread of disease; and to potentially require
a coordinated international response”.
 Declaring public health emergencies
of international concern (PHEIC) is a
cornerstone of the IHR. The responsibility
of declaring an event as an emergency lies
with the Director-General of the WHO and
requires the convening of a committee of
members.
 PHEIC is WHO’s highest alert level.
 The definition implies that the situation
is serious, sudden, unusual or unexpected,
carries implications for public health
27
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.
beyond the affected country’s border. The
agency reserves the designation for only
those diseases that need a coordinated
international response to prevent it from
potentially escalating into a pandemic.
 In the past decade, WHO has declared public
health emergencies for outbreaks including
swine flu, polio and Ebola.
Why in News?
 The World Health Organization (WHO)
recently declared a ‘public health emergency’
over monkeypox.
 So far this year, there have been more than
16,000 cases of monkeypox in more than 60
countries, and five deaths in Africa. The viral
disease — which spreads via close contact
and tends to cause flu-like symptoms and
RE
pus-filled skin lesions — has been spreading
chiefly in men who have sex with men in the
recent outbreak outside Africa, where it is
endemic.
43. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect: Rubella,
JE and Rotavirus vaccine is provided in
select states and districts only.
Supplementary notes:
Immunization in India
 Expanded Programme on Immunization
was launched in 1978. It was renamed as
Universal Immunization Programme in
1985 when its reach was expanded beyond
urban areas. In 1992, it became part of Child
Survival and Safe Motherhood Programme
and in 1997 it was included in the ambit of
National Reproductive and Child Health
Programme. Since the launch of National
Rural Health Mission in 2005, Universal
Immunization Programme has always been
an integral part of it.
 Universal Immunization Programme
(UIP) is one of the largest public health
programmes targeting close of 2.67 crore
newborns and 2.9 crore pregnant women
annually.
 It is one of the most cost-effective public
health interventions and largely responsible
for reduction of vaccine preventable under-5
mortality rate.
 Under UIP, immunization is providing
free of cost against 12 vaccine preventable
diseases:
 Nationally against 9 diseases -
Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio,
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Measles, Rubella, severe form of
Childhood Tuberculosis, Hepatitis B
and Meningitis & Pneumonia caused by
Hemophilus Influenza type B
 Sub-nationally against 3 diseases -
Rotavirus diarrhoea, Pneumococcal
Pneumonia and Japanese Encephalitis;
of which Rotavirus vaccine and
Pneumococcal Conjugate vaccine are in
process of expansion while JE vaccine is
provided only in endemic districts.
 A child is said to be fully immunized if child
receives all due vaccine as per national
immunization schedule within 1st year age
of child.
 The two major milestones of UIP have
been the elimination of polio in 2014 and
maternal and neonatal tetanus elimination
in 2015.
 Mission Indradhanush (MI) was launched
in December 2014 and aims at increasing
the full immunization coverage to children
to 90%.
 Under this drive focus is given on pockets
of low immunization coverage and hard
to reach areas where the proportion of
O Bank”, the Bank for Development and
unvaccinated and partially vaccinated
children is highest.
 A total of six phases of Mission Indradhanush
SC
have been completed covering 554 districts
across the country.
 It was also identified as one of the flagship
schemes under Gram Swaraj Abhiyan
(16,850 villages across 541 districts) and
Extended Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (48,929
villages across 117 aspirational districts).
GS
Why in News?
 According to data published by the WHO
and UNICEF recently, the number of
children in India who were unvaccinated
or missed their first dose of diphtheria-
tetanus-pertussis (DTP) combined vaccine
doubled due to the pandemic, rising from
1.4 million in 2019 to 2.7 million in 2021.
 The increase in zero dose, or those who
missed their first dose of diphtheria-tetanus-
pertussis, between 2019 and 2021 is the
“first time ever there has been a decline
in evaluated coverage in immunization for
India as a whole.”
 Though immunisation coverage continues
to decline the world over, India was able to
arrest the trend between 2020 and 2021.
The number of children with zero dose
rose sharply to three million in 2020. But a
further backsliding was prevented and the
number dropped to 2.7 million in 2021 due
to catch-up programmes such as the third
Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI).
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
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44. Correct Option: (a)
.
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Creation of the
Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
was proclaimed on June 15, 2001 in Shanghai
(China) by the Republic of Kazakhstan,
the People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz
Republic, the Russian Federation, the
Republic of Tajikistan and the Republic of
Uzbekistan. Prior to that, all of the above
countries, except for Uzbekistan, were
members of the Shanghai Five, a political
association based on the Agreement on
Confidence-Building in the Military Field in
the Border Area (Shanghai, 1996).
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The SCO
Interbank Consortium (SCO IBC) was
established by the Council of Heads of
RE
Government in 2005 to provide funding
and bank services for investment projects
sponsored by the governments of the
SCO member states. The members of
the SCO IBC are the Development Bank
of Kazakhstan, the State Development
Bank of China, the Settlement & Savings
Company of the Kyrgyz Republic “RSK
Foreign Economic Affairs of the Russian
Federation “Vnesheconombank”, the State
Savings Bank of the Republic of Tajikistan
“Amonatbonk”, and the National Bank for
Foreign Economic Activity of the Republic
of Uzbekistan.
Supplementary notes:
Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(SCO)
 The Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental
international organization, the creation
of which was announced on 15 June 2001
in Shanghai (China) by the Republic of
Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of
China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Russian
Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, and
the Republic of Uzbekistan.
 It was preceded by the Shanghai Five
mechanism. All of the above countries,
except for Uzbekistan, were members of the
Shanghai Five, a political association based
on the Agreement on Confidence-Building
in the Military Field in the Border Area
(Shanghai, 1996).
 The SCO’s main goals are as follows:
strengthening mutual trust and
neighborliness among the member states;
promoting their effective cooperation in
politics, trade, the economy, research,
technology and culture, as well as in
education, energy, transport, tourism,
environmental protection, and other areas;
28

making joint efforts to maintain and ensure
peace, security and stability in the region;
and moving towards the establishment
of a democratic, fair and rational new
international political and economic order.
 The organization has two permanent bodies
— the SCO Secretariat based in Beijing and
the Executive Committee of the Regional
Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in
Tashkent.
 The Heads of State Council (HSC) is the
supreme decision-making body in the
SCO. It meets once a year and adopts
decisions and guidelines on all important
matters of the organization. The SCO
Heads of Government Council (HGC) meets
once a year to discuss the organization’s
multilateral cooperation strategy and
RE
priority areas, to resolve current important
economic and other cooperation issues, and
also to approve the organization’s annual
budget.
 SCO was first expanded in 2017 when
India and Pakistan were admitted as its
members.
Why in News?

O
The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is
all set for expansion with Iran joining the
grouping as its ninth member while Belarus
SC
has applied for membership recently.
 The decision to admit Iran was made in last
year’s Dushanbe summit and Belarus has
submitted its application.
 Iran will become a full member after
completing the formalities while Shanghai
Cooperation Organisation (SCO) member
GS
states who follow the system of consensus
in deciding admission of new members will
take a call on Belarus’s application.
45. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: ‘Cervavac’ has
been developed by Serum Institute of India
(SII).
Supplementary notes:
Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
46. Correct Option: (d)
 According to the World Health Organization
(WHO), human papillomavirus (HPV) is
the most common viral infection of the
reproductive tract. Most sexually active
women and men will be infected at some
point in their lives, and some may be
repeatedly infected. More than 90 per cent
of the infected populations eventually clear
the infection.
29
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.
 Cervical cancer is by far the most common
HPV-related disease. A majority of this type
of cancer – more than 95 per cent – is caused
because of HPV.
 HPV infections often clear up on their own
and most pre-cancerous lesions resolve
spontaneously. However, there is a risk for
all women that HPV infection may become
chronic and pre-cancerous lesions progress
to invasive cervical cancer, says the WHO.
 It takes 15 to 20 years for cervical cancer
to develop in women with regular immune
systems. It can take only five to 10 years in
women with weakened immune systems,
such as those with untreated HIV infection.
 Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that occurs
in the cells of the cervix — the lower part of
the uterus that connects to the vagina. It
is the fourth most common cause of cancer
among women in the world.
 In India, cervical cancer is the second-most
common cancer, especially among women
between 15 and 44 years of age.
 Cervical cancer continues to be one of the
only vaccine-preventable cancers. There are
two to four types of HPV that lead to almost
70% to 80% of all the cervical cancers and
the vaccines prevent these infections. Since
the virus is sexually transmitted, it has to
be given to teenage girls before they are
sexually active. Once an infection happens,
the vaccine cannot clear it out. Hence, the
effectiveness of the vaccine keeps dropping
with age.
 At present, there are two HPV vaccines
available – GSKs Cervarix and Merck’s
Gardasil. The first one protects against the
two most common types HPV 16 and 18,
whereas the second one protects against
two additional types 6 and 11.
Why in News?
 The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI)
recently granted market authorisation to
the Pune-based Serum Institute of India
(SII) to manufacture ‘Cervavac’, India’s
first quadrivalent human papillomavirus
vaccine (qHPV). It protects women against
cervical cancer.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: India along
with Japan is the only country to have won
at-least one gold medal in every event of
Asian Games.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The 19th edition
of the Asian games will be hosted in the
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

Chinese city of Hangzhou. The Games were
originally scheduled to take place from 10 to
25 September 2022, but due to the COVID-
19 pandemic, the event was postponed and
a new date will be announced later.
Supplementary notes:
Asian Games
 The Asian Games is a multi-disciplinary
sports event held once in every four years.
Athletes from all Asian countries are
welcomed to participate in this event.
The Asian Games is recognised by the
International Olympic Committee and is
the second largest multi-sport event after
the Olympics.
 Before the Asian Games, the Far Eastern
Championship Games were held.
 After the Second World War, many Asian
countries gained independence and Guru
Dutt Sondhi, a member of the Indian
International Olympic Committee, proposed
the idea of Asian Games as a sporting
event, where all Asian nations can be
represented.

O
The first-ever Asian Games were held in
New Delhi in 1951. Asian Games were
regulated by the Asian Games Federation
from 1951 to 1978. Since 1982, Olympic
SC
Council of Asia now regulates the Asian
Games.
 The symbol for Asian Games is rising sun
with interlocking rings.
 Nine nations haves hosted the Asian Games
so far and 46 nations have participated in
the games. Israel has not taken part in
GS
Asian Games since 1974. 44 sports have
been included in the Asian Games history.
India is a founder member of Asian Games
and also the host of the first Asian Games.
1982 Asian Games were also held in New
Delhi.
 India is one of the seven countries to have
participated in all the editions of the Asian
Games. India along with Japan is the only
country to have won at-least one gold medal
in every event of Asian Games. India has
always ranked in the top 10 in the medals
tally in Asian Games, except in the 1990
games.
 The most recent games was held in Jakarta
and Palembang, Indonesia from 18 August
to 2 September 2018. The next games are
scheduled to be held in Hangzhou, China.
Why in News?
 Anayoottu is an annual ritual at Sree
Vadakkunnathan Temple, Thrissur in which
more than 50 elephants are fed special food
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
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.
to propitiate Lord Ganesha, who, according
to Hindu belief, removes obstacles in one’s
life.
 This ritual was started to help elephants
paraded at 1982 Asian Games’ opening
ceremony regain health.
47. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Prices of coal
from all the sales channels of coal, including
import are taken into account for compiling
the NCI.
Supplementary notes:
National Coal Index (NCI)
RE
 Since the Ministry of Coal started
commercial auction of coal mines on revenue
share basis, the NCI was conceptualized in
order to arrive at the revenue share based
on market prices of coal.
 The NCI is a price index which reflects the
change of price level of coal on a particular
month relative to the fixed base year.
 The base year for the NCI is FY 2017-18.
 Prices of coal from all the sales channels of
coal, including import are taken into account
for compiling the NCI.
 The amount of revenue share per tonne of
coal produced from auctioned blocks would
be arrived at using the NCI by means of
defined formula.
 NCI was rolled out in June 2020.
 NCI is composed of a set of five sub-indices:
three for Non Coking Coal and two for
Coking Coal.
 The three sub-indices for Non Coking Coal
are combined to arrive at the Index for Non
Coking Coal and the two sub-indices for
Coking Coal are combined to arrive at the
Index for Coking Coal. Thus, indices are
separate for Non-coking and Coking Coal.
As per the grade of coal pertaining to a
mine, the appropriate sub-index is used to
arrive at the revenue share.
Why in News?
 For the last six months, the National Coal
Index (NCI) has jumped from about 165 to
about 238 reflecting the sharp increase in
international coal prices. The domestic coal
industry has responded to this situation
with an increase of over 30 per cent in coal
production from April to June this year. This
has helped reduce inflationary pressures in
the economy.
30
48. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: According to the
data released by the Union Ministry of
Home Affairs (MHA), the Indians who gave
on their citizenships were highest in 2021,
if considered the data of last five years.
The number of Indians who gave up their
citizenship in 2021 stand at 1,63,370 as
compared to the same in year 2020, which
stood at 85,256 in 2020.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Union
Ministry of Home Affairs the number of
Indians who gave up citizenship in the years
2017, 2018, 2019, 2020 and 2021 stood at
49. Correct Option: (b)
1,33,049, 1,34,561, 1,44,017, 85,248 and
1,63,370 respectively.
RE
 The trend clearly indicates that the rise
has not been consistent and a decline
was observed in year 2020.
 Statement 3 is correct: In 2018, MHA
revised Form XXII under Citizenship Rules
and included a column on “circumstances/
reasons due to which applicant intends to
Indian citizenship.”
Supplementary notes:
O
acquire foreign citizenship and renounce
Renunciation of Indian Citizenship:
SC
 As per the citizenship rules 2009 of
Government of India, Indian nationals
living abroad who intend to acquire a foreign
citizenship are required to renounce
their Indian citizenship, because
Government of India does not permit
dual nationality to Indian citizens.
GS
 Renunciation/Surrender Certificate is
issued to applicants who surrender their
Indian passport after acquiring foreign
nationality. No police verification is required
for surrender certificate.
 Getting back Indian citizenship back
after renouncing it:
 There is a provision to get back Indian
citizenship. He/she has to declare
intention of renunciation in Form XXII
to the Indian Mission/Post where OCI
registration was granted. After receipt
of the declaration, the Indian Mission/
Post shall issue an acknowledgement in
Form XXII A.
 Top 5 countries where Indians
renounced their citizenship in 2021:
 United States (78,284 in 2021 from
30,828 in 2020)
 Australia (23,533 in 2021 from 13,518 in
2020)
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.
 Canada (21,597 in 2021 from 17,093 in
2020)
 United Kingdom (14,637 in 2021 from
6,489 in 2020)
 Italy (5,986 in 2021 from 2,312 in 2020)
 As many as 362 Indians living in China also
acquired Chinese citizenship.
Why in News?
 Over 1.6 lakh Indians renounced their
citizenship in 2021, which is highest in the
past five years.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The cowpea (Vigna
unguiculata) is an annual herbaceous
legume from the genus Vigna.
 Statement 2 is correct: it has tolerance
for sandy soil and low rainfall, which makes
it an important crop in the semiarid regions
across Africa and Asia.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Nigeria is the

only country to approve open cultivation of
genetically modified (GM) Bt cowpea.
Supplementary notes:
What is GM Technology?
 GM is a technology that involves inserting
DNA into the genome of an organism. To
produce a GM plant, new DNA is transferred
into plant cells. Usually, the cells are then
grown in tissue culture where they develop
into plants. The seeds produced by these
plants will inherit the new DNA.
About cowpea:
 Cowpea, also known as Black Eyed Pea,
is a staple crop in the country and is an
important source of protein for over 200
million people.
 Cowpea (Vigna unguiculata), an indigenous
legume to sub-Saharan Africa, is mainly
grown in the dry savanna areas as an
intercrop with millets, sorghum, groundnut
and maize.
 Nigeria had become the first country to
approve open cultivation of genetically
modified (GM) Bt cowpea, in 2019.
 Now genetically modified (GM) cowpea has
also cleared the first of the three regulatory
hurdles in the way of commercialization in
Ghana.
 Cowpea – black-eyed pea in some parts of
the world – is a major source of protein in
Ghana and the rest of the sub-continent. It
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

is integral to Ghana’s food security. Ghana
is the fifth largest producer of cowpea in
Africa.
 Africa accounts for 84% of grain production;
Nigeria being the largest cowpea producer in
the world and accounts for over 2.5 million
tons of grain production from an estimated
4.9 million ha.
Cultivation condition:
 The optimum temperature for cowpea
growth is 30 °C (86 °F), making it only
available as a summer crop for most of
the world. It grows best in regions with an
annual rainfall between 400 and 700 mm
(16 and 28 in). The ideal soils are sandy and
it has better tolerance for infertile and acid
soil than most other crops
Why in News?
 Genetically modified (GM) cowpea has
cleared the first of the three regulatory
hurdles in the way of commercialization
in Ghana. If it is commercialized, it will be
the first GM crop grown in the country – a
major milestone.
O is definitely inching towards cost-push
50. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
SC
 Statement 1 is correct: The government
(which is in charge of the fiscal policy) should
contain its borrowings”. Higher borrowings
(fiscal deficit) by the government eat up
domestic savings and force the rest of the
economic agents to borrow from abroad.
This can further result in slide of rupee.
GS
 Statement 2 is correct: The RBI, which
is in charge of monetary policy, should
focus on containing inflation, as it is legally
mandated to do. It is important to note
that containing inflation (that is, by raising
interest rates) may amount to sacrificing
economic growth.
 Statement 3 is correct: The Masala Bond
is directly pegged to the Indian currency.
If Indian borrowers issue more rupee
denominated Masala Bonds, this would
increase liquidity in the market or increase
in the rupee stock against few currencies
in the market and this would help in
supporting the rupee.
 Statement 4 is correct: External
Commercial Borrowing (ECB) is a type of
loan in foreign currencies, made by non-
resident lenders. Thus, easing conditions
of ECB’s helps in receiving more loans in
foreign currencies would increase the inflow
of forex, leading to rupee appreciation.
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.
Supplementary notes:
What is Depreciation?
 Currency depreciation is a fall in the value
of a currency in a floating exchange rate
system.
 Rupee depreciation means that the rupee
has become less valuable with respect to
the dollar.
 It means that the rupee is now weaker than
what it used to be earlier.
Impact of Depreciation of Rupee:
 As money flows out of India, the rupee-dollar
exchange rate gets impacted, depreciating the
rupee. Such depreciation puts considerable
pressure on the already high import prices
of crude and raw materials, paving the path
RE
for higher imported inflation and production
costs besides higher retail inflation.
 The current account deficit is bound to
widen, depleting foreign exchange reserves
and weakening the rupee.
 With higher landed prices of crude oil
and other crucial imports, the economy
inflation.
 Since a large proportion of India’s imports
are dollar-denominated, these imports will
get costlier. A good example is the crude oil
import bill.
 Costlier imports, in turn, will widen the
trade deficit as well as the current account
defict, which, in turn, will put pressure on
the exchange rate.
Impact of Depreciation of Indian Rupee:
Depreciation in rupee is a double-edged
sword for the Reserve Bank of India.
 Positive: While a weaker currency may
support exports amid a nascent economic
recovery from the pandemic.
 Negative: It poses risk of imported inflation,
and may make it difficult for the central
bank to maintain interest rates at a record
low for longer.
Why in News?
 The Indian rupee fell to a new low of 80
against the U.S. Dollar. It means that the
rupee is now weaker than what it used to
be earlier.
51. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The largest
lithium reserves are found in Latin
32

America and Australia. Of the top ten
countries with the largest concentration of
lithium reserves, Chile tops the list, with
9.2 million metric tons.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Korea and
Japan are the leading importers of Chinese
lithium.
Supplementary notes:
Lithium Imports
 China and Hong Kong nations together
supply 96% of India’s lithium-ion cell and
battery imports and almost 70% of non-
rechargeable lithium products. India
meets most of its lithium cell requirements
through imports.
 Lithium production in China grew from
10.8K tonnes of lithium content in 2019 to
14K tonnes in 2020.
 MSP is an ambitious new alliance formed
by the US to secure supply chains of critical
minerals.
 The goal of the alliance is to ensure that
critical minerals are produced, processed,
O
and recycled in a manner that supports
the ability of countries to realize the full
economic development benefit of their
geological endowments.
SC
 The focus would be on the supply chains of
minerals such as Cobalt, Nickel, Lithium,
and also the 17 “rare earth” minerals.
 However, India is not a part of this
partnership.
Why in News?
GS
 Energy security and shift to a green future
have put the focus on rare earth elements.
However, India is import dependent on
critical minerals. Thus, it needs “mining
reforms, US partnership”.
 In order to break the dominance and
reduce dependence on China in mining and
processing rare earth minerals, the United
States recently announced the formation
of a global alliance called the Mineral
Security Partnership (MSP).
 Apart from the US, the other countries to
have joined this partnership are: Australia,
Canada, Finland, France, Germany, Japan,
the Republic of Korea, Sweden, the UK, and
the European Commission.
52. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
33
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.
Supplementary notes:
India’s Antarctica Bill 2022
 Applicability: It will apply to any person,
foreigners, corporations, firms, vessels or
aircraft that is a part of an Indian expedition
to Antarctica.
 Central Committee: 10 members (to
be nominated from various ministries) +
two experts (on the Antarctic) + chairman
(Secretary of the Ministry of Earth Science)
 It will give permits, ensure compliance, and
review the information provided by parties
to the treaty.
 Private tours and expeditions to Antarctica
would be prohibited without a permit
or written authorization by a member
RE
country.
 Permit can be granted only after the
environmental impact assessment and waste
management plan have been prepared.
 Prohibited activities: The Bill prohibits
certain activities in Antarctica including


nuclear explosion
radioactive wastes
or disposal
introduction of non-sterile soil
of
 discharge of garbage, plastic, or other
substance into the sea which is harmful
to the marine environment.
 Offences and penalties (extend the
jurisdiction of Indian courts to
Antarctica):
 Conducting a nuclear explosion in
Antarctica will be punishable with an
imprisonment of 20 years which may
extend to life imprisonment and a fine of
at least Rs 50 crore.
 Drilling for mineral resources or
introducing non-native animals or
plants in Antarctica without a permit
will be punishable with imprisonment of
up to seven years and a fine between Rs
10 lakh and Rs 50 lakh.
 The central government may notify one or
more Sessions Courts to be the Designated
Court under the Bill and specify its territorial
jurisdiction to try offenses punishable under
the Bill.
 Antarctic Fund: For the welfare of
Antarctic research work and the protection
of the Antarctic environment.
 Establishes a ‘Committee on Antarctic
Governance and Environmental
Protection.’
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
 .
Why in News? voyage in 1982 (Under Operation
 The Antarctic treaty (signed in 1959 and Gangotri)
implemented in 1961) made it mandatory
for the 54 signatory countries to specific
53. Correct Option: (c)
laws governing territories on which their
stations are located. India signed the treaty Explanation:
in 1983 and therefore a law was needed to
preserve the pristine Antarctic environment  Option (c) is correct
and ocean around it.
Supplementary notes:
 Initially, India was left out of 1959’s
Antarctica Treaty, but it made a maiden MTP amendment Act, 2021

The MTP Act 1971 and The MTP Act Amendments 2021
MTP Act 1971 The MTP Amendment Act 2021
Indications (Contraceptive Only applies to married women Unmarried women are also vocered
failure)
Gestational Age Limit 20 weeks for all indications 24 weeks for rape survivors Beyond 24 weeks

RE
Medical practitioner One RMP till 12 weeeks
opinions required before Two RMPs till 20 weeks
termination
Breach of the women’s Fine up to Rs. 1000
confidnetiality
O
 Increased Gestational Limit: The
gestational limit for termination of a
pregnancy has been increased from 20 to
SC
24 weeks for certain categories of women.
The seven specific categories are:
 Survivors of sexual assault or rape
or incest.
 Minors.
 Change of marital status during the
ongoing pregnancy (widowhood and
GS
for substantial fetal abnormalities
One RMP till 20 weeks
Two RMPs 20-24 weeks
Medical Board approval after 24 weeks
Fine and/or Imprisonment of 1 year
 The abortion procedure has to be done
with five days of the board receiving the
request for the same.
Why in News?
 An unmarried woman suffers an unwanted
pregnancy, why should she be excluded from
termination up to 24 weeks if a married
woman is allowed it… The danger to life
is as much in the case of an unmarried
woman as in the case of a married woman,”
Justice Chandrachud, asked the Centre,

divorce). represented by Additional Solicitor General

Aishwarya Bhati.
 Women with physical disabilities.
 The court noted that the Rules permit
 Mentally ill women. termination of pregnancies of up to 24
 Foetal malformation that has a weeks in seven specific categories, including
substantial risk of being incompatible survivors of rape or sexual assault, minors,
with life or if the child is born, he/ she in case of physical disabilities and foetal
may suffer from serious physical or malformation.
mental abnormalities.
 Women with pregnancy in humanitarian 54. Correct option: (c)
settings or disaster or emergency Explanation:
situations.
 Both statements are incorrect
 State-level Medical Board: A state-level
medical board will be set up to decide if Supplementary notes:
pregnancy may be terminated after 24 Open Network Digital Commerce
weeks in cases of foetal malformation. (ONDC)
 The medical boards are to either accept or  It is an initiative aimed at promoting open
reject the proposal for medical termination networks for all aspects of exchange of
of pregnancy within three days of receiving goods and services over digital or electronic
the request. networks.

PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11 34

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 ONDC is to be based on open-sourced
methodology, using open specifications and
open network protocols independent of any
specific platform.
 It is being developed as a counter to the
current duopoly in the Indian e-commerce
market which is largely dictated by Amazon
and Walmart-owned Flipkart.
How does ONDC work?
 The ONDC platform lies in the middle of
the interfaces hosting the buyers and the
sellers. So far, the buyer side interface is
being hosted by Paytm, whereas the seller
side interface is being hosted by other
players like GoFrugal, etc.
 When a buyer searches for an item on the
Paytm app, from where ONDC has gone live,
the app will connect to the ONDC platform,
which will connect it to seller side interfaces
that will list all the companies from where
you can buy the particular item.
 On ONDC, there will be several other
backend partners such as logistics service
providers, enterprise resource planners,
O extend to the president who is also an
e-commerce store hosting service providers,
etc.
Why in News?
US firm Microsoft has become the first big
SC

tech company to join the Open Network for
Digital Commerce (ONDC), a government-
backed project which is aimed at enabling
small merchants and mom-and-pop stores
in parts of the country to access processes
and technologies that are typically deployed
by large e-commerce platforms such as
Amazon and Flipkart.
GS
 The software giant intends to introduce social
e-commerce — group buying experience —
in the Indian market, which would include a
shopping app for Indian consumers along
with their social circle, harnessing the
ONDC network to discover the best pricing
among retailers and sellers.
55. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All options are correct
Supplementary notes:
Parliamentary Privileges
 Parliamentary privileges are special rights,
immunities, and exemptions enjoyed
by the two Houses of Parliament,
their committees, and their members so
that they can “effectively discharge their
functions”.
35
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.
 It should be noted here that the Parliament,
till now, has not made any special law to
exhaustively codify all the privileges. They
are based on five sources, namely,
 Constitutional provisions
 Various laws made by Parliament
 Rules of both the Houses
 Parliamentary conventions
 Judicial interpretations.
Who has the entitlement to such
privileges?
 Other than members of Parliament
and members of the state assemblies,
the Constitution has also extended
parliamentary privileges to those persons
who are entitled to speak and take part in
RE
the proceedings of a House of Parliament or
any of its committees. These include the
attorney general of India and Union
ministers.
 It must be clarified here that
the parliamentary privileges do not
integral part of the Parliament. Article
361 of the Constitution provides for
privileges for the President.
Parliamentary Privileges:
 Freedom of Speech: The members of
Parliament/state assembly enjoy the
freedom of speech and expression. No
member can be taken to task anywhere
outside the four walls of the House (e.g.,
court of law) or cannot be discriminated
against for expressing his/her views in the
House and its Committees.
 Freedom from Arrest: No member shall
be arrested in a civil case 40 days before and
after the adjournment of the House and also
when the House is in session. It also means
that no member can be arrested within the
precincts of the Parliament without the
permission of the House to which he/she
belongs. This privilege is also incorporated
under Section 135A of the Civil Procedure
Code, 1908.
 Exemption from Attendance as
Witnesses: The members of Parliament/
assemblies also enjoy freedom from
attendance as witnesses.
 Right to Publish Debates and
Proceedings: Parliament/Assembly can
prohibit the press to publish its proceedings
when needed.
 Right to exclude strangers: The object
of including this right was to exclude any
chances of daunting or threatening any of
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

the members. The strangers may attempt to
interrupt the sessions.
 Right to Punish Members and Outsiders:
In India, the Parliament/Assembly has been
given punitive powers to punish those who
are judged guilty of contempt of the House.
56. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Data localization
rights have not been transferred to the
Central government.
Supplementary notes:
Personal Data Protection Bill 2019
 The Personal Data Protection Bill,
2019 was introduced in Lok sabha by the
Minister of Electronics and Information
Technology, on December 11, 2019.
 Commonly referred to as the “Privacy
Bill”, it intended to protect individual
rights by regulating the collection,
movement, and processing of data that
O
is personal, or which can identify the
individual.
 Challenges:
SC
 Many contend that the physical
location of the data is not relevant in
the cyber world as the encryption keys
may still be out of reach of national
agencies.
 National security or reasonable purposes
are open-ended and subjective
terms, which may lead to intrusion of the
GS
state into the private lives of citizens.
 Technology giants like Facebook
and Google are against it and have
criticised the protectionist policy of data
localisation as they are afraid it would
have a domino effect in other countries as
well.
Why has the Bill been withdrawn?
 Too Many Amendments:
 The Joint Committee of Parliament
analysed the Personal Data Protection
Bill, 2019 in detail.
 81 amendments were proposed and 12
recommendations were made towards
a comprehensive legal framework on
the digital ecosystem.
 Considering the report of the JCP, a
comprehensive legal framework is
being worked upon. Hence, it is
proposed to withdraw.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
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.
 Compliance Intensive: The Bill was
also seen as being too “compliance
intensive” by startups of the country.
 The revamped bill will be much easier to
comply with, especially for startups.
 Issues with Data Localizations: The tech
companies questioned a proposed provision
in the Bill called Data Localizations.
 Under data localisation, it would have
been mandatory for companies to
store a copy of certain sensitive personal
data within India, and the export of
undefined “critical” personal data from
the country would be prohibited.
 The activists had criticised that it would
allow the central government and its
agencies blanket exemptions from adhering
to any and all provisions of the Bill.
RE
Why in News?
 The government of India has withdrawn
the Personal Data Protection Bill from
Parliament as it considers a “comprehensive
legal framework” to regulate the online space
to boost innovation in the country through a
new bill.
57. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Markets
regulator SEBI has proposed the concept of
blue bonds as a mode of sustainable finance
as such securities can be utilised for various
blue economy-related activities, including
oceanic resource mining and sustainable
fishing.
Supplementary notes:
Blue Bonds
 Blue bonds are pioneering financial
instruments that are designed to support
sustainable marine and fisheries projects.
 They are a subset of the green bonds.
 The World Bank defines blue bonds “as
a debt instrument issued by governments,
development banks or others to raise capital
from impact investors to finance marine
and ocean-based projects that have positive
environmental, economic and climate
benefits.”
 In 2018, the Republic of Seychelles launched
the world’s first sovereign blue bond.
 Markets regulator Sebi has proposed
the concept of blue bonds as a mode of
sustainable finance as such securities can
be utilised for various blue economy-related
activities, including oceanic resource mining
and sustainable fishing.
36
 .
 Also, the watchdog has suggested Why in News?
strengthening the framework for green
 The RBI’s value of financial inclusion index
bonds by amplifying the definition of green
(FI-Index), capturing the extent of financial
debt securities and enhancing disclosures,
inclusion across the country for March 2022
according to a consultation paper.
stands at 56.4 vis-a-vis 53.9 in March 2021,
 The proposals are aimed at aligning with with growth witnessed across all the sub-
the updated Green Bond Principles (GBP) indices, the central bank noted.
published by the International Capital
Market Association (ICMA).
59. Correct Option: (b)
 Since the framework of green debt securities
was laid down by the Securities and Explanation:
Exchange Board of India (SEBI), there have  Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Dandeli
been multiple events in the sustainable Elephant Reserve is in Karnataka.
finance space around the world.
 Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Singphan
Why in News? Elephant Reserve is in Nagaland.
 India has tremendous scope for deployment Supplementary notes:
of blue bonds in various aspects of the blue

RE
economy” like oceanic resource mining, Elephant Reserves
sustainable fishing, and national offshore
 The Indian elephant Elephas maximus
wind energy policy and in the area of blue
occurs in the central and southern Western
flag beach eco-tourism model that provides
Ghats, North-east India, eastern India
the tourists clean and hygienic bathing
and northern India and in some parts of
water facilities.
southern peninsular India.
It is included in Schedule I of the Indian
58. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
O 
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972; in Appendix
I of the Convention on International Trade
in Endangered Species of Flora and Fauna
 Option (b) is correct (CITES) and listed as ‘Endangered’ in IUCN
SC
Red List.
Supplementary notes:
 It occurs in 16 of the 28 states in the country
Financial Inclusion Index 2022
and is showing an increasing trend across
 The Reserve Bank of India had constructed its distributional range.
a composite Financial Inclusion Index (FI-
 India, which is home to over 60% of the wild
Index) to capture the extent of financial
Asian elephant population, has a recorded
inclusion across the country, in consultation
elephant population of 29,964 (according to
with the concerned stakeholders including
GS

the last elephant census of 2017). According

the Government.
to the 2017 census, Karnataka had the
 The index captures information on various highest number of elephants (6,049),
aspects of financial inclusion in a single followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala
value ranging between 0 and 100, where 0 (3,054).
represents complete financial exclusion and
 Project Elephant was launched by the
100 indicates full financial inclusion.
Government of India in the year 1992 as a
 The FI-Index comprises of three broad Centrally Sponsored Scheme with following
parameters (weights indicated in brackets) objectives:
viz., Access (35%), Usage (45%), and
 To protect elephants, their habitat &
Quality (20%) with each of these consisting
corridors
of various dimensions, which are computed
based on a number of indicators.  To address issues of man-animal
conflict
 The Index is responsive to ease of access,
availability and usage of services, and  Welfare of captive elephants
quality of services, comprising in all 97
 The project is being mainly implemented
indicators.
in 16 States / UTs , viz. Andhra Pradesh,
 A unique feature of the Index is the Quality Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Chhattisgarh,
parameter which captures the quality Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala,
aspect of financial inclusion as reflected by Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Nagaland,
financial literacy, consumer protection, and Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Tripura, Uttarakhand,
inequalities and deficiencies in services. Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal.

37
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

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 The Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change provides the financial
and technical support to major elephant
range states in the country through Project
Elephant.
Why in News?
 Union Minister for Environment, Forest
and Climate Change recently announced
the notification of one more elephant
reserve (ER) in the country in Tamil Nadu
during a programme in the Periyar Wildlife
Sanctuary in Kerala.
 The new reserve will be spread over an area of
1,197 square kilometers in Agasthyamalai.
 The Agasthyamalai elephant reserve will
add to the existing 31 such protected areas
in the country. Among these, three elephant
reserves – Dandeli in Karnataka, Singphan
in Nagaland and Lemru in Chhattisgarh
– were notified in the last three years.
Elephant reserves were currently spread
over 76,508 sq m across 14 States in the
country.
60. Correct Option: (a)
O industrial facilities and residential
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Delhi and
Kolkata were ranked first and second in
SC
the list of top 10 most polluted cities when
PM2.5 levels were compared. However no
Indian city appeared in the list of top 10 –
or even top 20 - polluted cities when N0 2
levels were compared.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: NO 2 also has
a shorter lifetime compared with PM2.5
and other air pollutants. As a result, NO 2
GS
levels show very high variability in space
and time.
Supplementary notes:
Air Quality and Health in Cities
 The report, “Air Quality and Health in
Cities”, released by US-based Health Effects
Institute, analyses pollution and global
health effects for more than 7,000 cities
around the world, focusing on two of the
most harmful pollutants - fine particulate
matter (PM2.5) and nitrogen dioxide (NO
2).
 Key findings of the report are:
 Global patterns for exposures to the
two key air pollutants were “strikingly
different.” While exposures to PM2.5
pollution tend to be higher in cities
located in low- and middle-income
countries, exposure to NO 2 is high
across cities in high-income as well as
low- and middle-income countries.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
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.
 Delhi and Kolkata were ranked first and
second in the list of top 10 most polluted
cities when PM2.5 levels were compared,
with Delhi and Kolkata reporting an
average annual exposure of (relative to
population) of 110 μg/m3 and 84 μg/m3
respectively. μg/m3 refers to microgram
per cubic metre.
 However no Indian city appeared in the
list of top 10 – or even top 20 - polluted
cities when N0 2 levels were compared.
This list saw Shanghai at the top with
an average annual exposure of 41 μg/m3.
Average NO 2 levels for Delhi, Kolkata
and Mumbai, according to the report,
ranged from 20-30 μg/m3.
 This paradoxical situation in India
was likely due to the relatively lower
RE
adoption of high-efficiency engine
vehicles. Complete combustion of fuel
results in higher NOx (nitrogen oxides)
where incomplete combustion sees other
kinds of emissions.
 NO 2 comes mainly from the burning
of fuels in older vehicles, power plants,
cooking and heating. As city residents
tend to live closer to busy roads with
dense traffic, they are often exposed to
higher NO 2 pollution than residents of
rural areas.
 In 2019, 86% of the more than 7,000
cities analysed in the report exceeded
the WHO’s 10 μg/m3 guideline for NO
2, impacting about 2.6 billion people.
“While PM2.5 pollution tends to get more
attention on known hotspots around the
world, less data has been available for
NO 2 at this global scale.”
 Due to their highly reactive nature,
nitrogen oxides also contributed to the
formation of other pollutants, including
ozone and particulate matter. NO 2
also has a shorter lifetime compared
with PM2.5 and other air pollutants.
As a result, NO 2 levels show very high
variability in space and time — levels
can vary significantly even across a few
kilometres within the city. In comparison,
PM2.5 levels tend to show less spatial
variation at the fine scale.
Why in News?
 A global analysis of air quality recently
found that Indian cities, while recording
particulate matter emissions (PM2.5) that
are among the highest in the world, do
relatively better on nitrogen dioxide (NO 2)
emissions.
38
61. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Sattriya Dance
 Sattriya dances are devotional in nature
as they were intended for propagation of
neo-Vaishnavism. Its highlights are intense
62. Correct Option: (a)
emotional fervour, and in its solo avatar now
dramatic abhinaya is prominent in contrast
to nritta, pure dance.
 It was introduced in Assam by the great
Vaishnava saint and reformer of Assam,
Mahapurusha Srimanta Sankaradeva in
the 15th century A.D.
RE
 He propagated the “ek sharan naama
dharma” (chanting the name of one God
devotedly).
 History and evolution
 Unlike other classical dances, the Sattriya
dance has been left untouched in this regard
O maritime activities.
and has been the same since its birth.
SC
GS
 Under the patronage of Sankardeva, the
social and religious group known as the
‘Sattras’ (Vaishnava mathsor monasteries)
formulated this dance to celebrate their
beliefs which were embedded in Hinduism
and its various teachings.
 It had its influences from folk dance forms
like Ojapali, Devadasi, Bihu and Bodos etc.
Why in News?
 Noted Sattriya and Odissi dancer Gorima
Hazarika passed away at her residence in
the Assam capital. She was 83, and was said
to be suffering from age-related ailments.
39
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.
 Born in 1939, Hazarika was the youngest
of five children. She started learning dance
from a very early age, under Sattriya
stalwarts such as Raseswar Saikia Borbayan
and Ghanakanta Bora. Sattriya is a dance
form that has its roots in the Vaishnavite
movement which was propagated by scholar
Sankaradeva in the 15th century in Assam.
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: EEZ does not
give a coastal state the right to prohibit or
limit freedom of navigation or overflight,
subject to very limited exceptions.
Supplementary notes:
United Nations Convention on laws of
Seas (UNCLOS)
 The United Nations Convention on the
Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), 1982 is an
international agreement that establishes
the legal framework for marine and
 It is also known as Law of the Sea. It
divides marine areas into five main zones
namely- Internal Waters, Territorial Sea,
Contiguous Zone, Exclusive Economic Zone
(EEZ) and the High Seas.
 It is the only international convention which
stipulates a framework for state jurisdiction
in maritime spaces. It provides a different
legal status to different maritime zones.
 It provides the backbone for offshore
governance by coastal states and those
navigating the oceans.
 It not only zones coastal states’ offshore
areas but also provides specific guidance for
states’ rights and responsibilities in the five
concentric zones.
 The five maritime zones are:
 Baseline: It is the low-water line along
the coast as officially recognized by the
coastal state.
 Internal Waters: Internal waters are
waters on the landward side of the
baseline from which the breadth of
the territorial sea is measured. Each
coastal state has full sovereignty over its
internal waters as like its land territory.
Examples of internal waters include
bays, ports, inlets, rivers and even lakes
that are connected to the sea. There is
no right of innocent passage through
internal waters. The innocent passage
refers to the passing through the waters
which are not prejudicial to peace and
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

security. However, the nations have the
right to suspend the same.
 Territorial Sea: The territorial sea
extends seaward up to 12 nautical miles
(nm) from its baselines. A nautical
mile is based on the circumference of
the earth and is equal to one minute of
latitude. It is slightly more than a land
measured mile (1 nautical mile = 1.1508
land miles or 1.85 km). The coastal
states have sovereignty and jurisdiction
over the territorial sea. These rights
extend not only on the surface but also to
the seabed, subsoil, and even airspace.
But the coastal states’ rights are limited
by the innocent passage through the
territorial sea.
 Contiguous Zone: The contiguous zone
extends seaward up to 24 nm from its
baselines. It is an intermediary zone
between the territorial sea and the high
seas. The coastal state has the right to
both prevent and punish infringement
of fiscal, immigration, sanitary, and
customs laws within its territory and
territorial sea. Unlike the territorial
sea, the contiguous zone only gives
O illicit non-state actors on the high seas
jurisdiction to a state on the ocean’s
surface and floor. It does not provide air
and space rights.
SC
 Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ):
Each coastal State may claim an EEZ
beyond and adjacent to its territorial sea
that extends seaward up to 200 nm from
its baselines. Within its EEZ, a coastal
state has sovereign rights for the purpose
of exploring, exploiting, conserving and
managing natural resources, whether
GS
living or nonliving, of the seabed and
subsoil. Rights to carry out activities like
the production of energy from the water,
currents and wind. Unlike the territorial
sea and the contiguous zone, the EEZ only
allows for the above-mentioned resource
rights. It does not give a coastal state
the right to prohibit or limit freedom of
navigation or over flight, subject to very
limited exceptions.
 High Seas: The ocean surface and the
water column beyond the EEZ are referred
to as the high seas. It is considered as “the
common heritage of all mankind” and is
beyond any national jurisdiction. States
can conduct activities in these areas as
long as they are for peaceful purposes,
such as transit, marine science, and
undersea exploration.
Why in News?
 United Nations member states have
recently gathered in New York to create
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
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.
a new, legally-binding global treaty to
govern the use of the high seas. This
could be the last round of negotiations for
the conservation and sustainable use of
marine biological diversity. The treaty will
help conserve biodiversity in areas beyond
national jurisdiction (BBNJ) that lie outside
countries’ 322-kilometre exclusive economic
zones.
 This is the fifth round of negotiations on
the international instrument under the
UN Convention on the Law of the Sea
(UNCLOS).
63. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
All statements are correct
RE

Supplementary notes:
Combined Maritime Forces (CMF)
 It is a multinational maritime partnership,
which exists to uphold the Rules-Based
International Order (RBIO) by countering
and promoting security, stability, and
prosperity across approximately 3.2 million
square miles of international waters,
which encompass some of the world’s most
important shipping lanes.
 Counter-narcotics, counter-smuggling,
suppressing piracy, encouraging regional
cooperation, and engaging with regional
and other partners to strengthen relevant
capabilities in order to improve overall
security and stability, and promoting a safe
maritime environment free from illicit non-
state actors.
 When requested, CMF assets at sea will also
respond to environmental and humanitarian
incidents.
 It consists of 34 member nations, including
countries such as Australia, Bahrain, Brazil,
France, Japan, Pakistan, United States,
Yemen, and others.
 Task Forces: It comprises of three task
forces: CTF 150 (maritime security and
counter-terrorism), CTF 151 (counter
piracy) and CTF 152 (Arabian Gulf security
and cooperation).
Why in News?
 At the India-US 2+2 in April 2022, India had
announced that it would join the CMF as
an Associate Partner and will strengthen
cooperation in regional security in the
Western Indian Ocean.
40
64. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: United States
has the largest Indian diaspora in the
world.
Supplementary notes:
India-Maldives
 India and Maldives share ethnic, linguistic,
cultural, religious and commercial links.
 India was among the first to recognize the
Maldives after its independence in 1965
and later established its mission at Male in
1972.
 They officially and amicably decided their
maritime boundary in 1976.
 Both nations are founding members of
the South Asian Association for Regional
Cooperation (SAARC), the South Asian
Economic Union and signatories to the
South Asia Free Trade Agreement.
 They have consistently supported each
other in multilateral areas such as the UN,
O with a major focus on maritime security.
the Commonwealth, the NAM, and the
SAARC.
 The Memorandums of Understanding
(Mou) signed between both the countries
covers areas such as hydrography, health,
SC
passenger and cargo services by sea,
capacity building in customs and civil
service training.
 Strategic Importance: The Maldives holds
strategic importance for India under the
government’s ‘Neighbourhood First’ policy
due to its location in the Indian Ocean.
GS
 In the Indian Ocean, the Maldives
archipelago comprising 1,200 coral islands
lies next to key shipping lanes which ensure
uninterrupted energy supplies to countries
like China, Japan, and India.
 Both nations are working together to
counter China’s presence in the Indian
Ocean Region (IOR).
 Trade and Economy: India and Maldives
signed a trade agreement in 1981, which
provides for the export of essential
commodities.
 Under the bilateral agreement, India
provides essential food items like rice,
wheat flour, sugar, dal, onion, potato and
eggs and construction material such as
sand and stone aggregates to the Maldives
on favourable terms.
 India and Maldives signed the $800 million
Line of Credit Agreement in March 2019, for
assisting the Maldives to achieve sustainable
social and economic development.
41
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.
 India has a positive Balance of Trade with
the Maldives.
 Development Assistance Programme:
India has helped the Maldives in many
diverse areas to bolster the development of
the Maldives e.g.
 Indira Gandhi Memorial Hospital, Maldives
Institute of Technical Education (now called
the Maldives Polytechnic),
 There are 25,000 Indian nationals living in
the Maldives (the second largest expatriate
community).
 The proximity of location and improvements
in air connectivity in recent years has led to
a very substantial increase in the number
of Indians visiting the Maldives for tourism
and business.
RE
 India is a preferred destination for
Maldivians for education, medical
treatment, recreation, and business.
Why in News?
 Recently, India and Maldives vowed to
strengthen their defence and security ties
This was concluded during the Maldives
President Ibrahim Solih’s visit to India.
65. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Swachh Sagar, Surakshit Sagar
 It is the first-of-its-kind and longest running
coastal clean-up campaign in the world with
the highest number of people participating
in it.
 The Campaign will culminate on
“International Coastal Clean-up Day” (17th
September 2022).
 The day aims to increase public awareness
about the accumulation and negative
impacts of litter in oceans, on coastlines and
on beaches.
 Globally, “International Coastal Clean Up
Day” is celebrated on the third Saturday of
September, every year.
 Through this campaign, a mass behavioural
change among the masses is intended by
raising awareness about how plastic usage
is destroying the marine life.
 A mobile app “Eco Mitram” has been
launched to spread awareness about the
campaign and also for the common people
for voluntary registration for the beach
cleaning activity.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

 Objectives:
 Running a cleanliness campaign along
India’s entire coastline.
 To reduce marine litter.
 Minimising the use of plastics.
 Encouraging segregation of waste at
source and waste management.
What is the Significance of a Clean
Ocean?
 The ocean is a vital source of nourishment,
especially to people in the world’s poorest
nations.
 Many depend on fish for their primary
source of protein; fisheries and aquaculture
support the livelihoods of about 540 million
people (8% of the world’s population) directly
or indirectly.
 Overfishing, loss of biodiversity and the
possible extinction of species put a stress
on these limited resources. This could lead
to famine, increased poverty and conflicts,
including war.

O
Learning to manage the ocean sustainably
is the only path to global prosperity and
peace.
SC
Why in News?
 Recently, the Ministry of Earth Sciences has
launched a Coastal Clean Up Drive under
Swachh Sagar Surakshit Sagar Campaign
to clean 75 beaches across the country in 75
days.
GS
66. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 4 is incorrect: The Central
government is responsible for regulating
the subsidy prices of DAP. The state
government allows for procurement and
distribution purposes.
Supplementary notes:
Diammonium Phosphate (DAP)
 Diammonium phosphate (DAP); IUPAC
name diammonium hydrogen phosphate;
chemical formula (NH4)2(HPO4) is one
of a series of water-soluble ammonium
phosphate salts that can be produced when
ammonia reacts with phosphoric acid.
 Solid diammonium phosphate shows a
dissociation pressure of ammonia as given
by the following expression and equation:
(NH4)2HPO4(s) NH3 (g) + (NH4)H2PO4(s)
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
Telegram - @upscmaterialonline1
.
 At 100°C, the dissociation pressure of
diammonium phosphate is approximately 5
mmHg.
 According to the diammonium phosphate
MSDS from CF Industries, Inc.,
decomposition starts as low as 70 °C:
“Hazardous Decomposition Products:
Gradually loses ammonia when exposed to
air at room temperature. Decomposes to
ammonia and monoammonium phosphate
at around 70 °C (158 °F). At 155 °C (311
°F), DAP emits phosphorus oxides,
nitrogen oxides and ammonia.
Uses:
 DAP is used as a fertilizer. When applied
as plant food, it temporarily increases the
soil pH, but over a long term the treated
ground becomes more acidic than before,
RE
upon nitrification of the ammonium. It
is incompatible with alkaline chemicals
because its ammonium ion is more likely
to convert to ammonia in a high-pH
environment. The average pH in solution is
7.5–8.
The typical formulation is 18-46-0 (18% N,

46% P2O5, 0% K2O).
 DAP can be used as a fire retardant. It
lowers the combustion temperature of
the material, decreases maximum weight
loss rates, and causes an increase in the
production of residue or char.
 These are important effects in fighting
wildfires as lowering the pyrolysis
temperature and increasing the amount
of char formed reduces that amount of
available fuel and can lead to the formation
of a firebreak. It is the largest component
of some popular commercial fire fighting
products and is the ingredient in “fire
retardant” cigarettes.
 DAP is also used as a yeast nutrient in
winemaking and mead-making; as an
additive in some brands of cigarettes
purportedly as a nicotine enhancer; to
prevent afterglow in matches, in purifying
sugar; as a flux for soldering tin, copper,
zinc and brass; and to control precipitation
of alkali-soluble and acid-insoluble colloidal
dyes on wool.
Why in News?
 India has taken initiative to become
Aatmanibhar in Diammonium Phosphate
(DAP). Union Minister of Chemicals and
Fertilizers, Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya said
that Government of India continuously
strengthening the raw material supply
security to become Aatmanirbhar in DAP,
by investing in mineral rich countries.
42

 India is highly dependence on raw material
like rock phosphate and phosphoric acid, for
production of DAP and NPK fertilizers.
 Now India securing its supplies through
investments and long terms import deals
with mineral-rich countries. This will help
India to hedge against global price rises in
Diammonium Phosphate (DAP) and NPK
Complex.
 The acquisition of 45% equity share in
a Senegal based rock phosphate mining
company Baobab Mining and Chemicals
Corporation (BMCC) is formalized by
Coromandel International Ltd, India, in the
presence of Indian Minister of Chemicals
and Fertilizers.
67. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: VINBAX is the
joint military exercise between the military
of India and Vietnam.
Supplementary notes:
Exercise VINBAX

O
VINBAX is the joint military exercise
between the military of India and Vietnam.
SC
 VINBAX exercise is the first military
exercise cooperation helps reinforce the
India-Vietnam Defence and Security
Cooperation and furthermore endorses the
India-Vietnam relations.
 India and Vietnam signed a “Joint Vision”
document to “significantly enhance the scope
GS
and scale” of bilateral ties by 2030 during
the recent Vietnam visit of Indian Defence
Minister Rajnath Singh to Vietnam.
 The two countries have many things in
common. Both of them are listed among the
fastest-growing economies of Asia and both
aim at enhancing peace and stability in the
Indo-Pacific region through multi-faceted
cooperation.
 India and Vietnam have a broad convergence
of interest as the emerging economies
and important countries with respect to
creating alternative supply chains in Asia
after global disillusionment with the China-
centric supply chain during the COVID
pandemic.
 Besides, the two countries are equally
concerned about the aggressive and
expansionist policies of China in the Indo-
Pacific region. The two countries also share
a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
43
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.
since 2016 and defence cooperation is a key
pillar of this partnership.
 Bilateral defence engagements have
expanded over a period of time to include
wide-ranging contacts between the two
countries, including Defense Policy
Dialogue, military-to-military exchange,
high-level visits, capacity building and
training programmes.
 The two countries signed a MoU on mutual
logistics support, the first of its kind that
Vietnam has signed with any country.
India and Vietnam also agreed to the early
finalization of the USD 500 million defence
line of credit to Vietnam by India.
 The Indo-Vietnam Cooperation assumes
significance in view of the US and several
RE
world powers’ efforts to ensure a free, open
and thriving Indo-Pacific region, especially
at a time when China has shown scant
respect for international laws to resolve the
territorial disputes in the South China Sea.
Why in News?
 The 3rd edition of Vietnam India Bilateral
Army Exercise “Ex VINBAX 2022” will be
conducted recently. The exercise is a sequel
to previously conducted bilateral exercise
in Vietnam in 2019 and a major milestone
in strengthening the bilateral relations
between India and Vietnam.
 The theme of Ex VINBAX – 2022 is
employment and deployment of an Engineer
Company and a Medical Team as part
of United Nations Contingent for Peace
Keeping Operations.
 The conduct of Ex VINBAX – 2022 as a
field training exercise with enhanced scope
from previous editions of bilateral exercise
will strengthen mutual confidence, inter-
operability and enable sharing of best
practices between the Indian Army and
Vietnam People’s Army. The joint exercise
will also provide an opportunity to the troops
of both the Contingents to learn about the
social and cultural heritage of each other.
Indian Army is being represented by troops
from the 105 Engineer Regiment.
 A 48 hours Validation Exercise is part of the
schedule to assess the standards achieved
by both contingents while executing
technical military operations under similar
scenarios in UN missions. A Humanitarian
Assistance & Disaster Relief demonstration
and equipment display will showcase India’s
capacity to undertake rescue and relief
operations during natural and manmade
disasters utilizing indigenous solutions.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
68. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 & 3 is incorrect: It
publishes Red data book which contains
a list of ‘Threatened species’ (vulnerable,
endangered and critically endangered).
Supplementary notes:
Red Data Books
 IUCN is an NGO. It publishes Red data book
which contains a list of ‘Threatened species’
(vulnerable, endangered and critically
endangered).
 The red data book is maintained by the
International Union for Conservation of
Nature.
This organization was founded in 1948 and

works in the field of conservation of nature
and sustainable use of natural resources.
 The red list contains only the names of the
endangered species; however, the Red Data
Book contains information about the species
that are on the verge of extinction.
Why in News?
O and ability to survive on various food types
 Lok Sabha recently passed by voice vote the
Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Bill-2021
that seeks to provide for implementation
SC
of the Convention on International Trade
in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Flora (CITES).
69. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
GS
 Statement 1 is correct: IAS occurs in
all taxonomic groups, including animals,
plants, fungi and microorganisms, and
can affect all types of ecosystems. While a
small percentage of organisms transported
to new environments become invasive, the
negative impacts can be extensive and over
time, these additions become substantial.
 Statement 2 is correct: Islands are
especially vulnerable to IAS because they are
naturally isolated from strong competitors
and predators. Islands often have ecological
niches that have not been filled because of
the distance from colonizing populations,
increasing the probability of successful
invasions.
Supplementary notes:
Invasive Alien Species
 Invasive alien species (IAS) are species
whose introduction and/or spread outside
their natural past or present distribution
threaten biological diversity.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
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.
 IAS occurs in all taxonomic groups, including
animals, plants, fungi and microorganisms,
and can affect all types of ecosystems. While
a small percentage of organisms transported
to new environments become invasive, the
negative impacts can be extensive and over
time, these additions become substantial. A
species introduction is usually vectored by
human transportation and trade.
 If a species’ new habitat is similar enough
to its native range, it may survive and
reproduce. However, it must first subsist at
low densities, when it may be difficult to find
mates to reproduce. For a species to become
invasive, it must successfully out-compete
native organisms, spread through its new
environment, increase in population density
and harm ecosystems in its introduced
range. To summarize, for an alien species
RE
to become invasive, it must arrive, survive
and thrive.
 Common characteristics of IAS include rapid
reproduction and growth, high dispersal
ability, phenotypic plasticity (ability to
adapt physiologically to new conditions),
and in a wide range of environmental
conditions.
 A good predictor of invasiveness is whether
a species has successfully or unsuccessfully
invaded elsewhere.
Why in News?
 Scientists have recently found that soil
microbial activity plays an important role
in making invasive species flourish in non-
native regions.
 A recent study published in Nature indicates
that the plant species considered as invasive
in non-native regions, use characteristics to
survive and flourish that are different from
the ones in their native regions.
70. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: G219 runs along the
course from Mazha in Xinjiang in the north,
through Aksai Chin.
Supplementary notes:
G695 Highway
 G695 is another highway that China is
planning to build through Aksai Chin,
running along the India border and
connecting Xinjiang with Tibet.
 The G695 national expressway will be only
the second national highway through the
44

disputed Aksai Chin region, where China
controls 38,000 sq km of land claimed by
India, since the controversial construction
of the G219 highway in the 1950s, and is
expected to be completed by 2035.
 The new highway will run even closer to the
Line of Actual Control (LAC) than G219 and
is likely to broadly run along the course of
G219 from Mazha in Xinjiang in the north,
through Aksai Chin, which is currently
administered under the Xinjiang Uygur
Autonomous Region, heading south along
the borders with India, Nepal and Bhutan,
and down to Lhunze in southeastern Tibet
right across the border from Arunachal
Pradesh.
 Xinjiang is technically an autonomous
region within China — its largest region,
rich in minerals, and sharing borders with
eight countries, including India, Pakistan,
Russia, Afghanistan, Mongolia, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan.
 While a map of the proposed highway has
not been released, the route described by
O Electronic Tattoo Ink
the report will mean the highway will likely
cut across Aksai Chin. Its course will bring
it close to several disputed areas that have
seen recent tensions, from Eastern Ladakh
down to near Doklam close to the India-
SC
China-Bhutan tri-junction. Details of the
new construction remain unclear, but the
highway, when completed, may also go near
hotly contested areas such as the Depsang
Plains, Galwan Valley and Hot Springs on
the LAC.”
 The plan for G695 follows long-held
GS
discussions to build another border highway
to supplement G219 and act as another
key artery that could help China mobilise
resources rapidly towards border areas.
China has also stepped up the construction
of secondary highways at the provincial level
that will connect the national highways to
remote border areas.
Why in News?
 According to a recently released highway
construction plan, China is planning to
build another highway through Aksai
Chin, running along the India border and
connecting Xinjiang with Tibet.
 The new national road network plan aims
to build 4, 61,000 km of roads — including
1,62,000 km of national expressways and
2,99,000 km of provincial highways — by
2035. Under the plan, all cities with a 1 lakh
population will be connected to a national
highway in 30 minutes.
45
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71. Correct Option: (d)
.
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
South Korea n Tattoo based Technology
 The device could be used to send readout
of the wearer’s vital signs if connected
to biosensors, including for instance an
electrocardiogram.
 Alongside heart rates it could be used to
read glucose or lactate levels for people with
diabetes or sepsis.
 The monitors could in theory be located
anywhere, including in patients’ homes.
 Working: The device is linked with an
RE
electrocardiogram (ECG) device or other
biosensor and it can send a read out of a
patient’s heart rate and other vital signs
such glucose and lactate to a monitor. The
researchers eventually aim to be able to
dispense with biosensors.
 The electronic tattoo ink is made of liquid
metal and carbon nanotubes that can deliver
vital body information.
The ink is non-invasive and made from

particles based on gallium, a soft, silvery
metal also used in semiconductors or in
thermometers.
 Platinum-decorated carbon nanotubes
help conduct electricity while providing
durability.
When it is applied to the skin, even with

rubbing the tattoo doesn’t come off, this is
not possible with just liquid metal.
Why in News?
 A team of scientists at the Korea Advanced
Institute of Science and Technology (KAIST)
in the city of Daejeon southwest of Seoul
have developed an electronic tattoo ink
made of liquid metal and carbon nanotubes
that functions as a bio-electrode.
 According to a report by news agency
Reuters, South Koreans may soon be able to
carry a device inside their own bodies in the
form of a bespoke tattoo that automatically
alerts them to potential health problems, if
the outcomes are successful.
72. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: James Webb
Space Telescope caught Cartwheel Galaxy
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

that is located about 500 million light-years
away and appears like a wheel of a wagon.
Supplementary notes:
Cartwheel Galaxy
 Cartwheel Galaxy, located about 500
million light-years away in the Sculptor
constellation, has been caught with the
James Webb Space Telescope.
 The structure appears like a wheel of
a wagon, and Webb reveals the galaxy’s
central black hole along with the information
about star formation.
 Astronomers called the galaxy a ‘ring
galaxy’ because of its two rings – a bright
inner ring surrounded by a colourful one.
 The appearance of the galaxy is justified by
the high-speed collisions that have taken
place internally between a large spiral
galaxy and a smaller galaxy which is not
visible in the image.
 The rings have been discovered with
an extremely hot dust filled bright core
consisting of gigantic young star clusters.

O
The outer ring, expanded for 440 million
years, consists of star formation and
supernovas.
 Cartwheel galaxy has been
SC
explored earlier with the Hubble Space
Telescope but the same had failed may be
due to the thick layer of dust which obstructs
the view. Webb with an infrared gaze
explored the uncovered part of the
Cartwheel galaxy.
 Webb Telescope had not just revealed
the observations of the galaxy’s present
GS
structural formations but also determined
that Cartwheel is in a very transitory
stage.
Why in News?
 Cartwheel Galaxy, located about 500
million light-years away in the Sculptor
constellation, has been caught with the
James Webb Space Telescope. The structure
appears like a wheel of a wagon, and Webb
reveals the galaxy’s central black hole along
with the information about star formation.
73. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
National Importance Tag
 The sites include rock painting at
Chintakunta, Andhra Pradesh; rock art site
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.
Murgi at Rdanag, Leh; Kaleshwar Mahadev
Temple, Kalesar (Manyala Panchayat),
Himachal Pradesh has el=nlisted for the
National Importance Tag.
 ASI is the premier organization for the
archaeological research, scientific
analysis, and excavation of
archaeological sites, conservation and
preservation of protected monuments.
 It is an attached office under the Department
of Culture (Ministry of Culture).
 ASI was founded in 1861 by Alexander
Cunningham who became its first Director-
General.
Why in News?
 Twenty heritage sites, including two ancient
mounds at Haryana’s Rakhigarhi and
RE
the age-old Anangtal in Delhi, have been
identified for the national importance tag.
74. Correct option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 & 4 are incorrect: Ganges
Canal was declared open in 1854 and
separate public works department in every
province was established during the tenure
of Lord Dalhousie as Governor-General
(1848-1856).
Supplementary notes:
Lord Curzon
 Born in 1859, George Nathaniel Curzon was
a British conservative politician who was
educated at the elite institutions of Eton and
Oxford. He served as Under-Secretary of
State for India (1891-1892), and for Foreign
Affairs (1895-1898), before being appointed
Viceroy of India in 1899.
 As viceroy, his administration was known
for intense activity and emphasis on
efficiency. He stated in his budget speech in
1904, “Efficiency of administration is, in my
view, a synonym for the contentment of the
governed.”
 Curzon created a separate Muslim majority
province of the North-West Frontier
Province, sent a British expedition to Tibet,
established a separate police service, and
established the Archeological Survey of
India, in order to study and protect historical
monuments.
 Early on in his career, Curzon earned some
praise from his colonial subjects, for taking
action against Europeans in a number of
high-profile racist attacks against Indians.
In 1899, he punished white soldiers for
46

raping a woman in Rangoon; he disciplined
soldiers of the 9th Lancers for beating an
Indian cook in Sialkot to death in 1902;
and he tried unsuccessfully to get the
Calcutta High Court to change the meagre
punishment given to an Assam tea manager
for murdering a “coolie”.
 Appointment of Police Commission (1902)
under Sir Andrew Frazer to review police
administration; Appointment of Universities
Commission (1902) and passing of Indian
Universities Act (1904); Establishment of
Department of Commerce and Industry;
Calcutta Corporation Act (1899); Ancient
Monuments Preservation Act (1904);
Partition of Bengal (1905); Young husband’s
Mission to Tibet (1904) etc. took place during
his tenure.
 Curzon was both vexed and enraged by the
growing nationalist movement in India and
he sought to throttle the growing aspirations
of the educated Indian middle class.
 A staunch imperialist, he took a series of
extremely unpopular measures, including
passing, in 1899, the Calcutta Municipal
Amendment Act which reduced the number
O
of elected representatives in the Calcutta
Corporation; the Indian Universities Act
(1904), that placed Calcutta University
under government control, and the Indian
SC
Official Secrets Amendment Act (1904)
that reduced the freedom of the press even
further.
 Curzon believed that the Indian National
Congress had lost its influence and appeal
amongst the Indians, and in 1900 declared
that the organisation was “tottering to its
fall”. Ironically though, it was his biggest
GS
and most reviled decision — to partition
Bengal in 1905 — that led to a spurt in
nationalist sentiment and revitalized the
Congress.
 In 1905, Curzon resigned and returned to
England after losing a power struggle with
the commander-in-chief of the British Army,
Lord Kitchener. The protests continued after
his exit, and the colonial government in
1911 announced the reunification of Bengal,
and the capital of the Raj was shifted from
Calcutta to Delhi.
 Of all the Viceroys of India, Curzon is
possibly the most criticised — he is the
man who partitioned Bengal in 1905, and
triggered a wave of Bengali nationalism
that contributed to the wider Indian
national movement. He was also one of the
more openly imperialist of viceroys, and a
man who saw Britain’s rule over India as
critical to the survival of empire. In 1900,
Curzon famously stated, “We could lose all
47
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.
our [white settlement] dominions and still
survive, but if we lost India, our sun would
sink to its setting.”
Why in News?
 The 119-year-old Curzon Gate in Bardhaman
in West Bengal is at the centre of a political
row after it emerged recently that the
Trinamool Congress (TMC)-run Bardhaman
municipality has decided to erect a statue
of Bardhaman’s Maharaja Bijay Chand
Mahatab and his wife Radharani in front of
the city’s prominent landmark.
 Politicians, historians, and heritage experts
have questioned the ruling party’s decision,
with some claiming that the statutes would
block the view of the structure, which
was built by Mahatab in 1903, when Lord
RE
Curzon, then Viceroy of India, visited
Bardhaman.
75. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 45 of

the Prevention of Money Laundering Act
(PMLA) made offences to be cognizable and
non-bailable and no person accused of an
offence shall be released on bail or on his own
bond unless the Public Prosecutor is given
the opportunity to oppose the application
for such release and where the Public
Prosecutor opposes the application, the
court is satisfied that there are reasonable
grounds for believing that the accused is not
likely to commit any offence while on bail.
Supplementary notes:
Prevention of Money Laundering Act,
2002
 Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted
by the NDA government to prevent money-
laundering and to provide for confiscation of
property derived from money-laundering.
 The provisions of this act are applicable to
all financial institutions, banks (Including
RBI), mutual funds, insurance companies,
and their financial intermediaries.
 The Act enables government authorities to
confiscate property and/or assets earned
from illegal sources and through money
laundering.
 Under the PMLA, the burden of proof lies
with the accused, who has to prove that
the suspect property/assets have not been
obtained through proceeds of crime.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

 The basic objectives of the PMLA are:
 Preventing money laundering.
 Combating the channelising of money
into illegal activities and economic
crimes
 Providing for the confiscation of property
derived from or involved in money
laundering
 Providing for any other matters
connected with or incidental to the act of
money laundering
 The Act prescribes that any person found
guilty of money-laundering shall be
punishable with rigorous imprisonment
from three years to seven years and where
the proceeds of crime involved relate to any
offence under paragraph 2 of Part A of the
Schedule (Offences under the Narcotic Drugs
and Psychotropic Substance Act, 1985), the
maximum punishment may extend to 10
years instead of 7 years.
 Section 43 of Prevention of Money
Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) says that
the Central Government, in consultation
O
with the Chief Justice of the High Court,
shall, for trial of offence punishable under
Section 4, by notification, designate one or
more Courts of Session as Special Court or
Special Courts for such area or areas or for
SC
such case or class or group of cases as may
be specified in the notification. These special
courts may declare a person as a Fugitive
Economic Offender.
 Section 45 of the Prevention of Money
Laundering Act (PMLA) made offences to be
cognizable and non-bailable and no person
accused of an offence shall be released on
GS
bail or on his own bond unless the Public
Prosecutor is given the opportunity to
oppose the application for such release
and where the Public Prosecutor opposes
the application, the court is satisfied that
there are reasonable grounds for believing
that the accused is not likely to commit any
offence while on bail.
 Directorate of Enforcement is a specialized
financial investigation agency under the
Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance,
Government of India, which enforces the
Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
(PMLA).
Why in News?
 Making clear that the State has a compelling
interest in imposing stringent bail conditions
for economic offences, the Supreme Court
recently upheld the Prevention of Money
Laundering Act, including its stringent bail
conditions that impose a reverse burden of
proof on the accused.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
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.
 In upholding the reverse burden of proof
condition for grant of bail, the Court also
overruled its own order of November
2017 that had declared the bail criteria
unconstitutional.
 In Nikesh Tarachand Shah vs Union
of India (2017), the two-judge bench of
Justices Rohinton Nariman and Sanjay
Kishan Kaul, had declared the ‘twin test’ of
bail under PMLA as unconstitutional since
it was manifestly arbitrary.
76. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect:
These are the disqualifications laid by
the Parliament in the Representation of
RE
People Act (1951) and not in the Indian
Constitution.
Supplementary notes:
Disqualifications for Membership of
Parliament
As per Article 191 (1), a person shall be

disqualified for being chosen as, and for
being, a member of the Legislative Assembly
or Legislative Council of a State if:
He holds any office of profit under the

Government of India or the Government
of any State, other than an office declared
by Parliament by law not to disqualify
its holder;
 He is of unsound mind and stands so
declared by a competent court;
He is an undischarged insolvent;

 He is not a citizen of India, or has
voluntarily acquired the citizenship
of a foreign State, or is under any
acknowledgement of allegiance or
adherence to a foreign State;
 He is so disqualified by or under any law
made by Parliament.
 Article 191 (2) states that a person shall
be disqualified for being a member of the
Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council
of a State if he is so disqualified under the
Tenth Schedule.
 The Parliament has laid down the
following additional disqualifications in the
Representation of People Act (1951):
 He must not have been found guilty
of certain election offences or corrupt
practices in the elections.
 He must not have been convicted for any
offence resulting in imprisonment for
48

two or more years. But, the detention of
a person under a preventive detention
law is not a disqualification.
 He must not have failed to lodge an
account of his election expenses within
the time.
 He must not have any interest in
government contracts, works or
services.
 He must not be a director or managing
agent nor hold an office of profit in a
corporation in which the government
has at least 25 per cent share.
 He must not have been dismissed from
government service for corruption or
disloyalty to the State.
He must not have been convicted for

promoting enmity between different
groups or for the offence of bribery.
 He must not have been punished for
preaching and practicing social crimes
such as untouchability, dowry and sati.
 On the question whether a member
O and Drugs Administration (FDA), approved
has become subject to any of the above
disqualifications, the governor’s decision
is final. However, he should obtain the
opinion of the Election Commission and act
SC
accordingly.
Why in News?
 The Election Commission of India has
recently recommended disqualification of
Jharkhand Chief Minister Hemant Soren
from state Assembly for “violating electoral
law” by allegedly extending a mining lease
GS
to himself.
 The poll panel sent its recommendation to
the Jharkhand Raj Bhavan on Soren’s office
of profit matter.
77. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: When a host is
exposed to antigens, which may be in the
form of living or dead microbes or other
proteins, antibodies are produced in the host
body. This type of immunity is called active
immunity. Active immunity is slow and
takes time to give its full effective response.
Injecting the microbes deliberately during
immunization or infectious organisms
gaining access into body during natural
infection induce active immunity. When
ready-made antibodies are directly given to
protect the body against foreign agents, it is
called passive immunity.
49
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.
Supplementary notes:
Monkeypox Vaccine
 The monkeypox virus belongs to a family
of viruses called orthopoxviruses, which is
different from that of the coronaviruses.
 According to the WHO, it is a viral zoonosis
— a virus transmitted to humans from
animals — with symptoms similar, but less
severe to smallpox.
 It is also an enveloped double-stranded
DNA virus, unlike the RNA virus, that
makes it far more stable and less prone to
rapid mutations.
 There are two distinct genetic clades of the
monkeypox virus: the central African (Congo
Basin) clade and the West African clade. The
Congo Basin clade has historically caused
RE
more severe disease and was thought to be
more transmissible.
 There is yet no dedicated monkeypox
vaccine, but vaccinations against smallpox
was found to be 85% effective in preventing
monkeypox. In 2019, the United States Food
the JYNNEOS vaccine for the prevention
of smallpox, monkeypox and other diseases
caused by orthopoxviruses, including
vaccinia virus, in adults 18 years of age and
older and categorised as having a “high risk
of infection.”
 JYNNEOS, developed by Danish
biotechnology company, Bavarian Nordic,
contains a live vaccinia virus that does not
replicate efficiently in human cells. The
vaccinia virus is the smallpox virus but
made incapable of replicating within the
body.
 There is no data yet on JYNNEOS’
effectiveness. This is because smallpox
has been eradicated and the monkeypox
outbreak has risen too rapidly for a
traditional phase 3 trial to have evaluated
the vaccine’s effectiveness.
Why in News?
 The Indian Council of Medical Research
has recently invited tenders from local
companies to develop a vaccine.
 The Serum Institute of India is also in talks
with international partners regarding a
potential vaccine.
78. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Right of
Children to Free and Compulsory Education
(RTE) Act, 2009 prohibits ‘physical
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

punishment’ and ‘mental harassment’ under
Section 17(1) and makes it a punishable
offence under Section 17(2). Section 17 of
the Right to Education Act, 2009, imposes
an absolute bar on corporal punishment. It
prohibits physical punishment and mental
harassment to children and prescribes
disciplinary action to be taken against the
guilty person in accordance with the service
rules applicable to such person.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The National
Commission for Protection of Child Rights
(NCPCR) guidelines for eliminating corporal
punishment against children require every
school to develop a mechanism and frame
clear cut protocols to address grievances of
students. Drop boxes are to be placed where
the aggrieved person may drop his complaint
and anonymity is to be maintained to protect
privacy. Every school has to constitute a
‘Corporal Punishment Monitoring Cell’
consisting of two teachers, two parents, one
doctor, one lawyer (nominated by DLSA),
counsellor, an independent child rights
activist of that area and two senior students
from that school. This CPMC shall look into
complaints of corporal punishments.
O 
Supplementary notes:
Corporal Punishment
SC
 By definition, corporal punishment means
punishment that is physical in nature.
 According to the Guidelines for Eliminating
Corporal Punishment in Schools issued by
the National Commission for Protection of
Child Rights (NCPCR), physical punishment
is understood as any action that causes
GS
pain, hurt/injury and discomfort to a child,
however light. Examples include hitting,
kicking, scratching, pinching, biting, pulling
the hair, boxing ears, smacking, slapping,
spanking, hitting with any implement (cane,
stick, shoe, chalk, dusters, belt, whip), giving
electric shock and so on. It includes making
children assume an uncomfortable position
(standing on bench, standing against the
wall in a chair-like position, standing with
school bag on head, holding ears through
legs, kneeling, forced ingestion of anything,
detention in the classroom, library, toilet or
any closed space in the school.
 Mental harassment, meanwhile, is
understood as any non-physical treatment
that is detrimental to the academic and
psychological well-being of a child including
sarcasm, calling names and scolding using
humiliating adjectives, intimidation, using
derogatory remarks for the child, ridiculing
or belittling a child, shaming the child and
more.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
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 While there is no statutory definition of
‘corporal punishment’ targeting children in
the Indian law, the Right of Children to Free
and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009
prohibits ‘physical punishment’ and ‘mental
harassment’ under Section 17(1) and makes
it a punishable offence under Section 17(2).
 Section 17 of the Right to Education
Act, 2009, imposes an absolute bar on
corporal punishment. It prohibits physical
punishment and mental harassment to
children and prescribes disciplinary action
to be taken against the guilty person in
accordance with the service rules applicable
to such person.
 Section 75 of the Juvenile Justice Act
prescribes punishment for cruelty to
children.
RE
 Whenever a child is assaulted, abused,
exposed or neglected in a manner to cause
physical or mental suffering by any person
employed by or managing an organisation,
which is entrusted with the care and
protection of the child, the punishment
would be rigorous imprisonment upto five
years and fine up to Rs 5 lakh.
If the child is physically incapacitated or
develops a mental illness or is rendered
mentally unfit to perform regular tasks or
has risk to life or limb, then imprisonment
may extend upto ten years.
 Section 23 of the JJ Act, 2000 states:
“Whoever, having the actual charge of,
or control over, a juvenile or the child,
assaults, abandons, exposes or wilfully
neglects the juvenile or causes or procures
him to be assaulted, abandoned, exposed or
neglected in a manner likely to cause such
juvenile or the child unnecessary mental or
physical suffering shall be punishable with
imprisonment for a term which may extend
to six months, or fine, or with both.”
 While Section 23 is likely to be applied most
often to personnel in childcare institutions
regulated by the JJ Act, it arguably applies
to cruelty by anyone in a position of authority
over a child, which would include parents,
guardians, teachers and employers.
 Meanwhile, the RTE Act does not preclude
the application of other legislation that
relates to the violations of the rights of the
child, for example, booking the offenses
under the IPC and the SC and ST Prevention
of Atrocities Act of 1989.
 Several provisions of the Indian Penal
Code (IPC) relating to varying degrees
of physical harm and intimidation can
be used to prosecute perpetrators of
corporal punishment against children in
an institutional setting, depending on
50

the situation and extent of the crime/act,
including Section 305 pertaining to abetment
of suicide committed by a child, Section
323 pertaining to voluntarily causing hurt
or Section 325 which is about voluntarily
causing grievous hurt, and so on.
 The NCPCR guidelines for eliminating
corporal punishment against children
require every school to develop a mechanism
and frame clear cut protocols to address
grievances of students.
 Drop boxes are to be placed where the
aggrieved person may drop his complaint
and anonymity is to be maintained to
protect privacy.
 Every school has to constitute a ‘Corporal
Punishment Monitoring Cell’ consisting of
two teachers, two parents, one doctor, one
lawyer (nominated by DLSA), counsellor, an
independent child rights activist of that area
and two senior students from that school.
This CPMC shall look into complaints of
corporal punishments.
 While a parent or caregiver can take the
protection of the IPC and the JJ Act to
earmarked to ensure the protection of
children in schools.
O
file a police complaint in cases of corporal
punishment, there are relevant authorities
SC
 Under Section 31 of the RTE Act, the National
Commission for Protection of Child Rights
(NCPCR) and the State Commissions for
Protection of Child Rights (SCPCRs) have
been entrusted with the task of monitoring
children’s right to education.
Why in News?
GS
 Three private school teachers in Pune have
been recently booked under the Juvenile
Justice Act over allegedly thrashing three
Class 10 students, and threatening to grade
them poorly in internal assessments.
79. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Mangroves in India
 Mangroves are salt tolerant plant
communities found in tropical and sub-
tropical intertidal regions of the world.
Such areas are characterized by high
rainfall (between 1,000 to 3,000 mm) and
temperature (ranging between 26°C-35°C).
Mangrove species exhibit a variety of
adaptations in morphology, anatomy and
physiology to survive in water logged soils,
51
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.
high salinity and frequent cyclonic storms
and tidal surges. Mangroves are important
refuges of coastal bio-diversity and also
act as bio-shields against extreme climatic
events. Large populations, primarily rural,
depend on mangrove ecosystems for a wide
variety of biomass dependent livelihoods.
 Important species of Mangrove ecosystems
in India include Avicenna officinalis,
Rhizophora mucronata, Sonneratia alba,
Avicennia alba, Bruguiera cylindrica,
Heritiera littorals, Phoenix paludosa,
Morinda citrifolia & Ceriops tagal.
 Sunderban, located in the Northern Bay
of Bengal is the world’s largest single
patch of Mangrove Forests. Spread over
approximately 10,000 sq km, in Bangladesh
and India, Sundarban is the first mangrove
RE
forest in the world, which was brought
under scientific management, as early as in
1892.
 As per the India State of Forest Report,
2021, the mangrove cover is classified into
3 categories:
 Very Dense Mangroves [1,475 sq km

(29.55 %) of the Mangrove cover]
Moderately Dense Mangroves [1,481 sq
km (29.67 %)]
 Open Mangroves [2,036 sq km (40.78
%)]
 The current assessment shows that
Mangrove cover in the country is 4,992 sq
km, which is 0.15 % of the country’s total
geographical area.
 There has been a net increase of 17 sq km
in the Mangrove cover of the country as
compared to 2019 assessment.
 The States that show significant gain in
Mangrove cover are Odisha (8 sq km) and
Maharashtra (4 sq km). The reason for
the increase in Mangrove cover in Odisha,
is mainly due to the natural regeneration,
plantation activities in suitable land like
on the banks of the rivers near the estuary
and on intertidal mud-flats associated with
the areas that are inundated by sea water
on a daily cycle. The increase in mangrove
cover has been observed in the districts of
Kendrapara, Jagatsinghpur and Balasore
in Odisha. In Maharashtra, the increase in
Mangrove cover is mainly due to natural
regeneration. The increase has also been
observed in the South 24 Parganas district
of West Bengal.
 Area wise mangrove cover distribution is as
follows: West Bengal > Gujarat > Andaman
& Nicobar > Andhra Pradesh > Maharashtra
> Odisha.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

Why in News?
 The United States National Aeronautics
and Space Administration (NASA) recently
highlighted the loss of mangrove cover on
Katchal Island, a part of India’s Nicobar
archipelago.
 The NASA Earth Observatory showed a
map of the island depicting tidal wetland
loss from 1999 through 2019. After the
magnitude-9.2 Aceh-Andaman earthquake
in December 2004, the islands experienced
up to 3 meters (10 feet) of land subsidence.
This submerged many mangrove ecosystems,
resulting in a loss of more than 90 percent
of mangrove extent in some areas.
80. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Ocean Thermal Energy
 A large amount of solar energy is stored in
the oceans and seas.
O molecules that consist of rolled-up sheets
 The process of harnessing this energy
is called OTEC (ocean thermal energy
conversion). It uses the temperature
differences between the surface of the ocean
SC
and the depths of about 1000m to operate a
heat engine, which produces electric power.
 Ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) is
a process or technology for producing energy
by harnessing the temperature differences
(thermal gradients) between ocean surface
waters and deep ocean waters.
GS
 Energy from the sun heats the surface
water of the ocean. In tropical regions,
surface water can be much warmer than
deep water. This temperature difference
can be used to produce electricity and to
desalinate ocean water. Ocean Thermal
Energy Conversion (OTEC) systems use
a temperature difference (of at least 77°
Fahrenheit) to power a turbine to produce
electricity. Warm surface water is pumped
through an evaporator containing a working
fluid. The vaporized fluid drives a turbine/
generator. The vaporized fluid is turned
back to a liquid in a condenser cooled with
cold ocean water pumped from deeper in the
ocean. OTEC systems using seawater as the
working fluid can use the condensed water
to produce desalinated water.
Why in News?
 The National Institute of Ocean Technology
(NIOT), an autonomous Institute under
Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is
recently establishing an Ocean Thermal
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
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.
Energy Conversion plant with a capacity of
65kW in Kavaratti Lakshadweep.
 This plant will power the Low Temperature
Thermal Desalination (LTTD) based
desalination plant for conversion of Sea
water into Potable water.
 The capacity of this LTTD plant is 1 lakh
litre of potable water per day.
81. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Carbon
nanotubes can exhibit remarkable electrical
conductivity. They also have exceptional
tensile strength and thermal conductivity
because of their nanostructure and strength
of the bonds between carbon atoms. In fact,
RE
their thermal conductivity is better than
that of diamond.
Supplementary notes:
Carbon Nano Tubes (CNTs)
 Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are cylindrical
of single-layer carbon atoms (graphene).
They can be single-walled (SWCNT) with a
diameter of less than 1 nanometer (nm) or
multi-walled (MWCNT), consisting of several
concentrically interlinked nanotubes, with
diameters reaching more than 100 nm.
Their length can reach several micrometers
or even millimeters.
 Apart from their electrical properties,
which they inherit from graphene, CNTs
also have unique thermal and mechanical
properties that make them intriguing for
the development of new materials:
 Their mechanical tensile strength can be
400 times that of steel;
 They are very light-weight and their
density is one sixth of that of steel;
 Their thermal conductivity is better than
that of diamond;
 They have a very high aspect ratio
greater than 1000, i.e. in relation to their
length they are extremely thin;
 Just like graphite, they are highly
chemically stable and resist virtually
any chemical impact unless they
are simultaneously exposed to high
temperatures and oxygen - a property
that makes them extremely resistant to
corrosion;
 Their hollow interior can be filled with
various nanomaterials, separating and
shielding them from the surrounding
52

environment - a property that is
extremely useful for nanomedicine
applications like drug delivery.
 All these properties make carbon nanotubes
ideal candidates for electronic devices,
chemical/electrochemical and biosensors,
transistors, electron field emitters, lithium-
ion batteries, white light sources, hydrogen
storage cells, cathode ray tubes (CRTs),
electrostatic discharge (ESD) and electrical-
shielding applications.
 Various applications of CNTs are:
 Currently, CNTs are mainly used
as additives to synthetics. CNTs are
commercially available as a powder, i.e.
in a highly tangled-up and agglomerated
form. For CNTs to unfold their particular
properties they need to be untangled and
spread evenly in the substrate.
 Carbon nanotubes can also be spun into
fibers, which not only promise interesting
possibilities for specialty textiles.
 Despite the rise of graphene and
other two-dimensional (2D) materials,
O
semiconducting single-walled carbon
nanotubes are still regarded as strong
candidates for the next generation of
high-performance, ultra-scaled and
thin-film transistors as well as for opto-
SC
electronic devices to replace silicon
electronics.
 Ink formulations based on CNT
dispersions are attractive for printed
electronics applications such as
transparent electrodes, RFID tags, thin-
film transistors, light-emitting devices,
and solar cells
GS
 Carbon nanotubes have been widely used
as electrodes for chemical and biological
sensing applications and many other
electrochemical studies.
 There is considerable interest in
using CNTs for various biomedical
applications. The physical properties
of CNTs, such as mechanical strength,
electrical conductivity, and optical
properties, could be of great value for
creating advanced biomaterials. Carbon
nanotubes can also be chemically
modified to present specific moieties
(e.g., functional groups, molecules, and
polymers) to impart properties suited
for biological applications, such as
increased solubility and biocompatibility,
enhanced material compatibility and
cellular responsiveness. Nitrogen-
doped carbon nanotubes for instance
have been developed for drug delivery
applications.
53
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.
Why in News?
 Researchers at the Korea Advanced Institute
of Science and Technology (KAIST) in the
city of Daejeon southwest of Seoul have
recently developed an electronic tattoo ink
made of liquid metal and carbon nanotubes
that functions as a bio-electrode.
 Hooked up to an electrocardiogram (ECG)
device or other biosensor, it can send a
readout of a patient’s heart rate and other
vital signs such glucose and lactate to a
monitor.
 The researchers eventually aim to be able to
dispense with biosensors.
82. Correct Option: (c)
RE
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Classical Languages in India
 Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’
status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit

(2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008),
Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).
According to the Ministry of Culture, the
guidelines for declaring a language as
‘Classical’ are:
 High antiquity of its early texts/recorded
history over a period of 1500-2000
years;
 A body of ancient literature/texts, which
is considered a valuable heritage by
generations of speakers;
 The literary tradition be original and
not borrowed from another speech
community;
 The classical language and literature
being distinct from modern, there may
also be a discontinuity between the
classical language and its later forms or
its offshoots.
 Benefits once a language is notified as a
Classical language are:
 Two major annual international awards
for scholars of eminence in classical
Indian languages
 A Centre of Excellence for studies in
Classical Languages is set up
 The University Grants Commission is
requested to create, to start with at least
in the Central Universities, a certain
number of Professional Chairs for the
Classical Languages so declared.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

 The University Grant Commission
(UGC) also awards research projects for
promoting these languages.
 Ministry of Culture has listed the
institutions that have been dedicated to
Classical languages. These are:
 Sanskrit: Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan,
New Delhi; Maharishi Sandipani
Rashtriya Ved Vidya Pratishthan,
Ujjain; Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeetha,
Tirupati; and Sri Lal Bahadur Shastri
Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth, New
Delhi
 Telugu and Kannada: Centres of
Excellence for Studies in the respective
languages at the Central Institute of
Indian Languages (CIIL) established by
the HRD Ministry in 2011.
 Tamil: Central Institute of Classical
Tamil (CICT), Chennai
Why in News?
 On the occasion of World Sanskrit Day, Prime
Minister Shri Narendra Modi acknowledged
the efforts of those working for popularizing
O
Sanskrit and also highlighted the growing
popularity of Sanskrit amongst the youth.
83. Correct Option: (b)
SC
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Tribal Culture in Banswara Villages
 Time has not affected tribal traditions and
GS
practices in Rajasthan’s Banswara district.
The region, abundant in natural resources
and beautiful landscapes, lies at the junction
of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh
states.
 The rhythm of tribal life in the region is
isolated from the developing urban world
and one can see forms of cultural practices
dating several hundred years.
 The region’s semi-arid and mixed-
miscellaneous forests are home to a large
population of tribals from the Bhil and
Damor communities. Trees like Anogeissus
pendula (Dhok), Terminalia arjuna
(Arjun), Albizia lebbeck (Saras), Dalbergia
paniculata (Palash) etc. make up the forests
in the region.
 The hamlets, farms and the simple life of
these communities are clearly visible while
walking around the deciduous forests. The
villagers and nature live side-by-side in this
region, mutually exchanging the secrets of
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the environment to sustain life and grow.
 The primary source of living is agriculture.
On small land holdings, the villagers grow
maize, wheat and vegetables like okra,
ridged gourd, bottle gourd, tomato, etc.
 The smallholding nature of farms allows
them to use mechanical agricultural
equipment easily. The women in the region
play a key role in promoting a sustainable,
integrated farming system.
 Soil conservation practices like farm
bunding and crop rotation are followed,
which have helped in soil conservation and
promoted the diversification of crops. Even
during the lockdown brought on by the
COVID-19 pandemic, tribal communities
faced no shortage of food owing to their age-
old grain storage practices.
RE
 When it comes to food and dietary
habits, the communities most commonly
consume foodgrains like kodra (Paspalum
scrobiculatum), bati (foxtail millet), kang,
(barnyard millet), cheena (proso millet),
hama, hamli and gujro (little millet), along
with local vegetables. The minor millets are
rich in fibre and iron and improves their
immunity.
 The immense amount of knowledge these
communities have regarding food gathering
and cultivation sets an example, especially
for those on the path of industrial farming.
 A look inside the huts of these communities
is a delight. There are special devices to
protect valuables during festivals and store
grains in case of crop failures. Grains are
stored in a special container called Kothi,
which has a hidden space for keeping
valuables like money, jewellery, etc.
 The kitchen tools, cookware and utensils
used by the tribal women are made of
environment-friendly materials. The
chullah (stove) is typically made of clay.
Some tribal homes also feature double
chullahs, where one side is used for making
chapattis and the other side for cooking rice
or vegetables.
 The homes also have a traditional ghatti,
which is used for grinding grains, minor
millets and pulses. A masaladani (spice box)
and anajdani (Grain box) are also present
in all kitchens. The utensils are made of
black clay or grey soil. Special ones are used
during the festivals or to welcome guests.
 The communities worship Sherabavs
Khankhaliya Dev and Shira Bavasi 14 days
after Diwali. The communities also pray to
Shira Bavasi after the first crop of the year
— the kharif crop — is ready and ancestors
are offered bhog.
54

 The Gobind Guru Tribal University,
Banswara, has set up a special museum
to preserve the rich tribal wealth. Antique
agricultural equipment, dresses, weapons
and daily items are kept for conservation in
the museum.
Why in News?
 August 9 is celebrated as International Day
of the World’s Indigenous People.
 Traditional way of living dating back several
hundred years is still practiced in Banswara
villages. Thus, there is ample scope for skill
development in the region as tribes possess
unique skills in pottery, archery, etc.
84. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Coal Sector in India
 Coal is one of the most important primary
fossil fuels, a solid carbon-rich material that

O
is usually brown or black and most often
occurs in stratified sedimentary deposits.
Coal is a natural resource that can be used
as a source of energy, and in the production
SC
of coke for metallurgical processes. Coal is a
major source of energy in the production of
electrical power using steam generation.
 In addition, gasification and liquefaction of
coal produce gaseous and liquid fuels that
can be transported by pipeline and stored
in tanks.
GS
 India is rich in ancient coal fields like
Gondwana coalfields (250 million years old)
and tertiary coalfields (15-60 million years
old).
 The most significant characteristic of Indian
coal is its high ash content, which varies
from 35 to 45 per cent, compared with that
of coal in other parts of the world, which is
around 15 per cent.
 With legislation requiring, since June 2001,
thermal power plants to use coal with less
than 35 per cent ash content, and with the
quality of Indian coal deteriorating over
the years, development of more efficient
technologies that can handle high-ash
Indian coal, such as Integrated Gasification
Combined Cycle, becomes important.
 Besides high ash content, another reason
for entrained gasifiers (that operate at
higher temperatures than fluidized bed
gasifiers), commonly used in IGCC plants
abroad, being not suitable for Indian coal
55
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.
is its high ash fusion temperature of about
1,500 degree C.
 The ash chemistry of Indian coal is such
that it is high in silica and alumina. The
ash is also highly abrasive because of high
quartz content, which can lead to erosion
of the syngas cooling system when it gets
fused.
 However, Indian coals sulphur content is
low, about 0.5 per cent. So, from a gas clean-
up perspective, the flue gas desulphurization
(removal of SOx gases) and NOx removal
system is not economically justifiable and,
therefore, not important.
 As per the present import policy, coal can
be freely imported (under Open General
Licence) by the consumers themselves
considering their needs based on their
RE
commercial prudence.
 Coking Coal is being imported by Steel
Authority of India Limited (SAIL) and
other Steel manufacturing units mainly to
bridge the gap between the requirement
and indigenous availability and to improve
the quality of production.
 Coal based power plants, cement plants,
captive power plants, sponge iron plants,
industrial consumers and coal traders are
importing non-coking coal.
Why in News?
 The parliamentary standing committee on
energy has recently said that the union
ministries of power and coal should ensure
optimum utilization of locally-produced
coal through effective collaboration so that
imports can be phased out over time.
 In its 26th report, the panel said efforts made
by both ministries led to a 56% drop in coal
imports for blending in FY21, but higher
international prices hit imported coal-based
power plants. This led to increased demand
for domestic coal, and consequently reduced
domestic coal stocks at power plants.
 The recommendations on phasing out
imports tracks India’s emergence out
of a severe coal crisis during April and
May when the country was in the midst
of an unprecedented heatwave leading
to a surge in power demand. This forced
the government to float tenders for coal
imports.
 The committee urges the ministry to learn
appropriate lessons from the 2021 episode,
it reiterates its recommendation that the
ministry of power and the ministry of coal
should collaborate effectively on this issue
and make concerted efforts for optimum
utilization of domestic coal reserves keeping
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

in view the basic objective of doing away with
the import of coal in a phased manner.
85. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the
new “One Nation One Fertiliser” scheme,
companies are allowed to display their
name, brand, logo and other relevant
product information only on one-third space
of their bags. On the remaining two-thirds
space, the “Bharat” brand and Pradhan
Mantri Bharatiya Jan Urvarak Pariyojana
logo will have to be shown.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: “Model
Fertilizer Retail Shop” also called “Pradhan
Mantri Kisan Samridhi Kendra” function as
“One Stop Shop” for Indian farmers for all
quality Agri Inputs like fertilizers, seeds,
pesticides at reasonable prices under one
roof, providing services of small and large
agri and farm implements through sale or
custom Hiring, Testing Facilities for Soil/
Seed/Fertilizer or connecting the farmers
O
to those testing Facilities centres and
Advisory Services etc. These shops are not
established under this scheme.
Supplementary notes:
SC
One Nation One Fertiliser Scheme
 Under the new “One Nation One Fertiliser”
scheme, companies are allowed to display
their name, brand, logo and other relevant
product information only on one-third space
of their bags. On the remaining two-thirds
space, the “Bharat” brand and Pradhan
GS
Mantri Bharatiya Jan Urvarak Pariyojana
logo will have to be shown.
 The government’s logic for introducing a
single ‘Bharat’ brand for all subsidized
fertilisers being marketed by companies is
as follows:
 The maximum retail price of urea is
currently fixed by the government,
which compensates companies for the
higher cost of manufacturing or imports
incurred by them. The MRPs of non-urea
fertilisers are, on paper, decontrolled.
But companies cannot avail of subsidy
if they sell at MRPs higher than that
informally indicated by the government.
Simply put, there are some 26 fertilisers
(inclusive of urea), on which government
bears subsidy and also effectively decides
the MRPs
 Apart from subsidizing and deciding
at what price companies can sell, the
government also decides where they can
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
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sell. This is done through the Fertiliser
(Movement) Control Order, 1973. Under
this, the department of fertilisers draws
an agreed monthly supply plan on all
subsidized fertilisers in consultation
with manufacturers and importers.
 When the government is spending vast
sums of money on fertiliser subsidy (the
bill is likely to cross Rs 200,000 crore
in 2022-23), plus deciding where and at
what price companies can sell, it would
obviously want to take credit and send
that message to farmers.
 A couple of issues are immediately
apparent:
 It will disincentivize fertiliser companies
from undertaking marketing and brand
promotion activities. They will now
RE
be reduced to contract manufacturers
and importers for the government.
Any company’s strength ultimately is
its brands and farmer trust built over
decades.
 Currently, in case of any bag or batch
of fertilisers not meeting the required
standards, the blame is put on the
company. But now, that may be passed
on fully to the government.
Why in News?
 The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers
announced recently that it has been decided
to implement One Nation One Fertiliser by
introducing a “Single Brand for Fertilisers
and Logo” under the fertiliser subsidy
scheme named “Pradhan Mantri Bharatiya
Janurvarak Pariyojna” (PMBJP).
 The single brand name for UREA, DAP,
MOP and NPK etc. would be BHARAT
UREA, BHARAT DAP, BHARAT MOP
and BHARAT NPK etc. respectively for
all Fertiliser Companies, State Trading
Entities (STEs) and Fertiliser Marketing
Entities (FMEs).
86. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The
Mānavadharmaśāstra, also known as
Manusmriti or the Laws of Manu, is a
Sanskrit text belonging to the Dharmaśāstra
literary tradition of Hinduism. Unlike
Dharmasutras which are based upon
Vedas, Dharmaśāstras are mainly based on
Puranas.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Manusmriti has
4 major divisions: 1) Creation of the world.
56

2) Sources of dharma. 3) The dharma of the
four social classes. 4) Law of karma, rebirth,
and final liberation. The third section is the
longest and most important section. The
text is deeply concerned with maintaining
the hierarchy of the four-fold varna system
and the rules that each caste has to follow.
It is encyclopedic in scope, covering subjects
such as the social obligations and duties
of the various castes and of individuals in
different stages of life, the suitable social
and sexual relations of men and women of
different castes etc.
Supplementary notes:
Manusmriti
 The Mānavadharmaśāstra, also known
as Manusmriti or the Laws of Manu, is a
Sanskrit text belonging to the Dharmaśāstra
literary tradition of Hinduism.
 Composed sometime between the 2nd
century BCE and 3rd century CE, the
Manusmriti is written in sloka verses,
containing two non-rhyming lines of 16
syllabus each. O that each caste has to follow.
 The text is attributed to the mythical figure
of Manu, considered to be ancestor of the
human race in Hinduism. There has been
considerable debate between scholars on the
authorship of the text. Many have argued
SC
that it was compiled by many Brahmin
scholars over a period of time. However,
some argue that Manusm iti’s “unique and
symmetrical structure,” means that it was
composed by a “single gifted individual,” or
by a “strong chairman of a committee” with
the aid of others.
GS
 The Manusmriti is encyclopedic in scope,
covering subjects such as the social
obligations and duties of the various castes
and of individuals in different stages of
life, the suitable social and sexual relations
of men and women of different castes, on
taxes, the rules for kingship, on maintaining
marital harmony and the procedures for
settling everyday disputes.
 At its core, the Manusmriti discusses life
in the world, how it is lived in reality, as
well as how it ought to be. It also discusses
aspects of the Arthashashtra, such as issues
relating to statecraft and legal procedures.
 The aim of the text is to “present a blueprint
for a properly ordered society under the
sovereignty of the king and the guidance of
Brahmins.”
 It was meant to be read by the priestly
caste.
 European Orientalists considered the
Manusmriti to be of great historical and
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religious significance as well. It was the
first Sanskrit text to be translated into
a European language, by the British
philologist Sir William Jones in 1794.
Subsequently, it was translated into French,
German, Portuguese and Russian.
 For colonial officials in British India, the
translation of the book served a practical
purpose. In 1772, Governor-General Warren
Hastings decided to implement laws of
Hindus and Muslims that they believed
to be continued, unchanged from remotest
antiquity. For Hindus, the dharmasastras
were to play a crucial role, as they were
seen by the British as ‘laws,’ whether or not
it was even used that way in India.
 The ancient text has 4 major divisions: 1)
Creation of the world. 2) Sources of dharma.
RE
3) The dharma of the four social classes. 4)
Law of karma, rebirth, and final liberation.
The third section is the longest and most
important section. The text is deeply
concerned with maintaining the hierarchy
of the four-fold varna system and the rules
Why in News?
 The Vice Chancellor of Jawaharlal Nehru
University, Santishree Dhulipudi Pandit,
recently criticised the Manusmriti, the
ancient Sanskrit text, over its gender bias.
Her remarks came while delivering the
keynote address at the B R Ambedkar Lecture
Series organised by the Union Ministry of
Social Justice and Empowerment.
 Pandit said that the Manusmriti has
categorised all women as “shudras”, which
is “extraordinarily regressive”. She also
referred to recent case in which a Dalit
boy in Rajasthan was allegedly beaten by
his teacher for touching a water pot, and
subsequently died due to his injuries.
 Referring to Ambedkar’s landmark
“Annihilation of Caste”, she said, “If Indian
society wants to do well, annihilation of
caste is extraordinarily important.”
87. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Aashwasan Campaign
 Aashwasan Campaign was a case-finding
campaign to detect instances of Tuberculosis
(TB) among tribal populations under ‘Tribal
TB Initiative’.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

 Tribal TB Initiative is a joint initiative of
the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Central
TB Division, Ministry of Health, supported
by USAID as technical partner and Piramal
Swasthya as implementing partner.
 The Aashwasan Campaign was started
for active case finding for TB in 174 tribal
districts of India, under the ambit of the
Tribal TB Initiative. It was flagged off in
Nandurbar District, Maharashtra.
 Under the initiative, door-to-door screening
for TB was undertaken covering 68,019
villages. Based on verbal screening of
1,03,07,200 persons, 3,82,811 people were
identified for Presumptive TB. Of these,
2,79,329 (73%) samples were tested for TB
and 9,971 people were found to be positive
for TB and put on treatment as per GoI
protocols.
 The Aashwasan Campaign brought together
about 2 lakh community influencers who
wholeheartedly participated to make the
campaign successful. These include tribal
leaders, tribal healers, PRI members, SHGs
and youth in the tribal areas- who were part
O
of this campaign in the screening process
and community awareness.
 As a way forward, to mark 75 years’ of
India’s Independence, 75 high burden tribal
SC
districts have been selected for focused
interventions in the coming months. A
three-pronged strategy for the 75 Districts
was presented, to be centered on:
 Generating demand for TB services
through continued engaged with
community influencers who have
been mapped during this process for
GS
community mobilization, increasing
awareness on TB, symptoms, spread and
treatment processes, and addressing
stigma and fear associated with TB.
 Improving the delivery of TB services by
enhancing the TB testing and diagnosis
infrastructure, leveraging PIPs and
other sources of funding to address
implementation gaps and provision of
customized solutioning
 Decreasing the risk of transmission and
decreasing the pool of infections through
active case finding campaigns
Why in News?
 Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TB division
of Ministry of Health and Family welfare
recently organized a national conclave at the
National Tribal Research Institute (NTRI),
New Delhi to disseminate the learnings of
the 100-day Aashwasan Campaign under
‘Tribal TB Initiative’.
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88. Correct Option: (a)
.
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: ‘Zorawar’ is
an indigenous Indian light tank designed
to operate in varying terrain from high
altitude areas and marginal terrains to
island territories.
Supplementary notes:
Swarm Drones
 Swarm robotics is an approach to the
coordination of multiple autonomous robots
as a system which consists of a large number
of mostly physical robots, controlled by
minimal human intervention. These exhibit
collective self organising (SO) behaviour
through interaction and cohesion between
robots, as well as interaction of robots with
RE
the environment.
 Swarming algorithms are empowered by
biological studies of swarm behaviour of
insects, fishes, birds and animals. Swarming
R&D across the world is focused on
development of distributed artificial swarm
intelligence capability, commodification
of technology for lesser cost impact and
increasing state of autonomy between the
agents in a swarm.
 While massed drones in spectacular light
shows are all controlled centrally, in a true
swarm, each of the drones flies itself following
onboard AI to maintain formation and avoid
collisions with algorithms mimicking nature
— there is no true leader and follower, with
all agents in a swarm having their own
‘mind’ able to undertake collective decision-
making, adaptive formation flying, and self-
healing. The benefit of such a swarm is that
if one drone drops out — and a few appear
to crash — the group can rearrange itself
to continue undertaking the mission till the
last UAV in air.
 The swarm drone system should be able to
scan and detect sub-centimeter size foreign
objects on aircraft operating surfaces. The
specifications of the surfaces have been
defined.
 The system should be able to carry a range of
payloads and sensors, have image correction
ability, provide alerts and provide accurate
location and discernable image of foreign
objects.
 The system should also be able to operate
in GPS denied environment, complete
operating cycle within 30 minutes and
operate day and night and in reduced
visibility as well as light windy conditions.
 There are a many uses for such a drone
swarm. The drones could be released by
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fighters to provide reconnaissance for troops
on the ground, hunting enemy forces and
reporting their location. They could also jam
enemy communications, form a wide-area
flying communications network, or provide
persistent surveillance of a particular area.
They could be loaded with small explosive
charges and attack individual enemy
soldiers. In air-to-air combat, they could
spoof enemy radars on aircraft, ground
vehicles, and missiles by pretending to be
much larger targets.
Why in News?
 The Indian Army has recently procured
swarm drones from two Indian start-ups. In
addition, a Make-II case has been initiated,
the Autonomous Surveillance and Armed
Drone Swarm (A-SADS), this includes a
number of improvements and also a version
for high altitude areas.
 The Indian Army is also prioritising the
procurement of the indigenous Indian
light tank, aptly named ‘Zorawar’, for
deployment in the mountains, in addition to
inducting niche technologies like loitering
munitions, anti-drone capabilities, and
O
next generation Intelligence, Surveillance
and Reconnaissance (ISR) capabilities to
outmanoeuvre the movement of Chinese
forces during the stand-off in eastern
SC
Ladakh.
 Zorawar is designed to operate in varying
terrain from high altitude areas and
marginal terrains to island territories.
It will be highly transportable for rapid
deployment to meet any operational
situation, and feature niche technologies,
including Artificial Intelligence (AI), drone
GS
integration, active protection systems, and
a high degree of situational awareness.
89. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana
 Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana is a scheme for
providing Physical Aids and Assisted-living
Devices for Senior citizens belonging to BPL
category. Under the Scheme, assisted living
devices such as Walking Sticks, Elbow
Crutches, Walkers/ Crutches, Tripods/
Quadpods, Hearing Aids, Wheelchairs,
Artificial Dentures and Spectacles are
provided free of cost to the beneficiary senior
citizens.
 This is a Central Sector Scheme, fully
funded by the Central Government. The
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expenditure for implementation of the
scheme will be met from the “Senior Citizens’
Welfare Fund”.
 The Scheme will be implemented through the
sole implementing agency - Artificial Limbs
Manufacturing Corporation (ALIMCO), a
PSU under the Ministry of Social Justice
and Empowerment.
 Under the scheme, the physical aids will be
provided only to the senior citizens of the
nation. This implies those who are aged
above 60 years will get free assisted living
aids and physical devices which are required
for their sustainability.
 Also the govt. has selected the list of cities
where the scheme will be implemented. At
present, a total of 325 Districts have been
selected for the implementation of Rashtriya
RE
Vayoshri Yojana.
 The main criteria for the senior citizens to get
full benefits of Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana
(RVY) scheme is that they must belong to
BPL family and should hold valid BPL card
issued by the concerned authority.
Salient features of the scheme are:

 Free of cost distribution of the devices,
commensurate with the extent of
disability/infirmity that is manifested
among the eligible senior citizens.
 In case of multiple disabilities/infirmities
manifested in the same person, the
assistive devices will be given in respect
of each disability/impairment.
 Artificial Limbs Manufacturing
Corporation (ALIMCO) will undertake
one year free maintenance of the aids &
assisted living devices.
 Beneficiaries in each district will be
identified by the State Governments/UT
Administrations through a Committee
chaired by the Deputy Commissioner/
District Collector.
 As far as possible, 30% of the beneficiaries
in each district shall be women.
 The devices are distributed in the camp
mode. For the senior citizens aged 80
years or more, the devices are provided
at their doorsteps.
Why in News?
 A ‘Samajik Adhikarita Shivir’ for distribution
of aids and assistive devices to Senior citizens
under ‘Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana’ (RVY
Scheme) and to ‘Divyangjan’ under the ADIP
Scheme of the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment, Government of India was
recently organized by the Department of
SJ&E in association with ALIMCO, Nagpur
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Municipal Corporation (NMC) and District
Administration Nagpur at Reshimbagh
Ground in Nagpur (Maharashtra).
90. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: While La Niña
conditions enhance the rainfall associated
with the Southwest monsoon; it has a
negative impact on rainfall associated with
the Northeast monsoon. During La Niña
years, the synoptic systems — low pressure
or cyclones — formed in the Bay of Bengal
remain significantly to the north of their
normal position. Besides, instead of moving
westwards, these systems recurve. As they
lie to the north of their normal position, not
much rainfall occurs over southern regions
like Tamil Nadu.
Supplementary notes:
La Nina
 La Nina is the opposite of El Nino
characterized by occurrence of cooler waters
in East Pacific.
O South America.
 The word La Nina means ‘Little Girl’.
 Since the waters are colder than normal in
East Pacific, there is no reversal of pressure
SC
conditions; instead the normal conditions
get intensified during La Nina years.
 While La Niña conditions enhance the
rainfall associated with the Southwest
monsoon, it has a negative impact on rainfall
associated with the Northeast monsoon.
 During La Niña years, the synoptic systems
GS
— low pressure or cyclones — formed in
the Bay of Bengal remain significantly to
the north of their normal position. Besides,
instead of moving westwards, these systems
recurve. As they lie to the north of their
normal position, not much rainfall occurs
over southern regions like Tamil Nadu.
 The SOI (Southern Oscillation Index)
calculated on the basis of atmospheric
pressure differences between Tahiti and
Darwin; gives an indication of development
of El Nino or La Nina.
 Sustained positive values of SOI are
indicative of La Nina conditions while
negative values suggest El Nino conditions.
 La Niña is the cooling phase of the El
Niño Southern Oscillation phenomenon in
which cooler sea surface temperatures in
the eastern and central equatorial Pacific
Ocean disrupt the trade winds over the sea
surface. This disturbance is then carried to
various regions with varied impacts.
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 Consecutive La Ninas following a transition
through ENSO neutral conditions are
referred to as a “Double-Dip.”
 La Niña usually aids in the formation,
intensification and propagation of hurricanes
in the North Atlantic Ocean.
 La Niña generally brings cooler than normal
temperatures across the world and heavy
rainfall to places like India while causing
drought in many regions of North America.
 The wind patterns over the Atlantic Ocean
during La Niña also become conducive for
the genesis of hurricanes.
 La Niña events are also associated with
rainier-than-normal conditions are over
southeastern Africa and northern Brazil.
 La Niña is also characterized by higher-
RE
than-normal pressure over the central and
eastern Pacific. This results in decreased
cloud production and rainfall in that region.
Drier-than-normal conditions are observed
along the west coast of tropical South
America, the Gulf Coast of the United
States, and the pampas region of southern
 Strong La Niña events are associated with
catastrophic floods in northern Australia.
Why in News?
 Australia’s Bureau of Meteorology (BOM)
has recently predicted that a third
consecutive event of La Nina could be
underway, leading to additional rainfall
along its east coast this summer.
 The BOM predicted a 70 per cent chance
of the La Nina event. However, the United
States and UK weather agencies have
claimed that the phenomenon is already
underway.
91. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Convention
did not require countries to take concrete
actions to control ozone-depleting
substances. Instead, a provision was added
that Protocols to control these substances
would be adopted if and when warranted.
Supplementary notes:
Vienna Convention and Montreal
Protocol
 By 1985, the globe had already seen
advancements in the scientific understanding
of ozone depletion and its impacts on
human health and the environment. It was
then that the Vienna Convention for the
60

Protection of the Ozone Layer was created
in response.
 The Vienna Convention was the first
convention of any kind to be signed by every
country involved, taking effect in 1988.
 The Convention did not require countries
to take concrete actions to control ozone-
depleting substances. Instead, a provision
was added that Protocols to control these
substances would be adopted if and when
warranted.
 Two years after the adoption of the Vienna
Convention, the Montreal Protocol on
92. Correct Option: (b)
Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer
was agreed upon, in an effort to apply
limits to the production and consumption of
the main chemicals that were causing the
destruction of the Earth’s protective ozone
RE
layer. The Protocol, which entered into force
in 1989, defines a schedule for reducing or
eliminating the use of these chemicals.
 Since adoption of the Montreal Protocol, the
Parties also adopted several amendments
to that Protocol: the London Amendment
(1990), the Copenhagen Amendment (1992),
the Montreal Amendment (1997), the
Amendment (2016).
O
Beijing Amendment (1999), and the Kigali
 The Kigali Amendment, called for the phase-
SC
down of hydro-fluorocarbons (HFCs) in 2016.
These HFCs were used as replacements
for a batch of ozone-depleting substances
eliminated by the original Montreal
Protocol. Although they do not deplete the
ozone layer, they are known to be powerful
greenhouse gases and, thus, contributors to
climate change.
GS
 In 2009, the Convention and the Montreal
Protocol became the first treaties of any
kind to achieve universal ratification.
Why in News?
 The scientists of the National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), an
American scientific and regulatory agency
within the United States Department of
Commerce, recently announced that the
concentration of ozone-depleting substances
in the atmosphere has reduced to reach a
significant milestone this year.
 NOAA’s Ozone Depleting Gas Index tracks
the overall stratospheric concentration
of ozone-depleting chlorine and bromine
from long-lived ozone-depleting substances
(ODS) relative to its peak concentration in
the early 1990s.
 They found the overall concentration of ODSs
in the mid-latitude stratosphere had fallen
just over 50 per cent. This means the ODS
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levels in 2022 are back to those observed in
1980 before ozone depletion was significant.
However, the pace of reduction in ODSs
over Antarctica, which experiences a large
ozone hole in spring, has been slower.
 This slow but steady progress over the past
three decades was achieved by international
compliance with controls on production and
trade of ODS in the Montreal Protocol on
Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer —
an international agreement made in 1987.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Anang Tal is
situated “to the north of Jog Maya temple
and approximately 500 metres to the
northwest of Qutub Complex”, and dates
back to 1,060 AD. Tradition ascribes this
tank to a Tomar King, Anangpal II, the
builder of Lal Kot. It is said that Alauddin
Khalji, in 1296-1316 AD, utilised the water
of this tank when he built Qutub minar and
extended the Qutub-ul-Islam mosque.
Supplementary notes:
Anang Tal Lake
 The lake is situated in Mehrauli, Delhi and
is claimed to be created by Tomar King,
Anangpal II, in 1,060 AD.
 He is known to have established and
populated Delhi in the 11th century.
 The millennium old Anang Tal signifies the
beginning of Delhi.
 Anang Tal has a strong Rajasthan
connection as Maharaja Anangpal is known
as nana (maternal grandfather) of Prithviraj
Chauhan whose fort Rai Pithora is on the
list of the ASI.
 Anang Tal is situated “to the north of Jog
Maya temple and approximately 500 metres
to the northwest of Qutub Complex”, and
dates back to 1,060 AD.
 It is said to have been a place of a general
resort but now it is dried up and used for
cultivation.
 It is also said Alauddin Khalji, in 1296-1316
AD, utilised the water of this tank when he
built Qutub minar and extended the Qutub-
ul-Islam mosque.
Why in News?
 The Ministry of Culture recently declared
Anang Tal Lake as a monument of national
importance.
 In exercise of the powers conferred by
sub-section (1) of section 4 of the Ancient
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11

Monuments and Archaeological Sites and
Remains Act, 1958, the central government
declared the said ancient site and remains
to be of national importance.
93. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: At least 31 states
and union territories have already agreed to
the scheme, with final concurrence awaited
from Tamil Nadu and Telangana. Delhi,
West Bengal, and Odisha have stayed away
from the scheme.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The beneficiary
card for Ayushman Bharat-–Pradhan
Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)
can now be used to avail benefits for any
existing state health insurance schemes as
well, with the National Health Authority
(NHA) recently allowing co-branding with
logos and names of both schemes on the new
cards.
Supplementary notes:
Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan
O Mukyamantri Yojna (or the name of the
Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)
 Under this scheme, around 10.74 crore poor
and vulnerable families identified as per
SC
Socio-Economic Caste Census are entitled
for health cover of Rs. 5.00 lakh per family
per year for secondary and tertiary care
hospitalization.
 PMJAY provides cashless and paperless
access to services for the beneficiary at the
point of service.
GS
 It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme and the
nodal agency to implement it is the National
Health Authority (NHA).
 It covers up to 3 days of pre-hospitalization
and 15 days of post-hospitalization expenses
such as diagnostics and medicines.
 There is no restriction on the family size,
age or gender.
 PM-JAY was earlier known as the National
Health Protection Scheme (NHPS) before
being rechristened. It subsumed the then-
existing Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
(RSBY) which had been launched in 2008.
The coverage under PM-JAY, therefore,
also includes families that were covered in
RSBY but are not present in the SECC 2011
database.
Why in News?
 The beneficiary card for Ayushman Bharat-
–Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-
PMJAY) can now be used to avail benefits for
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
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any existing state health insurance schemes
as well, with the National Health Authority
(NHA) recently allowing co-branding with
logos and names of both schemes on the new
cards.
 At least 31 states and union territories have
already agreed to the scheme, with final
concurrence awaited from Tamil Nadu and
Telangana. Delhi, West Bengal, and Odisha
have stayed away from the scheme.
 The same card can be used by beneficiaries
under Ayushman Bharat and the state
scheme. If a state wants to provide more
than Rs 5 lakh benefit, partial funding for
upto Rs 5 lakh will be provided by the Centre
as per the existing scheme. If states have
additional beneficiaries (other than those
identified under the 2011 socio-economic
RE
and caste census), they will be also be able
to use the same card.
 The co-branded cards will allot space to
both PM-JAY ad state specific logos. At
the bottom of the card, the name of the
scheme will be mentioned as “Ayushman
Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojna-
state scheme).”
94. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Mandala Art
 Mandala patterns are motifs that are
centuries old, and are used to depict the
cosmos. They have been adapted by artists
the world over, each of whom has added
their own interpretation to these designs.
 Literally meaning the “circle” or the
“centre” in Sanskrit, mandala is defined
by a geometric configuration that usually
incorporates the circular shape in some
form. While it can also be created in the
shape of a square, a mandala pattern is
essentially interconnected.
 Mandala is rooted in Hinduism and
Buddhism. Mandala imagery first appeared
in the Vedas (c. 1500-500 BC), and
Buddhist missionaries travelling along the
Silk Road are believed to have taken it to
regions outside India. By the sixth century,
mandalas were recorded in China, Korea,
Japan, Indonesia and Tibet. Separately,
native American peoples are believed to
have used the mandala as representation
of a deity or the cosmos, and as a spiritual
form.
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 It is believed that by entering the mandala
and moving towards its centre, one
experiences a cosmic process of transforming
the universe and that of moving from
emotions of suffering to the feeling of joy.
 In Hindu philosophical systems, a mandala
or yantra is usually in the shape of a square
with a circle at its centre.
 A traditional Buddhist mandala is a circular
painting that is meant to help its creator
discover their true self.
 There are various elements incorporated
within the mandala, each of which has
its own meaning. For instance, the eight
spokes of the wheel (the Dharmachakra)
represent the eight-fold path of Buddhism
that brings liberation from the cycle of birth
and death. The lotus flower depicts balance,
and the sun represents the universe. Facing
up, triangles represent action and energy,
and facing down, they represent creativity
and knowledge.
 Deep-rooted in ancient philosophy, the
mandala has attained varied forms in the
hands of modern and contemporary Indian
O Sullia Rebellion
artists.
 While it continues to appear in Buddhist
Thangka paintings, it has a central place
in the works of even mainstream artists
associated with tantric and neo-tantric
SC
spiritual movements.
Why in News?
 A huge mandala has recently been carved
into parkland to show people the realms of
what art can be.
 The artwork, which covers an area the
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size of one-and-a-half football pitches, has
been cut into Knowsley’s Halewood Park in
Liverpool in the United Kingdom by artist
James Brunt.
95. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Amara Sullia Rebellion
 The Amara Sullia Rebellion was an armed
uprising against the British government
organized by the people of Arebhashe and
Tulunadu that took place in 1837, twenty
years before the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857.
 Peasant uprisings, called ‘koots’ by the
British, which broke out against the East
India Company in the coastal belt during
1830-31, reached the stage of an armed
struggle in 1837.
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.
 The revolt by peasants was not related to
the freedom movement, though, but against
the high land revenue (tax) assessment and
the absence of a lucrative market for farm
produce. But it did motivate people to join
the freedom movement after 1850.
 The uprisings, which began in Bellare in
March, 1837, spread to Sullia, Puttur,
Bantwal, Kumble, Kasaragod, and finally to
Mangalore (now Mangaluru). The treasury
of Britishers was present at Bellare of
Sulya. Freedom fighters came directly from
Maduvegadde to Bellare Bungalow and
seized the treasury.
 The revolutionaries lowered the British
flag at Bavutagudda, now in the heart of
Mangaluru, on April 5, 1837, and hoisted
their own flag.
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 The peasants had captured Mangalore for
13 days. Kedambady Ramayya Gowda is
said to be one among those who revolted
against the British then.
 Gowda had formed an army of farmers to
fight against the British through Amara
 Ubaradka Mittur village in Sullia taluk
has been designated as a Heritage Village
by the Government of Karnataka, for its
contribution to freedom movement.
Why in News?
 A bronze statue of Kedambady Ramayya
Gowda, mounted on a horse, who is said
to have revolted against the British in a
mass insurrection in 1837, will recently be
brought to Dakshina Kannada for installing
it at Bavutagudda or Light House Hill in
the city.
96. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Narmada Canal
 The Narmada Canal is a contour canal in
Western India that brings water from the
Sardar Sarovar Dam to the state of Gujarat
and then into Rajasthan state.
 It is the largest lined irrigation canal in the
world.
 The main canal has a length of 532
kilometers (331 mi) (458 kilometers (285 mi)
in Gujarat and then 74 kilometers (46 mi) in
Rajasthan). It is the second longest canal in
India (after the Indira Gandhi Canal) and
the largest canal by water carrying capacity
(40,000 cusec at source).
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 The Main Canal is lined with plain cement
concrete to minimize seepage losses to
attain higher velocity and to control the
water logging in future. The lining work is
carried out with the mechanized pavers.
 The Narmada canal will bring water to
parched Kutch from the Narmada Sarovar
dam in south Gujarat.
 The Narmada, the largest west flowing river
of the Peninsula, rises near Amarkantak
range of mountains in Madhya Pradesh.
It is the fifth largest river in the country
and the largest one in Gujarat. It traverses
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat
and meets the Gulf of Cambay. The total
length of the river from source to sea is 1312
kilometers.
Why in News?
 PM Modi recently inaugurated Narmada
canal in Gujarat.
97. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
O
Supplementary notes:
Taiwan Strait
SC
 The Taiwan Strait is a 180-kilometer wide
strait separating the island of Taiwan and
continental Asia.
 The strait is part of the South China Sea
and connects to the East China Sea to the
north.
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 South China Sea is a marginal sea, an arm
of western Pacific Ocean in Southeast Asia.
 The People’s Republic of China, the
Republic of China (Taiwan), the Philippines,
Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, Singapore and
Vietnam border the South China Sea.
 Taiwan Strait connects South China Sea
with the East China Sea while the Luzon
Strait connects it with the Philippine Sea.
 The Taiwan Strait is itself a subject of
international dispute over its political
status. As the People’s Republic of China
claims to enjoy “sovereignty, sovereign
rights and jurisdiction over the Taiwan
Strait” and regards the waterway as
“internal territorial waters” instead of
being international waters, this means that
the Chinese government denies any foreign
vessel having the freedom of navigation in
the strait. This position has drawn strong
objections from the United States, Australia,
France and Taiwan.
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.
 Historically both the People’s Republic of
China (PRC) and the Republic of China
(ROC) on Taiwan espoused a One-China
Policy that considered the strait part of
the exclusive economic zone of a single
“China”. In practice, a maritime border of
control exists along the median line down
the strait.
 The median line was defined in 1955 and the
US pressured both sides into entering into
a tacit agreement not to cross the median
line.
 The median line is also known as the Davis
line after US Air Force General Benjamin O.
Davis Jr. who drew a line down the middle
of the strait.
RE
Why in News?
 India has for the first time referred to what
it called “the militarisation of the Taiwan
Strait”, marking a rare instance of New
Delhi appearing to comment on China’s
actions towards Taiwan.
 The reference to Taiwan, in a recent
statement issued by the Indian High
Commission in Sri Lanka, marked a more
pronounced expression of New Delhi’s views
over the situation in the Taiwan Strait than
its previous response to China’s military
drills, conducted in the wake of the visit by
U.S. House Speaker Nancy Pelosi.
 Earlier, the Ministry of External Affairs
(MEA) did not refer to “militarisation” of the
Strait, only saying India was “concerned at
recent developments” and “urged exercise of
restraint, avoidance of unilateral actions to
change status quo, de-escalation of tensions
and efforts to maintain peace and stability
in the region.”
 The latest reference to Taiwan came amid
a spat with China over the recent visit of
a Chinese military tracking vessel Yuan
Wang 5 to Hambantota in Sri Lanka.
 India has followed a “One China policy”
since its recognition of the PRC in 1949, and
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only maintains trade and cultural relations
with Taiwan. India routinely reiterated this
policy until 2008, after which it stopped
mentioning it in official statements, a
demand that China usually asks of most
countries in official declarations.
98. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the
rules, the Bureau of Indian Standards need
to prepare code of practices and standards
for products of construction and demolition
waste
Supplementary notes:
Construction and Demolition Waste
Management Rules, 2016
 These rules, notified for the first time in
2016, aims to effectively tackle the issues of
pollution and waste management.
 The rules consider construction & demolition
waste not as a waste, but a resource and
thus aims to recover, recycle and reuse the

waste generated through construction and
demolition.
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The salient features of the Construction &
Demolition Waste Management Rules, 2016
SC
are:
 The rules applies to everyone who
generates construction and demolition
waste.
 Duties of waste Generators:
 Every waste generator shall segregate
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construction and demolition waste
and deposit at collection centre
or handover it to the authorized
processing facilities
 Shall ensure that there is no littering
or deposition so as to prevent
obstruction to the traffic or the public
or drains.
 Large generators (who generate more
than 20 tons or more in one day or
300 tons per project in a month)
shall submit waste management
plan and get appropriate approvals
from the local authority before
starting construction or demolition
or remodeling work
 Large generators shall pay relevant
charges for collection, transportation,
processing and disposal as notified by
the concerned authorities
 Duties of Service providers and
Contractors:
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.
 The service providers shall prepare
a comprehensive waste management
plan for waste generated within their
jurisdiction, within six months from
the date of notification of these rules,
 Shall remove all construction and
demolition waste in consultation with
the concerned local authority on their
own or through any agency
 Duties of State Government and
Local Authorities:
 Shall procure and utilize 10-20%
materials made from construction
and demolition waste in municipal
and Government contracts.
 Local Authority shall place
appropriate containers for collection
of waste, removal at regular intervals,
RE
transportation to appropriate sites
for processing and disposal.
 LA shall seek detailed plan or
undertaking from large generator of
construction and demolition waste
and sanction the waste management
plan
 Seek assistance from concerned
authorities for safe disposal of
construction and demolition waste
contaminated with industrial
hazardous or toxic material or nuclear
waste if any;
 LA shall establish a data base and
update once in a year,
 Duties of Central Pollution Control
Board, State Pollution Control Board
or Pollution Control Committee:
 The Central Pollution Control
Board shall prepare operational
guidelines related to environmental
management of construction and
demolition waste.
 SPCB shall grant authorization to
construction and demolition waste
processing facility
 Monitor the implementation of these
rules by the concerned local bodies
 Standards for products of
construction and demolition waste:
 The Bureau of Indian Standards
need to prepare code of practices and
standards for products of construction
and demolition waste
 Indian Roads Congress need to
prepare standards and practices
pertaining to products of construction
and demolition waste in roads
construction
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 Facility for processing / recycling
facility:
 The operator of the facility shall
obtain authorization from State
Pollution Control Board or Pollution
Control Committee.
 The processing / recycling site shall be
away from habitation clusters, forest
areas, water bodies, monuments,
National Parks, Wetlands and places
of important cultural, historical or
religious interest.
 The processing/recycling facility
exceeding five Tones per day capacity,
shall maintain a buffer zone of no
development around the facility.
Why in News?
 The Super tech Twin towers in Sector 93A
of Noida, Uttar Pradesh were demolished
recently by controlled implosion. The
operation was carried out by Edifice
Engineering based in Mumbai and South
African company Jet Demolition. The
demolition was done by a method known
as the ‘waterfall technique’ to minimize
damage to the surroundings.
O 
 Their being located in a residential
neighborhood of Noida makes it even
more essential to introduce interventions
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to mitigate pollution and waste, post-
demolition.
 The concerned authorities had given an
NOC for the demolition to go ahead and post
the demolition; the standard protocols for
disposal of debris will be followed according
to The Construction and Demolition Waste
Management Rules, 2016.
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99. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: Martand Sun
Temple is located in Anantnag, Jammu and
Kashmir.
Supplementary notes:
Martand Sun Temple
 The Martand Sun Temple also known
as Pandou Laidan is a Hindu temple
dedicated to Surya (the chief solar deity in
Hinduism) and built during the 8th century
CE. Martand is another Sanskrit synonym
for Surya.
 It was built by the third ruler of the Karkota
Dynasty, Lalitaditya Muktapida.
 It is now in ruins, as it was destroyed by
the orders of Muslim ruler Sikandar Shah
Miri.
PTS2023/PPP-01/092022/11
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.
 The temple is located five miles from
Anantnag in the Indian union territory
of Jammu and Kashmir.
 From the ruins and related archaeological
findings, it can be said it was an excellent
specimen of Kashmiri architecture, which
had blended the Gandharan, Gupta and
Chinese forms of architecture.
 The temple appears in the list of centrally
protected monuments as Kartanda (Sun
Temple).
Why in News?
 Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) red-
flagged a religious ceremony participated by
the Lieutenant-Governor Manoj Sinha.
 Recently, a group of Hindu pilgrims entered
its premises and held an hour-long prayer
RE
session. The site is classified as a ‘non-
living’ protected monument, where no ritual
can be held unless permitted.
100. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Johar
 ‘Johar’, which essentially means ‘salutation
and welcome’, is used within the tribal
communities of Jharkhand, and in parts of
Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
 According to several tribal leaders from
Jharkhand, the word ‘Johar’ also means
‘paying respect’.
 Tribal communities are nature worshippers
and follow Sarna religion code, although it
is not an official religion.
 There are 32 tribal communities in
Jharkhand who speak different dialects.
Almost all, including tribal Christians, use
the word ‘Johar’ along with some other words
for salutation. Johar, is predominantly used
by Santhali, Munda and Ho communities
that share some similarities. People
belonging to the Oraon community use the
word ‘Jai Dharam’, apart from Johar, as a
salutation.
 There are at least four types of Johar
greeting. One of them is ‘Doboh Johar’,
which is used between people where one
among them has a higher standing. In
‘Doboh Johar’ there is a ritual where the
person with a tumbler full of water bows in
front of the person of higher standing. “The
person who bows will touch the earth and
in return the other person will wash his/
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 .
her hand (using water in the tumbler) and ‘time immemorial’, adding that it is hard to
let the water drop on the earth. The entire pinpoint when it actually began.
exercise means that the hospitality being
shown has been accepted.” Why in News?

 Leaders from the tribal communities say  The 15th President of India, Droupadi
that the greeting has been in use since Murmu, assumed office recently with a
‘Johar’ greeting to the country.

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SC
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