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TEST-11 Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2023 – Test – 3795


C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO


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1. If any political party gets recognized as a 4. With reference to the process of social audit
'national party', which of the following
in India, consider the following statements:
benefits will it get?
1. Only one proposer is required to file a 1. The details of both the financial and
nomination. non-financial resources used for the
2. Two sets of electoral rolls free of cost by
development process by a public agency
the Election Commission of India.
3. Receive land or building from the are disclosed under the purview of social
government to establish their party
audit.
office.
4. The election symbol of that party cannot 2. Social audits were given statutory status
be used by any other political party in for the first time under the Mahatma
polls across India.
Gandhi National Rural Employment
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. Guarantee Act, 2005.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only correct?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
2. Consider the following statements regarding
the Comptroller and Auditor General of (c) Both 1 and 2
India (CAG)?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. He assists the Public Accounts
Committee of the Parliament.
2. His salary is equal to that of a judge of 5. As per the provisions of the Consumer
the Supreme Court
Protection Act, 2019, consider the following
3. He can be removed by the president only
in accordance with the procedure statements:
mentioned in the Constitution.
1. The Central Consumer Protection
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Authority under the act can suo-moto
(a) 3 only inquire and investigate violations of
(b) 1 and 3 only
consumer rights.
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. A person who avails services for any
commercial purpose is not considered a
3. Which of the following languages were
added through an amendment to the consumer.
Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution? 3. Complaints with the national
1. Santhali
commission are filed free of cost.
2. Sindhi
3. Maithili Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Konkani
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
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6. With reference to the ‘One Nation One 9. Consider the following statements with
Ration Card’ programme, consider the respect to National Legal Services Authority
following statements: (NALSA):
1. The families coming under the category 1. It disburses funds to State Legal
of below poverty line (BPL) only are Services Authorities to implement legal
eligible under the programme. aid programs.
2. Assam is the first state to implement the 2. It provides women to free legal aid
programme. irrespective of their income or financial
3. The programme is an endeavour of the status.
Ministry of Labour and Employment to Which of the statements given above is/are
empower the migrant labour population. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None 10. Consider the following statements regarding
the Enforcement Directorate (ED):
7. Consider the following statements with 1. It is a statutory body established under
respect to the 'tribunals' in India: the Prevention of Money Laundering
1. The provisions with respect to the Act (PMLA).
tribunals existed as a part of the original 2. An Enforcement Directorate
Constitution. investigating officer can arrest an
2. The Parliament is empowered to accused without prior intimation.
establish tribunals for the adjudication of 3. It is the only central investigative agency
disputes related to the public services of that does not require permission from
local bodies. the government to summon or prosecute
Which of the statements given above is/are politicians or government officials for
not correct? inquiry into economic offences and
(a) 1 only financial crimes.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
8. Consider the following statements with (c) 2 only
respect to National Achievement Survey: (d) 1 and 3 only
1. It is a comprehensive evaluation survey
of students learning competencies at 11. Which one of the following will be the result
higher secondary and graduation levels. in a constituency where the highest number
2. It is conducted annually by NITI of votes polled are NOTA (None Of The
Aayog. Above)?
3. Like the Annual Status of Education (a) Fresh polls will be held without fielding
Report, it is a household survey. of candidates rejected by voters.
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) The constituency will be merged with
correct? any of the adjacent constituencies.
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Governor will nominate a candidate after
(b) 2 only consulting the Chief Electoral Officer.
(c) 3 only (d) Candidate securing the highest number
(d) None of votes will be declared elected.
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12. Which one of the following statements best 14. Consider the following statements regarding
describes the build-operate-transfer (BOT) SOFIA Observatory:
model of public-private participation (PPP)? 1. SOFIA is joint collaboration between
(a) The private sector designs, builds, owns NASA and European Space Agency.
and constructs the facility and operates it 2. SOFIA's telescope operates in the
commercially for the concession period.
infrared wavelength.
(b) The procurement of raw materials and
3. SOFIA can land after each flight, so its
construction costs are met by the
instruments can be exchanged, serviced
government while the private sector's
or upgraded.
participation is limited to the provisions
Which of the statements given above is/are
of engineering expertise.
correct?
(c) The government gives part of an
(a) 1 only
undertaking to the private sector for
(b) 1 and 2 only
operations and maintenance of assets.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Government contracts with a private
party to design and construct a project (d) 1, 2 and

for a fee.
15. Consider the following statements regarding

13. With reference to the National e-Governance the Cabinet Secretariat:

Plan (NeGP), consider the following 1. It functions directly under the President
statements: of India.
1. The National e-Governance Plan 2. It is responsible for the administration of
(NeGP) was launched under the Digital the Government of India (Allocation of
India Mission in 2015 by the Ministry of Business) Rules, 1961.
Information and Broadcasting. 3. It ensures that the President, the Vice
2. State data centers and common service
President, and Ministers are kept
centers form the core infrastructure
informed of the major activities of all
components of the National e-
ministries/departments.
Governance Plan.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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16. Sevottam is a ‘service delivery excellence 19. With reference to the Postal Ballot facility in
model’ which provides an assessment- India, consider the following statements:
improvement framework to bring about 1. Mediapersons on duty are authorized to
excellence in public service delivery. Which cast their vote using postal ballot
of the following is/are components of the facility.

sevottam model? 2. Any voter opting for a postal ballot


facility cannot cast a vote at the polling
1. Service Delivery Capability
station.
2. The citizens’ charter
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Mandatory use of ICT
correct?
4. Public grievance redressal
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only
given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 20. Consider the following statements with
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only regards to National Investigation Agency:
1. It can not investigate offenses committed
17. Nagpur Resolution, 2019 sometimes seen in outside India.
the news, is related to: 2. It has power to take suo-moto
(a) citizen centric governance. cognizance of terror activities.
(b) management of e-waste. 3. It can investigate offenses related to
(c) curbing the menace of tuberculosis. human trafficking.
(d) regional connectivity through airways. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
18. Consider the following statements with
(b) 2 and 3 only
respect to Central Administrative Tribunal
(c) 1 and 3 only
(CAT):
(d) 2 only
1. Members of CAT are drawn from both
judicial and administrative streams.
21. With reference to the Lokpal and Lokayukta
2. Appeals against the orders of the CAT
Act, 2013, which of the following statements
can be made only in the Supreme Court. is not correct?
3. CAT is bound by the procedure laid (a) Lokpal can suo-moto proceed against
down in the Civil Procedure Code of any public servant.
1908. (b) It provides adequate protection for
Which of the statements given above is/are honest and upright public servants.
correct? (c) It provides legal assistance to public
(a) 2 and 3 only servants against whom complaint is
(b) 1 only filed.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Government aided institutions are not
(d) 1 and 3 only under the jurisdiction of Lokpal.
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22. Which of the following has been explicitly 25. Consider the following statements regarding
cited as a ground for disqualification of the Competition Commission of India (CCI):
electoral candidates under the 1. It is a statutory body responsible for
Representation of People Act (RPA) 1951? enforcing the Companies Act, 2013.
1. Conviction for robbery 2. Only a person who is qualified to be a
2. Conviction for insulting the National judge of a High Court can be appointed
Flag under the National Honour Act of as its Chairperson.
1971 3. It was established to replace the
3. Conviction for promoting or preaching Competition Appellate Tribunal.
the traditional practice of
Which of the statements given above is/are
‘untouchability’ which is abolished
correct?
completely under Article 17 of the
(a) 1 and 3 only
Indian Constitution
(b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 3 only
given below.
(d) None
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 26. Consider the following statements about the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 National Commission for Safai Karamcharis
(NCSK):
23. Which of the following statements is correct 1. It is a statutory body.
regarding the Joint State Public Service 2. It was established under the Prohibition
Commission (JSPSC)? of Employment as Manual Scavengers
(a) It is a constitutional body. and Their Rehabilitation Act, 2013.
(b) Its chairman and members are appointed 3. It is the nodal agency for
by the President. implementation of the Central Sector
(c) A JSPSC presents its annual Self Employment Scheme for
performance report to the President. Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers.
(d) The number of members of a JSPSC and Which of the statements given above is/are
their conditions of service are not correct?
determined by the Parliament. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
24. With reference to the Right to Information (c) 2 and 3 only
Act (RTI), 2005, consider the following (d) 1, 2 and 3
statements:
1. Only the citizens of India have the right
27. With reference to Good Governance Index,
to seek information under the provisions
consider the following statements:
of the Right to Information Act 2005.
1. It is launched by NITI Aayog.
2. If the public information officer (PIO)
2. It is prepared on a bi-annual basis.
fails to provide the information, no
3. It evaluates the performance of 20
appeal can be made against him/her
sectors.
under the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2 and 3 only
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28. Consider the following statements with 30. Consider the following statements regarding
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
respect to sovereign immunity in India:
1. It is a permanent intergovernmental
1. The 'doctrine of sovereign immunity' in international organization founded in
India is absolute. 2001 in Shanghai.
2. India is yet to sign the United Nations 2. Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure
(RATS) is a permanent organ of SCO.
Convention on Jurisdictional Immunities
3. Turkmenistan is a member of SCO.
of States and their Property. 4. SCO has observer status at United
3. Foreign companies do not have Nations General Assembly.
Which of the statements given above are
immunity in India from judicial
correct?
proceedings in cases involving their (a) 1 and 2 only
commercial activities. (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct?
(a) 1 only 31. Consider the following statements regarding
Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for
(b) 3 only
Prosperity (IPEF) :
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. India is a member of IPEF.
(d) 2 and 3 only 2. IPEF countries together account for
more than 70 percent of the world's
GDP.
29. Which of the following is/are the criteria for 3. A graded market access and lowering of
allocating a 'Maharatna' status to a public tariffs are its stated goals.
Which of the statements given above is/are
sector enterprise?
correct?
1. Should have a 'Miniratna' status (a) 1 only
2. Should have an average annual net profit (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
before tax of more than Rs 15,000 crore
(d) 1, 2 and 3
during the last three years
3. Should be listed on the Indian stock 32. Which of the following committees/
commissions are related to the police
exchange with minimum prescribed
reforms?
public shareholding under SEBI 1. The Ribeiro Committee
regulations 2. Malimath Committee
3. Punchhi Commission
Select the correct answer using the code
4. Padmanabhaiah Committee
given below. Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1, 2 and 3 given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
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33. Consider the following statements about 36. Which of the following statements is correct
Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in
regarding the Central Information
India:
1. Ballot papers and EVMs must carry the Commission (CIC)?
picture of the candidate with his or her (a) It is a statutory body constituted under
name, educational qualifications, and
the Information Technology Act, 2000.
party symbol.
2. Shortage of regular electricity supply in (b) A person connected with any political
rural areas is a major obstacle to the party can be appointed as a Information
smooth functioning of EVMs.
3. EVMs were used for the first time in the Commissioner but can not be appointed
general elections in 2004. as Chief Information Commissioner.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) It falls under Department of Personal
correct?
(a) 1 only and Training.
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) The salary of the Chief Information
(c) 3 only
Commissioner is equivalent to the salary
(d) None
paid to the Chief Election
34. United Nations Conference on Trade and Commissioner.
Development (UNCTAD) is an
intergovernmental organization dealing with
trade, investment, and development issues. 37. With reference to online dispute resolution
In this context, which of the following
(ODR) in India, consider the following
reports are published by UNCTAD?
1. Trade and Development Report statements:
2. World Investment Report 1. SAMADHAN portal was launched to
3. Global Competitiveness Report
Select the correct answer using the code address disputes due to delayed
given below. payments in MSMEs.
(a) 2 only
2. Chhattisgarh became the first state to
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only conduct Virtual Lok Adalat for
(d) 1, 2 and 3 conciliation services.
3. RBI recognizes the ODR system for
35. Consider the following statements with
reference to Saavira Kambada Basadi: resolving customer disputes and
1. It is located in the state of Rajasthan. grievances pertaining to digital
2. It is a Jain temple which is made up of
thousand Pillars. payments.
3. Its chief deity is Jain Tirthankara, Lord Which of the statements given above is/are
Mahavira.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3
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38. Consider the following pairs: 40. With reference to the Governance
Portal/Service Purpose
Knowledge Centre (GKC), consider the
1. e-Nivaran : To ensure faster and
following statements:
easier resolution to tax-
related complaints 1. It is a repository of practical solutions to
2. PRAGATI : An integrated platform day-to-day challenges to assist civil
through which the
servants.
Prime Minister
oversees the 2. It is an initiative of NITI Aayog in
implementation of collaboration with IIT Delhi.
various government
Which of the statements given above is/are
schemes and projects
3. CPGRAMS : Single portal correct?
connecting all (a) 1 only
ministries for 24x7
(b) 2 only
grievance redressal
Which of the pairs given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2
correctly matched? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only 41. Consider the following statements regarding

(d) 3 only the State Public Service Commission (SPSC)

of a state:
39. With reference to the Delimitation
1. Its chairman and members are appointed
Commission, consider the following
statements: by the Governor of the concerned state.
1. The Delimitation Commission is 2. The recommendations made by it are
appointed by the Parliament of India and
only advisory in nature and not binding
works in collaboration with the Election
Commission of India. on the state government.
2. Orders of the Delimitation Commission 3. The chairman of a SPSC is not eligible
in India have the force of law and cannot
for any other appointment under the
be called in question before any court of
law. Government of India or the state.
3. Delimitation Commission is constituted Which of the statements given above is/are
after every decadal census.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
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42. Consider the following statements regarding 44. With reference to corporate donations to
the Chief Election Commissioner of India: political parties in India, consider the
following statements:
1. He can be removed from office only 1. Only profit-making domestic companies
through a resolution passed by the can contribute to political parties in form
Parliament. of corporate donations.
2. Corporations are free to donate any
2. He appoints the Chief Electoral Officer amount of money and are not liable to
of a State from amongst senior civil declare the recipient of their donations.
servants proposed by the concerned Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
State government. (a) 1 only
3. The Constitution of India has debarred (b) 2 only
him from any further appointment by the (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
government.
Which of the statements given above is/are 45. 97th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2011
correct? provided constitutional status to cooperative
societies. In this context, which of the
(a) 3 only following provisions of the Indian
(b) 2 only Constitution were amended by 97th
(c) 1 and 2 only Constitutional Amendment Act?
1. Fundamental Rights
(d) 2 and 3 only 2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
43. With reference to the public financial 4. Ninth Schedule
Select the correct answer using code given
management system (PFMS), which of the below.
following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
1. It is a web-based online software (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
application developed and implemented (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
by the Comptroller and Auditor General
of India (CAG). 46. Consider the following statements:
1. Governor is empowered to authorise the
2. It aims to establish an efficient fund flow use of any language for the official
system as well as a payment cum purposes of a state.
accounting network. 2. A state can adopt not more than three
languages as official languages.
3. It is integrated with the core banking 3. In choosing the official language, a state
system in India. is not bound to choose the languages
Select the correct answer using the code enumerated in the Eighth Schedule of
the Constitution.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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47. Consider the following statements regarding 49. Consider the following statements regarding
the State Information Commission: Official Languages Act, 1963:
1. It enabled the use of English language
1. It can suo-moto order inquiry into any
indefinitely.
matter.
2. It provided for setting up of a committee
2. The salary, allowances and other service of Parliament to review progress on use
conditions of the State Chief Information of English for the official purpose of the
Commissioner and State Information Union.

Commissioner are determined by the 3. It made the use of English compulsory in


contracts and agreements issued by the
Central Government.
central government.
3. The State Chief Information
Which of the statements given above is/are
Commissioner can be removed from the correct?
office only by the President. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
50. The Snake Island was recently seen in the
(c) 1 and 3 only news. It is located in
(d) 2 and 3 only (a) Black Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Red Sea
48. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) North Sea
the State Human Rights Commission
(SHRC): 51. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Its chairperson and members are Finance Commission:
appointed by the governor but removed 1. It has all the powers of a civil court

only by the President. under the Code of Civil Procedure,


1908.
2. A person appointed as a chairperson or
2. Recommendations made by it are not
member is eligible for reappointment but
binding on the government.
ineligible for any other employment 3. Only a retired or sitting judge of the
under the Central and State Government. Supreme Court can be appointed as its
Which of the statements given above is/are chairman.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2 and 3 only
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52. Consider the following statements with 54. Consider the following statements:

reference to the Economic Community of 1. Representation of the People Act, 1950

West African States (ECOWAS): allows a political party to submit a list of

1. It was established in 1975 by the treaty star campaigners to the election

of Lagos. authorities.

2. All the countries in the Horn of Africa 2. Expenditure incurred on electioneering

are its members. by the star campaigner is added to a

3. As a trading union, it is meant to create a candidate’s poll expenditure.

single, large trading bloc through 3. When a prime minister or a former

prime minister is a star campaigner, the


economic cooperation.
expenditure incurred on security
Which of the statements given above are
including bullet-proof vehicles will be
correct?
borne by the government.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above are not
(b) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
53. Which of the following statements is/are not
(d) 1, 2 and 3
correct regarding the Attorney General of

India (AG)?
55. Consider the following statements regarding
1. He is the highest law officer in the
Government e-Marketplace (GeM) in India:
country.
1. It is a completely paperless, cashless and
2. He ranks higher than all the Cabinet
system-driven e-marketplace.
Ministers of the Union except the Prime
2. Both public and private sellers and
Minister in the Table of Precedence.
buyers are authorized to sell and make
3. His term of office is not fixed by the
procurement respectively through the
Constitution. GeM portal.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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56. With reference to the opinion polls in India, 59. With reference to the Model Code of
consider the following statements: Conduct, consider the following statements:
1. An opinion poll is conducted 1. The provisions of the Model Code of
immediately after people have voted to Conduct also apply to the content being
assess the support for political parties posted on the internet, including social

and their candidates. media websites, by candidates and


political parties.
2. No restrictions are in place on opinion
2. It is not legally enforceable.
polls under the provisions of
3. It was introduced for the first time in the
Representation of the People’s Act,
state of Maharashtra.
1951.
Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
60. Which one of the following committees
57. Fostering Effective Energy Transition suggested that state funding of elections in
Report, recently seen in news, was released India would ensure a level playing field for
by which one of the following institutions? poorer political parties and argued that such
(a) World Economic Forum a move would be in public interest?
(b) United Nations Environment Programme (a) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) International Energy Agency (b) Jaya Prakash Narayan Committee (1974)

(d) International Union for Conservation of (c) National Commission to Review the
Working of the Constitution (2000)
Nature
(d) Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998)

58. Consider the following statements with


61. Which of the following dignitaries can
reference to constitutional provisions related
display the State Emblem of India on their
to official language:
cars?
1. The Constitution specifies the official
1. Governor of a State
language of both Union and states. 2. Heads of India’s Diplomatic Missions in
2. Supreme Court is empowered to make the countries of their accreditation
provision for the use of Hindi in high 3. Prime Minister
courts. 4. Chief Justice of India
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1 and 2 only
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62. With reference to the Forest Rights Act, 65. Consider the following statements with
2006, consider the following statements: respect to multi state cooperative societies:
1. The Gram Sabha is the initiating
authority for determining the nature and 1. The item 'cooperative societies' is a
extent of the individual as well as subject under Concurrent list of the 7th
community forest rights.
Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
2. The Ministry of Environment, Forest
and Climate Change is the nodal 2. Administrative and financial control of
implementing agency of the act. these societies is with the state
Which of the statements given above is/are
government officials.
correct?
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
63. Consider the following statements regarding (c) Both 1 and 2
the Serious Fraud Investigation Office
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(SFIO):
1. It is a statutory body established under
the Money Laundering Act, 2002. 66. Which of the following are recommended by
2. It is a multi-disciplinary organization
the National Commission to Review the
under the Ministry of Finance.
3. It has powers to arrest people for the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC)?
violation of the Company law. 1. Fundamental right to compensation if a
Which of the statements given above is/are
person is illegally deprived of his right
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only to life or liberty.
(b) 3 only 2. An independent National Education
(c) 1 and 3 only
Commission should be set-up every five
(d) 2 and 3 only
years.
64. Which of the following statements is not 3. A new Directive Principle of State
correct regarding the NITI Aayog?
Policy on control of population should
(a) Regional Councils are formed for a
specified tenure to address specific be added.
issues and contingencies impacting more 4. Article 356 should be deleted.
than one state or a region.
5. Fundamental Duty to vote at
(b) Governing Council comprises the Chief
Ministers of all the States and Union elections and to pay taxes.
Cabinet Ministers. Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Vice-Chairpersons enjoy the rank of a
given below.
Cabinet Minister whereas members
enjoy the rank of a Minister of State. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) Chief Executive Officer is appointed by (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure in
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
the rank of Secretary to the Government
of India. (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
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67. Which of the following statements is/are 70. 'It shall be the endeavor of every state to
correct regarding the Central Bureau of provide adequate facilities for instruction in
Investigation? the mother-tongue at the primary stage of
1. It is an attached office under the
education to children belonging to linguistic
Ministry of Personnel, Public
Grievances and Pensions. minority groups'. This provision was
2. It derives its powers from the Delhi provided in the Indian Constitution under:
Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. (a) Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Its director is appointed by the President (b) Fundamental Rights
on the recommendation of a committee
(c) Eighth Schedule
headed by the Prime Minister.
(d) Part XVII
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only 71. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) 2 and 3 only the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
(c) 1 and 2 only 1. It was established under the Prevention
(d) 3 only
of Corruption Act, 1988.
2. It is empowered to take action against
68. Which of the following is/are salient features
of the ‘Mission Karmayogi'? complainants making motivated or
1. Aligning work allocation of civil vexatious complaints.
servants by matching their competencies 3. It exercises superintendence over the
to the requirements of the posts. functioning of the Central Bureau of
2. To emphasize on ‘on-site’ learning to
Investigation.
complement the ‘off-site’ learning.
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Empowering revision of pay structures
of civil servants based on their correct?
performance. (a) 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 1 and 3 only
given below. (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None 72. Consider the following statements regarding
the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council:
69. Which of the following countries are 1. It is a Constitutional body.
members of ASEAN group?
2. The Prime Minister of India is its
1. Brunei
chairman.
2. Laos
3. Singapore 3. The Chief Ministers of all the States are
4. Papua New Guinea ex-officio members of GST Council.
5. Philippines Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 1 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (d) 2 and 3 only
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73. Consider the following statements regarding 76. With reference to mercy petition in India,
International Liquid-Mirror Telescope:
consider the following statements:
1. It has been set up at Devasthal
Observatory in Uttarakhand. 1. In India, only Supreme Court and High
2. It is built by India in collaboration with Courts can award death sentences.
NASA.
2. When a mercy petitioner makes out a
3. It uses mercury as a reflective liquid.
Which of the statements given above is/are sufficient case, oral hearing before
correct?
President cannot be denied.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 3. There is no prescribed time limit within
(c) 2 and 3 only which the President is bound to take a
(d) 1 and 3 only
decision regarding mercy petitions.

74. In the context of the citizen’s charter in 4. If a state law prescribes death sentence,
India, consider the following statements: the power to grant pardon lies with the
1. It enlists the commitments made by a
government agency to the citizens in governor.
respect of the services being provided to Which of the statements given above are not
them.
correct?
2. It is legally enforceable and justifiable.
3. It empowers the citizens to demand (a) 2 and 3 only
committed standards of service. (b) 1 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (d) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 77. Consider the following statements regarding
Indian Gas Exchange:
75. Which of the following criteria needs to be
met by a political party to be recognised as a 1. It allows buyers and sellers of natural
national party under the Election Symbols gas to trade both in spot market and in
(Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968?
forward market for imported natural gas.
(a) If it gets six percent valid votes in the
legislative assembly elections in four or 2. It operates under the regulatory
more states and four seats in the Lok framework of Securities and Exchange
Sabha polls.
Board of India (SEBI).
(b) If it secures eight percent of valid votes
in the Lok Sabha polls irrespective of Which of the statements given above is/are
number of seats it wins.
correct?
(c) If it secures two per cent of the total
number of seats in the Lok Sabha at a (a) 1 only
general election and the candidates are (b) 2 only
elected from at least six states.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) If it is recognised as state party in two or
more states. (d) Nether 1 nor 2
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78. Which of the following provisions of the 80. Consider the following statements:
Constitution ensure the independent and 1. Election Commission of India has the
impartial functioning of the Election
power to deregister inactive political
Commission?
parties under the Representation of the
1. The Constitution has not prescribed the
qualifications for the members of the People Act, (RPA) 1951.

Election Commission. 2. A party is recognized as a state party if it


2. The service conditions of the Chief secures at least 8% of the total valid
Election Commissioner cannot be varied
votes polled in the state in a Lok Sabha
to his disadvantage after his
election or assembly election.
appointment.
3. The Constitution has not debarred the Which of the statements given above is/are

retiring election commissioners from correct?


any further appointment by the (a) 1 only
government.
(b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) Both 1 and 2
given below.
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
81. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) 1, 2 and 3
the tenth schedule of the Indian Constitution

79. Consider the following statements regarding and anti-defection:

Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities: 1. Any decision of the presiding officer
1. The Constitution specifies the regarding disqualification arising out of
qualifications and service conditions of
defection is not final and subject to
the Officer.
2. The Officer falls under the judicial review.

administrative control of the Ministry of 2. According to the rules related to


Home Affairs. defection, the presiding officer can take
3. The objective of the Officer is to
action against defection on his own (suo
investigate all matters related to
moto).
safeguards provided to the linguistic
minorities. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2


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82. Consider the following statements with 84. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Biological Diversity Act, respect to legal proceedings against
government officials:
2002:
1. No criminal proceedings can be started
1. The Act has made it mandatory for every
against the governor of a state in respect
local self-governing institution to of his/her personal acts during the term
constitute Biodiversity Management of office.

Committee (BMC). 2. The judicial officers enjoy immunity


from any liability in respect of their
2. People's Biodiversity Register is
official acts.
prepared by the National Biodiversity 3. The State must be liable for all tortuous
Authority in consultation with civil acts of its employees, whether done in
society. exercise of sovereign or non-sovereign
powers.
3. People's Biodiversity Register contains
4. The Constitution does not grant any
comprehensive information on the
immunity to the ministers for their
availability and knowledge of local official acts.
biological resources. Which of the statements given above are

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
correct?
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 85. Consider the following statements regarding


the National Skill Development Corporation
(NSDC):
83. In the context of World Trade Organization
1. It is a not-for-profit public limited
(WTO), the term 'Electronic Transmission company set up as part of a national skill
Moratorium' is often seen in news. It seeks development mission.
2. It was set up by the Ministry of Finance.
to
3. The Ministry of Skill Development &
(a) tax digital companies at a minimum of
Entrepreneurship holds 49% of the share
15 percent capital of NSDC, while the private
(b) not impose any customs duty on sector has 51% of the share capital.

electronic transmission Which of the statements given above is/are


correct?
(c) prevent transborder flow of data
(a) 1 only
(d) impose penalties on Multinational
(b) 1 and 3 only
Companies that violate data privacy (c) 1, 2 and 3
rules (d) 2 only
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86. Article 323-B of the Indian Constitution 89. Consider the following pairs:
provides for establishment of tribunals for Lake/Wetland Country
which of the following matters? 1. Pantanal : Brazil

1. Public service matters in connection 2. Lake Victoria : Mozambique


3. Lake Balkhash : Kazakhstan
with the affairs of a state
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
2. Industrial disputes
matched?
3. Foreign exchange
(a) 1 and 2 only
4. Elections to the Lok Sabha (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using code given (c) 1 and 3 only
below. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only 90. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) 1 and 3 only the Advocate General of the State:

(d) 2 and 4 only 1. He must be a person who is qualified to


be appointed a judge of a high court.
2. He enjoys all the privileges and
87. Consider the following statements regarding
immunities that are available to a
the State emblem of India:
member of the state legislature.
1. A State Government before adopting the 3. The Constitution does not contain the
emblem as the official Emblem of the procedure and grounds for his removal.
State must obtain the prior approval of Which of the statements given above is/are
the Central Government. correct?
2. The use of the emblem in official seal is (a) 1, 2 and 3
restricted to the only Constitutional (b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
bodies.
(d) 1 and 3 only
3. Municipal councils and Panchayati Raj
Institutions can not use the emblem in
91. Which of the following are the possible
any manner.
benefits of e-Governance in India?
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Reduction in corruption in the
correct? administration
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. More hierarchical organizational
(b) 3 only structure
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. Greater citizen participation in the
(d) None governance process
4. Improved relations between the public
authorities and civil society
88. The term 'Artemis Accords', recently in the
Select the correct answer using the code
news, is related to
given below.
(a) Ozone pollution (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Space exploration (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) Cybersecurity (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) Climate Change (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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92. In the context of petrol and diesel pricing in 95. Which of the following statements is correct
India, which of the following are the primary regarding the National Human Rights
components of their retail price? Commission (NHRC)?
1. Price Charged to Dealers (a) Only a retired Chief Justice of India can
2. Excise Duty levied by the central be appointed as its chairman.
government. (b) Its chairman and members hold office
3. Dealer Commission for a term of five years or until they
4. Sales Tax by states/union territories
attain the age of 70 years, whichever is
Select the correct answer using the code
earlier.
given below.
(c) It can not inquire sou motu into any
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
violation of human rights by a public
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only servant.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) It has all the powers of a civil court and
its proceedings have a judicial character.
93. With reference to political and electoral
reforms in India, arrange the following 96. Which of the following statements is not
events in chronological order: correct with respect to the Retail Direct
1. Introduction of NOTA option Scheme?
2. Photos of candidates on EVMs (a) Retail investors can buy government
3. Introduction of electors' photo identity securities directly in the primary market.
card (b) Under this scheme, an individual can
4. Lowering the voting age from 21 years access the secondary market.
to 18 years (c) Clearing Corporation of India Limited
Select the correct answer using the code (CCIL) is authorized to act as an
given below.
aggregator of the bids from investors for
(a) 1-2-3-4
primary issuances.
(b) 4-3-1-2
(d) Retail investors can open and maintain
(c) 3-4-2-1
the ‘Retail Direct Gilt Account’ with
(d) 3-4-1-2
designated commercial banks.
94. To counter China's influence in the Pacific
ocean a group of like-minded countries have 97. Which of the following statements is correct
formed a new initiative called ‘Partners in regarding the Union Public Service
the Blue Pacific’. In this context, which of Commission (UPSC)?
the following countries are members of this (a) The Constitution of India has specified
initiative? its strength and composition.
1. United States of America (b) The Parliament determines the
2. Australia conditions of service of the chairman
3. Japan and other members of the UPSC.
4. United Kingdom (c) The advise tendered by the Supreme
5. New Zealand Court regarding the removal of its
Select the correct answer using the code chairman or a member is binding on the
given below. president.
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) The educational qualifications for UPSC
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
members are mentioned in the
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
Constitution of India.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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98. Consider the following statements regarding 100. With reference to the Engineering,
Global Compact for Migration (GCM): Procurement, and Construction (EPC) Model
1. GCM is the first-ever United Nations of public-private partnership (PPP), consider
global agreement on a common the following statements:
approach to international migration in all 1. The government bears the total capital
its dimensions. cost during the construction period.
2. It is a non-binding document that 2. The toll/revenue collection is the
respects states’ sovereign right to responsibility of the private entity
determine who enters and stays in their Which of the statements given above is/are
territory. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

99. With reference to elections in India, consider


the following statements with reference to
expenditures incurred:
1. There is no election expenditure limit for
political parties.
2. Any incorrect accounting of expenditure
can lead to the disqualification of a
candidate.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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