Test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 3

Test ID
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)
1017
CURRENT AFFAIRS
CA: AUGUST 2022
Time Allowed: 1 Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

4. All items carry equal marks.

5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.

6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

This test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 3
1. With respect to the Financial Services (a) NITI Aayog
Institutions Bureau (FSIB), consider the (b) The Ministry of Social Justice and
following statements: Empowerment

1. The FSIB has been set up to (c) The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food
recommend the names of the heads of and Public Distribution
the Nationalised Banks; Public Sector (d) Food Corporation of India (FCI)
Insurance Companies; and selected
financial institutions. 4. Which of the following is/are the likely
2. Unlike the Banks Board Bureau (BBB), impact(s) of setting up of the India
International Bullion Exchange (IIBX)?
the FSIB has been set up as a statutory
body through an Act of the Parliament. 1. The IIBX would become the gateway for
bullion imports, where bullion for
3. The FSIB functions under the Reserve
domestic consumption shall be
Bank of India (RBI).
channelized through the Exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. The IIBX would enable India to dictate
correct? the prices of gold in the international
(a) 1 only market.

(b) 2 and 3 only 3. The IIBX would enable India to

drastically cut down on gold imports
(c) 3 only
and eliminate trade deficit.
(d) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
2. Which of the following statements, related (a) 1 only
to the National Food Security Act (NFSA), (b) 1 and 2 only
2013, is incorrect? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) The NFSA seeks to provide food security (d) 1, 2 and 3
to 75% of the rural population and 50%
of the urban population. 5. Consider the following statements related
(b) All the households covered under the to the Telecom Equipment and Services
Export Promotion Council (TEPC):
NFSA are entitled to get 35 kg of food
grains per month at subsidised prices. 1. The TEPC has been set up as a
statutory body under the Indian
(c) The NFSA seeks to provide for maternity
Telegraph Act, 1885, to promote export
benefit of Rs. 6,000 to the pregnant and
of telecom equipment and services.
lactating mothers.
2. The Union Minister of Commerce and
(d) The eldest woman (18 years and above) Industry is the ex-officio Chairperson of
would be considered as the head of the the TEPC.
household for issuing ration cards Which of the statements given above is/are
under the NFSA. correct?
(a) 1 only
3. Which of the following agencies has (b) 2 only
published the the first-ever edition of the (c) Both 1 and 2
State Ranking Index for National Food (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Security Act (NFSA)?

RAUSIAS-1017 1
6. Consider the following pairs of Indices and 9. Which of the following agencies publishes
their publishing agencies: the “Global Gender Gap Index”?
Index Publishing Agency – (a) UN Women
1. The India Innovation Index NITI Aayog (b) The World Bank
2. The International IP Index The World (c) The World Economic Forum
Economic Forum
(d) Oxfam International
3. The Global Innovation Index World
Intellectual Property Organization
(WIPO) 10. The term “MiCA”, recently seen in the
Which of the pairs given above is/are news, deals with which of the following?
correctly matched? (a) RBI’s norms related to ‘digital lending’.
(a) 1 only (b) The UN Framework to check money
(b) 1 and 2 only laundering and terror financing.
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) OECD Framework to check base erosion
(d) 1 and 3 only and profit shifting (BEPS).
(d) EU’s new law to regulate crypto
7. Consider the following statements: currencies.
1. Karnataka has the highest installed
capacity of solar power in India.
11. With respect to inward remittances into
2. India’s largest floating solar power plant
India, consider the following statements:
has been installed in Telangana.
1. The share of inward remittances from
Which of the statements given above is/are
the Gulf region has declined in the last
correct?
4-5 years.
(a) 1 only
2. Presently, the UAE accounts for the
(b) 2 only
highest source of remittances into India.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Presently, remittances into India are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
higher than the Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI).
8. With respect to the Renewable Purchase
Obligation (RPO) policy, consider the Which of the statements given above is/are
following statements: correct?

1. The RPO policy requires the DISCOMs (a) 1 only

to purchase certain percentage of
electricity from various renewable
energy sources, including ocean energy.
2. The annual targets under the RPO are
set by the Central Electricity Regulatory
Commission (CERC).
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
12. The “Global Findex Database” is published
by which of the following agencies?
(a) The Alliance for Financial Inclusion
(b) The International Monetary Fund
(c) The World Bank
(d) The World Economic Forum

RAUSIAS-1017 2
13. Which of the following statements are 3. The Constitution Amendment Bill needs
correct regarding the Inner Line Permit to be passed by each House of the
(ILP)? Parliament by a majority of the total
1. The ILP, as a government issued travel membership of that House and by a
document, allows inward travel of an majority of not less than two-thirds of
Indian citizen into a protected area for a the members of that House present and
limited period. voting.
2. The ILP is an offshoot of the Bengal Which of the statements given above is/are
Eastern Frontier Regulation, 1873. correct?
3. Despite the fact that the ILP was (a) 3 only
originally created by the British to (b) 1 and 2 only
safeguard their commercial interests, it (c) 1 and 3 only
continues to be used in India to protect (d) 2 only
the tribal cultures in north-eastern
India.
16. Which of the following pairs are correctly
Select the correct answer using the code
matched?
given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only S.N. Constitution Additions made in
Amendment the Constitution
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. Constitution It added the term
1st “reasonable” before
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Amendment, restrictions and also
1951 added “public order”
14. Consider the following statements: as ground to restrict
1. The Constitution (Twenty-seventh the Fundamental
Amendment) Act, 1971, provides special Rights under Article
provisions for the state of Manipur. 19, along with
2. Special provision for Manipur through addition of the Ninth
Article 371-C not only safeguards the Schedule.
interests of the tribal community living 2. Constitution It added the
in the “Hill Areas”, but also incorporates 42nd Fundamental Duties,
the idea of asymmetrical federalism. Amendment, Administrative and
Which of the statements given above is/are 1976 other Tribunals and
correct? decreased the voting
(a) 1 only age among others.
(b) 2 only 3. Constitution The Parliament
(c) Both 1 and 2 101st enacted the landmark
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Amendment, GST laws in India.
2016
15. With respect to the amendment of the 4. Constitution It allowed the states
Constitution of India, consider the following 105th and the Union
statements: Amendment, Territories to prepare
1. The Parliament, in the exercise of its 2021 their own list of
constituent power, may amend by way socially and
of addition, variation or repeal any educationally
provision of the Constitution, which has backward classes.
been included as part of the Basic Select the correct answer using the code
Structure. given below:
2. An amendment of the Constitution may (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
be initiated by the introduction of a
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Constitution Amendment Bill in the Lok
Sabha only. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

RAUSIAS-1017 3
17. With reference to the Rules of Procedure 19. Which of the following Constitutional
and Conduct of Business in the Council of Directives promote a healthy and welfare
States, the Chairman has which of the society?
following powers? 1. Article 38
1. Suspension of the members.
2. Article 39
2. Withdrawal of the members.
3. Article 39A
3. Ensure automatic suspension of a
4. Article 47
member.
4. Adjourn the Council or suspend its Select the correct answer using the code
sitting. given below:

Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
given below: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
20. Consider the following statements about
the grievance redressal mechanism:
18. Consider the following statements:
1. The nodal agencies in the Central
1. The Legal Services Authorities Act,
Government handling public grievance
1987, provides for the constitution of
are the Department of Administrative
the District Legal Services Authority by
Reforms and Public Grievances
the Central Government in every
(DARPG) and the Directorate of Public
district, to be chaired by the District
Grievances.
Judge.
2. DARPG has established the Centralised
2. Appointments, postings and promotion
Public Grievance Redress and
of the District Judges in any state is
Monitoring System (CPGRAMS), an
made by the Governor of the state, in
online platform available to the citizens
consultation with the High Court
to lodge grievances against service
exercising jurisdiction in such state.
delivery.
3. The Under Trial Review Committees are
headed by the District and Session 3. Despite the federal principle of
Judges, who are also the Chairpersons governance, the grievances relating to
of the District Legal Services Authority, the states are not forwarded to the
and have played active role in the concerned State Government for
release of the under trial prisoners. appropriate action through CPGRAMS.

Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-1017 4
21. With respect to the landmark judgments 23. Which of the following are among the
pronounced by the Supreme Court, reasons for poor financial state of the
consider the following pairs: Urban Local Bodies?

S.N. Supreme Changes 1. Decline in the share of tax and non-tax

revenue.
Court Introduced
Judgment 2. High dependency on inter-governmental
transfers.
1. Kesavananda Basic Structure;
3. Decreasing expenditure on operations
Bharati Declared Article
and maintenance.
31C as invalid.
Select the correct answer using the code
2. K.S. Made the Right to given below:
Puttaswamy Privacy an absolute (a) 2 and 3 only
right under Article (b) 1 and 2 only
21 without any (c) 1 and 3 only
limitations.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Hussainara Allowed the release
Khatoon of the under trials 24. Which of the following statements is/are
through Public correct regarding the Indian Antarctic Bill,
Interest Litigation. 2022?
1. An Indian expedition does not require
Which of the pairs given above is/are
any permission to enter or remain in
correctly matched?
Antarctica.
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. It does not prohibit nuclear explosion or
(b) 3 only disposal of radioactive wastes.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. The Bill specifies penalties for
(d) 2 only contravention of its provisions.
Select the correct answer using the code
22. Consider the following statements about given below:
the Nominated Members of the Rajya (a) 1 only
Sabha: (b) 1 and 2 only
1. They do not enjoy all the powers, (c) 3 only
privileges or immunities available to the (d) 1, 2 and 3
elected members.
2. They have a right to vote in the election 25. Consider the following statements with
of the Vice-President of India. respect to the Antarctic Treaty:
3. They are not entitled to vote in the 1. It provides complete freedom to all the
election of the President of India. party countries to carry out scientific
research.
4. They cannot participate in the
impeachment process of the President. 2. All stations and equipment should be
open for inspection at all times.
Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1017 5
26. Consider the following stations: (a) It is about assessing collective progress
1. Bharati toward achieving the purpose of the
2. Maitri Paris Agreement in a comprehensive
and facilitative manner.
3. Himadri
(b) It is about assessing collective progress
Which of the stations given above is/are
toward achieving the purpose of the
not located at Antarctica?
Nuclear Proliferation Treaty.
(a) 1 only
(c) It denotes the overall inventory of core
(b) 2 only
food items necessary to sustain the
(c) 3 only world for one complete year.
(d) 1 and 2 only (d) It denotes the total value of all stocks
(national and international) held by the
27. Consider the following statements: Government of India.
1. The Hasdeo Aranya lies in the
catchment area of the Hasdeo River and 30. Consider the following statements:
is spread in Madhya Pradesh. 1. Reduction in emission intensity by at
2. The Hasdeo River is a tributary of the least 45%, from the 2005 levels by
Mahanadi. 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. At least 40% of total electricity
correct? generation to come from non-fossil
(a) 1 only renewable sources.
(b) 2 only 3. An increase in forest cover to create an
(c) Both 1 and 2 additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent.
Which of the statements given above is/are
not part of India’s updated Intended
28. Consider the following statements
regarding the E-Waste Management Rules, Nationally Determined Contributions to the
2016: Paris Climate Deal?

1. Manufacturer, dealer, refurbished and (a) 1 and 2 only

Producer Responsibility Organization (b) 2 and 3 only
(PRO) have been introduced as (c) 3 only
additional stakeholders in the Rules. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and
other mercury containing lamp brought 31. Consider the following statements
under the purview of the Rules. regarding the Banni Grasslands in India:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. They are distributed in Kutch and
correct? Saurashtra only.
(a) 1 only 2. They were declared a Protected Forest
(b) 2 only in 1955, under the Indian Forest Act,
(c) Both 1 and 2 1927.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
29. Which of the following statements best (a) 1 only
describes the term “Global Stocktake”, (b) 2 only
often in the news? (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1017 6
32. With reference to the Ramsar sites in India, 35. Consider the following statements about
consider the following statements: Amir Khusrau:
1. The Pallikaranai Marsh Reserve Forest 1. He is accredited with inventing Sitar
is a freshwater marsh in Chennai. and Qawwali.
2. The Pala Wetland, Mizoram, is the 2. He served during the times of both
largest natural wetland in Mizoram. Balban and Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq.
3. Sakhya Sagar is an integral part of the 3. He wrote primarily in Hindavi.
Madhav National Park in Shivpuri,
Which of the statements given above are
Madhya Pradesh.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
36. Consider the following statements about
the Champaran Satyagrah:
33. Consider the following statements
regarding the Ramsar Convention: 1. Rajendra Prasad invited Gandhiji to
personally visit and investigate the state
1. A human-made site, such as fish
of the farmers at Champaran.
ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs and salt
pans can also be declared as Ramsar 2. The Europeans forced the farmers to
site. grow indigo at Champaran.
2. The Convention emphasizes on the 3. The Champaran Satyagrah was a
maintenance of its ecological character, failure, as the government did not agree
achieved through the implementation of to any of Gandhi's demands.
ecosystem approaches, within the Which of the statements given above is/are
context of sustainable development. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 2 only
correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
37. Consider the following statements about
the Konark Sun Temple:
34. Consider the following statements:
1. During the medieval times, the temple
1. The National Emblem of India is based used to attract the ships into the shore,
on the emblem on the top of the
leading to shipwrecks.
Ashokan pillar at Sarnath.
2. The temple was constructed by king
2. The motto on the Emblem has been
Kharavela of Kalinga.
sourced from the Rig Veda.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1017 7
38. Consider the following statements about 41. Which of the following are the members of
Kanaganahalli: the I2U2 and the G20 groupings?
1. It is located in Andhra Pradesh on the 1. Israel
banks of the Krishna River.
2. USA
2. Ashoka of the Mauryan Empire is
3. UAE
referred to as 'Ranyo Ashoka', in the
inscriptions at the site. 4. India

Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 3 and 4 only

39. Consider the following statements about 42. How many of the following countries
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar:
shares/share its/their border(s) with the
1. He founded the Abhinav Bharat Society
Mediterranean Sea?
along with his brother.
1. Syria
2. He founded the Free India Society in
association with Madame Bhikaji Cama. 2. France

3. He was the President of the Rashtriya 3. Tunisia

Swayam Sevak Sangh. 4. Jordan
Which of the statements given above are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All four

40. Consider the following statements about

the Santhal Revolt: 43. How many of the following
countries/Group is/are the member(s) of
1. Damin-i-Koh, the location where the
Santhals were based, is in present day both G7 and G20 groupings?
Odisha. 1. China
2. Birsa Munda played a key role in this 2. Japan
Revolt. 3. The European Union
3. The Revolt was against the British land 4. Canada
revenue policies, money-lenders and the
Select the correct answer using the code
local Zamindars.
given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) Only one

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two

(b) 1 and 3 only (c) Only three
(c) 3 only (d) All four
(d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-1017 8
44. Consider the following pairs: 47. Consider the following statements:
S.N. Region in the news Country 1. The funds allotted to the states for
afforestation purposes under the
1. Karakalpakstan Kazakhstan Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act,
2. Odessa Ukraine 2016, can be reviewed and audited by
the Comptroller and Auditor General of
3. Zaporizhzhia Russia
India.
Which of the pairs given above is/are 2. The Compensatory Afforestation Fund
correctly matched? Act, 2016, provides for the
(a) 1 only establishment of the funds under the
Public Accounts of India and the Public
(b) 1 and 2 only
Accounts of each state.
(c) 2 only
3. According to the Biological Diversity Act
(d) 2 and 3 only (2002), whenever forest land is diverted
for non-forest purposes, an equivalent
45. Which of the following islands are parts of area of non-forest land has to be taken
Taiwan? up for compensatory afforestation.
1. The Matsu Islands Which of the statements given above are
2. The Kinmen Islands correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. The Penghu Islands
(b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
48. With respect to the constitutional office of
(c) 2 and 3 only
India’s Vice-President, consider the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 following statements:
1. An election to fill the vacancy caused by
46. Which of the following statements about the expiration of the term of the office of
the Comptroller and Auditor General of the outgoing Vice-President is required
India is/are correct? to be completed before the expiration of
1. The Constitution of India provides for the term of five years.
the appointment of the Comptroller and 2. The Vice-President is elected by the
Auditor General of India at the Central elected members of both the Houses of
level and other Comptroller and Auditor the Parliament, in accordance with the
Generals at the state level. system of proportional representation
by means of the single transferable vote.
2. The Comptroller and Auditor General at
the Centre is appointed by the 3. In the indirect election of the Vice-
President, the elector has to mark
President, whereas at the level of the
preferences against the names of the
state, is appointed by the Governor.
candidates.
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Election Commission, in
shall not be eligible for further office,
consultation with the Central
either under the Government of India, Government, appoints the Secretary
or under the Government of any state, General of the Lok Sabha only as the
after he has ceased to hold his office. Returning Officer to elect the Vice-
Select the correct answer using the code President.
given below: Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

RAUSIAS-1017 9
49. Consider the following statements about 50. Consider the following statements about
Nari Adalats: Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyaan:
1. They will be formed under the Ministry 1. It is a scheme under the Ministry of
of Law and Justice. Rural Development.
2. They will act as a grievance redressal 2. The scheme will develop governance
mechanism for resolving cases of petty capabilities of rural local bodies to
nature concerning women. deliver on SDGs.
3. They will be operational at Gram 3. Central component of the scheme will
Panchayat level. be fully funded by the Union
Which of the statements given above is/are Government for all states.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 2 and 3 only correct?
(b) 1 only (a) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-1017 10
Answers &
Explanations
of

TEST ID: 1017

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

CA: August 2022

 ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
CA: August 2022
GS Paper-I: (1017)
1. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Banks Board Bureau (BBB) was set up
in 2016 as a non-statutory body to
recommend the names of the Whole-Time
Directors (WTDs) and the Non-Executive
Chairmen (NECs) of the Nationalised
Banks; Public Sector Insurance
Companies; and selected financial
institutions, such as the EXIM Bank;
SIDBI; NHB; NABARD; IIFCL; and IFCI.
However, last year, the BBB was declared
an incompetent authority by the Delhi High
Court. To end this logjam, the BBB had to
be struck down and a new body, namely,
the Financial Services Institutions Bureau
(FSIB), had to be put in place.
Establishment of the FSIB: Set up under
the Department of Financial Services, the
Ministry of Finance.
Functions:
 Recommends persons for appointment
as the Whole-Time Directors (WTDs)
and the Non-Executive Chairpersons
(NECs) on the Boards of Directors in the
Public Sector Banks (PSBs); Public
Sector Insurance Companies (PSIs); and
selected financial institutions, such as
NABARD; NHB; SIDBI; EXIM Bank;
IFCI; IIFCL etc.
 Advises the government on the matters
relating to appointments, transfer, or
extension of term of office and
termination of services of the said
directors.
Is FSIB a statutory body?
No, since it has not been set up through an
Act of the Parliament.
2. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The National Food Security Act (NFSA),
2013, provides food and nutritional
RAUSIAS-1017
security by ensuring access to adequate
quantity of quality food at affordable prices.
Thus, it strengthens Article 21 enshrined in
the Constitution.
The NFS Act, 2013: Salient Features –
Coverage: Upto 75% of the rural
population and 50% of the urban
population (67% of the total population).
Entitlement:
 Priority households: 5
kg/person/month
 Antyodaya households: 35
kg/household/month
Subsidized prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per kg for
rice, wheat and coarse grains, respectively.
Nutritional Support: Meals for the
pregnant women and lactating mothers
(PWLMs), and children (6 months-14
years).
Maternity benefit of Rs. 6,000 for the
PMLMs.
Women Empowerment: The eldest woman
(18 years and above) would be considered
as the head of the household for issuing
ration cards.
Grievance redressal at the district and state
levels.
Accountability through social audits and
Vigilance Committees.
Food security allowance in case of non-
supply of food.
3. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food
and Public Distribution has released the
first-ever edition of the State Ranking
Index for National Food Security Act
(NFSA), 2013. It attempts to document the
status and progress of implementation of
1
 the NFSA (2013) and various reform
initiatives across the country.
4. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Details about the India International
Bullion Exchange (IIBX): India's first
International Bullion Exchange is situated
in GIFT-IFSC in Gujarat. The Exchange will
not only facilitate the trading of gold, but
would also set up necessary infrastructure
to store physical gold and silver.
Benefits:
 Gateway for imports where all bullion
imports for domestic consumption shall
be channelized through the Exchange.
 Efficient price discovery (Synchronised
prices with the global gold prices).
 Assurance of quality of gold.
 Impetus to the financialization of gold in
India.
The third statement provided in the
question is extremely worded. It says that
the IIBX would enable India to drastically
cut down on gold imports and eliminate
trade deficit. Hence, the statement is
incorrect.
5. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Telecom Equipment and Services
Export Promotion Council (TEPC) have
been set up by the Government of India to
promote and develop export of telecom
equipment and services.
It is not a statutory body.
It is not headed by the Union Minister of
Commerce and Industry. The Chairperson
of the TEPC is appointed by the
Government.
6. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Important Indices to measure
Innovation –
RAUSIAS-1017
 The Global Innovation Index (GII):
Published by WIPO
 The Global Competitiveness Report:
Published by the World Economic
Forum
 The International IP Index: Published
by the US Chamber of Commerce's
Global Innovation Policy Centre
 The India Innovation Index: Published
by NITI Aayog
7. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
India’s largest floating solar power plant of
100 MW Capacity, belonging to the
National Thermal Power Corporation
(NTPC), has been commissioned at
Ramagundam (Telangana). It is spread over
450 acres on Sri Ram Sagar Project
reservoir, located on the Godavari River.
This is the largest floating solar plant in the
country in a single location as of now.
Presently, Karnataka has the highest
installed capacity of solar power in India.
8. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO) –
What is it?
The DISCOMs are required to purchase
certain percentage of electricity from
various renewable energy sources.
Framework for the RPOs: Laid down
under the Electricity Act, 2003, and the
National Tariff Policy, 2016.
Types of the RPOs: Solar RPOs and Non-
solar RPOs. In 2020, the government
declared that the procurement of power
from large hydropower projects (more than
25 MW) and ocean energy would be
considered as ‘Non-solar RPO’.
Who lays down the targets for the RPOs?
Annual targets are laid down by the State
Electricity Regulatory Commissions
(SERCs). Long-term targets are laid down
by the Ministry of Power.
2
 Present Targets: Long-term target to be
met by 2022.
Total RPO: 21% (Solar RPO: 10.5% + Non-
solar RPO: 10.5%).
Renewable Energy Certificates (RECs):
The DISCOMs that exceed their RPO
obligations can sell the RECs to other
DISCOMs that fail to meet the RPO target.
Note: 1 REC is equal to 1 Mwh.
9. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The World Economic Forum publishes
the "Global Gender Gap Index". It
measures the gender gap between men and
women across four fundamental categories
(sub-indexes):
 Economic Participation and
Opportunity;
 Educational Attainment;
 Health and Survival; and
 Political Empowerment.
10. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Recently, the European Parliament has
formulated a new law "Markets in Crypto-
Assets (MiCA)", to regulate crypto
currencies.
Salient Features of MiCA –
Applicability: The issuers of crypto assets,
crypto exchanges and service providers that
are currently not regulated.
Scope: Covers almost all forms of crypto
assets, such as private crypto currencies,
stable coins etc. However, as of now, Non-
Fungible Tokens (NFTs) are not covered.
Legal Framework for crypto assets: All
the entities issuing crypto assets would be
required to get license and comply with
certain prudential rules. For assets with no
issuer, such as Bitcoin, the exchanges will
be required to offer a white paper about
potential risks, with the possibility of being
liable for misleading contents.
RAUSIAS-1017
11. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The RBI's Report on Inward Remittances
–
Remittances into India: India continues
to be the largest remittance recipient
country in the world in 2021 ($ 87bn) and
has been so since 2008. The remittances
into India account for 4% of the GDP.
Compositional shift in inward
remittances: The share of remittances
from the Gulf region in India’s inward
remittances has declined from more than
50% in 2016- 17 to about 30% in 2020- 21.
Top source countries for inward
remittances to India: The US has
surpassed the UAE as the top source
country, accounting for 23% of the total
remittances in 2020-21. The UAE is
followed by the UK, Singapore and Saudi
Arabia.
States receiving the highest remittances
in India: Maharashtra, Kerala and Tamil
Nadu.
Importance of remittances: Remittances
in India have been substantially higher
than even the Foreign Direct Investment
(FDI) and the flow of remittances is much
less fluctuating than that of the FPI.
12. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Recently, the World Bank has published
the Global Findex Database, 2021, to
measure the performance of the extent of
financial inclusion across world.
Highlights –
Account ownership: Worldwide, the
account ownership increased by 50% in the
10 years, spanning 2011 to 2021, to reach
76% of the global adult population.
India's performance –
Bank accounts: Almost 78% of the adults
have opened bank accounts in India. 78%
of women also have access to bank
account.
3
 Inactive accounts: India has the highest
share of inactive accounts. Almost 35% of
the accounts in India are inactive.
13. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 The Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official
travel document, issued by the
Government of India, to allow inward
travel of an Indian citizen into a
protected area for a limited period.
 It is obligatory for the Indian citizens
from outside those states to obtain a
permit for entering into the protected
state.
 The document is an effort by the
government to regulate movement to
certain areas located near the
international border of India. This is an
offshoot of the Bengal Eastern
Frontier Regulation, 1873, which
protected Crown’s interest in the tea, oil
and elephant trade by prohibiting the
“British subjects” from entering into
these “Protected Areas” (to prevent them
from establishing any commercial
venture that could rival the Crown’s
agents).
 The word “British subjects” was
replaced by the “Citizen of India” in
1950. Despite the fact that the ILP was
originally created by the British to
safeguard their commercial interests, it
continues to be used in India, officially
to protect the tribal cultures in north-
15. Answer: (a)
eastern India.
 There are different kinds of ILPs, one for
the tourists and others for the people
who intend to stay for long-term
periods, often for employment purposes.
 The system of ILP is applicable in
Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur
and Mizoram. The state of Manipur was
added in the Inner Line Permit System
in December, 2019.
14. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The North-Eastern Areas
(Reorganisation) Act, 1971, provided for
the establishment of the states of
Manipur, Tripura, Meghalaya and of the
Union Territories of Mizoram and
Arunachal Pradesh by reorganisation of
the then state of Assam.
 This led to the Constitution (Twenty-
seventh Amendment) Act, 1971, adding
Article 371-C providing special
provision with respect to the state of
Manipur.
 The Hill Areas of Manipur are
predominantly inhabited by the
members of the Scheduled Tribes. To
safeguard their interests, special
provisions were made in the Government
of Union Territories Act, 1963, for a
Committee of the Legislative Assembly
of the Union Territory of Manipur,
consisting of the members from the Hill
Areas. Once, the Union Territory of
Manipur became a state, the safeguard
provided to the people of the Hill Areas
was ensured through the 27th
Constitutional Amendment and
accordingly, provisions were made in
Article 371-C of the Indian Constitution.
 Thus, Article 371-C overall ensures
asymmetry in Indian Federalism, as it
provides special protection to the Hill
Areas in the state, as declared by the
President.
Explanation:
The Parliament, in the exercise of its
constituent power, may amend by way of
addition, variation or repeal any
provision of the Constitution. However,
those provisions which have been
included as part of Basic Structure
cannot be amended (Kesavananda
Bharati case) even by a Constitution
Amendment Bill. For the first time the

RAUSIAS-1017 4
 Supreme Court propounded the ‘Basic
Structure Doctrine’ and held that certain
basic features of the Constitution cannot be
amended, while others can be done so
without having a sweeping change in the
Constitution.
Article 368: An amendment of this
Constitution may be initiated only by
the introduction of a Bill for the purpose
in either House of the Parliament, and
when the Bill is passed in each House by a
majority of the total membership of that
House and by a majority of not less than
two-thirds of the members of that House
present and voting, it shall be presented to
the President, who shall give his assent to
the Bill and thereupon the Constitution
shall stand amended in accordance with
the terms of the Bill.
16. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18
years by the Constitution 61st Amendment,
1988.
17. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the
power of ‘Automatic Suspension of a
Member’, as per the Rules of Procedure
and Conduct of Business in the Lok
Sabha.
Whereas the Rules of Procedure and
Conduct of Business in the Council of
States empowers the Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha for the withdrawal of the members,
suspension of the members and also to
adjourn the Council or suspend its sitting.
18. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987,
provides for the constitution of the District
Legal Services Authority (DLSA) by the
state government in every district, to be
chaired by the District Judge.
RAUSIAS-1017
 The State Government shall, in
consultation with the Chief Justice of
the High Court, constitute a body to be
called the District Legal Services
Authority for every district in the state
to exercise the powers and perform the
functions conferred on it.
 A District Authority shall consist of
the following:
(a) The District Judge, who shall be its
Chairman;
(b) Such number of other members,
possessing such experience and
qualifications, to be nominated by
that government in consultation
with the Chief Justice of the High
Court;
(c) The State Authority shall, in
consultation with the Chairman of
the District Authority, appoint a
person belonging to the State
Judicial Service, not lower in rank
than that of a Subordinate Judge or
a Civil Judge posted at the seat of
the District Judiciary as Secretary of
the District Authority, to exercise
such powers and perform such
duties under the Chairman of that
Committee.
Article 233 - Appointment of the District
Judges:
 Appointments of persons to be, and the
posting and promotion of, the District
Judges in any state shall be made by
the Governor of the State in
consultation with the High Court
exercising jurisdiction in relation to
such state.
 A person not already in the service of
the Union or of the state shall only be
eligible to be appointed a District Judge,
if he has been for not less than seven
years an advocate or a pleader and is
recommended by the High Court for
appointment.
Under Trial Review Committees (UTRCs):
 The Under Trial Review Committees
(UTRCs) are headed by the District and
Session Judges, who are also the
5
 Chairpersons of the DLSAs, which have
been established in all the districts.
 The UTRCs are an oversight mechanism
that is headed by a judicial officer and
find representation from the district
administration, probation, police and
prison departments.
 They periodically visit the jails to
conduct reviews of the cases of the
under trials, who have visibly stayed
longer in the prison than necessary.
 The mechanism calls upon these actors
to guarantee fair trial rights as
enshrined in the Constitution and other
statutes to those who have not been
able to exercise them.
 During last year, a total of 21,148
meetings of the UTRCs were held,
resulting in the release of 31,605 under
trial inmates.
 The Union Minister for Law and Justice
appealed the State Legal Services
Authorities to further intensify their
efforts to provide legal counsel/aid to
the under trial prisoners, so that in co-
ordination with the Under Trial Review
Committee, maximum number of under
trial prisoners are released.
19. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Article 38 – The state to secure a social
order for the promotion of welfare of the
people: The state shall strive to promote
the welfare of the people by securing and
protecting as effectively as it may a social
order in which justice, social, economic and
political, shall inform all the institutions of
the national life.
Article 39 - Certain principles of policy
to be followed by the state: The operation
of the economic system does not result in
the concentration of wealth and means of
production to the common detriment; there
is equal pay for equal work for both men
and women; health and strength of
workers, men and women, and the tender
RAUSIAS-1017
age of children are not abused and that
citizens are not forced by economic
necessity to enter avocations unsuited to
their age or strength.
Article 39A - Equal justice and free legal
aid: The state shall secure that the
operation of the legal system promotes
justice, on a basis of equal opportunity,
and shall, in particular, provide free legal
aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in
any other way, to ensure that opportunities
for securing justice are not denied to any
citizen by reason of economic or other
disabilities.
Article 47 - Duty of the state to raise the
level of nutrition and the standard of
living and to improve public health: The
state shall regard the raising of the level of
nutrition and the standard of living of its
people and the improvement of public
health as among its primary duties and, in
particular, the state shall endeavour to
bring about prohibition of the consumption
except for medicinal purposes of
intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are
injurious to health.
20. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 There are primarily two designated
nodal agencies in the Central
Government handling these grievances.
These agencies are:
1. The Department of Administrative
Reforms and Public Grievances,
Ministry of Personnel, Public
Grievances and Pensions.
2. The Directorate of Public
Grievances, Cabinet Secretariat.
The Department of Administrative Reforms
and Public Grievances (DARPG):
 It is the nodal agency in respect of
policy initiatives on public grievances
redress mechanism and citizen centric
initiatives.
 Role of the DARPG – To undertake
citizen centric initiatives in the fields of
6
 administrative reforms and public  The system enables the
grievances to Ministries/Departments to take
o ensure quality delivery of public appropriate action and upload the
services to the citizens in a hassle- Action Taken Report (ATR) on the
free manner; and system, which can be viewed by the
o eliminate the causes of grievances. citizens online with the help of the
Unique Registration Number.
 The Allocation of Business Rules, 1961,
allocates to the DARPG the
responsibility for Policy, Coordination 21. Answer: (b)
and Monitoring of the issues relating Explanation:
to S.N. Supreme Changes
o Redress of public grievances, in Court Introduced
general; and Judgment
o Grievances pertaining to the Central 1. Kesavananda o Declared the
Government agencies, in particular. Bharati Basic Structure
 In accordance with the federal Doctrine.
principle of governance, the o The Supreme
grievances relating to the states are Court held the
forwarded to the concerned State first part of
Government for appropriate action. Article 31C as
 Towards this end, the DARPG has valid, as it
established the Centralised Public identified a
Grievance Redress and Monitoring limited class of
System (CPGRAMS). legislation and
CPGRAMS: exempted it from
 The Centralised Public Grievance operation of
Redress and Monitoring System Articles 14, 19
(CPGRAMS) is an online platform and 31.
available to the citizens 24x7 to lodge o Whereas the
their grievances to the public second part of
authorities on any subject related to Article 31C was
service delivery. declared invalid,
 It is a single portal connected to all the as it barred
Ministries/Departments of the judicial review by
Government of India and the states. the courts. The
Every Ministry and state has role-based Court held that
access to this system. they have the
The CPGRAMS is also accessible to the power to inquire

citizens through standalone mobile whether the law
application downloadable through has achieved the
Google Play Store and mobile objectives
application integrated with UMANG mandated under
(Unified Mobile Application for New-age Article 39(b) and
Governance). The CPGRAMS also Article 39(c).
facilitates tracking grievances through a 2. K.S. The Supreme Court,
system generated Unique Registration Puttaswamy in Justice K.S.
Number. Puttaswamy (Retd.)

RAUSIAS-1017 7
 v/s the Union of between the
India, has ruled the objects and the
Right to Privacy as means adopted
an integral part of to achieve them.
the Right to Life 3. Hussainara Allowed the release
and Personal Khatoon of the under trials
Liberty, as through Public
guaranteed under Interest Litigation
Article 21 of the (PIL).
Indian Constitution. The first reported ca
The Court held that se of PIL, in 1979,
these rights are focused on the
recognised by the inhuman conditions
Constitution as of the prisons and
inhering in each the under trial
individual as an prisoners.
intrinsic and
inseparable part of
the human element 22. Answer: (c)
which dwells Explanation:
within. However, About the Nominated Members of the
the Right to Privacy Rajya Sabha –
is not absolute and  Conditions of Appointment: He
the state can make should be a citizen of India above 30
law to restrict the years of age and possessing such other
Right to Privacy. A qualifications as may be prescribed by
law on invasion of law of the Parliament.
life or personal  The Nominated Members enjoy all
liberty must meet the powers, privileges and
the three-fold immunities available to any elected
requirement of members of the Parliament.
1. Legality, which  They can take part in the proceedings of
postulates the the House in the normal manner.
existence of law,
 While the Nominated Members of the
i.e., the state
Rajya Sabha have a right to vote in the
action must have
election of the Vice-President of India,
a legislative
they are not entitled to vote in the
mandate.
election of the President of India.
2. Need, defined in
 They can participate in the
terms of a
impeachment process of the
legitimate state
President.
aim, i.e., there
 A Nominated Member of a House shall
must be a
be disqualified for being a member of
legitimate state
the House if he joins any political party
purpose.
after the expiry of six months from
3. Proportionality,
the date on which he takes his seat
which ensures a
after complying with the requirements
rational nexus
of Article 99.

RAUSIAS-1017 8
  A Nominated Member has also been
exempted from filing his assets and
liabilities under Section 75A of the
Representation of the People Act, 1951,
which requires the elected member to
do so within 90 days of his making or
subscribing oath/affirmation.
 Under Rule 3 of the Members of Rajya
Sabha (Declaration of Assets and
Liabilities) Rules, 2004, only elected
members of the Council are liable to
furnish the declaration of their assets
and liabilities, and assets of their
spouse and dependent children.
 The American Senate has no Nominated
Members and all its members are
elected.
 The first woman Nominated Member of
the Rajya Sabha was Smt. Rukmini
Devi Arundale (1952-56 and 1956-62).
23. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The economic and developmental promise
envisaged for the Urban Local Bodies
(ULBs) through the Constitution 74th
Amendment, 1992 seems to be weakening
due to increasing strains in municipal
finance, especially post-GST
implementation and COVID pandemic.
Recently, the Indian Institute for Human
Settlements (IIHS) analyzed data from 80
ULBs across 24 states between 2012-13
and 2016-17 to understand ULB finance
and spending, and found some key trends
on declining municipal finances.
Major Reasons:
 Lower ratio of ULB’s own revenue v/s
Total revenue reflects financial
health and autonomy - This ratio also
reflects the ULBs’ ability tap unclaimed
sources and their dependency on the
Inter-Governmental Transfers (IGTs).
Cities with a higher share of own
revenue are more financially self-
sustaining.
RAUSIAS-1017
 Most ULBs were highly dependent on
external grants between 2012-13 and
2016-17, where IGTs accounted for
about 40% of the ULBs’ total revenue.
 Concern - Dependence on IGTs dipped
over the years due to modest increase in
own revenue, the scale of IGTs in India
remained at around 0.5% of the GDP,
which is far lower than the international
average of 2% to 5% of the GDP.
 Increase in Operations and
Maintenance (O&M) Expenditure for
the ULBs - O&M expenses are crucial
for the upkeep of infrastructure and for
maintaining the quality of service
delivery. The share of O&M expenses in
the ULBs’ total revenue expenditure
increased from about 30% in 2012-13
to about 35% in 2016-17.
 O&M expenses inadequate - Despite
the increase in the share of O&M
expenses of the ULBs, studies found
that it remained inadequate. For
instance, O&M expenses incurred in
2016-17 covered only around a fifth of
the requirement forecast by the High-
Powered Expert Committee for
estimating the investment requirements
for the urban infrastructure services.
24. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Central Committee: The Central
Government will establish a Committee on
Antarctic Governance and Environmental
Protection. The Committee will be chaired
by the Secretary of the Ministry of Earth
Sciences.
 10 members, not below the rank of joint
secretary, will be nominated from
various Ministries and organisations,
such as defence, external affairs,
National Centre for Polar and Ocean
Research and the National Security
Council Secretariat.
 In addition, two experts from Antarctic
environment and geo-political fields will
9
 be nominated by the Central (iii) Discharge of garbage, plastic or other
Government. substance into the sea, which is
 The functions of the Committee harmful to the marine environment.
include: Offences and Penalties: The Bill specifies
o Granting permits for various penalties for contravention of its provisions.
activities; For instance, conducting a nuclear
o Implementing and ensuring explosion in Antarctica will be punishable
compliance of relevant international with an imprisonment of 20 years, which
laws for the protection of Antarctic may extend to life imprisonment and a fine
environment; of at least Rs. 50 crore. Drilling for mineral
resources or introducing non-native
o Obtaining and reviewing relevant
animals or plants in Antarctica without a
information provided by the parties
permit will be punishable with
to the Treaty, Convention and
imprisonment up to seven years and a fine
Protocol; and
between Rs. 10 lakh and Rs. 50 lakh. The
o Negotiating fees/charges with other
Central Government may notify one or
parties for activities in Antarctica.
more Sessions Courts to be the Designated
Need for Permit: A permit by the Committee Court(s) under the Bill and specify its
or written authorisation from another party territorial jurisdiction to try offences
to the Protocol (other than India) will be punishable under the Bill.
required for various activities, such as:
(i) An Indian expedition to enter or
25. Answer: (c)
remain in Antarctica;
Explanation:
(ii) A person to enter or remain in an
Indian station in Antarctica;
(iii) A vessel or aircraft registered in India to
enter or remain in Antarctica;
(iv) A person or vessel to drill, dredge or
excavate for mineral resources, or
collect samples of mineral resources;
(v) Activities which may harm the native
species; and
(vi) Waste disposal by a person, vessel or
aircraft in Antarctica.
Before a permit is granted by the
Committee, the applicant has to carry out
an environmental impact assessment of the
proposed activities. Moreover, a permit
must not be granted unless a waste
management plan has been prepared for
the expedition by the Committee.
Prohibited activities: The Bill prohibits
certain activities in Antarctica,
including: 26. Answer: (c)

(i) Nuclear explosion or disposal of Explanation:

radioactive wastes; India presently has two research
(ii) Introduction of non-sterile soil; and stations at Antarctica, namely ‘Maitri’
and ‘Bharati’. At both the stations,

RAUSIAS-1017 10
 research and investigations are undertaken
to understand the Polar processes and
phenomenon. Observations and studies are
carried out in atmospheric, biological,
geological, ecological sciences etc. Maitri
station has been in operation since 1989.
With Himadri station in Ny-Alesund,
Svalbard, Arctic, India now belongs to
the elite group of nations that have
multiple research stations within the
Polar Regions.
27. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Hasdeo Aranya Region –
The Hasdeo Aranya (Aranya means
forest) lies in the catchment area of the
Hasdeo river and is spread across 1,878
sq. km. in north-central Chhattisgarh.
The Hasdeo River is a tributary of the
Mahanadi River, which originates in
Chhattisgarh and flows through Odisha
into the Bay of Bengal. The Hasdeo forests
are also the catchment area for the Hasdeo
Bango Dam, built across the Hasdeo River,
which irrigates six lakh acres of land,
crucial to a state with paddy as its main
crop. Besides, the forests are ecologically
sensitive due to the rich biodiversity they
offer and due to the presence of a large
migratory corridor for elephants.
RAUSIAS-1017
28. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The E-Waste Management Rules, 2016:
1. Manufacturer, dealer, refurbished and
Producer Responsibility Organization
(PRO) have been introduced as
additional stakeholders in the Rules.
2. The applicability of the Rules has been
extended to components, consumables,
spares and parts of the EEE (electrical
and electronic equipment), in addition
to the equipment as listed in Schedule I.
3. Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and
other mercury containing lamp brought
under the purview of the Rules.
4. Collection mechanism-based approach
has been adopted to include collection
centre, collection point, take back
system etc., for collection of e-waste by
the producers under the Extended
Producer Responsibility (EPR).
5. Option has been given for setting up of
PRO, e - waste exchange, e-retailer,
Deposit Refund Scheme as additional
channel for implementation of the EPR
by the producers to ensure efficient
channelization of e - waste.
6. Provision for Pan India EPR
Authorization by the CPCB (The Central
Pollution Control Board) has been
introduced, replacing the state-wise
EPR authorization.
7. Collection and channelization of e-
waste in the Extended Producer
Responsibility - Authorisation shall be
in line with the targets prescribed in
Schedule III of the Rules. The phase-
wise collection target for e - waste,
which can be either in number or
weight, shall be 30% of the quantity of
waste generation, as indicated in the
EPR Plan during the first two years of
implementation of the Rules, followed
by 40% during the third and the fourth
years, 50% during the fifth and the
sixth years and 70% during the seventh
year onwards.
11
29. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Global Stocktake (Article 14): A “global
stocktake” to take place in 2023 and every
5 years thereafter, will assess collective
progress toward achieving the purpose of
the Paris Agreement in a comprehensive
and facilitative manner. It will be based on
the best available science and its long-term
global goal. Its outcome will inform the
parties in updating and enhancing their
actions and support, and enhancing
international co-operation on climate
action.
30. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
India’s original NDC (Nationally Determined
Contribution) contained three main targets
for 2030:
 A 33% to 35% reduction in emissions
intensity (or emissions per unit of the
GDP) from the 2005 levels.
 At least 40% of total electricity
generation to come from non-fossil
renewable sources.
 Increases in forest cover to create an
additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion
tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent.
 At the Glasgow meeting last year, Modi
promised to strengthen India’s climate
commitments. He made five promises,
and called it the ‘Panchamrit’, the
nectar that the Indians prepare using
five ingredients. Two of these were
upward revision of existing targets, the
ones that have been made official and
put in the updated NDC.
Accordingly:
 India will now reduce its emission
intensity by at least 45%, instead of just
33% to 35%, from the 2005 levels by
2030.
 Also, it would now ensure that at least
50% of its total electricity generation,
not just 40%, would come from
renewable sources by 2030.
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 The forestry target has not been
touched.
31. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The grasslands of Gujarat constitute
about 4.33% (8,490 sq. km.) of the total
geographical area, distributed in eight
districts and three different climatic
regions – Kutch, Saurashtra and central
Gujarat. A majority of grasslands in
Gujarat (41%) are found in the Kutch
district. Banni Grassland was declared a
Protected Forest in 1955, under the Indian
Forest Act, 1927.
32. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Ramsar Convention is also called the
“Convention on Wetlands”. India has added
five new Ramsar Wetlands Sites of
international importance. With the latest
addition, the total number of Ramsar sites
in India has reached 54.
New Ramsar Sites include:
1. The Pallikaranai Marsh Reserve
Forest, Tamil Nadu: It is a freshwater
marsh in Chennai. It is the only
surviving wetland ecosystem in
Chennai. It is counted among the last
remaining natural wetlands of South
India.
2. The Karikili Bird Sanctuary, Tamil
Nadu: It is a protected area located in
Kancheepuram district of Tamil Nadu. It
is located near Chennai.
3. Pichavaram Mangrove, Tamil
Nadu: It is located near Chidambaram
in Cuddalore district of Tamil Nadu. It
is counted among the largest mangrove
forests in the country.
4. Pala Wetland, Mizoram: It is the
largest natural wetland in Mizoram. The
wetland is surrounded by green
woodlands. It is known for rich diversity
of animal species, including several
species of animals and birds.
12
 5. Sakhya Sagar, Madhya
Pradesh: This Lake is an integral part
of the Madhav National Park in
Shivpuri, Madhya Pradesh.
The Ramsar Convention was established by
UNESCO in 1971. It is an
intergovernmental environmental treaty,
named after Ramsar city in Iran, because it
was signed there. The Convention came
into effect in 1975. It encourages the
international co-operation and national
action to conserve the wetlands and
sustainably use their resources. Under it,
the wetlands of international importance
are identified worldwide.
33. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Ramsar Convention uses a broad
definition of wetlands. It includes all lakes
and rivers, underground aquifers, swamps
and marshes, wet grasslands, peatlands,
oases, estuaries, deltas and tidal flats,
mangroves and other coastal areas, coral
reefs and all human-made sites, such as
fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs and salt
pans.
Under the “Three Pillars” of the Convention,
the Contracting Parties commit to:
 work towards the wise use of all their
wetlands;
 designate suitable wetlands for the list
of Wetlands of International Importance
(the “Ramsar List”) and ensure their
effective management; and
 co-operate internationally on
transboundary wetlands, shared
wetland systems and shared species.
The Convention defines wise use of
wetlands as “the maintenance of their
ecological character, achieved through the
implementation of ecosystem approaches,
within the context of sustainable
development”. Wise use can, thus, be seen
as the conservation and sustainable use of
wetlands and all the services they provide,
for the benefit of the people and nature.
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34. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
About the National Emblem:
 Adopted as the State Emblem of India
on January 26, 1950.
 Based in Sarnath Buddhist Complex in
Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh).
 The Motto on the Emblem
‘Satyameva Jayate’: "Truth Alone
Triumphs", from "Mundaka Upanishad",
a part of the Upanishads.
 The Emblem forms a part of the official
letter-head of the Government of India
and appears on all Indian currency,
along with the passport.
35. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
About Amir Khusrau: Amir Khusrau
(1253–1325 AD) was an Indo-Persian Sufi
singer, musician, poet and scholar, who
flourished under the Delhi Sultanate. In
the Indian sub-continent's cultural history,
he is a legendary person. He was a mystic
and a spiritual follower of Delhi's
Nizamuddin Auliya. He mostly wrote
poetry in Persian, although he also wrote
in Hindavi.
Amir Khusrau - An Epitome of Classical
Music:
• Amir Khusrau was a Sufi musician,
poet and philosopher from South Asia.
• He served during the times of both
Balban and Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq.
• He was a spiritual follower of Delhi's
Nizamuddin Auliya.
• Khusrau is sometimes referred to as
"India's Parrot."
• His music may be heard in a number of
Dargahs throughout the country.
• Khusrau is known for being the "Father
of Qawwali."
• He is accredited with inventing Sitar
and making a substantial contribution
to the creation of Ghazal.
13
 • He is also accredited with infusing
Persian and Arabic influences into the
Indian classical music and being the
creator of Khayal and Tarana genres of
music.
• He wrote legendary love story between
Laila-Majnu and Ashiqa.
• He was a classical poet who served in
the royal courts of Delhi Sultanate for
more than seven rulers.
• His connections with numerous Sultans
allowed him to travel and reside in
many regions of India, exposing him to
a variety of local customs. This aided
him in assimilating a wide range of
musical influences.
36. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Champaran Satyagrah-1917: In
Champaran district of Bihar, the
Europeans forced the cultivators to grow
indigo, a blue dye, and this imposed on
them untold sufferings. They could not
grow the food they needed, nor did they
receive adequate payment for the indigo.
The Champaran Satyagraha:
• A Bihar farmer, Rajkumar Shukla,
pleaded Mahatma Gandhi, to visit
and personally investigate the
matter. Gandhi visited Champaran
with Rajkumar Shukla.
• The magistrate ordered Gandhi not to
stay in Champaran. He was latter
summoned, but released.
• Gandhi investigated the matter through
cross examination of about 8,000
cultivators.
• Gandhi concluded that the ignorance of
the cultivators was the main reason
why it was possible for the European
planters to repress them. Gandhi,
therefore, set up voluntary
organizations to improve the economic
and educational conditions of the
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people. They opened schools and taught
how to improve sanitation.
• The British Government realized
Gandhi's strength and his devotion to
the cause. They themselves then
setup a Committee to enquire into
the grievances of the cultivators.
They invited Gandhi to serve on that
Committee and he agreed. The result
was that, within months, the
Champaran Agrarian Bill, 1917 was
passed. It gave great relief to the
cultivators and the land tenants.
37. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
About the Konark Temple:
 Sun Temple at Konark, located on the
eastern shores of the Indian state of
Odisha.
 The Europeans called it the Black
Pagoda, due to its dark colour and its
magnetic power that drew ships into the
shore and caused shipwrecks.
 Listed as a World Heritage Site by
UNESCO.
 The Sun Temple is an exceptional
testimony, in physical form, to the
13th-century Hindu Kingdom of
Orissa (Odisha), under the reign of
Narasimha Deva I (AD 1238-1264) of
the Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
 Belongs to the cult of Surya, the Sun
God. Thus, it is directly and materially
linked to Brahmanism and the Tantric
belief system.
 Built in the Kalingan temple
architecture, with all its defining
elements in complete and perfect form.
 A chariot of the Sun God, with twelve
pairs of wheels, drawn by seven horses,
evoking its movement across heavens.
 It is embellished with sophisticated and
refined iconographical depictions of
contemporary life and activities.
14
  Vimana (The principal sanctuary) was
surmounted by a high tower with a
Shikhara (The crowning cap), which
was razed in the 19th century.
 To the east, Jahamogana (The audience
hall) dominates the ruins with its
pyramidal mass.
 Further to the east, Natmandir (The
dance hall), today unroofed, rises on a
high platform.
 Various subsidiary structures are still
to be found within the enclosed area of
the rectangular wall, which are
punctuated by gates and towers.
38. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The Kanaganahalli Buddhist site was
excavated by the Archaeological Survey
of India (ASI) during 1994-2001.
However, it was left neglected for
around 20 years.
 This is an ancient Buddhist site,
situated on the banks of river Bhima,
near Kanaganahalli in Kalaburagi
district in Karnataka.
 The Kanaganahalli Buddhist Stupa was
constructed using the locally available
limestone. Most drum slabs, dome
slabs, inscribed sculptures and other
structural remains were recovered in
broken condition.
 In 1986, the Kali Temple, situated in
the Chandralamba Temple complex in
Sannati, got collapsed. While clearing
the debris, Ashokan edicts were
discovered from the complex.
 During excavation, an abandoned well
was discovered, which turned out to be
the “Maha Stupa”. The Maha Stupa is
referred to as “Adholoka Maha Chaitya”
in the Ashoka’s inscriptions.
 It is likely that the Maha Stupa has
been developed in three constructional
phases: The Mauryan phase; the Early
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Satavahana phase; and the Later
Satavahana phase, during the 3rd
century B.C. and the 3rd century A.D.
 While the Stupa is believed to be the
largest of its time, the stone-portrait is
the only surviving image of the Mauryan
emperor, which had inscription ‘Ranyo
Asoko’ in Brahmi on it.
39. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Vinayak Damodar Savarkar founded the
Abhinav Bharat Society (initially as
Mitra Mela, 1899) along with his
brother G. D. Savarkar in 1904.
 It was a secret society, which also had
connections with London.
 He was involved with the India House
(founded by Shyamji Krishna Varma in
London, to promote nationalist ideas
among the youth).
 Savarkar went to London in 1906. He
soon founded the Free India Society,
along with Madam Bhikaji Cama, based
on the thoughts of the Italian
nationalist Giuseppe Mazzini.
 He functioned as the President of the
Hindu Mahasabha from 1937 to 1943.
He called against the Quit India
Movement.
 Savarkar was convicted and sentenced
to 50-year imprisonment, also known as
Kala Pani, and was transported in 1911
to the Cellular Jail in the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands.
 He was released in 1924.
 He later joined Tilak’s Swaraj Party.
 He advocated for the use of Hindi as the
national language. He also fought
against untouchability and caste-based
discrimination.
Literary Works:
• The Indian war of Independence, 1857
(on the Revolt of 1857)
15
 • Essentials of Hindutva
• A Biography of Mazzini

40. Answer: (c)

Explanation:
The Santhal Revolt:
• After getting political and economic
control of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa
(Odisha), because of victory in the
Battle of Buxar, the East India 43. Answer: (c)
Company imposed ‘Permanent Explanation:
Settlement’ there (Lord Cornwallis). G7 members - Canada, France, Germany,
• They invited many Santhals to settle Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, the
in a specific forest area (Damin-i-Koh) United States and the European Union.
in the Rajmahal hills (Jharkhand). G20 members – Australia, Argentina,
• But, the Santhals were exploited by the Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany,
Zamindars and the English police. India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, the Republic
• In June, 1855, two Santhal leaders, of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia,
Sidhu and Kanhu, declared rebellion South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom,
against the East India Company. the United States and the European
Farmers, villagers and women took wide Union.
participation. They fought the police,
damaged communication systems and 44. Answer: (c)
used guerrilla warfare. Explanation:
• The British used the Martial Law to Karakalpakstan – Uzebkistan
curb the rebellion and were successful 18 people were killed and 243 wounded
by January, 1856. during a government crackdown on the
protesters in Uzbekistan’s autonomous
41. Answer: (c) province of Karakalpakstan.
Explanation:
The members of I2U2 – India, Israel, USA
and UAE.
The members of G20 - Argentina,
Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, G
ermany, India,
Indonesia, Italy, Japan, the Republic of
Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South
Africa, Turkey, the United
Kingdom, the United States and
the European Union.

42. Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Russia has rejected appeals for a complete

demilitarisation of the area around the

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 Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Plant in southern
Ukraine.
47. Answer: (a)
45. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
46. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Article 148 provides for the appointment of
the Comptroller and Auditor General of
India (CAG) only at the Centre and not at
the states. The CAG is appointed by the
President by warrant under his hand and
seal, and shall only be removed from the
RAUSIAS-1017
office in like manner and on the like
grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
As per Article 148(4), the Comptroller and
Auditor General shall not be eligible for
further office, either under the Government
of India, or under the Government of any
State, after he has ceased to hold his office.
Explanation:
Compensatory Afforestation: The Forest
(Conservation) Act, 1980, mandates that
whenever forest land is diverted for non-
forest purposes, an equivalent area of
non-forest land has to be taken up for
compensatory afforestation. The funds
for this are to be imposed on whomsoever
is undertaking the diversion. The land
chosen for afforestation, if viable, must be
in close proximity of the reserved or
protected forest, for ease of management by
the forest department.
The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act,
2016, provides for the establishment of
funds under the Public Accounts of India
and the Public Accounts of each state
and crediting thereto the monies received
from the user agencies towards
compensatory afforestation, additional
compensatory afforestation, penal
compensatory afforestation, net present
value and all other amounts recovered from
such agencies under the Forest
(Conservation) Act, 1980.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of
India, while auditing the CAMPA
(Compensatory
Afforestation Fund Management and
Planning Authority) Fund, has found
concentration of plantation activities in
easily accessible areas, like land along the
pathways, leaving the degraded patches in
the middle of dense forest unplanted in
Odisha. The audit agency further said that
as the database of degraded forest and
non-forest land was not available with the
department, target for compensatory
afforestation programmes under the
17
 Compensatory Afforestation Fund
Management and Planning Authority was
not achieved within the stipulated period of
three years and hence, could not
compensate the forest cover against the
diversion of forest land.
48. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Term of the Office of the Vice-
President – Article 67:
 The Vice-President shall hold office for a
term of five years from the date on
which he enters upon his office unless
o the Vice-President, by writing under
his hand addressed to the President,
resigns his office.
o the Vice-President is removed from
his office by a resolution of the
Council of States passed by a
majority of all the then members of
the Council and agreed to by the
House of the People.
 The Vice-President shall,
notwithstanding the expiration of his
term, continue to hold the office until
his successor enters upon his office.
 No resolution for the purpose of removal
from the office shall be moved unless at
least fourteen days’ notice has been
given of the intention to move the
resolution.
Election to be done before the expiry of
the term of the Vice-President:
 The term of the office of Shri M.
Venkaiah Naidu, the Vice-President of
India, ended on 10th August, 2022.
 As per Article 68 of the Constitution of
India, an election to fill the vacancy
caused by the expiration of the term of
the office of the outgoing Vice-President
was required to be completed before the
expiration of the term.
 The Election Commission (EC),
accordingly, conducted the election for
the office of the Vice-President of India
on 6th August, 2022.
RAUSIAS-1017
 As per Article 66 of the Constitution
of India, the Vice-President is elected
by the members of the Electoral
College consisting of the members of
both the Houses of the Parliament, in
accordance with the system of
proportional representation by means
of the single transferable vote and
the voting at such election shall be
by secret ballot.
 The Electoral College to elect a
person to the office of the Vice-
President consists of all members of
both the Houses of the Parliament.
 The Election Commission, in
consultation with the Central
Government, appoints the Secretary
General of the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha, by rotation, as the
Returning Officer.
 Accordingly, the Secretary General of
the Lok Sabha was appointed as the
Returning Officer for the present
election to the office of the Vice-
President of India.
 Political parties cannot issue any whip
to their MPs in the matter of voting in
the Vice-Presidential election.
49. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Nari Adalat a new component for providing
women with an alternate Grievance
Redressal Mechanism for resolving cases of
petty nature (harassment, subversion,
curtailment of rights or entitlements) faced
by women at Gram Panachayat level will be
implemented in a phased manner. Nari
Adalats or women collectives will be formed
of committed and socially respected women
chosen for that purpose. This platform will
also be utilized for engaging with the public
for awareness generation and getting
feedback for improvement in the schemes
and for effective public delivery of services.
These will be provided logistic support
through Gram Panchayats in convergence
18
 with the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, The revamped RGSA will comprise Central
Ministry of Rural Development, and and State components. The Central
Common Service Centres (CSCs) run by the Components of the scheme will be fully
Ministry of Electronics and Information funded by the Government of India. The
Technology. funding pattern for State Components will
be in the ratio of 60:40 among Centre and
50. Answer: (a) States respectively, except NE, the Hilly
States and Union Territory (UT) of J&K
Explanation:
where Central and State share will be
Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj
90:10. However, for other UTs, Central
Abhiyan (RGSA): The approved scheme of
share will be 100%.
RGSA will help more than 2.78 lakh Rural
The scheme will have both Central
Local Bodies including Traditional Bodies
Component - National Level activities.
across the country to develop governance
capabilities to deliver on SDGs through The implementation and monitoring of the
inclusive local governance with a focus on activities of the scheme will broadly be
optimum utilisation of available resources. aligned for achieving the Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs). Panchayats are
The key principles of SDGs, i.e. leaving no
the focal points for all the developmental
one behind, reaching the farthest first, and
activities and implementation of schemes of
universal coverage, along with gender
various Ministries/ Departments and State
equality will be embedded in the design of
governments to achieve SDGs.
all capacity-building interventions
including training, training modules, and It is a scheme under the Ministry of
materials. Panchayati Raj.
Priority will be given to subjects of national
importance principally under themes,
namely: (i) Poverty free and enhanced
livelihood in villages, (ii) Healthy Village, (iii)
Child-Friendly Village, (iv) Water Sufficient
Village, (v) Clean and Green Village, (vi)
Self-Sufficient Infrastructure in Village, (vii)
Socially Secured Village, (viii) Village with
Good Governance, and (ix) Engendered
Development in Village.

RAUSIAS-1017 19