.

Test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 3

Test ID
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)
1002
CURRENT AFFAIRS
CA: MARCH 2022
Time Allowed: 1 Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

4. All items carry equal marks.

5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.

6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

This test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 3
 .
1. Which of the following best describe the 4. With respect to e-RUPI, consider the
"Challenge of Disintermediation of Banks", following statements:
associated with the introduction of Central 1. The e-RUPI is a person-specific and
Bank Digital Currency?
purpose-specific cashless voucher,
(a) Increase in deposits with the banks, developed by the NPCI.
leading to higher interest cost.
2. The e-RUPI vouchers can be issued for
(b) Increase in loans given by the banks,
a maximum amount of Rs. 10,000 only.
leading to higher pressure on the
3. Each e-RUPI voucher can be redeemed
Balance Sheet.
only once.
(c) Decrease in the bank's deposits with
the RBI, leading to lower profits for the Which of the statements given above is/are
RBI. correct?
(d) Decrease in deposits with the banks, (a) 1 only
accompanied by decrease in credit (b) 1 and 2 only
creation. (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Which of the following statements is
incorrect with respect to the Society for
5. Which of the following international
Worldwide Interbank Financial
agencies publishes the Agriculture
Telecommunication (SWIFT)?
Orientation Index (AOI)?
(a) SWIFT is a global member-owned
(a) The World Trade Organisation (WTO)
cooperative that is headquartered in
Brussels (Belgium). (b) The Food and Agriculture Organisation
(FAO)
(b) SWIFT is controlled by the G-10 Central
Banks, the European Central Bank and (c) The International Fund for Agricultural
the National Bank of Belgium. Development (IFAD)
(c) SWIFT is not a payment network. (d) The International Food Policy Research
Rather, it is a messaging network. Institute
(d) SWIFT has the authority to impose
sanctions on the banks. 6. With respect to the Chief Economic Advisor
(CEA), consider the following statements:
3. With respect to the RBI’s Voluntary 1. The CEA heads the Economic Division
Retention Route (VRR), consider the of the Department of Economic Affairs
following statements: in the Ministry of Finance.
1. This Route enables the FPIs to invest in 2. The CEA is the cadre controlling
both equities and debt market in India. authority of the Indian Economic
2. There is no limit on the investment Service (IES).
under this Route. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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7. With respect to the World Food Programme, 10. With respect to saffron cultivation, consider
consider the following statements: the following statements:
1. The World Food Programme is an
1. India accounts for the largest share
organisation under the United Nations
(UN). both in terms of area and production of
2. It has been awarded with the Nobel saffron at the global level.
Peace Prize, 2020. 2. Jammu and Kashmir is the largest
Which of the statements given above is/are producer of saffron in India.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only

8. With respect to coal mining, consider the (c) Both 1 and 2

following statements: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. India is ranked first, both in terms of
coal reserves and production at the
global level. 11. With reference to the SVAMITVA Scheme of
2. Jharkhand is the largest coal producing the Central Government, consider the
state in India. following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 1. It is being implemented with the
(a) 1 only collaborative efforts of the Ministry of
(b) 2 only Panchayati Raj, the State Revenue
(c) Both 1 and 2 Department, the State Panchayati Raj
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Department and the Survey of India.

2. It aims to provide the ‘Record of Rights’

9. With respect to the Moratorium on to the household owners possessing
Customs Duties on E-Commerce, consider houses in inhabited areas in mega cities
the following statements: only.
1. The moratorium includes non-
imposition of customs duty on the 3. It aims to facilitate the monetization of
import of digital goods and services, properties of the citizens of rural India,
such as films, music, games, software, by enabling them to use their property
newspapers etc. as a financial asset by taking loans and
2. Presently, the WTO member countries other financial benefits.
have decided to permanently impose
moratorium on the customs duties on Which of the statements given above are
e-commerce. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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12. The Fifteenth Finance Commission has
recommended grants for which of the
following?
1. All tiers of the Panchayati Raj.
2. Fifth and Sixth Schedule areas and the
Cantonment Boards.
3. Provide tied grants to the rural local
bodies.
4. Separate grants for million-plus urban
agglomerations/cities and non-million
plus cities.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
.
15. Consider the following statements:
1. Every information relating to the
commission of a cognizable offence
must be reduced in writing in the form
of a First Information Report (FIR).
2. The registration of the FIR by a police
station of a crime committed outside the
jurisdiction of the police station is
referred to as Zero FIR and the practice
is not allowed in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

16. Which of the following countries share
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 border with Ukraine?
1. Belarus
13. The scheme “PM-DevINE” is associated 2. Georgia
with which of the following? 3. Moldova
(a) Providing LED and Solar Lamps. 4. Hungary

(b) Development of the North-East. Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(c) Central finance for the state DISCOMS.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Green hydrogen as an alternate fuel.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
14. Consider the following statements: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Cognizable offence means a case in
which a police officer may arrest 17. Which of the following rivers drain into the
without warrant. Black Sea?

2. When a person is accused of a non- 1. Danube

bailable offence, then in such a case, 2. Elbe
bail can only be granted by an officer 3. Dnieper
and not by the Court. 4. Volga
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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18. Which of the following countries border the 1. It provides for 6 categories of the
Baltic Sea? endangerment of the languages.
1. Ukraine 2. None of the Indian languages is
2. Germany considered extinct till now.
3. Russia Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Denmark correct?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below: (b) 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 22. Consider the following pairs:
S.N. Temple Location
19. With respect to the “World Social Protection
Report 2020-22”, consider the following 1. Kesava Temple Somnathpur
statements? 2. Chennakeshava Belur
1. It is published by the International Temple
Labour Organization. 3. Virupaksha Madurai
2. The spending on social protection Temple
(excluding health) in India is higher
4. Meenakshi Tanjore
than other low-middle income
countries. Temple

Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the pairs given above are correctly
correct? matched?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

20. With respect to the “Nord Stream 2

23. With reference to the Hoysalas temple
Pipeline”, consider the following
architecture, consider the following
statements:
statements:
1. It runs from Ust-Luga in Russia to
1. The Chalukyas are known to develop
Greifswald in Germany.
the Vesara temple architectural style.
2. It passes through the Black Sea.
2. A raised platform or Jagati was used for
Which of the statements given above is/are
the purpose of a Pradakshinapatha.
correct?
3. Two or more Vimanas with similar style
(a) 1 only
and height were built.
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
21. With reference to UNESCO’s Language
Vitality and Endangerment Framework, (c) 2 and 3 only
consider the following statements: (d) 1, 2 and 3

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24. Which of the following books were written 27. Consider the following statements
by Saint Ramanujacharya? regarding “Gravitational Lensing”:
1. Vedartha-Sangraha 1. Smaller objects can also act as
2. Advaita Anubhuthi gravitational lenses when they pass in
front of more distant stars.
3. Sri Bhashya
2. It allows researchers to study the
4. Gita-Bhasya
details of early galaxies too far away to
Select the correct answer using the code be seen with current technology and
given below: telescopes.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only correct?
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
25. With reference to the Vedanta Philosophy (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of Vishishtadvaita, consider the following
statements: 28. The Indian Neutrino Observatory Project is
1. This philosophy believed in qualified proposed to be set up at the Bodi West
dualism. Hills, Theni district, in Tamil Nadu. Which
2. Moksha, or spiritual liberation, is seen of the following is the most suitable reason
as the joy of contemplating the for the selection of the site?
Brahman. (a) It is in a biodiversity rich area.

3. Knowledge and devotion were given
equal importance.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(b) It is below the Tropic of Cancer.
(c) It has huge influence of monsoon and
high air circulation.
(d) It has thick rock cover.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only 29. With reference to the “Blockchain
Technology” consider the following
(c) 1 and 3 only
statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It is a public ledger that everyone can
inspect, but which no single user
26. Which of the following is/are the controls.
application(s) of the Raman Effect? 2. The overall carbon footprint of crypto
1. The study of DNAs and proteins. currencies is comparable to that of a
2. Sensing minerals in Mars. few megacities, and mining assets is
energy-inefficient and unsustainable.
3. The study of the expansion of the
universe. 3. The value of the crypto assets is
determined by their ability to be
Select the correct answer using the code
swapped for other currencies.
given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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30. Consider the following statements: 1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of
1. Nuclear fusion uses the light atoms, like the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
helium, oxygen and nitrogen, to fuse Climate Change.
into heavier nuclear atoms. 2. Its prime objective is to utilize the
2. Nuclear fusion reaction energy is more Remote Sensing Technology for the
than hundred times that of the nuclear inventorization, assessment and
monitoring of the country’s natural
fission energy.
resources.
3. India is an important member of the
Which of the statements given above is/are
International Thermonuclear
correct?
Experimental Reactor, which
(a) 1 only
experiments on nuclear fusion.
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
34. With respect to the “Satkosia Tiger
(c) 2 and 3 only
Reserve”, consider the following
(d) 1, 2 and 3 statements:
1. It is a Tiger Reserve located in Odisha.
31. The term “Tokamak”, often seen in the 2. It is located where the Brahamani River
news, is related to which of the following? passes through a gorge in the Eastern
(a) Recently discovered region in the space, Ghats Mountains.
having strong magnetic fields. 3. It comprises two adjoining Sanctuaries
(b) Volcanic region of Mars. of Central Odisha, named the Satkosia
(c) A Device used in nuclear-fusion Gorge Sanctuary and the Baisipalli
research for magnetic confinement of Sanctuary.
plasma. Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(d) Crypto currency.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
32. With respect to “Bio-CNG”, consider the
(c) 1 and 3 only
following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It contains more than 90% of methane.
2. The calorific value of Bio-CNG is lower
35. With respect to the “Wayanad Wildlife
than that of Biogas.
Sanctuary”, consider the following
3. India has got Asia’s largest Bio-CNG
statements:
plant in Indore.
1. It is the largest Wildlife Sanctuary in
Which of the statements given above is/are Kerala.
correct?
2. It is an integral part of the Nilgiri
(a) 1 only Biosphere Reserve.
(b) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 2 and 3 only correct?
(d) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
33. With respect to the “National Natural (c) Both 1 and 2
Resources Management System (NNRMS)”, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
consider the following statements:

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36. With respect to the “Seshachalam hills”, 39. With reference to “the Lokpal and
consider the following statements: Lokayuktas Act, 2013”, which of the
1. They are the hilly ranges part of the following statements is/are correct?
Eastern Ghats in Andhra Pradesh.
1. The Lokpal and the Lokayukta conduct
2. Tirupati, a major Hindu pilgrimage
hearings in “Special Court” at the
town, is in the hills.
central and state levels in the case of
Which of the statements given above is/are
allegations of corruption against the
correct?
public servants.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 2. The Lokayukta can initiate inquiry and
conduct investigation on the allegations
(c) Both 1 and 2
of corruption against the Chief Minister
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
of a state, but the records of the
investigation shall not be disclosed in
37. With respect to the “Crimson Rose
Butterfly”, consider the following public.
statements: 3. The Lokpal has supervisory powers over
1. It is most common in the Himalayan the Central Bureau of Investigation and
regions, like Himachal Pradesh and the Central Vigilance Commission.
Uttarakhand.
Select the correct answer using the code
2. It is categorised as ‘Least Concern’ as given below:
per the IUCN Red List.
(a) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 40. Consider the following statements:
1. The United Nations General Assembly
38. With respect to the “single-use plastics”,
adopted the Global Plan for the Decade
consider the following statements:
of Action for Road Safety 2011-2020,
1. They are the goods made primarily from
aimed at reducing fatalities in road
the fossil fuel–based chemicals (petro-
chemicals) and are meant to be accidents by 50% by the year 2020.
disposed of right after use. 2. The Brasilia Declaration aims to achieve
2. Candy sticks, polystyrene (thermocol) Sustainable Development Goal 3.6 –
for decoration and wrapping/packaging which is to reduce the number of global
films around sweet boxes are the deaths and injuries from road traffic
examples of single-use plastics. accidents to half.
3. India’s “Beat Plastic Pollution”
Which of the statements given above is/are
resolution is committed to eliminating
correct?
the single-use plastics by 2022.
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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41. Consider the following statements about 44. With reference to the Prevention of Money
Delivery versus Payment (DvP): Laundering Act, 2002, consider the
1. Delivery versus Payment (DvP) is the following statements:
mode of settlement of securities wherein 1. Offences under Part A of the Schedule
the transfer of securities and funds deal with trans-border crimes and
happen simultaneously.
reflects the dedication to tackle money
2. DvP settlement eliminates the
laundering across the global
settlement risk in transactions.
boundaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The Act empowers the Director to attach
correct?
property involved in money laundering.
(a) 1 only
3. The Act has provided for an Appellate
(b) 2 only
Tribunal and Special Court to conduct
(c) Both 1 and 2
the trial of the offences of money
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
laundering.
Which of the statements given above are
42. Consider the following statements about
correct?
the Call money market:
1. Call money market is a market for (a) 1 and 2 only
uncollateralized lending and borrowing (b) 2 and 3 only
of funds. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. This market is predominantly overnight (d) 1, 2 and 3
and is open for participation to
scheduled commercial banks only.
45. With reference to the ‘Capital punishment’,
Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements:
correct?
(a) 1 only 1. The Supreme Court of India has
declared the capital punishment as
(b) 2 only
unconstitutional, as it violates Article
(c) Both 1 and 2
21 of the Indian Constitution.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The capital punishment is based on ‘the
deterrent theory of punishment’ and
43. The State Governments are authorised to
instils the fear of punishment, including
frame laws under the State and the
Concurrent Lists (Seventh Schedule to the death, among the wrong doers.
Indian Constitution) on which of the 3. The capital punishment declared by the
following? Court of Sessions shall not be executed
1. Education, including technical unless it is confirmed by the respective
education, medical education and High Court.
universities. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Legal, medical and other professions. correct?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 2 and 3 only
given below:
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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46. Consider the following statements about Which of the statements given above is/are
the Clearing Corporation of India Limited correct?
(CCIL): (a) 1 only
1. The CCIL is the clearing agency for G- (b) 2 only
Secs. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. It acts as a Central Counter Party (CCP) (d) Neither 1 nor 2
for all transactions in G-Secs by
interposing itself between two
49. Consider the following statements about
counterparties.
the Fixed Income Money Market and
3. CCIL guarantees settlement of all trades
Derivatives Association of India (FIMMDA):
in G-Secs.
1. FIMMDA is a voluntary market body for
Which of the statements given above is/are
the bond, money and derivatives
correct?
markets.
(a) 1 only
2. FIMMDA plays a constructive role in the
(b) 2 only evolution of best market practices by its
(c) 1 and 2 only members so that the market as a whole
(d) 1, 2 and 3 operates transparently as well as
efficiently.
47. Consider the following statements about Which of the statements given above is/are
Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF): correct?
1. LAF is a facility extended by the RBI to (a) 1 only
the scheduled commercial banks (b) 2 only
including Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The interest rate in LAF is fixed by the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
RBI from time to time.
Which of the statements given above is/are 50. Consider the following pairs about the
correct? Indus Valley Civilization:
(a) 1 only
S.No. Place Location
(b) 2 only
1. Mohenjo-daro Sindh
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Sutkagen Dor Balochistan
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Ropar Uttar Pradesh
48. Consider the following statements about Which of the pairs given above is/are
Jet streams: correctly matched?
1. Jet streams are narrow bands of strong (a) 2 only
wind in the upper levels of the
(b) 1 and 2 only
atmosphere.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. The winds blow from west to east in jet
(d) 1, 2 and 3
streams.

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Answers &
Explanations
of

TEST CODE: TS23E1002

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

CA: March 2022

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
CA: March 2022
GS Paper-I: (TS23E1002)
1. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC):
 Digital currency backed by the Central Bank of a country. Just like currency notes issued by
the Central Bank, the CDBC is a legal tender and accepted for the payment of various
transactions within a country.
 Unlike the crypto currencies, the CBDC is backed by the Central Bank and hence, enjoys
more amount of stability and less volatility.
 Also called as the "Programmable Money", as it can be programmed for certain selected
users or within specific region of a country.

Challenge of Disintermediation of the Banks:

2. Answer: (d) transactions in a secure, standardized and

Explanation:
The Society for Worldwide Interbank
Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT)
provides a network that enables the
financial institutions worldwide to send
and receive information about the financial
reliable environment.
Hence, SWIFT is not a payment network.
Rather, it is a messaging network that
enables the banks and the financial
institutions to send and receive messages
about financial transactions.

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It is a global member-owned cooperative State Development Loans (SDLs). They
that is headquartered in Brussels can also investment in the Corporate
(Belgium). It was founded in 1973 by a Bonds.
group of 239 banks from 15 countries,
 The RBI imposes a limit on investment
which formed a cooperative utility to
under this Route. Presently, it is Rs. 1.5
develop a secure electronic messaging
lakh crores.
service and common standards to facilitate
cross-border payments.  Minimum retention period for the

Can SWIFT impose sanctions?: As a investment is 3 years.

utility with a systemic global character,  Minimum percentage of investment,
SWIFT has no authority to make which has to retained, is 75%.
sanctions decisions. Any decision to  The FPIs that wish to liquidate their
impose or to lift sanctions on the countries investments under the Route, prior to
or individual entities rests solely with the
the end of the retention period, may do
competent government bodies and
so by selling their investments to
legislators. Whilst sanctions are imposed
another FPIs. However, the FPI buying
independently in different jurisdictions
such investment shall abide by all the
around the world, SWIFT cannot arbitrarily
choose which jurisdiction’s sanction regime terms and conditions applicable under
to follow. Being incorporated under the the Route.
Belgian law, it must instead comply with New Announcement: The RBI has decided
the related EU regulation, as confirmed by to increase the investment limit under VRR
the Belgian Government. from Rs. 1.5 lakh crores to Rs. 2.5 lakh
crores.
3. Answer: (d)
Explanation: 4. Answer: (a)
The Voluntary Retention Route (VRR): Explanation:
Introduced by the RBI in March, 2019, to
The e-RUPI prepaid digital voucher is a
enable the FPIs to invest in debt markets in
person-specific and purpose-specific
India. Broadly, the investments through the
Route are free from the macro-prudential cashless voucher, developed by the NPCI
and other regulatory norms applicable to (The National Payments Corporation of
the FPI investments in debt markets. India). It can be used by the individuals,
However, for availing such a benefit, the corporates or governments. e-RUPI runs on
FPIs should voluntarily commit to retain a the UPI platform. e-RUPI vouchers are
required minimum percentage of their presently being used largely for COVID-19
investments in India for a period. vaccination purposes.
RBI's Regulations on VRR: New Announcement: The RBI has
 Any FPI registered with SEBI is eligible proposed to increase the cap on amount for
to participate through this Route. e-RUPI vouchers, issued by the
Participation through this Route shall
Government, from Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 1 lakh
be voluntary.
per voucher and allow the use of the e-
 The FPIs are eligible to invest in any
RUPI voucher multiple times (until the
Government Securities, i.e., the Central
amount of the voucher is completely
Government dated Securities (G-Secs),
redeemed).
Treasury Bills (T-Bills), as well as the

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5. Answer: (b) 7. Answer: (c)
Explanation: Explanation:
The Agriculture Orientation Index (AOI) Details about the World Food Programme
– (WFP) –
Measured by: The Food and Agriculture Role: A UN Organ which focusses on
Organisation (FAO) to measure the ending hunger and ensuring food security.
country's progress towards SDG-2 (End Established in 1961.
Hunger, achieve food security and
Governance: An Executive Board
improved nutrition).
consisting of 36 Member States.
Calculation: Calculated as the percentage
Chairperson: The Executive Director
of the Government's expenditure on
appointed jointly by the UN Secretary-
agriculture, divided by the share of
General and the Director-General of the
agriculture in the GDP.
FAO.
Rationale: An AOI greater than 1 reflects a
Funding: Entirely funded through the
higher orientation towards the agriculture
sector, which receives a higher share of voluntary contributions of the donor
government spending, relative to its governments, institutions, corporations
contribution to economic value-added. An and individuals.
AOI less than 1 reflects a lower orientation Relationship with the SDGs: WFP’s
to agriculture, while an AOI equal to 1 activities contribute to the advancement of
reflects neutrality in a government’s other SDGs: SDG 1 (ending poverty); SDG 3
orientation to the agriculture sector. (good health and well-being); SDG 4
Present Status: India's AOI is lower is (quality education); SDG 5 (gender
comparison to other Asian countries. equality); SDG 13 (climate action);
and SDG 16 (peace, justice and strong
6. Answer: (c) institutions).
Explanation: Note: In October 2020, the WFP was
Details about the Chief Economic awarded the Nobel Peace Prize “for its
Advisor: efforts to combat hunger”.
 Heads the Economic Division of the
Department of Economic Affairs in the 8. Answer: (d)
Ministry of Finance. Equivalent to the Explanation:
rank of Secretary to the Government of
The Present Status of Coal Mining in
India.
India:
 Mainly advisory role to advice the
With an annual production of 783 MT,
Government on important economic
India was the second largest coal producer
policies.
in the world, after China, in 2019.
 Cadre controlling authority of the
Countries with the highest coal reserves:
Indian Economic Service (IES) and deals
USA, Russia, Australia, China and India.
with examination, recruitment and
training of the IES officers. Countries with the highest coal production:
 Most important role is to prepare the China, India and USA.
Economic Survey, which is presented Top states in coal production:
one day before the presentation of the Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Jharkhand.
Union Budget.

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9. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
As per the World Trade Organization
(WTO), e-commerce is defined as the
“production, distribution, marketing,
sale or delivery of goods and services
(such as films, music, video games,
software, newspapers, books etc.) by
electronic means.
In 1998, the WTO members came out with
a Declaration on Global Electronic
Commerce, under which the countries
have decided not to impose customs duties
(or a moratorium on customs duties) on e-
commerce transactions. This moratorium is
renewed by the members at every
Ministerial Conference, which usually
happens every two years.
Present Debate over Moratorium on
Customs Duties on E-Commerce: The
developed countries are the major exporters
of these digital goods and services. Hence,
the developed countries are in favour of
making this moratorium on e-commerce
transactions permanent. In a way, the
developed countries want that no member
country should impose customs duty on
these e-commerce transactions in future.
10. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Saffron is the most expensive spice, known
for its aroma and colour, and used for
flavouring, colouring and in medicinal and
pharmaceutical industries.
Cultivation: Saffron production is
restricted to well-drained Karewa soils in
the Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir. Pampore region is commonly
known as ‘the Saffron Bowl of Kashmir’.
Other important areas include: Budgam,
Srinagar and Kishtwar districts.
Production: Total world production of
saffron is around 300 tons per year. Iran,
India, Spain and Greece are the major
saffron producing countries.
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Productivity: Though, India occupies the
2nd largest area, but produces only 7% of
the total world production. This clearly
highlights that the countries, such as Iran,
Spain and Greece, have much higher
productivity of saffron due to technological
adoption and efficient processing.
11. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The Survey of Villages and Mapping
with Improvised Technology in
Village Areas (SVAMITVA) is a Central
Sector Scheme of the Ministry of
Panchayati Raj. E-Property Cards have
been distributed under the Scheme to
the property owners.
 One objective of the Scheme is to
facilitate the monetization of the
properties of the citizens of rural India,
by enabling them to use their property
as a financial asset by taking loans and
other financial benefits. Data for grant
of property loan through the SVAMITVA
Scheme is not maintained by the
Ministry.
 The Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR)
is implementing the Central Sector
Scheme, SVAMITVA, with the aim to
provide the ‘Record of Rights’ to the
village household owners, possessing
houses in the inhabited areas in the
villages.
 Legal ownership rights (Property
cards/Title deeds) are issued by
mapping of the land parcels, using the
drone technology.
 It is being implemented with the
collaborative efforts of the Ministry of
Panchayati Raj, the State Revenue
Department, the State Panchayati Raj
Department and the Survey of India
(SoI).
 The states need to sign a Memorandum
of Understanding (MoU) with the SoI for
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the implementation of the Scheme. So
far, 29 states, including the state of
Rajasthan, have signed the MoU with
the SoI. The Scheme aims to cover all
the villages across the country by
March, 2025.
12. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Recommendations of the 15th Finance
Commission:
 Distribution of grants between the rural
and the urban local bodies, in the ratio
of 67.5:32.5 to all tiers in the Panchayat
- Village/Block/District - create
durable community assets, improve
overall functioning and provide
employment opportunities.
 Recommend grants to all tiers of the
Panchayati Raj.
 Give grants to the Fifth and Sixth
Schedule areas and the Cantonment
Boards.
 Special focus on districts having higher
concentration of SC/ST population.
 Provide tied grants to the rural local
bodies - improve sanitation, ensure
open-defecation free (ODF) status,
supply of drinking water, rainwater
harvesting and water recycling.
 Tied grants have also been allocated to
the ULBs (urban local bodies), over and
above the Central Sponsored Schemes
for drinking water, including rainwater
harvesting and recycling, and solid
waste management.
 Differentiated the need of the larger
cities by categorising fifty million-plus
cities.
 Provided additional funds to the ULBs
for issues critical for planned
urbanization, problems of sanitation,
air quality, ground water depletion,
supply and management of water, and
efficient solid waste management.
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 The 15th Finance Commission (FC), in
its report for the period from 2021-22 to
2025-26, has divided the ULBs into two
categories:
(a) Million-plus urban
agglomerations/cities (excluding
Delhi and Srinagar); and
(a) All other cities and towns with less
than one million population (Non-
million plus cities).
 The 15th FC has recommended
separate grants for them. Out of the
total grants recommended by the
Commission for Non-Million Plus cities,
40% is basic (untied) grant and the
remaining 60% is tied grant. Basic
grants (untied) are utilised for the
location specific felt needs, except for
the payment of salary and incurring
other establishment expenditure.
13. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
PM-DevINE (Prime Minister’s
Development Initiative for North-East):
 A new scheme, PM-DevINE, was
announced while presenting the Union
Budget 2022-23.
 The Finance Minister stated that the
PM-DevINE will be implemented
through the North-Eastern Council.
 An initial allocation of Rs. 1,500 crores
will be made for the new scheme. It will
fund infrastructure, in the spirit of PM
GatiShakti, and social development
projects based on the felt needs of the
North-East.
 This will enable livelihood activities for
the youth and the women, filling the
gaps in various sectors, the Minister
explained. However, it will not be a
substitute for the existing Central or
State Schemes.
Initial List of the Projects under PM
DevINE:
 Establishment of Dedicated Services for
the Management of Paediatric and Adult
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Haemotolymphoid Cancers in North-  FIR is a written document prepared by
East India, Guwahati (Multi-State). the police, when they receive
 NECTAR Livelihood Improvement information about the commission of
Project (Multi-State). any cognizable offence. It is the first
 Promoting Scientific Organic Agriculture step towards registering of an offence,
in North-East India (Multi-State). which further leads to investigation by
 Construction of Aizawl By-Pass on the the police.
western side.  Information about any cognizable
 Gap funding for the Passenger Ropeway offence is written down by the police as
System for Pelling to Sanga-Choeling in an FIR, under Section 154 of Criminal
West Sikkim Procedure Code (Cr.PC). The term FIR,
however, is not mentioned either in the
14. Answer: (a) Indian Penal Code or the Criminal
Explanation: Procedure Code.
Cognizable Non-bailable Offence Important Constituent of Section 154 –
Offence Cr.PC:

 Cognizable  Non-bailable o Every information relating to the

offence has offence has also commission of a cognizable offence
been defined been defined must be reduced in writing.
under the Code under the Cr.PC. o Such written information about the
of Criminal  When a person is commission of the offence must be read
Procedure accused of non- over to the informant.
(Cr.PC). bailable offence, o Such written information must be
 Cognizable then in such a signed by the informant.
offence means a case, bail can Zero FIR:
case in which a only be granted  When a police station receives a
police officer by the Court and complaint regarding an alleged offence
may arrest not by an officer. that has been committed in the
without  Application for bail jurisdiction of another police station, it
warrant. has to be made in registers an FIR, and then transfers it to
 Cognizable the Court in such the concerned police station for further
offences are cases of non- investigation. This is called a Zero FIR.
usually offences bailable offence.  Since the FIR is registered outside the
which are jurisdiction of the assigned police
serious in station, no serial number is assigned to
nature, like it and instead it is assigned a number
murder, rape, “0”.
dowry death, Such FIR is registered, irrespective of
kidnapping etc. the area where the offence has been
committed. After the police station
15. Answer: (a) registers a Zero FIR, it transfers it to
Explanation: the jurisdictional police station,
First Information Report (FIR): where the offence has occurred.

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16. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Ukraine borders Belarus, Hungary, Moldova, Poland, Romania, Russia and Slovakia.

17. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
Rivers draining into the Black Sea: Danube, Dniester, Dnieper, Don.
Kyiv, the capital of Ukraine, is located on the Dnieper River.

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18. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The European Union Member States: Denmark, Sweden, Finland, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania,
Poland and Germany – and Russia are all directly bordering the Baltic Sea. Parts of Norway and
Belarus, both no riparian countries, are in the catchment area of the Baltic Sea.

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19. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The World Social Protection Report 2020-22, brought out by the International Labour
Organization (ILO), shows that spending on social protection (excluding health) in India is
1.4% of the GDP, while average for low-middle income countries is 2.5%. This continued
negligence does not bode well for inclusive development in India.

20. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
The Nord Stream 2 Pipeline is a 1,200-km pipeline that runs from Ust-Luga in Russia to
Greifswald in Germany through the Baltic Sea. Nord Stream 2 runs parallel to an existing gas
pipeline, Nord Stream, which has been working since 2011.

21. Answer: (a) Vitality and Endangerment Framework. It

Explanation: provides for 6 categories of the
The degrees of endangerment of a language endangerment of the languages.
have been based on UNESCO’s Language Endangered Languages:

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UNESCO provide a classification system to
show just how 'in trouble' the language is:
• Vulnerable: Most children speak the
language, but it may be restricted to
certain domains (e.g., home).
• Definitely endangered: The children
no longer learn the language as a
'mother tongue' in the home.
• Severely endangered: The language is
spoken by the grandparents and the
older generations, while the parent
generation may understand it, they do
not speak it to the children or among
themselves.
• Critically endangered: The youngest
speakers are the grandparents and the
older, but they speak the language
partially and infrequently.
• Extinct: There are no speakers left. As
per UNESCO, India has 197 languages
classified as ‘Languages in Danger’.
Some of these languages include:
Apatani, Asur, Bodo, Ho, Manipuri,
Jarawa, Ladakhi, etc.
Five languages from India have been
marked as extinct.
22. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Temple Location Dynasty
Kesava Temple Somnathpur Hoysala
Chennakeshava Belur Hoysala
Temple
24. Answer: (d)
Virupaksha Hampi Vijaynagar
Temple
Meenakshi Madurai Pandyas
Temple
23. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Hoysala Temple Architecture:
• A cuboid cell, Garbhagriha (sanctum
sanctorum) houses a centrally placed
Murti (enshrined icon) on a Pitha
(pedestal).
.
• Shikhara (superstructure) rises over the
Garbhagriha and together with sanctum
they form the Vimana (Mulaprasada) of
a temple.
• A ribbed stone, Amalaka, is placed atop
the Shikhara with a Kalash at its finial.
• An intermediate Antarala (vestibule)
joins the Garbhagriha to an expansive
pillared Mandapa (porch) in front,
chiefly facing east (or north).
• The temple may be approached via
entrances with gigantic Gopurams
(ornate entrance towers) towering over
each doorway.
• In the Prakaram (temple courtyard)
several minor shrines and outbuildings
often abound.
• The Vimanas are either stellate, semi–
stellate or orthogonal in plan.
• The intricately carved banded plinths, a
distinguishing characteristic of the
Hoysala temples, comprise a series of
horizontal courses that run as
rectangular strips with narrow recesses
between them.
• The temples are sometimes built on a
raised platform, or Jagati, which is used
for the purpose of a Pradakshinapatha
(circumambulation).
The Chalukyas are considered as the
inventors and the developers of the Vesara
style of architecture.
Explanation:
Books Written By Ramanujacharya:
• Vedartha-Sangraha: A treatise
presenting the tenets of Visishtadvaita,
a reconciliation of different conflicting
Shrutis.
• Sri Bhashya: A commentary on
Vedanta Sutras. Sri Bhashya is Sri
Ramanuja’s magnum opus, which is the
greatest commentary on Brahma
Sutras.
• Gita-Bhasya: A commentary on
Bhagavad-Gita.

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• Vedanta-Dipa: A commentary on
Vedanta Sutras.
• Vedanta-Sara: A commentary on
Vedanta Sutras meant for the
beginners.
• Saranagati-Gadya: A prayer of complete
surrender to the lotus feet of Lord
Srimannarayana.
• Sriranga-Gadya: A manual of self-
surrender to Lord Vishnu.
• Shri Vaikuntha Gadya: Describes Shri
Vaikuntha-Loka and the position of the
liberated souls.
• Nitya Grantha: A manual intended to
guide the devotees about day-to-day
worship and activities.
Advaita Anubhuthi is written by the
Advaita proponent Adi Shankaracharya.
25. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Vishishtadvaita:
• One of the main branches of the
Vedanta Philosophy of Hinduism.
• It is a Sanskrit term that is
commonly translated as “qualified
non-dualism” or, precisely, “non-
dualism with differentiation”.
• Ramanuja believed that knowledge
(Jnana) and devotion (Bhakti) were of
equal importance. And identified a
personal God with Absolute Reality, or
the Brahman, as mentioned in the
Upanishads and the Vedanta Sutras.
(Prapatti)
• According to the Vishishtadvaita
Philosophy, the Brahman is eternal, but
also includes the elements of plurality.
• The soul, or self, and the material world
both exist only through the Brahman.
• Vishishtadvaita does not see the world
as simply illusion, which would make it
separate from the Brahman. The
material world is a part of the
Brahman's nature.
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• Moksha, or spiritual liberation, is seen
as the joy of contemplating the
Brahman (rather than release from the
life-death-rebirth cycle), and that joy is
the result of devotion, praise, worship
and contemplating the divine perfection.
26. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In 1930, C.V. Raman became the first
person from Asia to be awarded a Nobel
Prize in any field of science. The date of the
discovery, February 28, is now celebrated
as the National Science Day in India. He
was awarded the Noble Prize in Physics for
his study on scattering of the light and the
discovery of the Raman Effect.
Applications of the Raman Effect:
• Raman amplification, based on the
Raman scattering, where the lower-
frequency photons are pumped to a
high-frequency regime with a surplus
amount of energy. This method is
applicable to telecommunications.
• Raman spectroscopy, which works on
the basis of the Raman Effect and finds
applications in various fields, like in
nanotechnology to understand the
structure of nanowires, in biology and
medicine where the low-frequency DNAs
and proteins are studied and chemistry
to understand the structure of
molecules and their bonds.
• Raman scattering is used in remote
sensing and planetary exploration.
• Raman scattering is used to sense the
minerals in Mars.
27. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A gravitational lens can occur when a huge
amount of matter, like a cluster of galaxies,
creates a gravitational field that distorts
and magnifies the light from distant
galaxies that are behind it but in the same
line of sight. The effect is like looking
through a giant magnifying glass. It allows
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researchers to study the details of early  Unclear Price Determination: Because
galaxies too far away to be seen with the crypto assets are only used to trade
current technology and telescopes. a small number of commodities, their
Smaller objects, like individual stars, can price determinations in relation to the
also act as gravitational lenses when they sovereign fiat currencies are uncertain.
pass in front of more distant stars.
 Induces Inequality: Apart from the
critical price stability difficulties, they
28. Answer: (d) also have the potential to exacerbate
Explanation: inequality, as only a few have access to
The Indian Neutrino Observatory: it.
• It is a proposed Particle Physics  Environmental Impact: The overall
Research Mega Project.
carbon footprint of the crypto
• The objective of the Project is to study currencies is comparable to that of a
neutrinos in a 1,200-metre-deep cave.
few megacities, and mining assets in
• The Project is proposed to be set up at
this manner is unwieldy, energy-
Pottipuram village, in Theni district, in
inefficient and unsustainable.
Tamil Nadu.
• The proposed site in Theni district
was identified because the rock burden 30. Answer: (a)
of over 1 km in all directions shields the Explanation:
detector from other cosmic rays. The amount of energy produced from
• Since neutrinos can easily pass through fusion is very large – four times (400%) as
anything, they will reach the detector, much as the nuclear fission reactions.
while other particles will be filtered out
As of now, nuclear fusion energy is using
by the rocks in the mountains.
higher atoms of hydrogen, and not oxygen
• The geographical location is also
or nitrogen.
peculiar, as all the existing neutrino
detectors (in other countries) are at No country, including India, produces
latitudes larger than 35 degrees North nuclear fusion energy for commercial
or South. purpose.
The International Thermonuclear
29. Answer: (d) Experimental Reactor (ITER) is an
Explanation: International Nuclear Fusion Research and
Issues with Application for Crypto Mega Engineering Project. This Project aims
Currencies: at transition from the experimental studies
 Currency qualities and monetary of plasma physics to full scale electricity
regulations have developed and are well producing fusion power station. So, it will
regulated, and it is unclear if crypto be producing great amount of energy in
currencies are compatible with them. very less time and this has not been
 Macro-economic consequences of achieved in any fusion reactor. In this
Blockchain-based crypto currencies are Project, 7 members are participating
not well-understood. (funding and running), viz., the European
 The value of the crypto assets is Union, India, Japan, China, Russia, South
determined by their ability to be Korea and the United States. The focus of
swapped for other currencies. the Project is to develop a fusion reactor
that used helium 3 and deuterium.

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31. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Tokamak, a device used in nuclear-fusion research for magnetic confinement of plasma. It
consists of a complex system of magnetic fields that confine the plasma of reactive charged
particles in a hollow, doughnut-shaped container.

32. Answer: (d)

Explanation:
Recently, India has got Asia’s largest Bio-CNG plant in Indore. CNG stands for ‘compressed
natural gas.’ Bio-CNG is a renewable fuel obtained by purifying Biogas – in contrast to CNG,
which is a non-renewable source of energy. Biomethane can also be compressed and bottled
into cylinders, and it is called Bio-CNG, or simply Compressed Biogas (CBG). It contains about
92%-98% of methane and only 2%-8% carbon dioxide. The calorific value of Bio-CNG is about
52,000 kilojoules per kg, which is 167% higher than that of Biogas. High methane content
and calorific value, combined with the low quantity of moisture, hydrogen sulphide and
impurities, make Bio-CNG an ideal fuel for automobiles and power generation. The low emission
levels of Bio-CNG make it a more environment-friendly fuel than Biogas.

33. Answer: (b) (iv) Soil and water quality appraisal in the
Explanation: salt affected land forms of Nagapattinam
The National Natural Resources district (Tamil Nadu), using the Remote
Management System (NNRMS) scheme of Sensing (RS) and the Geographic
the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Information System (GIS) techniques; (v)
Climate Change is a Central Sector Application of remote sensing for integrated
Scheme. The prime objective of the NNRMS land use, water and energy management in
scheme is the utilization of the Remote the rural areas: Exploring energy
Sensing Technology for inventorization, plantation opportunities, public systems
assessment and monitoring of the country’s group; (vi) Land use dynamics and their
natural resources. impact on micro-elements, structure,
composition and diversity of the
The major achievements of the scheme,
Achanakumar - Amarkantak Biosphere
inter alia, include: (i) Development of
Reserve, using the satellite remote sensing
knowledge-based decision tool to simulate
and the GIS techniques; and (vii) Natural
the mechanism of vegetation change, due
resources assessment of selected eco-
to climatic change in the Western
tourism sites of Gujarat and its associated
Himalayan Eco-region; (ii) Monitoring of
environments, using remote sensing and
snow and glaciers of the Himalayan Region;
GIS.
(iii) Desertification status mapping of India;

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34. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Satkosia Tiger Reserve is located in
Odisha's Angul district. In 2007, it was
designated as a Tiger Reserve. It comprises
two adjoining sanctuaries of Central
Odisha, named the Satkosia Gorge
Sanctuary and the Baisipalli Sanctuary. It
is located in the Eastern Ghats
Mountains, where the Mahanadi River
flows through a deep gorge. It provides a
habitat for the moist deciduous forests, dry
deciduous forests and moist peninsular Sal
forests.
35. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is the
second largest Wildlife Sanctuary in
Kerala. It is an integral part of the Nilgiri
Biosphere Reserve. It is bounded by the
Nagarhole National Park and the Bandipur
National Park in Karnataka in the north-
east, and on the south-east by the
Mudumalai National Park in Tamil Nadu.
The Periyar National Park is the largest
Wildlife Sanctuary in Kerala.
36. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Seshachalam hills are the hilly ranges
part of the Eastern Ghats in southern
.
Andhra Pradesh. In 2010, it was designated
as a Biosphere Reserve. It is famous for the
Red Sanders trees. It was formed during
the Precambrian era. Minerals contained in
these hills include sandstone and shale,
interbedded with limestone. They are
bounded by the Rayalaseema Uplands to
the west and north-west, and the Nandyal
Valley to the north. Tirupati, a major Hindu
pilgrimage town, is in the hills.
37. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Crimson Rose is a large swallow-tail
butterfly, belonging to the genus Pachliopta
(roses) of the red-bodied swallow-tails. A
black butterfly, with two white bands on
the forewing and two rows of bright
crimson patches on the hindwing. The
shapes of the crimson patches vary. It is
found in India, Sri Lanka, Maldives and
possibly the coast of western Myanmar. In
India, it is found in the Western Ghats,
southern India (Tamil Nadu and Kerala)
and eastern India (West Bengal and
Odisha). It is a straggler in the Andaman
Islands. It is categorised as ‘Least Concern’
as per the IUCN Red List.

38. Answer: (d)

Explanation:
The single-use plastics are the goods made primarily from the fossil fuel–based chemicals (petro-
chemicals) and are meant to be disposed of right after use. Candy sticks, bottles, wrappers,
straws, bags, polystyrene (thermocol) for decoration and wrapping/packaging films around
sweet boxes are the examples of single-use plastics.
Pollution due to single-use plastic items has become an environmental challenge confronting
humanity. The Government of India notified the Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules,
2021, prohibiting identified single-use plastic items by 2022. In the 5th United Nations
Environment Assembly, a historic resolution was passed to end plastic pollution. It committed
the nations forge an international legally binding agreement by 2024 to end plastic pollution.
The resolution addresses the full lifecycle of plastic, including its production, design and
disposal. India imposed a nationwide ban on plastic bags, cups and straws on 2nd October,
2019, in its most effective measure to stamp out the single-use plastics from the cities and the
villages. India has received international praise for its “Beat Plastic Pollution” resolution, which

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was announced on the World Environment Day (5 June) last year and committed to eliminate
the single-use plastic by 2022.
39. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
"Special Court" under the Lokpal Act
means the court of a Special Judge,
appointed under the Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988.
According to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas
Act, 2013, a bench consisting of not less
than 3 members of the Lokpal shall
consider every report received from the
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), the
Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), or
other competent authority –
(a) May grant sanction to its Prosecution
Wing or the investigating agency to file
charge-sheet or direct the closure of
report before the Special Court against
the public servant.
(b) May direct the competent authority to
initiate the departmental proceedings or
any other appropriate action against the
concerned public servant.
The Lokpal may, after taking a decision on
the filing of the charge-sheet, direct its
Prosecution Wing or any investigating
agency, including the CBI, to initiate
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prosecution in the Special Court in
respect of the cases investigated by the
agency.
The Lokpal Act provides supervisory power
of the Lokpal over the CVC and the CBI.
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act do not
empower the Lokayukta to conduct
inquiry and investigations on the Chief
Minister.
The jurisdiction of the Lokpal to include the
Prime Minister, the Ministers, the Members
of the Parliament, Groups A, B, C and D
officers and the officials of the Central
Government.
However, the Lokpal shall not inquire into
any allegation of corruption against the
Prime Minister on the matters of
international relations, external and
internal security, public order, atomic
energy and space, unless a full bench of
the Lokpal, consisting of its Chairperson
and all members, considers the initiation of
inquiry and at least two-thirds of its
members approves of such inquiry.
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40. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Important Global Events on Road Safety:
o 2010 – Reduce Road Accidents by 50% by 2020 - The United Nations General Assembly
adopted the Global Plan for the Decade of Action for Road Safety 2011-2020, aimed at
reducing fatalities in road accidents by 50% by the year 2020.
o 2015 – The Brasilia Declaration was finalized at the Second Global High Level
Conference on Road Safety, held in Brazil. It laid down the recommendations on
strengthening the existing legislations, adopting sustainable transport and strengthening
post-crash response. In the Declaration, the participants re-asserted their commitment to
reduce the deaths caused due to traffic accidents to half by the year 2020. This target was
set under the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Goal 3.6.
o 2020 - Reduce Road Accidents to Zero by 2030 – The Third High Level Global
Conference on Road Safety for Achieving Global Goals 2030 – where it was
conceptualised to have zero road fatalities in India by 2030.

Targets of the Sustainable Development Goal 3 to ensure healthy lives and promote well-being
for all at all ages.
3.1. Maternal Mortality: By 2030, reduce the global maternal mortality ratio to less than 70
per 1,00,000 live births.
3.2. Neonatal and Child Mortality: By 2030, end preventable deaths of the new-borns and
children under 5 years of age, with all countries aiming to reduce neonatal mortality to at least
as low as 12 per 1,000 live births and under-5 mortality to at least as low as 25 per 1,000 live
births.

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3.3. Infectious Diseases: By 2030, end the epidemics of AIDS, tuberculosis, malaria and
neglected tropical diseases, and combat hepatitis, waterborne diseases and other communicable
diseases.
3.4. Non-communicable Diseases: By 2030, reduce by one-third premature mortality from
non-communicable diseases through prevention and treatment, and promote mental health and
well-being.
3.5. Substance Abuse: Strengthen the prevention and treatment of substance abuse, including
narcotic drug abuse and harmful use of alcohol.
3.6. Road Traffic: By 2020, halve the number of global deaths and injuries from road traffic
accidents.
3.7. Sexual and Reproductive Health: By 2030, ensure universal access to sexual and
reproductive health-care services, including for family planning, information and education, and
the integration of reproductive health into national strategies and programmes.
3.8. Universal Health Coverage: Achieve universal health coverage, including financial risk
protection, access to quality essential health-care services, and access to safe, effective, quality
and affordable essential medicines and vaccines for all.
3.9. Environmental Health: By 2030, substantially reduce the number of deaths and illnesses
from hazardous chemicals and air, water and soil pollution and contamination.

41. Answer: (c) and universities, subject to the

Explanation:
Delivery versus Payment (DvP) is the mode
of settlement of securities wherein the
transfer of securities and funds happen
simultaneously. This ensures that unless
the funds are paid, the securities are not
delivered and vice versa. DvP settlement
eliminates the settlement risk in
transactions. There are three types of DvP
settlements, viz., DvP I, II and III
42. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Call money market is a market for
uncollateralized lending and borrowing of
funds. This market is predominantly
overnight and is open for participation only
to scheduled commercial banks and the
primary dealers.
44. Answer: (b)
43. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
o Entry 25 of the Concurrent List allows
both the State and the Centre to
legislate on education, including
technical education, medical education
provisions of Entries 63, 64, 65 and
66 of the Union List.
o Entry 26 of the Concurrent List:
Legal, medical and other professions.
o So, based on Entry 25 of the
Concurrent List, two things are clear:
1. The State Government can legislate
on the matters pertaining to medical
education.
2. However, the State Government
cannot legislate on such matters
provided under Entries 63, 64, 65
and 66 of the Union List.
State List:
o Entry 32 of the State List -
Incorporation, regulation and winding
up of corporations, other than those
specified in List I and universities.
Explanation:
Offences under Part C of the Schedule of
the Prevention of Money Laundering Act,
2002 (PMLA), deal with trans-border crimes
and reflects the dedication to tackle money
laundering across global boundaries.
Special Courts have been set-up in a

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number of States/UTs by the Central
Government to conduct the trial of the
offences of money laundering. The
authorities under the Act, like the Director,
Adjudicating Authority and the Appellate
Tribunal, have been constituted to carry
out the proceedings related to attachment
and confiscation of any property derived
from money laundering.
Section 25 of the PMLA: The Appellate
Tribunal, constituted under the Smugglers
and Foreign Exchange Manipulators
(Forfeiture of Property) Act, 1976, shall
be the Appellate Tribunal for hearing the
appeals against the orders of the
Adjudicating Authority and the other
authorities under the Prevention of Money
Laundering Act, 2002.
Offences:
Under the PMLA, the commission of any
offence, as mentioned in Part A and Part C
of the Schedule of the PMLA, will attract
the provisions of the PMLA. Some of the
Acts and offences, which may attract the
PMLA, are enumerated below:
 Part A enlists the offences under
various Acts, such as: The Indian Penal
Code; the Narcotics Drugs and
Psychotropic Substances Act; the
Prevention of Corruption Act; the
Antiquities and Art Treasures Act; the
Copyright Act; the Trademark Act; the
Wildlife (Protection) Act; and the
Information Technology Act.
 Part B specifies the offences that are
Part A offences, but the value involved
in such offences is Rs. 1 crore or more.
 Part C deals with trans-border crimes
and reflects the dedication to tackle
money laundering across global
boundaries.
45. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Bachan Singh v/s the State of Punjab,
1980:
o Hanging is done in India in the rarest of
rare cases as per the Criminal
Procedure Code.
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o In a major landmark case of Bachan
Singh v/s the State of Punjab, the
Supreme Court held that the death
penalty given to a convict is
constitutional and will be done in the
rarest of rare cases.
o The Court said that death penalty is a
lawful infliction of death by the state as
a punishment for wrongful and heinous
committed by the accused.
o The Court said that capital
punishment is not against the Right
to life and personal liberty, as
guaranteed under Article 21, because
death penalty through capital
punishment has been established
under law (Section 366 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure) and is a legal
process.
o Thus, the state is empowered to take
away the life of the citizens through
procedure established by law, if they are
found guilty of crime committed which
is punishable with death penalty and is
a rarest of rare cases.
The Capital Punishment is based on ‘the
deterrent theory of punishment’ and instils
the fear of punishment, including death
among the wrong doers.
The Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.PC):
 Section 366: When the Court of
Sessions passes a sentence of death,
the proceedings shall be submitted to
the High Court, and the sentence shall
not be executed unless it is confirmed
by the High Court.
 Section 368: In any case submitted
under section 366, the High Court –
(a) may confirm the sentence, or pass
any other sentence warranted by
law, or
(b) may annul the conviction and
convict the accused of any offence of
which the Court of Sessions might
have convicted him, or order a new
trial on the same or an amended
charge, or
(c) may acquit the accused person.
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 Section 369: The death sentence shall
be presided by a Division Bench (A
Bench of 2 judges or more) and the
order should be signed by at least two
judges of the Bench.
46. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The CCIL is the clearing agency for G-Secs.
It acts as a Central Counter Party (CCP) for
all transactions in G-Secs by interposing
itself between two counterparties. In effect,
during settlement, the CCP becomes the
seller to the buyer and buyer to the seller of
the actual transaction.
CCIL also guarantees settlement of all
trades in G-Secs. That means, during the
settlement process, if any participant fails
to provide funds/securities, CCIL will make
the same available from its own means. For
this purpose, CCIL collects margins from
all participants and maintains ‘Settlement
Guarantee Fund’.
47. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
LAF is a facility extended by RBI to the
scheduled commercial banks (excluding
RRBs) and Primary Dealers to avail of
liquidity in case of requirement or park
excess funds with RBI in case of excess
liquidity on an overnight basis against the
collateral of G-Secs (Government Security)
including State Development Loans (SDLs).
Basically, LAF enables liquidity
management on a day to day basis. The
operations of LAF are conducted by way of
repurchase agreements (repos and reverse
repos) with RBI being the counter-party to
all the transactions. The interest rate in
LAF is fixed by RBI from time to time.
LAF is an important tool of monetary policy
and liquidity management.
The accounting norms to be followed by
market participants for repo/reverse repo
transactions under LAF and MSF (Marginal
Standing Facility) of RBI are aligned with
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the accounting guidelines prescribed for
market repo transactions.
In order to distinguish repo/reverse repo
transactions with RBI from market repo
transactions, a parallel set of accounts
similar to those maintained for market repo
transactions but prefixed with ‘RBI’ may be
maintained.
48. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of
strong wind in the upper levels of the
atmosphere. The winds blow from west to
east in jet streams but the flow often shifts
to the north and south. Jet streams follow
the boundaries between hot and cold air.
Since these hot and cold air boundaries are
most pronounced in winter, jet streams are
the strongest for both the northern and
southern hemisphere winters.
The earth's rotation is responsible for the
jet stream as well.
49. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Fixed Income Money Market and
Derivatives Association of India (FIMMDA),
an association of Scheduled Commercial
Banks, Public Financial Institutions,
Primary Dealers and Insurance Companies
was incorporated as a Company under the
Companies Act, 1956.
FIMMDA is a voluntary market body for the
bond, money and derivatives markets.
FIMMDA has members representing all
major institutional segments of the market.
50. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
S.No. Place Location
1. Mohenjo-daro Sindh
2. Sutkagen Dor Balochistan
3. Ropar Punjab
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