1658808319CSR E May 2022 IAS Supplement

MOCK TEST
CURRENT AFFAIRS
1. Consider the following statements about the Pradhan 5. Consider the following statements:
Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY): 1. The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is a treaty
1. The Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana based inter-governmental organisation, working to
was announced in 2008. create a global market system to tap the benefits
2. Its objective is to correct the regional imbalances of solar power and promote clean energy
in the availability of affordable/reliable tertiary applications.
healthcare services and also to augment facilities 2. The vision of the International Solar Alliance is
for quality medical education in the country. to enable ‘One World, One Sun, One Grid’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. The International Solar Alliance was launched
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only jointly by India and Germany.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Consider the following statements: (a) 2 and 3 only
1. The MSF is a tool used by the banks to borrow (b) 1 and 2 only
money from the RBI on an overnight basis. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. The mechanism is similar to the Repo transaction. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Under the MSF, the banks use the G-Secs, which 6. Which of the following are the components of the
are part of the SLR to borrow money from the Human Capital Index?
RBI. 1. Survival
Which of the statements given above are correct? 2. Expected years of quality-adjusted school
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only 3. Standard of living
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3. Consider the following statements: (a) 2 and 3 only
1. The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (b) 1 and 2 only
(PMMSY) is a flagship scheme for focused and (c) 1 and 3 only
sustainable development of the fisheries sector in
the country. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The PMMSY aims at enhancing fish production 7. Which of the following are the components of the
by an additional 7,00,000 lakh tonne by 2024-25. Human Development Index?
3. The PMMSY primarily focuses on adopting the 1. Life Expectancy Index
‘cluster or area-based approaches’ and creation of 2. Education Index
the fisheries clusters through backward and forward 3. Health Environment
linkages. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 8. Consider the following statements about the Baltic Dry
4. Consider the following statements about the Singapore Index (BDI):
Convention on mediation:
1. The Baltic Dry Index is an economic indicator
1. The Singapore Convention was developed and
adopted by the WTO. issued daily by the London-based Baltic Exchange.
2. The Convention provides for a uniform and 2. The Index provides an assessment of the price of
efficient framework for the enforcement of the moving major raw materials by sea.
international settlement agreements, resulting from 3. If the Index increases, it means that the freight
mediation and for allowing the parties to invoke rates have increased, which indicate higher demand
such agreements. for the raw materials, such as coal, iron-ore, etc.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, MAY 2022 91
MOCK TEST
9. Consider the following statements about the Global 2. Damaging property in India or in a foreign country
Innovation Index: in a terrorist activity.
1. The Global Innovation Index is published by the 3. Damaging monetary stability in India by circulating
International Monetary Fund. high quality counterfeit Indian paper currency.
2. Its 80 indicators explore a broad vision of Select the correct answer using the code given below:
innovation, including political environment, (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
education, infrastructure and business (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
sophistication.
15. The Question Hour is generally used in the Parliament
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
for which of the following purposes?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Ensuring accountability in working of the executive
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 only through the unstarred questions.
10. Consider the following statements:
2. Helping the members of the Parliament to carry
1. The Department of Posts has launched a scheme out their basic responsibilities as the people’s
called Five Star Villages. representatives.
2. It has been used to ensure universal coverage of
flagship postal schemes in the rural and the urban 3. Eliciting wider debates on important subject
areas of the country. matters of legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
11. Consider the following statements: 16. Which of the following changes has/have been
1. Blue-green algae are a type of multicellular algae. introduced through the Foreign Contribution
2. Blue-g reen algae are mainly aquatic and (Regulation) Amendment Act, 2020?
photosynthetic. 1. It has made Aadhaar a mandatory identification
3. All algal blooms produce harmful toxins, which document for the office-bearers, directors and
can cause damage to the biodiversity. other key functionaries of the NGO eligible to
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? receive the foreign funding.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 2. The use of foreign funding for administrative
(c) 3 only (d) 2 only purpose for an organisation has been increased
12. Which of the following statements is incorrect from 20% to 50%.
regarding the Climate Smart Cities Assessment 3. Provision for the surrender of the Certificate of
Framework (CSCAF) 2.0? Registration has been added.
(a) It intends to inculcate a ‘Climate-Sensitive Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Approach’ to urban planning and development. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) It attempts to address both the mitigation and (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of the above
adaptation measures. 17. The Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, was
(c) It gives the highest weightage to the “Mobility legislated to provide for the details of the functioning
and Air Quality” sector. of the Union Territories having Legislative Assembly.
(d) The Climate Centre for Cities under the National It contains which of the following provisions regarding
Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is supporting such Union Territories?
the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in the
implementation of the CSCAF. 1. Delimitation of the constituencies for the elections
to the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory.
13. Consider the following statements about the South
Asian River Dolphins: 2. Failure of the constitutional machinery in the
1. The Ganges River Dolphin is found only in India Union Territories having Legislative Assembly.
and Bangladesh. 3. Duration of the Legislative Assemblies.
2. The South Asian River Dolphins rely on Select the correct answer using the code given below:
echolocation to find prey due to their poor (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
eyesight. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The Ganges River Dolphin is protected under 18. The National Programme for Civil Services Capacity
Schedule I of India’s Wildlife (Protection), Act, Building (NPCSCB) has been launched with the
1972. objective of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Changing the syllabus of the UPSC Examination
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only for Civil Services.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Enhancing governance through civil ser vice
14. The Central Government can use the Unlawful capacity building.
Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, against an individual (c) Changing the system of lateral entry in higher
or an association for which of the following purposes? bureaucracy.
1. Public speech carrying the message of cession of (d) Providing special focus on local governance for
a part of the territory of India from the Union. freshly recruited bureaucrats.
92 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, MAY 2022
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19. Consider the following statements: (c) The process of verification relies mainly on the
1. The ‘Quadrilateral Group’ is a formal grouping evaluation of the declaration of the member
among 4 nations. countries.
2. The meeting of the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (d) The OPCW was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize
has been regularly held since 2007. in 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 25. Which of the following statements about the Chemical
Weapons Convention are incorrect ?
1. It only outlaws the production and stockpiling of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the chemical weapons, not their use.
20. Consider the following statements regarding the 13th 2. It is administered by the Organization for the
Amendment to the Constitution of Sri Lanka: Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW), based
1. Sri Lanka is a unitary country, which means that in The Hague, The Netherlands.
most powers are concentrated at the centre. 3. All the toxic gases have been banned by the
2. It can be traced to the India-Sri Lanka Accord of Convention.
1987. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3. It was opposed vociferously by both the Sinhala (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Nationalist Parties and the LTTE. (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above are correct? 26. Consider the following statements regarding the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Pangong Tso Lake:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. A portion of water of the lake comes from the
21. India, Australia and France recently held the first Indo- Shyok River.
Pacific Trilateral Dialogue. Which of the following were 2. It has been added into the List of Ramsar Sites
the issues discussed during the meeting? from India.
1. Security and adherence to the international law in Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the Indo-Pacific region. (a) 1 only
2. Co-operation towards global commons. (b) 2 only
3. Priorities, challenges and trends in the regional (c) Both 1 and 2
and the global multilateral institutions. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 27. Which of the following sets of countries adjoins the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Caspian Sea?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Russia, Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan and
Iran
22. Consider the following statements about the Conference
on Interaction and Confidence-Building Measures in (b) Russia, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan, Azerbaijan and
Asia (CICA): Iran
(c) Russia, Turkmenistan, Azerbaijan, Armenia and
1. It is a multi-stakeholder forum for ensuring peace Iran
in Asia.
(d) Russia, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan and
2. For becoming a member of the CICA, the capital Iran
of a country must lie within Asia. 28. Consider the following statements about the “Global
3. The highest decision-making organ is the meeting Indices to Drive Reforms and Growth (GIRG)”:
of the CICA heads of state and government. 1. It is a programme of the Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. It aims to utilise select global indices to monitor
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only and measure India’s performance.
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
23. Consider the following statements regarding the G4 (a) 1 only
nations: (b) 2 only
1. G4’s primary aim is to reform the Bretton Woods (c) Both 1 and 2
institutions to enable them to focus on the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
developing countries. 29. Consider the following statements about the Global
2. These groups of nations are supported by the Multidimensional Poverty Index:
Uniting for Consensus Movement. 1. It tracks access to sanitation, cooking fuel and
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? electricity.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. All the countries, which are part of the UN, are
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 tracked by the Index.
24. Which of the following statements regarding the 3. The Index has been developed by the World Bank.
“Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Weapons (OPCW)” is incorrect ? (a) 1 only
(a) It is an intergovernmental organisation. (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) Its motto is to permanently and verifiably eliminate (c) 2 and 3 only
the chemical weapons. (d) 1 and 3 only
MOCK TEST
30. Consider the following statements about the 36. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019: S.N. Harappan Sites Location
1. The act provides for reser vations in public
employment and education for the transgender 1. Harappa Ravi
persons. 2. Mohenjo-Daro Dasht
2. The act provides for the transgenders the right to
residence with parents. 3. Lothal Ghaggar
3. Once a gender identity is issued, a person cannot 4. Kalibangan Bhogawa
change it under the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. Consider the following statements about the 37. Which of the following animals were domesticated in
Aspirational Districts Programme: the Indus Valley Civilisation?
1. It is a programme under the Ministry of Rural 1. Goats
Development. 2. Sheep
2. The programme is running in all rural districts of 3. Pigs
the country. 4. Oxen
3. The programme focuses on the convergence of Select the correct answer using the code given below:
the schemes.
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 38. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
32. Consider the following statements: 1. The Renandu Cholas were the feudatories of the
Chola dynasty.
1. The Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana is a
scheme of the Ministry of Rural Development. 2. The Renandu Cholas used Telugu in administration
2. The VISVAS Scheme aims to provide interest and inscriptions, instead of Sanskrit.
subvention for the Scheduled Castes and the Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Scheduled Tribes. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 39. Which of the following statements are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The Cholas maintained an efficient navy.
33. Consider the following statements about KIRAN: 2. The emblem of the Cholas was lion.
1. It is mental health helpline. 3. Puhar was the chief port town of the Cholas.
2. It has been launched by the Ministry of Health Select the correct answer using the code given below:
and Family Welfare.
3. The service will be available in Hindi and English (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
only. (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 40. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only 1. The Chola empire was divided into Mandalams.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The inscriptions belonging to the period of
34. Consider the following statements about women: Rajendra I, found at Uttiramerur, provide the
1. The states cannot provide more than one-third details of the formation and functions of the
reservation to the women in the Panchayati Raj Village Councils.
Institutions. 3. Both Saivism and Vaishnavism continued to
2. The state can make special provision in favour of flourish during the Chola period.
the women under Article 15.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 3 only
35. Which of the following statements are correct about (c) 1 and 2 only
the Indus Valley Civilisation? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The Indus Valley Civilisation was the Bronze Age 41. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Civilisation. 1. The Pulikali folk art form is related to Kerala.
2. The Harappan city was divided into the upper 2. It is performed during Onam.
town, called the Citadel and the lower town.
3. There was no use of the burnt bricks in the Indus
Valley Civilisation. (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
MOCK TEST
42. Which of the following statements are correct about 1. Its mandate includes combating money laundering,
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar? terror financing and proliferation of weapons of
1. He compiled the Bengali translation of Shakuntala. mass destruction.
2. He played a great role in the passing of the law 2. Currently, only Iran is included in the FATF Black
which made the marriage of the widows legal List.
during the tenure of Lord Canning. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3. He opposed child marriage and polygamy. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only 48. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 the Gilgit-Baltistan region?
43. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? (a) The Deosai plains, considered as the world’s
second highest plateau, are located in this region.
S.N. Term Meaning (b) It lies between the Karakoram Range and the Great
Himalayan Range.
1. Vish Group of many villages,
headed by the Vishpati (c) Hindu Kush lies west of this region.
(d) All of the above
2. Bali Voluntary tax paid by the 49. Consider the following statements about the Malabar
people Exercise:
3. Pautavadh- Officer of the state treasury 1. The 2020 edition of the Malabar Exercise saw the
yaksha participation of all the four Quad countries.
4. Sannidhata Officer of weights and measures 2. It started as a bilateral naval exercise between India
and the USA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 2 only 50. Consider the following statements about the North
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO):
44. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. It is an alliance of 30 countries from North
America, South America and Europe.
S.N. Term Meaning
2. The fundamental role of NATO is to safeguard
1. Brahmadeya Tax free land given to the the freedom and security of its member countries
Brahmanas by political and military means.
3. NATO has no role in Afghanistan.
2. Ghatikas Irrigation device
4. The official languages of NATO are English,
3. Ur Gram Sabha French and German.
4. Araghatta Schools/Colleges Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only 51. The Non-Aligned Movement campaigned for which
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the following practices?
45. The Global Cybersecurity Index is published by which 1. De-colonisation
of the following? 2. Universal nuclear disarmament
(a) The World Economic Forum 3. Apartheid
(b) The World Bank 4. Socialism
(c) The Organization for Economic Co-operation and Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Development (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
46. Nagaland touches the boundaries of which of the 52. Consider the following statements about the Global
following states? Value Chains (GVCs):
1. Assam 1. The Global Value Chains (GVCs) refer to the
2. Meghalaya international fragmentation of the production
3. Manipur process.
4. Mizoram 2. Participation in the Global Value Chains (GVCs)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: can lead to increased job creation and economic
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only growth.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
47. With respect to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
which of the following statements is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
MOCK TEST
53. Which of the following are covered under the definition 2. It has recommended in its report, among other
of “Farmer” for the National Policy for Farmers? things, making privately held non-personal data
1. Poultry and livestock rearers “open”.
2. Non-corporate planters Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Tribal families engaged in shifting cultivation (a) 1 only
4. Pastoralists (b) 2 only
5. Agricultural labourers (c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only 59. ACE-2 enzyme, often heard in the news, is most closely
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only related to which of the following?
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (a) Natural defence ag ainst the Human
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
54. Consider the following statements about Bt cotton: (b) Better immunity by the virtue of more ‘white blood
cells’ development.
1. Bt cotton is an insect-resistant transgenic crop
designed to combat the bollworm. (c) Control of blood pressure.
2. Bt cotton was introduced in India in 2002. (d) Cure of type-II diabetes mellitus.
Which of the statements given below is/are correct? 60. Which of the following statements is correct with
regard to Bradykinin?
(a) Bradykinin causes the blood vessels to expand,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 leading to the swelling of the surrounding tissue.
55. Consider the following statements about the “Brasilia (b) Bradykinin causes the blood vessels to contract,
Declaration on Road Safety”: leading to the shrinking of the surrounding tissue.
1. It was adopted in a Global High-Level Conference (c) Bradykinin causes the heartbeat rate to increase,
on Road Safety, sponsored by the WHO. causing higher blood circulation in the body.
2. The Declaration favoured walking and cycling. (d) Bradykinin causes the heartbeat rate to decrease,
3. It was adopted in 2020. causing lower blood circulation in the body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 61. Which of the following can be said to be the
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only advantage(s) of the scramjet engine?
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. It has less weight, as it does not carry the oxygen
56. Consider the following statements about the National tank.
Statistical Organisation (NSO) Survey Report on digital 2. It is easy to manufacture, as there are no rotating
divide: parts.
1. Bihar has the country’s lowest literacy rate. 3. Steam is released as the exhaust gas, which is eco-
friendly in nature.
2. Himachal Pradesh and Kerala are the only states
where more than half of all households have Select the correct answer using the code given below:
internet. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only 62. Consider the following statements about the Hypersonic
Missile:
(b) 2 only 1. It has higher manoeuvring capabilities and difficult
(c) Both 1 and 2 to trace, compared to other ballistic and cruise
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 missiles.
57. Consider the following statements about PM SVANidhi: 2. Agni-V is the first Hypersonic Ballistic Missile of
1. The Scheme was launched by the Ministry of India.
Home Affairs to help the street vendors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. The Scheme is available for the beneficiaries (a) 1 only
belonging to all the states. (b) 2 only
3. The benefits can be availed by the street vendors (c) Both 1 and 2
in the urban, pre-urban and rural areas. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 63. Which of the following is/are the possible application(s)
(a) 3 only of the CRISPR-Cas9 technology?
(b) 2 only 1. Gene editing
(c) 1 and 2 only 2. Viral infection detection
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Targeted drug delivery
58. Consider the following statements about the Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Gopalakrishnan Committee: (a) 1 only
1. The Gopalakrishnan Committee is a Committee (b) 1 and 2 only
of Experts on the Non-Personal Data Governance (c) 1 and 3 only
Framework. (d) 1, 2 and 3
MOCK TEST
64. With reference to the Blockchain Technology, consider 69. “It is a critically endangered omnivorous animal found
the following statements: in some of the most remote mountain regions of
1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but Nepal, India, Pakistan and Tibet. It prefers high-altitude,
which no single user controls. open valleys. In recent times, its population is dwindling
2. The structure and design of the blockchain is such due to the man-animal conflict, rapid habitat loss and
that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency poaching”. Which animal is this?
only. (a) Snow Leopard
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Red Panda
(a) 1 only (c) Himalayan Brown Bear
(b) 2 only (d) Himalayan Wolf
(c) Both 1 and 2 70. Consider the following statements about the D614G
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 mutation:
65. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 1. It is one of the dominant variants of the novel
coronavirus, that occurs when the virus, upon
S.N. Space Mission Country / Space entering an individual’s body, makes an error in
Agency creating copies of itself.
2. It has shown increased infectivity and greater ability
1. Akatsuki Orbiter Japan at attaching itself to the cell walls inside an
2. Venus Express NASA individual’s nose and throat, and increasing the
3. Shukrayaan-1 ISRO viral load.
(a) 1 only
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
66. Which of the following statements is/are correct with 71. Consider the following statements about the Spiral
regard to Venus? Galaxy Bars:
1. It has heavy atmosphere of carbon dioxide. 1. Bars are a complex dynamic structure that prevent
star formation, as the region covered by the length
2. It is the hottest planet in our solar system. of the bar does not have enough gas.
3. Traces of phosphine, a biomarker, have been 2. The Milky Way is a Barred Spiral Galaxy.
discovered in its atmosphere.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
67. Which of the following statements is/are correct
regarding NASA’s Artemis Programme? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It will send first woman to the lunar surface by 72. Consider the following statements:
the year 2024. 1. There were bureaucratic organisations in the Indus
2. It will land astronauts on the Moon’s South Pole. Valley Civilisation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2. The Harappans used dairy for their household only.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
68. Which of the following statements are correct about (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the GIFT City? 73. The term “Rainbow New Deal”, which was in the
1. It is developed as a Vertical City. news, can be associated with which of the following?
2. It is located on the banks of the Narmada River. 1. Ecological protection of the natural resources
3. It consists of a Multi-Service Special Economic 2. Tackling wealth inequality
Zone and an Exclusive Domestic Area. 3. Sustainable public sector initiatives for the
4. It is being developed as the country’s first marginalised section
International Financial Services Centre (IFSC). 4. Reviving India’s craft
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 4 only (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
MOCK TEST
74. The Official Languages Act, 1963, provides for which 79. Which among the following sources of renewable
of the following? energy comes/come under the policy of Renewable
1. Only English shall be used for certain specified Purchase Obligation (RPO) in India?
purposes, like resolutions, rules, general orders, 1. Solar power
notifications, administrative and other reports. 2. Small hydro-power projects (Less than 25 MW)
2. Optional use of Hindi or other official language 3. Large hydro-power projects (More than 25 MW)
in the judgments of the Supreme Court. 4. Ocean energy
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
75. Consider the following statements about the National
Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR): 80. Consider the following statements related to the
Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF):
1. The NCPCR has been added in the Indian
Constitution through the Constitution (Forty- 1. It was set up through an Act of Parliament to
Second Amendment) Act, 1976. improve telecom services in the rural areas.
2. The NCPCR is empowered to inquire into the 2. The financial resources for this Fund are raised
violation of child rights and recommend initiation through Universal Service Levy (USL) of 5% of
of proceedings in such cases. the Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR) of the telecom
3. The NCPCR shall submit an annual report to the service providers.
Central Government and such report of the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Commission shall be laid before each House of (a) 1 only
the Parliament. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only 81. With reference to the Defence Acquisition Procedure
(c) 1 and 3 only (DAP), 2020, consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. All international defence deals with capital
76. The Vulture Funds, sometimes seen in the news, are: purchases of above Rs. 2,000 crore would have an
(a) Funds which invest in the conservation of the offset clause of 30%.
vultures. 2. The offset obligations in case of the Inter-
(b) Funds which invest in the management of the Governmental Agreements (IGAs) would be
municipal wastes in the urban areas. higher, as compared to the normal defence deals.
(c) Funds which buy the bonds of the distressed firms Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
to make profits. (a) 1 only
(d) Funds which are used to take over the profit- (b) 2 only
making start-up companies. (c) Both 1 and 2
77. The NIDHI Programme of the government deals with (d) Neither 1 nor 2
which among the following?
82. Which among the following international agencies
(a) Support to the women led SHGs. publishes the “Food Price Index”?
(b) Provide entrepreneurial support to the (a) The United Nations World Food Programme
establishments owned by SCs/STs.
(b) The World Trade Organization
(c) Seeking voluntary contribution for the
management of the environment. (c) The International Food Policy Research Institute
(d) Development and harnessing of innovations in (d) The Food and Agriculture Organization
India. 83. With reference to the Viability Gap Funding (VGF)
78. With reference to the GPON (The Gigabit Passive Scheme, consider the following statements:
Optical Network) technology used in the Bharat Net 1. It provides financial support only to the financially
Project, consider the following statements: viable PPP projects.
1. It uses point-to-multipoint architecture, that 2. The nature of financial assistance is in the form
enables a single optical fibre to serve multiple users. of loans at cheaper rates of interest.
2. This technology has low power consumption and 3. The Scheme is implemented by the Ministry of
hence, suitable for the rural India. Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 3 only
MOCK TEST
84. With reference to the Central Road and Infrastructure 3. In the case of Revenue Deficit, the government
Fund (CRIF), consider the following statements: usually tries to curtail its expenses or increase its
1. The proceeds of the Fund can be used to finance tax and non-tax receipts.
both commercial and social infrastructures. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. The Fund is under the administrative control of (a) 1 and 2 only
the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. (b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only 89. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. NASA’s Eyes is a web-based programme, which
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 enables its users to go onto a virtual journey on
85. With reference to the fixed-term employment provided a NASA spacecraft.
under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, consider 2. Juno provides crucial data and inputs for NASA’s
the following statements:
Eyes on the solar system.
1. The fixed-term employees are employed with a
company under the written contract through a Select the correct answer using the code given below:
contractor or an agency. (a) 1 only
2. The fixed-term employees are on the payroll of (b) 2 only
the establishment and are provided the same (c) Both 1 and 2
benefits and conditions of work which are available (d) Neither 1 nor 2
to the permanent employees. 90. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Fiscal Deficit?
(a) 1 only 1. Fiscal Deficit gives the amount needed by the
(b) 2 only government to meet its expenses.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. A large Fiscal Deficit means a less amount of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 borrowings.
86. With reference to the Code on Wages, 2019, consider Select the correct answer using the code given below:
the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. Under this Code, only the Centre has been (b) 2 only
empowered to fix the minimum wages.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. It provides for a National Level Floor Wage, which
shall be uniform across different states in India. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. It is applicable to the workers in both organised 91. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
and unorganised sectors. 1. Primary Deficit shows the amount of government
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? borrowings specifically to meet the expenses by
(a) 1 only removing the interest payments.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. A zero Primary Deficit means the need for
(c) 1 and 3 only borrowing to meet the interest payments.
(d) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
87. The Code on Social Security, 2020, subsumes which (a) 1 only
of the following regulations relating to social security, (b) 2 only
retirement and employee benefits? (c) Both 1 and 2
1. The Employees Compensation Act, 1923 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 92. Consider the following pairs:
3. The Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act, 1952 S.N. National Parks Location
4. The Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 1. Bandhavgarh Karnataka
2008 National Park
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Bandipur Madhya Pradesh
(b) 1 and 4 only National Park
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. Guru Ghasidas Chhattisgarh
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (Sanjay) National Park
88. Which of the following statements are correct about
Revenue Deficit? Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
1. Revenue Deficit is the excess of its total revenue matched?
expenditure to its total revenue receipts. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. A Revenue Deficit indicates that the government (b) 3 only
does not have sufficient revenue for the normal (c) 2 and 3 only
functioning of the government departments. (d) 1, 2 and 3
MOCK TEST
93. Which of the following statements are correct about 2. It aims to train over 70 crore people in India in
Lake Victoria? different skills by 2022.
1. Lake Victoria is the largest lake in Africa. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. It is the chief reservoir of the Nile River. (a) 1 only
3. The Tropic of Capricorn passes through Lake (b) 2 only
Victoria. (c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only 99. Which of the following statements is / are correct
(b) 1 and 3 only about the National Heritage City Development and
(c) 2 and 3 only Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY) scheme?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The main objective of HRIDAY is to preserve
94. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the character of the soul of the heritage city and
Mehrgarh? facilitate inclusive heritage-linked urban
1. Mehrgarh lies on the Kacchi Plain of Balochistan. development by exploring various avenues,
including involving the private sector.
2. It is the first known agrarian society, where animals
2. It is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% funding
and plants were domesticated, in South Asia. coming from the Central Government.
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 100. Which of the following statements is / are correct?
1. The Greek ruler Menander was a Buddhist. 1. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) is a
2. The Kushan rulers worshipped Buddha only. scheme launched in 2010, for providing loans up
Select the correct answer using the code given below: to Rs. 10 lakh to the non-corporate, non-farm
(a) 1 only small/micro enterprises.
(b) 2 only 2. Under the aegis of PMMY, MUDRA has created
(c) Both 1 and 2 three products, namely, ‘Shishu’, ‘Kishore’ and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ‘Tarun’.
96. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Select the correct answer using the code given below:
the Great Barrier Reef ? (a) 1 only
1. The Great Barrier Reef is located on the south- (b) 2 only
west coast of Australia. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. It is the only living thing on the Earth visible (d) Neither 1 nor 2
from the space.
ANSWERS
(a) 1 only 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b)
(b) 2 only 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a)
(c) Both 1 and 2 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (d)
97. Which of the following statements are correct about 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (a)
Vyommitra? 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)
1. Vyommitra is a male humanoid. 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a)
2. It has been built for ISRO’s first unmanned 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (b)
Gaganyaan mission. 41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (d)
3. It can monitor module parameters, alert the 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (a)
astronauts and perform life support operations.
51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (c)
56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (a)
(a) 1 and 2 only
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (b)
(b) 2 and 3 only
66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (c)
(c) 1 and 3 only
71. (c) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (b)
(d) 1, 2 and 3
98. Which of the following statements is / are correct 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (c)
about the Skill India Mission? 81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (b)
1. The Mission aims at vocational training and 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (a)
certification of the Indian youth for a better 91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (a)
livelihood and respect in the society. 96. (b) 97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (c) 100. (b)
MOCK TEST
1. Though Agra and Darjeeling locate on the same 8. Why Tamil Nadu remains dry during monsoon
latitude, there occurs difference in temperature season?
due to? (a) Tamil Nadu Coast situated parallel to Bay of Bengal
(a) Distribution of land and water branch monsoon
(b) Distance from Sea (b) Tamil Nadu Coast lies in Rain shadow region of
(c) Altitude Arabian Sea branch monsoon
(d) Distribution of air pressure (c) Tamil Nadu coast has oceanic influence
2. No well defined cold season is observed in South (d) Both (a) and (b)
India due to? 9. Consider the following statements:
(a) Altitude effect 1. In North India, the break in monsoon is due to
(b) Oceanic influence absence of rain bearing storms.
(c) Continentality 2. In West Coast, dry spells are associated when winds
(d) All the above blow perpendicular to coast.
3. Consider the following statements regarding hot Choose correct code :
weather season? (a) 1 only
1. In South India, Temperature does not decrease (b) 2 only
from North to South. (c) Both 1 & 2
2. In South India, Temperature increases from Coast (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
to Interior. 10. Which of the following statements is/are correct
(a) 1 only regarding rainfall received by India during Western
(b) 2 only Disturbances?
(c) Both 1 & 2 1. The rainfall increases from West to East in plains
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2 2. The rainfall increases from North to South in
4. Choose the correct pair: mountains.
Local Storms Places (a) 1 only
(a) Mango Shower - Karnataka (b) 2 only
(b) Blossom Shower - Kerala (c) Both 1 & 2
(c) Loo - Rajasthan (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(d) Norwester - Odisha 11. Which of the following statements is/are correct
5. Consider the following statements: regarding monsoon rainfall?
1. In India, temperate cyclone occurs during cold 1. The rainfall decreases from South to North
weather season. 2. The rainfall decreases from East to West
2. Tropical cyclones are frequent during hot weather Choose the incorrect pair:
season.
(a) 1 only
Choose correct code?
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 & 2
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. In India, Burst of Monsoon coincides with 1. Monsoonal rainfall shows declining trend with
(a) Movement of sub tropical westerly jetstream South increasing distance from sea.
of Tibet 2. The rainfall distribution is even throughout India.
(b) Weakening of Mascarene high Choose incorrect code?
(c) Establishment of tropical easterly jetstream over (a) 1 only
15 N (b) 2 only
(d) All the above (c) Both 1 & 2
7. Why Aravallis doesn’t get rainfall during monsoon (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
period? 13. Choose the incorrect pair:
(a) Absence of moisture wind (a) Area of high rainfall - Meghalaya
(b) Winds blow parallel to Aravallis (b) Area of medium rainfall - Manipur
(c) High pressure zone (c) Area of low rainfall - Jharkhand
(d) Stable atmospheric conditions (d) Area of inadequate rainfall - Ladakh
MOCK TEST
14. Consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 & 2
1. Higher the rainfall received, lower is the variability (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
2. In India, Deccan Plateau has the highest rainfall 21. Selvas Forests are found in?
variability (a) Malaysia
Choose incorrect code? (b) Indonesia
(a) 1 only (c) Brazil
(b) 2 only (d) Ghana
(c) Both 1 & 2 22. Which of the following has alternate wet and dry
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2 season?
15. Consider the following statements: (a) Sudan Climate
1. El-Nino affects rainfall distribution over India (b) Equatorial Climate
2. El-Nino leads to distorted atmospheric circulation (c) Laurentian Climate
3. El-Nino results in irregular sea water evaporation (d) British Climate
Choose correct code? 23. Which of the following Climate has high diurnal
(a) 1 only range of temperature?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) Mediterranean Climate
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) Hot Desert Climate
(d) All the above (c) British Climate
16. Tamil Nadu coast receives rainfall during (d) China Climate
(a) Cold weather season 24. Chinook, local wind providing relief to sheep
(b) Hot weather season rearing, is associated with
(c) South West monsoon season (a) Savanna Climate
(d) Retreating monsoon season (b) Steppe Climate
17. Consider the following statements regarding (c) Mediterranean Climate
weather during Retreating monsoon? (d) Monsoon Climate
1. Clear sky 25. In which climate, deciduous trees shed leaves in
2. Reduced temperature cold season?
3. Reduced humidity (a) China Climate
Choose the correct code : (b) Steppe Climate
(a) 1 only (c) Monsoon Climate
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) British Climate
(c) 1 and 3 only 26. Which of the following climate is intermediate
(d) All the above between British and Siberian Climate?
18. Consider the following statements regarding Inter- (a) Laurentian Climate
Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)? (b) Arctic Climate
1. ITCZ is a low pressure trough extending from Thar (c) China Climate
Desert to Chotanagpur Plateau. (d) Mediterranean Climate
2. Rainfall distribution largely depends on movement 27. Why equatorial regions are net importers of
of ITCZ. Timber?
Choose the correct code : 1. Absence of pure stands of tree species
(a) 1 only 2. Absence of frozen surfaces
(b) 2 only 3. Hardwoods readily float on water
(c) Both 1 & 2 4. Difficult transportation
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
19. Double peak rainfall coincides with equinoxes is (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
feature of (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Equatorial Climate (d) All the above
(b) Sudan Climate 28. Consider the following statements:
(c) British Climate 1. Monsoon Climate has distinct dry season whereas
(d) Steppe Climate Maritime Climate has evenly distributed rainfall.
20. Consider the following statements: 2. Monsoon Climate is prone to cyclone whereas
1. In Equatorial Climate, trees shed their leaves during Marine Climate is not prone to cyclone.
summer. Choose correct code :
2. Epiphytes are found in equatorial forest. (a) 1 only
Choose correct code : (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 & 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
MOCK TEST
29. Which of the following is a transitional climate (c) Hot Desert Climate
between equatorial climate and hot desert climate? (d) Mediterranean Climate
(a) Monsoon Climate 38. British type has equable Climate, having warm
(b) Sudan Climate summer and mild winter. The mild winter is due
(c) Steppe Climate to
(d) Mediterranean Climate (a) Flow of warm ocean current
30. High temperature in Desert Climate is due to? (b) Influence of Westerlies
1. Intense insolation (c) Shifting of pressure better
2. Moist Air (d) Meeting of warm and cold ocean current
3. Clear Sky 39. Major hot deserts are b/w 20-30 N and on Western n
4. Rapid Evaporation side of continents, due to?
(a) 1 and 3 1. Low relative humidity
(b) 2, 3 and 4 2. Presence of cold currents on west coast
(c) 1, 3 and 4 3. Offshore Trade Winds
(d) 1, 2 and 3 4. On shore Westerlies blow outside desert limit
31. Choose the incorrect pair: 5. Situated along high pressure belts
Grassland Region Choose correct code :
(a) Pustaz - Hungary (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 4, and 5
(b) Pampas - Argentina (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) All the above
(c) Downs - Australia 40. Absence of shade is a feature of ——————
(d) Canterbury - South Africa Climate.
32. Which of the following Climate occurs only in (a) Equatorial Climate
Northern Hemisphere?
(b) Monsoon Climate
(a) Arctic Climate (b) Siberian Climate
(c) British Climate (d) China Climate (c) Mediterranean Climate
33. Mahogany Ebony trees are associated with? (d) China Climate
(a) Monsoon Forest 41. Consider the following statements:
(b) Sudan Forest 1. The Supreme Court’s jurisdiction to enforce
(c) Equatorial Forest fundamental right is available against both individual
(d) China Climate and state.
34. Consider the following statements: 2. The Indian Constitution gives the power of issuing
1. Annual range of temperature of mid latitude desert writs to apex court only.
is higher than Hot Desert. Choose the correct one :
2. Mid latitude desert is rainless due to continentality (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
and rain shadow effect. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
Choose correct code. 42. Which of the following is a fundamental right?
(a) 1 only (a) Writ power of Supreme Court
(b) 2 only (b) Writ power of both Supreme Court and High Court
(c) Both 1 & 2 (c) Writ power of entire judicial system
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (d) None of the above
35. Consider the following regarding coniferous forest?
1. All conifers are deciduous
1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar defined the Article 32 as heart
2. Soils are poor
and soul of the Constitution
2. Leaves are needle shaped
Choose correct code : 2. Article 32 guarantees the person to approach
(a) 1 and 3 only Supreme Court or High Court if any of his/her
(b) 2 and 3 only legal rights was/were violated
(c) 1 and 2 only Choose the correct one :
(d) All the above (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
36. Choose the incorrect pair: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
(a) Cool temperate Eastern Margin – Laurentian 44. Consider the following statements:
Climate 1. The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is
(b) Cool temperate Western Margin – Siberian climate narrower than that of High Court
(c) Warm temperate Eastern Margin - China Type 2. Territorial jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is
(d) Temperate Continental Climate – Steppe Climate narrower than that of High Court
37. Xerophytes, a type of vegetation, is associated with Choose the correct one :
(a) Steppe Climate (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) Savanna Climate (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
MOCK TEST
45. Assertion (A) : The writ jurisdiction of the Codes :
Supreme Court and High Court (a) 5 2 3 1
in India is same. (b) 4 1 2 3
Reason (R) : Both, the Supreme Court and (c) 4 1 2 5
the High Court can issue the (d) 5 4 3 1
writs of Habeas Corpus, 50. Consider the following statements:
Mandamus, Prohibition, 1. The violation of a fundamental right is the sine
Certiorari and Quo Warranto. qua non for the exercise of the right conferred by
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Article 32.
explanation of A. 2. The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is both
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct exclusive and original.
explanation of A. Choose the correct one :
(c) A is true but R is false. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) A is false but R is true (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
46. Assertion (A) : In democracy, the ultimate 51. Consider the following statements:
responsibility of administration 1. The Supreme Court can issue writs only in the
is to the people. case of appeal, whereas High Court can issue writs
Reason (R) : The democratic government is only when the party directly approaches it.
based on the principle of 2. High Court can issue writs not only for the purpose
popular sovereignty. of enforcement of fundamental rights but also for
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct any other purpose, whereas the Supreme Court
explanation of A. can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct of fundamental rights.
explanation of A. Choose the correct one :
(c) A is true but R is false. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) A is false but R is true (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
47. List-I List-II 52. Which one of the following amendments to the
(Provisions) (Contained in) Constitution, for the first time, made it obligatory
(A) Writ jurisdiction of - 1. Article 13 for the President to act on the advice of the
the Supreme Court Council of Ministers?
(B) Suits against - 2. Article 226 (a) 24th amendment
government (b) 42nd amendment
(C) Writ jurisdiction of - 3. Article 300 (c) 44th amendment
the High Court (d) 54th amendment
(D) Source of the power - 4. Article 32 53. List-I List-II
of judicial review (A) Third Schedule 1. Allocation of seats in
(a) 4 3 2 1 Upper House
(b) 3 4 2 1 (B) Ninth Schedule 2. Disqualification on
(c) 1 3 4 2 grounds of defection
(d) 1 4 3 2 (C) Fourth Schedule 3. Validation of certain Acts
48. Consider the following statements: (D) Tenth Schedule 4. Languages
1. The Supreme Court and High Court are a protector 5. Forms of affirmations
and guaranteer of the fundamental rights Codes :
2. Article 32 and Article 226 pose constitutional duty (a) 5 3 1 2
on Supreme Court and High Court to protect (b) 3 4 5 1
fundamental rights (c) 3 2 5 1
Choose the correct one : (d) 5 4 3 1
(a) 1 only 54. The correct statements about Fundamental Rights
(b) 2 only are:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. They are enforceable in the court of law.
(d) None of the above 2. These rights are absolute.
49. List-I List-II 3. They can be suspended during national emergency,
(A) Equality in public - 1. Article 29 except some.
employment 4. They are available only to Indian citizens.
(B) Minorities rights - 2. Article 21 (a) 1, 3, 4 only
(C) Right to personal liberty - 3. Article 23 (b) 1, 2, 3 only
(D) Prohibition on human - 4. Article 16 (c) 3 only
trafficking - 5. Article 24 (d) 1 and 3 only
MOCK TEST
55. List-I List-II 61. Which of the following statements are correct?
(Meaning of writs) (Name of writs) 1. PARAKH is among the assessment refor ms
(A) It is a command issued 1. Quo Warranto proposed in the NEP that collectively aim to move
by the court to a public school boards away from high-stakes examinations
official asking him to and towards holistic assessment.
perform his official duties. 2. The STARS project is directed at strengthening
(B) It is issued by a higher 2. Mandamus the government-managed school education system
court to a lower court that primarily caters to the educational needs of
when the latter exceeds girls and students from marginalized groups.
its jurisdiction. 3. The programme covers many key areas: access and
(C) It is issued by the courts 3. Certiorari retention; Right to Education entitlements; quality
to enquire into the legality interventions; teacher education; gender and equity;
of claim of a person to a inclusive education; entitlements.
public office. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(D)It is issued by the court 4. Prohibition (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All the above
asking a person do a thing or 62. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
refrain from doing a thing 1. Programme for International Student Assessment
(PISA) survey is conducted by G20.
Codes : 2. The test is conducted every two years.
A B C D (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 3 4 2 1 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 3 4 2 63. Consumer Price Index Numbers for Agricultural
(c) 2 4 5 1 Labour and Rural Labour are released by
(d) 2 4 1 3 (a) RBI
56. Consider the following statements: (b) NSO
1. No ex post facto law (c) Labour Bureau
2. No double jeopardy (d) None of the above
3. No self-incrimination 64. Recently DST launched an initiate called as SERB-
The above safeguards are provided in which Article POWER. This project aims at
of the Constitution of India? (a) tackling gender disparity in research
(a) Article 21 (b) Article 20 (b) Ocean exploration
(c) Article 22 (d) Article 26 (c) Promoting basic research
57. The provisions relating to the fundamental rights (d) Developing gene editing tools
in the Constitution 65. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a) Cannot be amended 1. WPI is released by National Statistical Office
(b) Can be amended by simple majority in the 2. CPI is released by Office of Economic Advisor
Parliament 3. In case of CPI, highest weightage is given for Food
(c) Can be amended by special majority in the and Beverages
Parliament 4. The RBI is required to maintain WPI rate of
(d) Can be amended by special majority in the inflation of 4%
Parliament and ratified by a majority of the state
legislatures 5. The WPI inflation includes services as well
58. Fundamental rights are not given to (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Bankrupt persons (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) Aliens (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) Persons suffering from disease (d) All the above
(d) Political sufferers 66. Which of the following statements is/are correct
59. Freedom of Press in India is about Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement
(a) available to the people under the law of the Project?
Parliament 1. This project will be supported by World Bank and
(b) explicitly provided in the Constitution Asian Development Bank.
(c) implied in the right to freedom of speech and 2. This project aims to improve the safety and
expression perfor mance of selected existing dams and
(d) available to the people of India under executive associated appurtenances in a sustainable manner.
power 3. This project will be implemented in all the states.
60. In the context of Indian polity which one of the (a) 1 and 2 only
following is not a fundamental right? (b) 2 only
(a) Right to livelihood (b) Right to shelter (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Right to work (d) Right to privacy (d) 1 only
MOCK TEST
67. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 73. World Economic Outlook is released by?
1. Central Information Commission is a constitutional (a) WB
body (b) IMF
2. The members of CIC are appointed by President (c) World Economic Forum
on the recommendation of a committee consisting (d) Asian Development Bank
of PM, Leader of Opposition and Union Cabinet 74. Which of the following statements is/ar e
Minister incorrect?
3. CBI is a statutory body 1. INS Kavaratti, the last of the four indigenously
(a) 1 only built Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) stealth
(b) 1 and 2 only corvettes is built under Project 75
(c) 2 only 2. INS Kavaratti is indigenously developed by DRDO
(d) 2 and 3 only 3. INS Kalvari is first ASW built under this
68. Which of the following statements are incorrect? programme
1. Most of India’s exter nal debt is owed by (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
governmental entities. (c) 2 only (d) All the above
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US 75. Which of the following sites was recently included
dollars. in the Ramsar Convention?
(a) Panna Lake
3. Most of the internal debt of the government is
attributed to Treasury Bill (b) Chilika Lake
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Trans-Yamuna region
(d) Asan Conservation Reserve
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All the above
76. Which of the following factors is/are taken for
69. Which of the following items constitutes largest calculating Global Hunger Index?
component of Indian Forex Reserves?
1. Population undernourished
(a) Foreign Currency Assets 2. Wasting in children
(b) Gold Reserves 3. Educational level
(c) Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Reserve Tranche Position (b) 1 and 3 only
70. The 20th Constitutional amendment was recently (c) 2 only
in news. This is related to which of the following (d) 1 only
countries? 77. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Thailand 1. Stockholm Convention is legally binding in nature.
(b) Sri Lanka 2. Dirty Dozen is related to Stockholm Convention.
(c) Myanmar 3. The Cabinet delegated its powers to ratify chemicals
(d) Bhutan under the Stockholm Convention to Union
71. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Ministers of External Affairs (MEA) and
1. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter- Environment, Forest and Climate Change
governmental body established on initiative of the (MEFCC) in respect of POPs already regulated
G20. under the domestic regulations thereby streamlining
2. This organization aims to combat money the procedure.
laundering, terrorist financing and threats to (a) 1 and 2 only
integrity of international financial system. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. There are around 50 countries in FATF. (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) All the above
(b) 1 and 3 only 78. Which of the following statements are correct
(c) 2 only about Paris climate deal?
(d) All the above 1. The Principle of Common but differentiated
72. Which of the following statements is/are correct? responsibilities—Respective Capabilities: has been
maintained across all the important pillars of the
1. India is now the first country in the world to receive agreement.
the Blue Flag Certification for 8 beaches in a single
2. The agreement sets a binding obligation on
attempt developed countries to provide financial resources
2. The Chandrabhaga beach on the Konark coast of to developing countries for both mitigation and
Odisha has become Asia’s first beach to get the adaptation.
Blue Flag certification 3. India announced that it will reduce the emissions
(a) 1 only intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 per cent by 2020
(b) 2 only from 2005 level.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All the above
MOCK TEST
79. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. India is a party to the Convention on Biological (a) 1 only
Diversity as well as Cartagena Protocol Biosafety. (b) 2 only
2. Aichi Targets for biodiversity was finalized in (c) Both 1 and 2
Nagoya conference. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only 85. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. Buddhism does not recognize the existence of Soul
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Jainism considers Soul as perfect embodiment of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 individual self
80. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. If the RBI fails to achieve the inflation targeting (a) 1 only
set under Monetary Policy Committee even for 1 (b) 2 only
quarter, it is bound to publish a report (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The RBI Governor should resign from the post if (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the RBI fails to achieve the inflation targeting
1. Visuddhimagga is the greatest treatise of Vajrayana
(a) 1 only
Buddhism
(b) 2 only 2. Theravada Buddhism supported Tantric practices
(c) Both 1 and 2 similar to Hinduism
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
81. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. Vanaprastha is the last stage of life of man as per (b) 2 only
Upanishads (c) Both 1 and 2
2. In Vedic age religious sacrifices and offerings were (d) Neither 1 nor 2
done in temples 87. Consider the following statements:
Which of the above given statements is/are 1. No Buddhist text mentions about Buddha attending
correct? a Shudra assembly
(a) 1 only 2. Balisadhakas are tax collectors prominent during
(b) 2 only Age of Buddha
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
82. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 only
1. Digambaras believed that even women can become (c) Both 1 and 2
Tirthankara. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Swetambara monk used brush to remove insects 88. Which of the following is not among the 24
from their path. Tirthankaras in Jainism?
Which of the above given statements is/are correct? (a) Abhinandana
(a) 1 only (b) Shanti
(c) Parshva
(b) 2 only
(d) Ananda
(c) Both 1 and 2
89. Which of the following is not among the three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 major treatise of Buddhism?
83. Consider the following statements: (a) Vinaya Pitaka
1. Hinayana sect believed in idol worship of Buddha (b) Tri Pitaka
2. Mahayana sect followed the Bhodisattva concept (c) Sutta Pitaka
of salvation (d) Abhidhamma Pitaka
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 90. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. After converting to Buddhism, Ashoka disbanded
(b) 2 only his huge army in support of pacific foreign policy
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Ashoka’s Dhamma followed policy of pardoning
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 and non-punishment
84. Consider the following statement: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Buddhist text Suttanipata preached non-violence (a) 1 only
towards animals (b) 2 only
2. Buddhist sanghas preached a kind of primitive (c) Both 1 and 2
communism for monks (d) Neither 1 nor 2
MOCK TEST
91. Consider the following statements: 97. Consider the following statements:
1. Ashoka followed a policy of tolerance towards all 1. Importance of Cavalry increased during the post-
religions Maurya phase
2. Ashoka even allowed Brahmanas to carry out their 2. Kushans possessed the most centralized
ritualistic practices administration in the post-Maurya phase
Which of the above statement is/are correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
98. Which of the following is not a feature of
Mahayana Buddhism?
1. Main aim of Ashoka’s Dhamma is to attain
(a) Nirvana
Nirvana.
(b) Bhodisattava
2. The broad objective of Ashoka’s Dhamma is to
(c) Worship of Buddha idol
preserve the existing social order.
(d) Jataka tales
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 1. Reemergence of Brahmanism in the post-Mauryan
(b) 2 only phase was characterized by the rise of Vaishnavism
(c) Both 1 and 2 and Shaivism.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Heliodorus, a Greek Ambassador set up a pillar in
93. Consider the following statements: honour of Shiva near Vidisa (MP).
1. Maurya administration is characterized by feudal Which of the statements given above is/are
type administration. correct?
2. In Maurya administration Adhyaks regulated all the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
economic activities of the state. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 100. Consider the following statements :
(a) 1 only 1. Red pottery ware is the characteristic pottery of
(b) 2 only Mauryan age
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Northern Black polished ware is the characteristic
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 potter of Kushan age
94. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. Maurya’s were the first rulers who issued coins
which can be definitely attributed to Kings (a) 1 only
2. Indo-Greeks were the first to issue gold coins in (b) 2 only
India (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only ANSWERS
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)
6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d)
95. Which one of the following is the sub-sect of 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)
Svetambara sect of Jainism? 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (d)
(a) Mula Sangha 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (c)
(b) Bispanthi 31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b)
(c) Taranpanthi 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (c)
(d) Murtipujaka 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (d)
96. Consider the following statements: 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
1. Kushans issued both Gold and Lead coins in India. 51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (d)
2. Kanishka held the Fourth Buddhist Council at 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (c)
Peshawar to finalize doctrine of Mahayana 61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (c)
Buddhism. 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (b)
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (d)
76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (d)
(a) 1 only 81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (c)
(b) 2 only 86. (d) 87. (c) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (d)
(c) Both 1 and 2 91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (d)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 96. (d) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (a) 100. (d)
MOCK TEST
1. Consider the following statements about the envisaged 1. Turkey 2. Azerbaijan

role of the governor: 3. Georgia 4. Russia
1. The governor is expected to act as an ombudsman 5. Ukraine 6. Belarus
for the state legislature. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. The governor is an executive nominee whose (a) 1, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
powers flow from the aid and advice of the (c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Council of Ministers. 8. The term “Golden Zest” is associated with which of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? the following?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Saffron cultivation
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Oilseed production
(c) Honey and horticulture production
2. Which of the following is the most significant feature (d) Jute production
of the Pitt’s India Act, 1784? 9. Which of the following are the benefits of the food
(a) The establishment of Supreme Court at Calcutta irradiation?
(b) The Governor-General of Bengal was made as 1. Prevention of foodborne illness
the Governor-General of India 2. Control of insects
(c) Distinction between the commercial and political 3. Sterilisation
functions of the Company. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(d) Introduction of an open competition system of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
selection and recruitment of civil servants. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Who among the following was the founder of Indian 10. “Creative India: Innovative India” programme was
Civil Liberties Union? recently seen in news. What is the purpose of the
(a) Muzaffar Ahmed (b) Subhash Chandra Bose programme?
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Bipin Chandra Pal (a) To foster innovation among school going children
4. During World War I, he founded the Indian Home aged between 10-19 years.
Rule League of America (1917) in New York. He (b) To generate awareness about the Intellectual
helped to establish the nationalistic Dayananda Anglo- Property Rights.
Vedic School. Inspired by Mazzini, he became (c) To promote the handicrafts by the Indian tribals
indoctrinated into the revolutionary way of attaining and foster their culture.
freedom. He is rightly hailed as one of the tallest and (d) None of the above
respected figures in the Indian Freedom Struggle. 11. Consider the following statements about the sources
Which of the following options is best identified with of the borrowed features of the Indian Constitution:
the description given above? Source Borrowed Feature
(a) Ashwini Kumar Dutta (b) LalaLajpat Rai 1. Government of – Cabinet System
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal. (d) Aurobindo Ghosh India Act of 1935
5. India is the largest producer with respect to which of 2. Australian – Appointments of the
the following commodities? Constitution State Governors by
the Centre
1. Milk 2. Fruits and Vegetables 3. Soviet Constitution – Ideal of Justice
3. Pulses 4. Cotton Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
5. Jute (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only 12. Under the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only (PESA) Act, 1996, it is the responsibility of respective
6. Which of the following options best describes the term State Legislatures to ensure that the Panchayats at the
‘Social Overhead Capital’? appropriate level and the Gram Sabha are endowed
(a) Basic services without which primary, secondary with some specific powers such as -
and tertiary productive activities cannot function. 1. The ownership of minor forest produce.
(b) A set of shared values that allows any group of 2. The power to manage village markets.
people to work together effectively to achieve a 3. The power to exercise control over institutions
common purpose. and functionaries in all social sectors.
(c) It is an investment that is intended to deliver 4. The power to control local plans and resources
a positive social impact. for such plans including tribal sub-plans.
(d) None of the above Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
7. Which of the following countries share a border with (a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Black Sea? (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
MOCK TEST
13. Consider the following statements about the concept 3. Frictional Result of economic upturns
of “Citizenship”: Unemployment and downturns
1. It is full and equal membership of a political Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
community. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only
2. It talks only about the relationship between states (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
and their members. 20. Arrange the following associations in the chronological
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? order of their establishment:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. East India Association
14. Consider the following statements: 3. Madras Mahajan Sabha
Traditional Festivals State 4. Indian League
1. Saga Dawa Festival Sikkim Which of the options given below is correct?
2. Bonalu Festival Tamil Nadu (a) 2-1-3-4 (b) 1-4-2-3
3. Gangaur Festival Rajasthan (c) 2-1-4-3 (d) 1-2-3-4
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 21. Consider the following statements regarding the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Chairman of the State Legislative Councils:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. He is elected by the council itself from amongst
15. Consider the following statements about the famous its members.
Buddhist pilgrimage site ‘Bodhgaya’: 2. Office of the Chairman falls vacant if he ceases
1. Its oldest shrine is said to have been built during to be a member of the council.
the reign of Ashoka. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. The famous Mahabodhi Temple at Bodhgaya is (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
one of the finest examples of Nagara Style. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 22. Which of the following changes were made in the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Indian Constitution under the 44th Constitutional
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Amendment Act, 1978?
16. Which of the following countries are members of the 1. The provisions with regard to quorum in the
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation? Parliament and state legislatures.
1. Pakistan 2. Afghanistan 2. Provision that the fundamental rights guaranteed
3. India 4. Russia by Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during
5. Belarus a national emergency.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 3. Deprived the Parliament of its special powers to
(a) 1, 3 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only make laws to deal with anti-national activities.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 4 and 5 only Select the correct answer using the options given below:
17. Consider the following statements regarding Poshan (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
Abhiyan:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. It is flagship programme to improve nutritional
outcomes for children, pregnant women and 23. Consider the following statements reg arding
lactating mothers. Administrative Tribunals:
2. North-Eastern states have outperformed other 1. Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 authorises the
states in terms of participation. state gover nments to establish the state
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? administrative tribunal for their own state.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. The judicial remedy is available against the orders
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 of the tribunals.
18. Which of the following reports are published by the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
International Monetary Fund? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Ease of Doing Business Report (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Global Financial Stability Report 24. Consider the following statements about Mahatma
3. World Economic Outlook Report Gandhi’s views on Science:
4. World Investment Report 1. According to him, perfection is an attribute of
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: science.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. For him, to be scientific was to practise one’s
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Dharma.
19. Consider the following pairs: 3. He was against linking the idea of progress with
Type of unemployment Explanation science.
1. Structural Mismatch between demand Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Unemployment and supply of requisite job (a) 1 and 2 only
skills (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Cyclical Temporary transitions made (c) 1 and 3 only
Unemployment by workers and employers. (d) 1, 2 and 3
MOCK TEST
25. Consider the following statements about INS-Baaz: 33. Which of the following factors are responsible for the
1. It is the newest and largest aircraft carrier to join generation of the tides?
Indian Navy. 1. Moon’s gravitational pull
2. It is the southernmost air station of the Indian 2. Sun’s gravitational pull
Armed Forces. 3. Centrifugal force
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
26. Which of the following air pollutants are emitted from 34. The term “Fracking Technique” is recently seen in
leather tanneries? news in the context of-
1. Carbon Tetrachloride 2. Carbon Monoxide (a) A technique designed to recover gas and oil from
3. Carbon Dioxide 4. Ammonia shale rock.
5. Ozone 6. Hydrogen Sulphide (b) A passive safety cooling system used in nuclear
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: reactors.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only (c) A technique to efficiently target the site of drug
(c) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only (d) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only release in human body.
27. Arrange the following states in decreasing order with (d) A method to detect the presence of adulterants
respect to percentage forest cover to their respective in food samples.
geographical area: 35. Consider the following statements regarding Central
1. Arunachal Pradesh 2. Assam Information Commission (CIC):
3. Mizoram 4. Sikkim 1. It is a statutory body which draws its power from
Which of the following options is correct? Right to Information Act, 2005.
(a) 4-3-1-2 (b) 4-1-2-3 2. It comes under the ambit of Ministry of
(c) 3-1-4-2 (d) 3-4-1-2 Personnel.
28. Which of the following can be stated as the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
consequences of “Soil Compaction”? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Restriction on root growth and activity of soil (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
organisms 36. Consider the following statements about Nipah Virus
2. Decrease in the porosity of the soil Infection:
3. Reduction in soil erosion 1. It can be transmitted through contaminated food.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 2. It is caused by a virus transmitted primarily by
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Aedes mosquitoes.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
29. “Environment Relief Fund” is set up under which of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the following legislative provisions? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) The Public Liability Insurance Act (PLIA), 1991 37. Which of the following reforms were introduced by
(b) The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 Alauddin Khilji?
(c) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 1. Introduction of the Persian Festival Nauroz to
(d) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 impress nobility.
30. “Momentum for Change” Initiative was recently seen 2. Introduction of paying salaries in cash to the
in news. What is the purpose of the initiative? soldiers.
(a) Promotion of Gender Equality 3. Introduction of the system of the land
(b) Resilient, Low-Carbon Future measurement.
(c) Awareness about LGBT Rights Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(d) None of the above (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
31. Consider the following statements regarding Attorney (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
General (AG) of India: 38. The famous illustration of manuscript of Nimat Nama
1. Procedure for the removal of AG is same as that belongs to which school of painting?
of the judge of High Court. (a) Bijapur (b) Mughal
2. AG has the right of audience in all courts in the (c) Mathura (d) Malwa
territory of India. 39. Which of the following reforms took place during the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? tenure of Lord Mayo?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Establishment of Statistical Survey of India
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Setting up of the High Courts at Calcutta,
32. Recently, the plant Leucas Aspera was seen in news. Bombay and Madras
Which of the following is the application of the 3. Introduction of State Railways
aforesaid plant? 4. Abolition of female infanticide and human
(a) Bio Diesel sacrifice
(b) Textile Fibre Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) Paper and Pulp Industry (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(d) Blood Disorder Treatment (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
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MOCK TEST
40. Consider the following statements regarding food 47. Recently India has decided to set up its first e-waste
processing industries in India: clinic in which of the following cities?
1. 100% FDI is permitted under the automatic route (a) Pune (b) Ahmedabad
in food processing industries. (c) Bhopal (d) Gurugram
2. Food processing industries account for around 48. Consider following pairs regarding micro-nutrients and
32% share in India’s food market. diseases due to their deficiencies:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Micro-nutrients Disease due to deficiency
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Phosphorus Rickets
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Magnesium Glucose intolerance
41. Consider the following statements regarding RuPay 3. Potassium Impaired Insulin secretion
Card: 4. Zinc Growth retardation
1. It is launched by the RBI in order to promote Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
participation in electronic payments. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
2. It offers complete inter-operability between (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
various payments channels and products.
49. Consider following statements:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was
established under The Air (Prevention and
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Control of Pollution) Act,1981, which lays down
42. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan standards for the prevention and control of air
Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana:
pollution.
1. It is available for people in the age group of 18
to 70 years. 2. The Public Liability Insurance Act (PLIA), 1991
2. The Life Insurance Corporation of India has been covers accidents involving hazardous substances
appointed as an implementing agency for the and insurances where death or injury results from
scheme. an accident.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was enacted
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only under the United Nations Convention on
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Biological Diversity.
43. Who among the following is the author of the books Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
“Sarvajanik Satyadharma” and “Gulamgiri”? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Mahatma Jyotiba Phule (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Gopal Hari Deshmukh 50. Consider the following statements about Non-
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale Communicable Diseases (NCDs):
(d) Narayan Malhar Joshi 1. Sustainable Development Goals have kept target
44. Which among the following can be considered as the of a one-third reduction in premature deaths from
features of the Brahmo Samaj? NCDs by 2030.
1. It denounced polytheism and idol worship 2. Highest number of deaths due to NCDs are
2. It propounded ‘Doctrine of Karma’ and reported from the developed countries in the
transmigration of soul West.
3. It criticised the caste system Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
4. It discarded faith in avtaras (incarnations) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 51. Consider the following statements about International
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Organisation for Standardisation (ISO):
45. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Lok 1. It is an agency of United Nations created for the
Adalats’: development of International Standards.
1. They have been given statutory status under the 2. ISO standards are mandatory for its member
Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. countries.
2. There is no provision for appeal against an award Which of the following statements given above is/are
given by Lok Adalats before any court of law. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are not (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 52. Which of the following aspects of the “Rule of Law”
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are applicable to the Indian system as mandated by
46. Foreign travellers Domingo Paes and Fernao Nuniz the Indian Constitution?
have visited and left rich accounts of which of the 1. Absence of arbitrary power.
following empires in India? 2. Equality before the law.
(a) Vijayanagara Kingdom 3. The primacy of the rights of the individual.
(b) The Chola Kingdom Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) The Mughal Kingdom (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) The Delhi Sultanate (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

MOCK TEST
53. Consider the following statements regarding the 60. Consider the following paragraph:
Comptroller and Auditor General of India: These Himalayas are famous for the rich flora and
1. The role of CAG is to uphold the laws of fauna, particularly various types of orchids. This
Parliament in the field of financial administration. Himalayan region has well distributed rainfall
2. He holds the office till the pleasure of the throughout the year and mild winters. They have mixed
President. population of Nepalis, Bengalis and tribals from Central
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? India.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Which of the following Himalayan region is best
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 identified with the description given above?
54. Consider the following pairs: (a) Uttarakhand Himalayas
Case Personality (b) Arunachal Himalayas
1. Kanpur Conspiracy Case Khudiram Bose (c) Darjeeling Himalayas
2. Meerut Conspiracy Case S.A. Dange (d) The Eastern Hills and Mountains
3. Alipore Conspiracy Case Nalini Gupta 61. Consider the following statements:
4. Delhi Conspiracy Case Rashbehari Bose 1. Surface inversion promotes stability in the lower
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? layers of the atmosphere.
(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. Over tropical areas, temperature inversion is
normal throughout the year.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
55. Consider the following statements regarding Market (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Intelligence and Early Warning System (MIEWS) web
portal: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It is a first of its kind platform for real time 62. Which of the following are the applications of
monitoring of the prices of cash crops. Recombinant DNA Technology in the Field of Medicine?
2. It is an initiative of Ministry of Agriculture and 1. Production of Antibiotics
Farmers Welfare. 2. Production of Hormone Insulin
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. Solution of Disputed Parentage
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
56. With reference to Dwarapalakas, consider the following (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
statements: 63. Which of the following Parliamentary Committees are
1. The forms of these sculptures closely resemble headed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
those of the main deity. 1. Estimates Committee
2. The most common gesture they are found in is 2. Business Advisory Committee
the Tarjanimudra. 3. Parliamentary Affairs Committee
3. They exhibit the features of Pallavas sculptural art. 4. General Purpose Committee
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 5. Rules Committee
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
57. With reference to Amir Khusrau, which one of the (c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 2, 4 and 5 only
following statements is not correct? 64. Consider the following statements regarding defections
(a) His poetical composition was aimed at cementing in India:
the bonds of culture and friendship between the 1. The disqualified member is bar red from
Hindus and Muslims of India. contesting any election in the aftermath of the
(b) He was a most dutiful and devoted mureed of incidence of defection.
Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya. 2. The Anti-Defection Law in India makes a clear
(c) In his poem ‘NuhSipihr’, he gave a vivid account differentiation between dissent and defection.
of India and its flora and fauna, environment, 3. The presiding officer, while deciding a question
culture, and scholars. under the Tenth Schedule, functions as a tribunal.
(d) He made Urdu language interesting by making it Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
an informal language. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
58. Which of the following can be considered as examples (c) 3 only (d) 2 only
of plasma state of matter in the nature? 65. The term “Utkarsh-2022” has been recently seen in
1. Aurorae 2. Lightning the news. It is -
3. The tail of comet 4. Solar wind (a) The RBI’s Medium-term Strategy Framework in
Select the correct answer using the code given below: line with the evolving macroeconomic
environment.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (b) The NITI Aayog’s strategy to bring innovation,
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 technology, enterprise and efficient management
59. Consider the following statements: together, at the core of policy formulation and
1. Gita Govinda is the collection of poems by Kalidas. implementation.
2. Swami Haridasa was the guru of Dhrupad (c) A government programme with the objective of
maestro Tansen. ending the AIDS epidemic by 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) A three-year ISRO Campaign with an objective
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only to promote a culture of innovation and scientific
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 temper.
MOCK TEST
66. Consider the following statements about Kisan Sabha 1. It originated under the Satvahana Dynasty.
Movement: 2. Epics like Ramayana and Mahabharata dominate
1. Kisan Sabhas were organised in UP mainly due this form of puppetry.
to the efforts of the Home Rule activists. 3. It is the only puppetry with a Geographical
2. Baba Ramchandra was one of the prominent Identification Tag.
leaders of the movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 75. Post implementation of GST, on which of the
67. The famous dancing postures “Tribhanga” and “Chowk” following tax matters states have retained power to
are associated with which of the following classical decide rates and the manner of levy?
dance forms? 1. taxes on land and buildings
(a) Manipuri Dance (b) Odissi Dance 2. state excise duty on alcohol and narcotics
(c) Kathak Dance (d) Kathakali Dance 3. taxes on electricity
68. Consider the following statements regarding Prime 4. taxes on the transport of goods and passengers
Minister National Relief Fund (PMNRF): 5. road tax and tolls
1. It was established entirely with public contributions Select the correct answer using the code given below:
and does not get any budgetary support. (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
2. It is the initiative of Indira Gandhi to assist people (c) 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
affected by the droughts during 1960s. 76. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. Core inflation is relatively stable as it captures
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only the underlying trend of inflation.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. In recent times, service inflation has been higher
69. Which of the following institutions are supported by than goods inflation.
NABARD under its Institutional Development 3. Inflation in health sector is more prominent in
Initiatives? rural than urban areas.
1. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Regional Rural Banks (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
3. State Cooperative Banks (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. State Cooperative Agriculture and Rural 77. Which of the pairs given below are correctly matched?
Development Banks Harappan Site Speciality
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1. Chanhudaro Manufacturing Centre
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. Sutkagen Dor Fishing Trade
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. Kalibangan First ploughed field
70. BARAK-8 Air Defence System was sold to India by Select the correct answer using the code given below:
which of the following countries? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Russia (b) Israel (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Iran (d) Saudi Arabia 78. “Australia Group” is sometimes seen in news. What is
71. Which of the following is the objective of “Rashtriya it about?
Garima Abhiyan”? (a) Informal forum for harmonisation of export
(a) To end the inhuman practise of manual controls to prevent the development of chemical
scavenging or biological weapons.
(b) To promote gender justice and prevent crime (b) A voluntary export control regime to facilitate
against women exchange of information on transfers of
(c) To prevent child abuse and neglect conventional weapons and dual-use goods and
(d) To reduce delay in justice delivery mechanism technologies.
72. Which of the following authorities prepared a Red (c) Initiative by Asia-Pacific countries to reduce
Atlas Action Map to aid effective flood mitigation in carbon footprints due to industrial emissions by
Chennai? 50% before 2050.
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate (d) Informal group of maritime countries in the Indo-
Change Pacific region to ensure maritime security and
freedom of trade and navigation.
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs 79. Consider the following statements about National
(c) Ministry of Electronics and Infor mation Cyber Security Policy:
Technology 1. It aims to provide fiscal benefits to businesses
(d) Ministry of Earth Sciences for adoption of standard security practices and
73. The Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve is located in which processes.
of the following hill ranges? 2. It aims to create a culture of cyber security and
(a) Aravali range (b) Vindhya range privacy enabling responsible user behaviour.
(c) Satpura range (d) Palni range Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
74. Consider the following statements with respect to (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Leather puppetry in India: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
MOCK TEST
80. Consider the following statements reg arding 86. Consider the following statements regarding startup
‘Community Reserves’: eco system in India:
1. They are protected areas under the Biological 1. India has the 3rd largest startup ecosystem in the
Diversity Act, 2002. world.
2. They act as migration corridors between national 2. Mumbai has been listed within the world’s 20
parks, wildlife sanctuaries and protected forests leading startup cities in the 2019 Startup Genome
of India. Project ranking.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
81. Consider the following statements regarding the 87. Consider the following statements:
Satavahana Dynasty: 1. The author of the Silappadikaram belonged to
1. Sri Satakarni was the founder of the Satavahana the Chola Kingdom.
Dynasty. 2. Hereditary monarchy was the for m of
2. Ganjam sea-port was one of the important ports government during the Sangam period.
in the possession of Satavahana Kingdom. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Satavahana rulers patronised the Prakrit language (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
and literature. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 88. “Operation Twist” is recently seen in news. What is it
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only about?
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only (a) Simultaneous purchase and sale of government
82. Which of the following components were the parts of securities under Open Market Operations
the non-cooperation programme? (OMOs).
1. Boycott government schools and colleges (b) A strategy to reduce Non-Performing Assets of
2. Boycott of legislative councils Public Sector Banks.
3. Boycott of round table conference (c) An intensive water conservation campaign built
4. Renunciation of government honours and titles on citizen participation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (d) Campaign to generate awareness about the rights
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only of LGBT community.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 89. Consider the following statements regarding human
83. Consider the following statements regarding monetary settlements:
policy in India: 1. Gujarat Plains is an example of clustered
1. It is generally biased towards high growth and settlements.
employment sometimes at the cost of higher 2. Hamleted Settlements bear a common name and
inflation. are fragmented into several units.
2. There exists the legislative mandate to the RBI Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
to operate the monetary policy framework of the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
country.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 90. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Name of Plateau Type
84. With reference to e-NAM, consider the following 1. Bolivian Plateau - Volcanic Plateau
statements. 2. Antrim Plateau - Tectonic Plateau
1. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing 3. Scottish Highlands - Dissected Plateau
Federation of India (NAFED) is the leading Select the correct answer using the code given below:
agency for implementing e-NAM (a) 2 only (b) 3 only
2. As a pan India electronic portal, it aims to ensure (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
integrated use of Space and Geospatial Tools for 91. Which of the following provisions are mentioned in
Mapping, Monitoring and Management of the Constitution with regard to inter-state relations?
Agriculture fields. 1. Mutual recognition of public acts and judicial
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? proceedings.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Adjudication of inter-state water disputes.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Zonal Councils.
85. Consider the following statements regarding education 4. Coordination through inter-state councils.
reforms during British India: Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Wood’s Despatch repudiated “Downward (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
Filtration Theory”.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
2. Curzon confined his focus on the primary and
secondary education. 92. Which of the following factors affect the aquatic life?
3. Under Montagu-Chelmsford reforms education 1. Dissolved Oxygen 2. Turbidity
was shifted to provincial ministries. 3. Temperature 4. Salinity
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
MOCK TEST
93. Consider the following statements reg arding 100. Arrange the following sectors in the increasing order
developments during Mughal era: based on their contribution in the use of groundwater.
1. The Coromandel Coast became a centre of textile 1. Industrial sector
production. 2. Domestic sector
2. During this period, crops such as Maize, Tobacco 3. Agricultural sector
and Potato were introduced. Which of the options given below is correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2-1-3 (b) 1-2-3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2-3-1 (d) 1-3-2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
94. Which of the following freedom fighters gave the ANSWERS
slogan “Inquilab Zindabad”?
(a) Bhagat Singh (b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani 1. (b)
(c) Ashfaqulla Khan (d) Ram Prasad Bismil 2. (c) Distinction between the commercial and political
functions of the Company.
95. Consider the following statements regarding rare
diseases: In a bid to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act of
1. It is a health condition of low prevalence and 1773, the British Parliament passed the Amending Act
most of them are genetic in origin. of 1781, also known as the Act of Settlement. The
2. Central Government provides sustained assistance next important act was the Pitt’s India Act of 1784.
for the treatment of rare disease under Rashtriya Features of the Act
Arogya Nidhi. 1. It distinguished between the commercial and
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? political functions of the Company.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 commercial affairs but created a new body called Board
96. “Fridays for Future” movement was recently seen in of Control to manage the political affairs. Thus, it
news. What is the objective of the movement? established a system of double government.
(a) To use collective voice to end the extreme poverty 3. It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and
by 2030 direct all operations of the civil and military
(b) To protest against the lack of action on the government or revenues of the British possessions in
climate crisis India
(c) To promote the understanding of unique cultural 3. (c)
and ethnic heritage. 4. (b) Lala Lajpat Rai: Indian writer and politician, outspoken
(d) To promote child rights and protection from in his advocacy of a militant anti-British nationalism in
exploitation. the Indian National Congress (Congress Party). After
97. Consider the following statements regarding the studying law at the Government College in Lahore,
provisions of the Labour Code on Wages, 2019: Lajpat Rai practiced at Hissar and Lahore, where he
1. The number of working hours in a day will not helped to establish the nationalistic Dayananda Anglo-
exceed eight hours. Vedic School and became a follower of Dayananda
2. It prohibits discrimination on the basis of gender Saraswati, the founder of the Arya Samaj. After joining
in recruitment and conditions of employment. the Congress Party and taking part in political agitation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? in the Punjab, Lajpat Rai was deported to Mandalay,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Burma (now Myanmar), without trial, in May
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2 1907. During World War I, Lajpat Rai lived in
98. Consider the following statements regarding the the United States, where he founded the Indian Home
National Steel Policy, 2017 : Rule League of America (1917) in New York City. He
1. It seeks to decrease the domestic per capita was deeply impressed by the ideals of patriotism and
consumption of Steel. nationalism outlined by Italian revolutionary leader
2. It aspires to achieve 300MT of steel-making Giuseppe Mazzini. Inspired by Mazzini, Lalaji became
capacity by 2030. indoctrinated into the revolutionary way of attaining
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? freedom.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 9. (d) Food irradiation (the application of ionizing radiation
99. Consider the following statements regarding functions to food) is a technology that improves the safety and
of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS): extends the shelf life of foods by reducing or
1. He is a de-facto Chairperson of the Defence eliminating microorganisms and insects. Like
Planning Committee. pasteurizing milk and canning fruits and vegetables,
2. He functions as the Military Adviser to the irradiation can make food safer for the consumer. The
Nuclear Command Authority. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible
3. He acts as the Principal Military Adviser to the for regulating the sources of radiation that are used to
Defence Minister on all tri-Services matters. irradiate food. Irradiation can serve many purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Prevention of Foodborne Illness – to effectively
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only eliminate organisms that cause foodborne illness, such
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 as Salmonellaand Escherichia coli (E. coli).
MOCK TEST
Preservation – to destroy or inactivate organisms obligations imposed by states but also a moral
that cause spoilage and decomposition and extend the obligation to participate in, and contribute to, the
shelf life of foods. shared life of the community. Citizens are also
Control of Insects – to destroy insects in or on considered to be the inheritors and trustees of the
tropical fruits imported into the United States. culture and natural resources of the country.
Irradiation also decreases the need for other pest- 14. (c)
control practices that may harm the fruit. 15. (a) Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is
Delay of Sprouting and Ripening – to inhibit incorrect:The pre-eminent Buddhist site is, of course,
sprouting (e.g., potatoes) and delay ripening of fruit to Bodhgay a. Bodhgaya is a pilgrimage site since
increase longevity. Siddhartha achieved enlightenment here and became
Sterilisation – irradiation can be used to sterilise Gautama Buddha. While the bodhi tree is of immense
foods, which can then be stored for years without importance, the Mahabodhi Temple at Bodhgaya is an
refrigeration. Sterilised foods are useful in hospitals important reminder of the brickwork of that time.
for patients with severely impaired immune systems, The first shrine here, located at the base of the
such as patients with AIDS or undergoing Bodhi tree, is said to have been constructed by
chemotherapy. Foods that are sterilised by irradiation King Ashoka; the vedika around it is said to be
are exposed to substantially higher levels of treatment post-Mauryan, of about 100 BCE; many of the
than those approved for general use. sculptures in the niches in the temple are dated to the
10. (b) eighth century Pala Period, while the actual Mahabodhi
11. (c) Sources of the Constitution at a Glance temple itself as it stands now is largely a Colonial
1. Government of India Act of 1935 - Federal Scheme, Period reconstruction of the old seventh century
Office of Governor, Judiciary, Public Ser vice design. The design of the temple is unusual. It is,
Commissions, Emergency provisions and strictly speaking, neither dravida or nagara. It is
Administrative details. narrow like a nagara temple, but it rises without curving,
2. British Constitution - Parliamentary government, Rule like a dravida one.
of Law, legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet 16. (c) 17. (a)
system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges and 18. (b) :
bicameralism. 1. Ease of Doing Business Report - World Bank
3. US Constitution - Fundamental rights, independence 2. Global Financial Stability Report - International
of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the Monetary Fund
President, removal of Supreme Court and high court 3. World Economic Outlook Report - International
judges and post of Vice President. Monetary Fund
4. Irish Constitution - Directive Principles of State Policy, 4. World Investment Report - UNCTAD (United Nations
nomination of members to Rajya Sabha and method Conference on Trade and Development)
of election of president. 19. (b) Statement 1 is correct: Structural unemployment is a
5. Canadian Constitution - Federation with a strong longer-lasting form of unemployment caused by
Centre, vesting of residuary powers in the Centre, fundamental shifts in an economy and exacerbated by
appointment of state governors by the Centre, and extraneous factors such as technology, competition,
advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. and government policy. Structural unemployment
6. Australian Constitution - Concurrent List, freedom of occurs because workers’ lack the requisite job skills or
trade, commerce and intercourse, and joint sitting of workers live too far from regions where jobs are
the two Houses of Parliament. available and cannot move closer. Jobs are available,
7. Weimar Constitution of Germany - Suspension of but there is a serious mismatch between what
Fundamental Rights during Emergency. companies need and what workers can offer.
8. Soviet Constitution(USSR, now Russia) - Fundamental Statement 2 is incorrect: Cyclical unemployment is
duties and the ideal of justice (social, economic and the component of overall unemployment that results
political) in the Preamble. from economic upturns and downturns.
9. French Constitution - Republic and the ideals of liberty, Unemployment rises during recessions and declines
equality and fraternity in the Preamble. during economic expansions. Moderating cyclical
10. South African Constitution - Procedure for amendment unemployment during recessions is a major motivation
of the Constitution and election of members of Rajya behind the study of economics and the goal of the
Sabh(a). various policy tools that governments employ to
11. Japanese Constitution - Procedure established by Law. stimulate the economy.
12. (d) Statement 3 is incorrect: Frictional unemployment
13. (a) Statement 1 is correct: Citizenship has been defined is the result of temporary employment transitions
as full and equal membership of a political community. within an economy. Frictional unemployment naturally
In the contemporary world, states provide a collective occurs even in a growing, stable economy. Workers
political identity to their members as well as certain leaving their jobs or new workers entering the
rights. workforce both add to frictional unemployment.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Citizenship is about more 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b)
than the relationship between states and their members. 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c)
It is also about citizen-citizen relations and involves 28. (a) Soil compaction is the reduction of soil volume due
certain obligations of citizens to each other and to the to external factors; this reduction lowers soil
society. These would include not just the legal productivity and environmental quality. Soil
MOCK TEST
compaction may be beneficial or detrimental to the (ii) Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all
growth of plants; however, the detrimental effects are citizens (rich or poor, high or low, official or non-
much more obvious than the benefits. Compaction official) to the ordinary law of the land administered
changes the soil structure and hydrology by altering by the ordinary law courts. (Statement 2 is correct)
the soil bulk density and fragmenting the soil (iii) The primacy of the rights of the individual, that is,
aggregates, decreasing soil porosity and aeration as the constitution is the result of the rights of the
well as the infiltration capacity of the soil. individual as defined and enforced by the courts of
Consequently, this leads to increased water runoff and law rather than the constitution being the source of
soil erosion.Compacted soil becomes hard when it the individual rights. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
dries, as it has many small pores that can hold water The first and the second elements are applicable to
under high suction and pull particles tightly together. the Indian System and not the third one. In the Indian
This can restrict root growth and the activity of soil System, the constitution is the source of the individual
organisms. rights.
The compaction of surface and subsoils adversely 53. (a) Statement 1 is correct: The role of CAG is to uphold
affects mineral absorption in plants. Serious soil the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in
compaction affects forest regeneration negatively by the field of financial administration. The accountability
inhibiting seed germination and seedling growth and of the executive (i.e., Council of Ministers) to the
leading to the death of plants. Parliament in the sphere of financial administration is
29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (b) 32. (d) secured through audit reports of the CAG. The CAG
33. (d) The moon’s gravitational pull to a great extent and is an agent of the Parliament and conducts audit of
to a lesser extent the Sun’s gravitational pull, are the expenditure on behalf of the Parliament. Therefore, he
major causes for the occurrence of tides. Another factor is responsible only to the Parliament.
is centrifugal force, which is the force that acts to Statement 2 is incorrect: CAG is provided with the
counter balance the gravity. Together, the gravitational security of tenure. He can be removed by the President
pull and the centrifugal force are responsible for only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in
creating the two major tidal bulges on the earth. the Constitution. Thus, he does not hold his office till
34. (a) Hydraulic fracturing, or fracking, is a technique designed the pleasure of the President, though he is appointed
to recover gas and oil from shale rock. Fracking is the by him.
process of drilling down into the earth before a high- 54. (a)Pair 1 is incorrect: The Kanpur communist
pressure water mixture is directed at the rock to release (Bolshevik) Conspiracy Case: Muzaffar Ahmad,
the gas inside. Water, sand and chemicals are injected Nalini Gupta, S.A. Dange, Ghulam Hussain.Khudiram
into the rock at high pressure which allows the gas to Bose was involved in throwing a bomb on judge
flow out to the head of the well. The process can be in Muzaffarpur.
carried out vertically or, more commonly, by drilling Pair 2 is correct: Meerut Conspiracy Case: Muzaffar
horizontally to the rock layer, which can create new Ahmad, S.A. Dange, S.V. Ghate, K.N. Joglekar, S.S.
pathways to release gas or used to extend existing Mirajkar, R.S. Nimbkar, Philip Spratt.
channels.The term fracking refers to how the rock is Pair 3 is incorrect: Alipore Conspiracy Case:
fractured apart by the high-pressure mixture. Aurobindo Ghosh, Barindra Kumar Ghosh
35. (c) Statement 1 is correct: The Central Information Pair 4 is correct: Delhi Conspiracy Case: Rashbehari
Commission was established by the Central Bose, Basant Kumar Biswas, Amir Chand, Avadh
Government in 2005. It was constituted through an Behari.
Official Gazette Notification under the provisions 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (b)
of the Right to Information Act (2005). 60. (c)
36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (c) 61. (a) Inversion of temperature: Normally, temperature
41. (b) 42. (a) decreases with increase in elevation. It is called normal
lapse rate. At times, the situation is reversed and the
43.(a) Jyotiba Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called Inversion of
Seekers’ Society) in 1873, with the leadership of the temperature.
samaj coming from the backward classes, malis, telis, Statement 1 is correct: Surface inversion promotes
kunbis, saris and dhangars. The main aims of the movement stability in the lower layers of the atmosphere. Smoke
were (i) social service, and (ii) spread of education among and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion
women and lower caste people. Phule’s works, layer and spread horizontally to fill the lower strata of
Sarvajanik Satyadharma and Gulamgiri, became the atmosphere.
sources of inspiration for the common masses. Statement 2 is incorrect: Inversion is usually of
44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c) short duration but quite common nonetheless. A long
49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (d) winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation
52. (a) Rule of Law for inversion. The heat of the day is radiated off
The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element of during the night, and by early morning hours, the
the concept of ‘Rule of Law’, propounded by A. V. earth is cooler than the air above. Over polar areas,
Dicey, the British jurist. His concept has the following temperature inversion is normal throughout the year.
three elements or aspects: 62. (d)
(i) Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be 63. (d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and
punished except for a breach of law. (Statement 1 is duties from three sources, that is, the Constitution of
correct) India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business
MOCK TEST
of Lok Sabha, and Parliamentary Conventions. He overseas commercial activity. Ptolemy mentions many
appoints the Chairmen of all the parliamentary ports in the Deccan. The greatest port of the
committees of the Lok Sabha and supervises their Satavahanas was Kalyani on the west Deccan.
functioning. He himself is the Chairman of the Gandakasela and Ganjam on the east coast were
Business Advisor y Committee, the Rules the other important seaports.
Committee and the General Purpose Committee. Statement 3 is correct: The Satavahanas patronized
64. (c) 65. (a) Buddhism and Brahmanism. They built chaityas and
66. (c) Both Statement 1 & 2 are correct: Kisan Sabha viharas. They also made grants of villages and lands
Movement: The First World War had hiked the prices to Buddhist monks. Vashishtaputra Pulamayi repaired
of food and other necessities. This worsened the the old Amaravathi stupa. Their architecture in
conditions of the UP peasants. Mainly due to the Nagarjunakonda was also notable. Brahmanism was
efforts of the Home Rule activists, kisansabhas were revived by the Satavahanas along with the performance
organised in UP. The United Provinces Kisan Sabha of asvamedha and rajasuya sacrifices. They also
was set up in February 1918 by Gauri Shankar Mishra patronised the Prakrit language and literature.
and Indra Narayan Dwivedi. Madan Mohan Malaviya Hala’s Sattasai is an excellent piece of Prakrit
supported their efforts. By June 1919, the UP Kisan literature.
Sabha had 450 branches. Other prominent leaders 82. (a) 83. (a) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (a)
included Jhinguri Singh, Durgapal Singh and Baba 87. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect : The Cheras ruled over
Ramchandra. parts of modern Kerala. Their capital was Vanji and
67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (b) 71. (a) their important seaports were Tondi and Musiri. Perum
72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (a) Sorru Udhiyan Cheralathan, Imayavaramban Nedum
75. (d) Some of these taxes for which states can continue to Cheralathan and Cheran Senguttuvan were the famous
decide the rates and the manner of levy include: (i) rulers of this dynasty. Cheran Senguttuvan belonged
taxes on land and buildings, (ii) state excise duty on to 2nd century AD. His younger brother was Elango
alcohol and narcotics, (iii) taxes on electricity, (iv) sales Adigal, the author of Silappathigaram.
tax on alcohol and petroleum (till the GST Council Statement 2 is correct : Hereditary monarchy was
decides to bring petroleum under GST), (v) taxes on the form of government during the Sangam
the transport of goods and passengers, (vi) road tax, period. The king had also taken the advice of his
and (vii) tolls. minister, court-poet and the imperial court or avai.
76. (d) Statement 1 is correct: Core Inflation corresponds The king was assisted by a large body of officials who
to the component of inflation that is likely to continue were divided into five councils. They were ministers
for a long period. Thus, core inflation captures the (amaichar), priests (anthanar), military commanders
underlying trend of inflation and is, therefore, (senapathi), envoys (thuthar) and spies (orrar). The
more stable. military administration was also efficiently organised
Statement 2 is correct: Services inflation has been during the Sangam Age. Each ruler had a regular army
higher than goods inflation and the gap between the and their respective Kodimaram (tutelary tree).
two is growing. In recent times, services inflation has 88. (a) Simultaneous purchase and sale of government
influenced headline inflation as it has contributed more securities under Open Market Operations
than its weight. Housing has the highest weight (OMOs).
amongst services which is (10.07 per cent), followed The Reserve Bank of India decided to conduct its
by transport and communication (4.59 per cent), version of ‘Operation Twist’ through simultaneous
education (3.51 per cent) and health (1.82 per cent). purchase and sale of government securities under
Contribution of health, education, transport and Open Market Operations (OMOs) for Rs. 10,000 crore
communication in driving services inflation has gained each. Operation Twist is the name given to a US
prominence across rural and urban areas. Federal Reserve monetary policy operation, which
Statement 3 is correct : Inflation in health is more involves the purchase and sale of government securities
prominent in rural than urban areas probably owing to boost the economy by bringing down long-term
to supply side constraints. interest rates.
77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (b) 89. (b)
81. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect: The founder of the 90. (b) Tectonic plateaux. These are formed by earth
Satavahana dynasty was Simuka. He was succeeded by movements which cause uplift, and are normally of a
Krishna, who extended the kingdom up to Nasik in considerable size, and fairly uniform altitude. They
the west. The third king was Sri Satakarni. He include continental blocks like the Deccan Plateau
conquered western Malwa and Berar. He also in India. Some of the tectonic plateaux maybe tilted
performed asvamedha sacrifices. The seventeenth king like the Meseta of central Iberia, or faulted like the
of the Satavahana dynasty was Hala. He reigned for a Harz of Germany.When plateaux are enclosed by fold
period of five years. Hala became famous for his mountains,they are known as intermont plateaux.
book Gathasaptasati, also called Sattasai. It contains Examples are the Tibetan Plateau between the
700 verses in Prakrit language. Himalayas and the Kunlun, and the Bolivian
Statement 2 is correct: There was a remarkable Plateau between two ranges of the Andes.
progress in the fields of trade and industry during the Intermont plateaux are someof the highest and the
Satavahana rule. Silver coins called Karshapanas were most extensive plateaux in the world.
used for trade. The Satavahana period also witnessed Volcanic plateaux. Molten lava may issue from the
MOCK TEST
earth’s crust and spread over its surface to form introduced during this period. However, India was
successive sheets of basaltic lava. These solidify to able to export food items like rice and sugar to the
form a lava plateau. Some of the better known neighbouring countries.
volcanic plateaux are the Antrim Plateau of Northern 94. (b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani coined the immortal
Ireland and the north-western part of the Deccan slogan of Indian Revolution ‘Inqilaab Zindabad’
Plateau. The most remarkable plateau built by lava is in 1921, which was later popularised by Bhagat Singh
the Columbia-Snake Plateau which covers an area and his comrades. Along with Swami Kumaranand—
almost twice as big as Malaysia. another important name in Indian communist
Dissected plateaux. Through the continual process movement—Hasrat Mohani was the first person to
of weathering and erosion by running water, ice and demand ‘Complete Independence’ or ‘Poorna Swaraj’
winds, high and extensive plateaux are gradually. worn for India at the Ahmedabad Session of the Indian
down, and their surfaces made irregular. In the humid National Congress in 1921, which was also attended
highlands, stream action and sometimes glaciation cut by Ramprasad Bismil and Ashfaqullah Khan (both
deep, narrow valleys in the plateaux, which are then played an important role in passing the resolution in
described as dissected plateaux. An example is the the general body of INC). He was the chairman of
Scottish Highlands. the reception committee of first Indian Communist
91. (c) Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct: The successful Conference which was held on December 25, 1925,
functioning of the Indian federal system depends on and was also a member of the drafting committee of
the harmonious relations and close cooperation Indian Constitution led by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
between the Centre and the states but also between 95. (a) 96. (b) 97. (b) 98. (b)
the states inter se. Hence, the Constitution makes the 99. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chief of Defence
following provisions with regard to inter-state comity: Staff will head the Department of Military Affairs
1. Adjudication of inter-state water disputes. (DMA), to be created within the Ministry of Defence
2. Coordination through inter-state councils. and function as its Secretary. Defence Planning
3. Mutual recognition of public acts, records and Committee is chaired by Nationnal Security
judicial proceedings. Advisor.
4. Freedom of inter-state trade, commerce and Statement 2 is correct: As the Permanent Chairman
intercourse. of Chiefs of Staff Committee, CDS will perform the
The Zonal Councils have been established by the following functions:
Parliament to promote inter-state cooperation and CDS will administer tri-services organisations. Tri-
coordination. Hence statement 3 is not correct as service agencies/organisations/commands related to
it is not recognized by the Constitution. Cyber and Space will be under the command of the
92. (d) CDS.
93. (c) The Mughal period saw important social and economic · CDS will be member of Defence Acquisition Council
Developments. chaired by Raksha Mantri and Defence Planning
Statement 1 is correct: Growth of Trade: The Indian Committee chaired by NSA.
trading classes were large in numbers and spread · Function as the Military Adviser to the Nuclear
throughout the country. They were well organised and Command Authority.
highly professional. Seth, bohra traders specialised in · Bring about jointness in operation, logistics, transport,
long distance trade while local traders were called training, support services, communications, repairs and
banik. Bengal exported sugar, rice as well as delicate maintenance, etc of the three Services, within three
muslin and silk. The Coramandal coast became a years of the first CDS assuming office.
centre of textile production. Gujarat was an entry · Ensure optimal utilisation of infrastructure and
point of foreign goods. From there, fine textiles and rationalise it through jointness among the services.
silk were taken to north India. Indigo and food grains · Implement Five-Year Defence Capital Acquisition Plan
were exported from north India through Gujarat. It (DCAP), and Two-Year roll-on Annual Acquisition
was also the distribution centre for the luxury products Plans (AAP), as a follow up of Integrated Capability
of Kashmir such as shawls and carpets. The major Development Plan (ICDP).
imports into India were certain metals such as tin and · Assign inter-Services prioritisation to capital acquisition
copper, war horses and luxury items such as ivory. proposals based on the anticipated budget.
The balance of trade was maintained by the import of Bring about reforms in the functioning of three
gold and silver. The growth of foreign trade had Services aimed at augmenting combat capabilities of
resulted in the increased import of gold and silver in the Armed Forces by reducing wasteful expenditure.
the seventeenth century. Statement 3 is correct: The Chief of Defence Staff,
Statement 2 is correct: An estimate claims that the apart from being the head of the Department of
population of India at the beginning of the seventeenth Military Affairs, will also be the Permanent Chairman
century was about 125 million. As plenty of land was of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. He will act as the
available for cultivation, agriculture was prosperous. A Principal Military Adviser to Raksha Mantri on
large variety of crops such as wheat, rice, gram, barley, all tri-Services matters. The three Chiefs will continue
pulses were cultivated. Commercial crops such as to advise RM on matters exclusively concerning their
cotton, indigo, sugarcane and oil-seeds were also respective Services. CDS will not exercise any military
cultivated. During the seventeenth century two new command, including over the three Service Chiefs, so
crops, namely, tobacco and maize were added. as to be able to provide impartial advice to the political
Potato and red chillies came later in the eighteenth leadership.
century. But, no new agricultural technique was 100. (a)

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MOCK TEST

1. Consider the following statements about the envisaged 1. Turkey 2. Azerbaijan

COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, MAY 2022 113

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