MOCK TEST

CURRENT AFFAIRS
1. Consider the following statements about THAAD: 3. He founded the Naujawan Bharat Sabha.
1. THAAD is a transportable, ground-based missile Which of the statements given above are correct?
defence system. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. It is alarmed about the incoming missiles by the (b) 2 and 3 only
space-based satellites with infrared sensors. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. This anti-ballistic missile defence system has been (d) 1, 2 and 3
designed and manufactured by the US Company
Lockheed Martin. 7. Which of the following disasters are covered under
Which of the statements given above are correct? the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF)?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only 1. Tsunami
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Flood
2. Consider the following statements about the New 3. Pest attack
START Treaty: 4. Frost
1. It is signed between the USA and the People’s 5. Landslide
Republic of China. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. The Treaty will expire in 2021, unless both the (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
parties agree to extend it. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Consider the following statements about the Treasury
3. Consider the following statements about Guru Nanak: Bills:
1. He emphasised on the equality of the women. 1. The Treasury Bills are categorised as money market
2. He supported the authority of the Vedas. instruments.
3. His approach aimed at bridging the distinctions 2. They are issued via auctions, conducted by the
between the Hindus and the Muslims. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) at regular intervals.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 3. They are issued at a discount to the original value
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only and the buyer gets the original value upon maturity. 
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above are correct?
4. Which of the following countries would be the (a) 1 and 3 only
member(s) of the Proposed G11 grouping?
(b) 1 and 2 only
1. India
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. China
3. Australia (d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 9. With respect to the regulation of the Co-operative
Banks in India, consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The Long-Term Credit Co-operatives are outside
the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949,
5. Consider the following statements about Project Ahana: and are, hence, not regulated by the RBI.
1. Project Ahana is a national programme, working 2. There is dual regulation and control over the
towards an AIDS free generation. Central Co-operative Banks (CCBs) at the district
2. It is launched by Plan India, an autonomous body level and the State Co-operative Banks (StCBs) at
of the National AIDS Control Organisation the state level.
(NACO).
3. The Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs) are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
completely under the regulation and supervision
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only of the RBI.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
6. Consider the following statements about Bhagat Singh:
(a) 1 only
1. Bhagat Singh wrote a pamphlet, “Why am I an
Atheist.” (b) 1 and 2 only
2. He strongly critiqued the practice of untouchability (c) 3 only
and communalism. (d) 1 and 3 only
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022 95
MOCK TEST
10. If there is an increase in the net financial assets of the 2. Karnataka is the largest producer of natural rubber
households, what, of the following, would it denote? in India.
1. An increase in the household borrowings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. An increase in the household savings. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. A decrease in the household borrowings. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. A decrease in the household savings. 16. The Galwan River is a tributary of which of the
Select the correct answer using the code given below: following?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Zanskar (b) Nubra
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (c) Shyok (d) Drass
11. With reference to the Banks Board Bureau (BBB), 17. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
consider the following statements: the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue?
1. It is a non-statutory body, set up on the 1. It aims at establishing an international order based
recommendations of the P.J. Nayak Committee, on the rule of law in the Indo-Pacific.
to improve the governance of the Public Sector 2. This coalition started in 2017 on the sidelines of
Banks (PSBs). the ASEAN Summit.
2. The mandate of the BBB is to appoint the heads Select the correct answer using the code given below:
of the Public Sector Banks and the Financial (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Institutions. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 18. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It reports to both the United Nations General
12. Consider the following statements about the Swadeshi Assembly and the UN Security Council.
Movement: 2. India is a founding member of the IAEA.
1. The Swadeshi Sangam was formed in Tamil Nadu. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. V. O. Chidambaram Pillai formed the Swadeshi (a) 1 only
Steam Navigation Company. (b) 2 only
3. There was no labour unrest in Tamil Nadu during (c) Both 1 and 2
the Swadeshi Movement.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above are correct?
19. Which among the following accounts/account for the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only highest share of external debt in India?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Debt from the multilateral institutions, such as
13. Consider the following statements: the World Bank
1. The concept of the Model Code of Conduct was (b) Trade credits/export credits
introduced in India during the first general election, (c) External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs)
held in 1952.
(d) NRI deposits in the banks
2. The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from
the date of the announcement of the election 20. The Financial Action Task Force aims at which of the
schedule by the Election Commission. following?
3. The electoral roll is revised at a regular interval of 1. To check money laundering.
five years. 2. To check terror financing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. To stop funding for the weapons of mass
(a) 2 only destruction.
(b) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
14. If the Net International Investment Position (NIIP) (c) 2 and 3 only
of a country is positive, what would it denote? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) It denotes that the country is a net international 21. The Zimmerman Plan, during the modern Indian
creditor. history, is related to which of the following?
(b) It denotes that the country is a net international (a) It was a Plan by the revolutionaries to import
debtor. arms in India from Germany, to bring about an
(c) The net inflow of the FDI into the country for a all-India insurrection.
particular year is positive. (b) It was a Plan developed by Netaji Subhash Chandra
(d) The net inflow of all foreign investments in a Bose to defeat the British forces in India with
particular year is positive. German assistance.
15. With reference to the rubber production in India, (c) It was related to a Plan made by the British Army
consider the following statements: Commander Zimmerman.
1. India is the second largest producer and consumer (d) It was a Plan of the Ghadar activists, to bring
of natural rubber in the world. about freedom of India.
96 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
MOCK TEST
22. Consider the following statements about the Montagu- (a) 1 only
Chelmsford Reforms: (b) 1 and 2 only
1. The women were given the right to vote. (c) 2 and 3 only
2. The Secretary of the State for India was to be (d) 1, 2 and 3
paid out of the British Exchequer. 28. Which of the following is/are the strategic choke
3. The elected members were in majority in the point(s) of the Indian Ocean?
Provincial Legislative Councils, while the 1. The Strait of Malacca
nominated members were in majority in the Central 2. The Strait of Hormuz
Legislative Assembly.
3. Bab el-Mandeb
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
23. Consider the following statements about the Hunter
Committee of Inquiry: 29. Consider the following statements:
1. There was no Indian representation in the 1. Bioremediation is the cleaning of the polluted sites,
Committee. through the naturally occurring micro-organisms
for breaking down the environmental pollutants.
2. The Hunter Committee did not impose any penal
2. Effective bioremediation needs a combination of
or disciplinary action.
the right temperature, nutrients and food.
3. The Report condemned the actions of Dyer.
3. Bioremediation relies on stimulating the growth
Which of the statements given above are correct? of certain microbes, that use the contaminants,
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only like oil, solvents and pesticides, as a source of
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 food and energy.
24. Consider the following statements regarding the Dark Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Net: (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
1. It provides anonymity to the source of the web (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
content. 30. Consider the following statements about the Lonar
2. The Dark Net provides protection against the Lake:
malware and virus attack. 1. The lake is located in the world’s only high velocity
3. The communication is faster in the Dark Net. impact formed in the basaltic rock.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. The crater on which the lake sits is oval in shape.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only 3. It is located in Tamil Nadu.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
25. Which of the following statements is/are correct (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
regarding the 5G Club? (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It is aimed at channelling the investments into the 31. Consider the following statements:
existing telecommunication companies, within the 1. Epicentre is the point on the surface of the Earth,
member states. that is directly above the focus, where the fault
2. It is basically mooted in order to develop the rupture commences, producing an earthquake.
alternate supply chain of the 5G technology. 2. An S wave is slower than a P wave and can only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: move through solid rock.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
26. Which of the following statements is/are correct about (b) 2 only
the Arms Trade Treaty? (c) Both 1 and 2
1. It comes under the UN Office for Disarmament (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Affairs. 32. Consider the following statements about the Nagar
2. India joined this Treaty in 2014. Van Scheme:
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1. The Nagar Van aims at developing 200 Urban
(a) 1 only Forests pan India in the coming five years.
(b) 2 only 2. The funding from the CAMPA Fund will be
(c) Both 1 and 2 provided for the Scheme.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. It is a programme under the Ministry of Housing
27. Which of the following islands is/are located in the and Urban Affairs.
South China Sea? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Senkaku (a) 2 only
2. Parcel (b) 1 and 2 only
3. Hokkaido (c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (d) 1, 2 and 3
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022 97
MOCK TEST
33. Which of the following events took place during Prime (b) 2 only
Minister Narasimha Rao’s regime? (c) Both 1 and 2
1. The 73rd and the 74th Constitutional Amendment (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Acts. 38. Consider the following pairs:
2. The creation of the Competition Commission of 1. Maareech: Multi-Barrel Rocket Launch System
India and the abolishment of the Monopolies and 2. Pinaka: Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile
Restrictive Trade Practices Commission.
3. Astra: Anti-Torpedo Decoy System
3. Statutory status to the SEBI.
4. Nirbhay: Long-Range Sub-Sonic Cruise Missile
4. Establishment of diplomatic relations with Israel.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
5. Implementation of the Mandal Commission matched?
Recommendations.
(a) 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
39. Consider the following pairs:
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1. Ashadhi Bij Festival: Gujarat
34. Consider the following pairs:
2. Raja Parba Festival: Tripura
1. V. L. Kantha Rao : Expert Committee on the
3. Jyestha Ashtami Festival: Madhya Pradesh
Committee Cantonment Boards.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
2. Bimal Julka : Rationalisation of the Film matched?
Committee Media Units. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Sumit Bose : Corporatisation of the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Committee Ordnance Factory Boards. 40. Which among the following can be considered as the
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly Direct Monetisation of the Government’s Deficit?
matched? 1. The government borrowing money from the RBI,
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only through the issuance of the G-Secs.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The government borrowing money from the
35. Consider the following statements about the Attorney market.
General for India: 3. The RBI carrying out the Open Market Operations
1. The Attorney General for India is appointed by (OMOs) to inject money into the economy.
the Cabinet, on the recommendation of the Union Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Ministry of Law. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
2. The Attorney General for India, once appointed,
cannot indulge in private practice of law. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 41. Consider the following statements about the Open Data
Charter:
(a) 1 only
1. It is a Charter to be adopted by the governments,
(b) 2 only under the auspices of the United Nations.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The Government of India has adopted the Open
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Data Charter.
36. Consider the following statements about the National 3. The Charter calls for ‘Open by Default’, meaning
Productivity Council: that there is a presumption of the publication of
1. It is an autonomous organisation, which functions data collected by the governments.
under the NITI Aayog. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. The Gover ning Council of the National (a) 3 only (b) 1 only
Productivity Council is headed by the Prime
Minister. (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 42. Consider the following statements about the Protection
of Human Rights Act, 1993:
(a) 1 only
1. It statutorily establishes the National Human Rights
(b) 2 only Commission and the State Human Rights
(c) Both 1 and 2 Commissions.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. A Judge of the Supreme Court can become the
37. Consider the following statements about cattle in India: Chairperson of the National Human Rights
1. The total number of cattle in the country in 2019 Commission (NHRC).
has increased over the previous census. 3. One member of the NHRC shall mandatorily be
2. The female cattle (Cows’ population) has decreased a woman.
over the previous census. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
98 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
MOCK TEST
43. The Paris Principles are related to the constitution of 48. Consider the following pairs:
which of the following? 1. Labour Force Participation Rate: Percentage of
(a) The National Human Rights Commission the persons in the labour force in the population.
(b) The Interpol 2. Unemployment Rate: Percentage of the persons
(c) The Financial Intelligence Units unemployed among the total population.
(d) The Computer Emergency Response Team 3. Worker Population Ratio: Percentage of the
(CERT) employed persons in the population.
44. Consider the following statements about the United Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
Nations Convention Against Torture: matched?
1. India is a signatory to the Convention, but has not (a) 1 only
ratified it yet. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. The Convention prevents extradition to a country, (c) 1 and 3 only
where there is a danger of torture. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The Convention allows the use of torture only in 49. Consider the following statements:
certain situations, such as war and for national 1. Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar campaigned against
security. polygamy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. Vidyasagar was an agnostic, who refused to discuss
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only the supernatural.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
45. Consider the following statements about the Rights of (a) 1 only
Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016: (b) 2 only
1. Every child with benchmark disability has the right (c) Both 1 and 2
to access free education till he attains age of 18.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Every higher education institution to reserve not
less than 5% of seats for the persons with 50. With reference to the Special Liquidity Window for
benchmark disabilities. the NBFCs, consider the following statements:
3. The government organisations are mandated to 1. Under this Window, the NBFCs can avail direct
reserve not less than 4% of the total number of borrowing from the RBI for the first time.
vacancies in the cadre strength. 2. The borrowed money should be used by the
Which of the statements given above are correct? NBFCs only for the purpose of repaying their
(a) 1 and 2 only borrowed money.
(b) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Consider the following statements about the Animal 51. With reference to the Government Final Consumption
Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund: Expenditure (GFCE), consider the following
1. It has a corpus of Rs. 15,000 crore. statements:
2. It will incentivise the co-operatives involved in 1. The share of the GFCE to India’s GDP is more
the dairy, meat processing and animal feed plants. than 25%.
3. Three percent interest subvention will be given to 2. In the recent years, drastic decrease in the rate of
the eligible beneficiaries. the GFCE has led to the present economic
Which of the statements given above are correct? slowdown.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only
47. Consider the following statements about the National (b) 2 only
Coal Index: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. The Index has been developed on the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
recommendation of the Pratyush Sinha 52. Consider the following statements about Sikandar
Committee. Lodhi:
2. The Index will be used for the auction of the coal 1. Under Sikandar Lodhi’s reign, Vasco da Gama
mines for commercial mining on revenue sharing landed in India.
basis. 2. Sikandar Lodhi made conquests in Bihar and
3. It does not take into account the prices of the Bengal.
imported coal. 3. He founded the city of Agra.
Which of statements given above are correct? Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022 99
MOCK TEST
53. With reference to the International Comparison 3. The election to the Panchayats shall be conducted
Programme (ICP), consider the following statements: by the State Election Commission.
1. It is a world-wide data collection initiative to come Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
out with the Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) rates (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only
of different countries. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 only
2. It is directly managed and published by the UN 58. Consider the following statements about the National
Statistical Commission (UNSC). Crisis Management Committee (NCMC):
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only the National Crisis Management Committee.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. It is a statutory body under the Disaster
54. Consider the following statements: Management Act, 2005.
1. Aksai Chin connects Tibet with Xinjiang. 3. It plays an important role in the handling of the
2. The territories of India, Bhutan and China intersect multi-state disasters.
in the Doklam Plateau, which is adjacent to the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Chumbi Valley. (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 59. The Sarkaria Commission gave recommendations on
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 which of the following issues?
55. Which of the following statements about the 1. The Reservation of the Bills by the Governors
Constitutional Office of the Governor are correct? for the President’s consideration
1. The Governor, under the Fifth Schedule to the 2. The Emergency Provisions
Indian Constitution, can amend any Act of the 3. All India Services
Parliament or the State Legislature, from applying 4. The Role of the Governors
to the Scheduled Areas or any part of the 5. Inter-Governmental Councils
Scheduled Areas in his/her state. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. The Governor, before entering upon his office, (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
shall make and subscribe an oath or affirmation,
in the presence of the Chief Justice of India or, (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
in his absence, the senior most Judge of the (c) 1, 4 and 5 only
Supreme Court. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. All executive actions of the government of a state 60. Which of the following seas/ocean shares/share its/
shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the their maritime boundary/boundaries with Taiwan?
Governor. 1. The East China Sea
4. The Governor shall make rules for the more 2. The South China Sea
convenient transaction of the business of the 3. The Pacific Ocean
government of the state. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only
56. Consider the following statements about the Vande (d) 1, 2 and 3
Bharat Mission: 61. With reference to the Joint Sitting of both the Houses
1. The Mission aims at operating non-scheduled of Parliament, consider the following statements:
commercial flights. 1. The Attorney General of India is prohibited by
2. The flights are being operated, based on the the Constitutional Provisions to attend the Joint
standard operating procedure (SOP), issued by the Sitting of both the Houses of Parliament.
Ministry of Home Affairs. 2. The President of India can call for a Joint Sitting
3. The cost of travel will be borne by the Central of both the Houses of Parliament on any Bill,
Government. including the Money Bill and the Constitution
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Amendment Bill.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 3. The Bills, at the Joint Sitting of both the Houses
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 of Parliament, are passed by a majority of the
57. Consider the following statements: total membership of that House and by a majority
1. The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, of not less than two-thirds of the members of
1992, gives constitutional recognition to both the that House, present and voting.
Panchayats and the Municipalities in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Organising the Village Panchayats and endowing (a) 1 and 3 only
them with the powers and authority necessary to (b) 2 only
enable them to function as the units of self- (c) 2 and 3 only
government is a part of the Fundamental Duties. (d) None of the above
100 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
MOCK TEST
62. Consider the following statements about the Konark 67. Consider the following statements about the Dekho
temple: Apna Desh Initiative:
1. The temple is a representation of the Sun God’s 1. It is a programme, where the students from classes
chariot. 8-12 are promoted to visit the remarkable sites
2. It was constructed during the reign of the Pala present in India.
dynasty. 2. It is run by the Ministry of Culture.
3. The temple is called White Pagoda. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
63. Consider the following statements about the Belt and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Road Initiative (BRI): 68. Consider the following statements about the Virtual
1. The ‘Silk Road Economic Belt’ is a land-based Courts in India:
network of road, which is expected to connect 1. The Supreme Court is using the Zoom App for
China with Central Asia, Eastern Europe and conducting the virtual courts.
Western Europe. 2. The first Virtual Court was established to deal
2. The ‘Maritime Silk Road’ is a sea-based route, digitally with the on-spot traffic challans, generated
which is expected to connect China’s southern by the Delhi Traffic Police.
coast to the Mediterranean, Africa, South-East Asia
and Central Asia. 3. The Chief Justice of India is the ex-officio
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Chairman of the e-Committee of the Supreme
Court of India.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
64. Consider the following pairs: 69. Consider the following statements about the Western
Ghats:
1. The Somasila Hydro Power Project: Godavari River
1. The Western Ghats are older than the Himalayas.
2. The Chutak Hydro Power Project: Chenab River
2. The area suggested for eco-sensitive zoning in the
3. The Nimoo Bazgo Power Project: Indus River Western Ghats was more by the Madhav Gadgil
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly Committee, as compared to the Kasturirangan
matched? Committee.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Myristica Swamps and Beels are the features of
(b) 3 only the Western Ghats.
(c) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
65. Consider the following statements about the (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Responsible AI for Youth Programme: 70. Consider the following statements about Delimitation
1. The Programme has been launched by the Ministry in India:
of Science and Technology. 1. The Inter-State delimitation of seats happens after
2. The Programme is open for the students of classes every Census in India.
8-12, from the central and the state government 2. The State Election Commissioner of the
run schools. concerned state is a member of the Delimitation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Commission.
(a) 1 only 3. The delimitation of the Union Territory of Jammu
(b) 2 only and Kashmir is being done according to the Census
(c) Both 1 and 2 2011.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above are correct?
66. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The Gumti River connects Meghalaya and (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Bangladesh. 71. Consider the following statements about Carbon Foam:
2. The Bharatapuzha river is a tributary of the 1. Carbon foam batteries are highly resistive to
Cauvery River. corrosion, as compared to the Li-ion batteries.
3. The Dzukou valley is located in the state of Sikkim. 2. Carbon foams can help remove arsenic, oil and
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? other particles from the contaminated water.
(a) 3 only 3. Carbon foams are toxic in nature.
(b) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022 101
MOCK TEST
72. Consider the following statements about the Open Skies Which of the pairs of multilateral air combat exercises,
Treaty (OST): given above, is/are correctly matched?
1. Under the Treaty, a member state can “spy” on (a) 1 only
any part of the host nation, with the latter’s (b) 1 and 3 only
consent. (c) 2 and 3 only
2. The Treaty was signed after the demise of the (d) 1, 2 and 3
Soviet Union in 1992. 77. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
3. India is not a member country. the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (SIPRI)?
(a) 2 only 1. It is a Swedish think-tank dedicated to research
(b) 1 and 2 only into conflict, armaments, arms control and
(c) 2 and 3 only disarmament.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. India and China have been reported to have
73. Which of the following statements is/are correct about emerged among the top three military spenders.
the Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme? 3. The Trends in World Military Expenditure is an
1. The Scheme aims to facilitate the indigenous annual report released by the SIPRI.
defence production and reduce the imports of Select the correct answer using the code given below:
the military equipment. (a) 2 only
2. It aims at setting up of the Greenfield Defence (b) 1 and 3 only
Testing Infrastructure, a common facility under (c) 1 and 2 only
the private sector, with the government assistance. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. It is limited to setting up the test facilities in the 78. Consider the following statements about the Sample
Defence Industrial Corridors (DICs) only. Registration System Survey:
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1. The Survey is conducted by the Indian Council
(a) 2 only of Medical Research.
(b) 1 and 3 only 2. It gives annual estimates of IMR, birth rate and
death rate.
(c) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
74. Consider the following statements about the Infant (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Mortality Rate (IMR) in India:
79. Consider the following statements about birth rate and
1. Kerala has the lowest IMR among all the states in death rate in India:
India.
1. Death rate for males is higher than that for females.
2. IMR in the rural areas is more than that in the
2. Assam has the highest birth rate among all the
urban areas. Indian states.
3. For all the states, female IMR is more than male 3. Chhattisgarh has the highest death rate among all
IMR. the Indian states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
75. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 80. The ILO Convention 144, which was recently in the
1. India conducted its first peaceful nuclear explosion news, is related to which of the following?
in 1974 and code-named it ‘Smiling Buddha’. (a) Ban on the child labour
2. Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India at (b) Promotion of tripartism
that time. (c) Protection of the migrant labourers
3. India became the first country, outside the five (d) Social security for the labourers
permanent United Nations Security Council 81. With reference to the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF),
(UNSC) members, to conduct the test. consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1. This tool enables the RBI to absorb excess liquidity
(a) 2 only from the economy without using the G-Secs as
(b) 1 and 3 only collateral.
(c) 1 and 2 only 2. This tool would replace the tool of Reverse Repo.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
76. Consider the following pairs: (a) 1 only
1. Red Flag Exercise - The United States (b) 2 only
2. Blue Flag Air Combat Drill – Saudi Arabia (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Exercise Pitch Black – Australia (d) Neither 1 nor 2
102 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
MOCK TEST
82. With reference to the Voluntary Retention Route (VRR), Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. This is a new channel which enables the FPIs to (b) 1 and 2 only
invest in the debt markets in India. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. The entire investment under this route is required (d) 1, 2 and 3
to be retained in India for a certain duration. 87. The Maharashtra Governor has modified the Scheduled
3. The FPIs are not allowed to liquidate their Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
investments prior to the retention period. (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, allowing the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? rightful claimants of the forest rights to appeal against
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only the decisions of the District Level Committee (DLC),
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 by amending Section 6 of the Act. The decision of the
83. With reference to the Consolidated Sinking Fund (CSF), Governor of Maharashtra has been taken under which
consider the following statements: of the following provisions of the Constitution of
1. It is a dedicated fund set up by the state India?
governments to meet their debt repayment (a) Under the Sixth Schedule
obligations. (b) Under the Fifth Schedule
2. All the states in India have set up the Consolidated (c) Under the Seventh Schedule
Sinking Fund (CSF). (d) None of the above
3. This Fund is managed by the RBI. 88. Which of the following statements about the Binary
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Star System is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 1. It is a system of two stars gravitationally bound to
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only each other.
84. The Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008, 2. Such systems are rarely formed in the universe.
provides for which of the following? 3. The orbits of the binary stars help in directly
1. The Act allows only the state governments to determining the mass of the stars.
provide certain social security benefits to the Select the correct answer using the code given below:
workers of the unorganised sector. (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
2. Every unorganised worker shall be registered and (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
issued an identity card by the District 89. With reference to the Minimum Support Price (MSP)
Administration. for the Minor Forest Produce (MFP), consider the
3. The Workers’ Facilitation Centre shall disseminate following statements:
information on the available social security schemes 1. The MSP for the Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is
for the unorganised workers and assist the declared by the Ministry of Environment, Forest
unorganised workers with the registration process and Climate Change.
in the district. 2. The scheme covers 10 MFPs across all the states.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 3. The TRIFED is the nodal agency under this
(a) 1 and 2 only scheme.
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
85. The Factories Act, 1948, regulates which of the (c) 3 only
following? (d) 2 and 3 only
1. The working conditions of the adults in the 90. Which among the following international agencies
factories and industries of India. publishes the “Energy Transition Index”?
2. The employment of the children and adolescents (a) The World Bank
in the factories and industries. (b) The World Economic Forum
3. Work timings for the women and the children. (c) The International Energy Agency
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (d) The International Monetary Fund
(a) 1 and 2 only 91. Consider the following statements about the African
(b) 1 and 3 only Swine Fever (ASF):
(c) 2 and 3 only 1. While there is a vaccine for the Classical Swine
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Fever, no vaccine is available against ASF.
86. With reference to the Central Bank Digital Currency 2. Unlike the Swine Flu (H1N1), ASF does not affect
(CBDC), consider the following statements: the humans.
1. It is a digital currency which is accepted as a legal Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
tender for transactions within a country. (a) 1 only
2. The currency can be programmed to be used only (b) 2 only
for certain selected transactions. (c) Both 1 and 2
3. China has recently issued the world’s first CBDC. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022 103
MOCK TEST
92. Which of the following is/are favourable condition(s) 2. They emit light due to the nuclear fusion reactions
for the formation of the tropical cyclones? happening in their core.
1. They are associated with the Inter-Tropical Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Convergence Zone during the summer season. (a) 1 only
2. Anti-cyclonic conditions should prevail in the (b) 2 only
upper troposphere. (c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
98. Which of the following organisations/institutions
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 launched the behaviour change campaign ‘Navigating
93. Which of the following conditions is/are favourable the New Normal’ and its website to help people follow
for the occurrence of the heat waves? norms to contain the spread of Covid-19?
1. Prevalence of hot dry air over a region. (a) The NITI Aayog
2. Presence of moisture in the upper atmosphere. (b) The Finance Ministry
3. Presence of anti-cyclonic circulation in the area. (c) The International Monetary Fund
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(d) None of the above
(a) 1 only
99. In order to facilitate and support the development of
(b) 1 and 3 only the polymer industry in Odisha and the eastern part
(c) 2 and 3 only of the country, a Product Application and Development
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Centre (PADC) has been set up by the Indian Oil
94. Which of the following species of locust are native to Corporation Ltd. (IOCL) at which of the following
India? places?
1. Desert locust (a) Paradip
2. Migratory locust (b) Patna
3. Bombay locust
(c) Jaipur
4. Tree locust
(d) Bengaluru
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only 100. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
the Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research
(b) 2 and 3 only Collaboration (SPARC)?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. The SPARC aims at improving the research
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ecosystem of India’s Higher Educational
95. Styrene gas is found in which of the following? Institutions.
1. Vehicle exhaust 2. It is implemented by the Ministry of Education.
2. Fruits Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3. Cigarette smoke
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ANSWERS
96. Consider the following statements about the
International Day of Light: 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a)
1. It is an initiative by the United Nations 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
Environment Programme to raise global awareness 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d)
of the achievements of light science and its 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)
applications. 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c)
2. It is celebrated every year to commemorate the 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (b)
anniversary of the first successful operation of 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (d)
the laser in 1960 by physicist and engineer, 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)
Theodore Maiman. 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (b)
(a) 1 only 51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (c)
(b) 2 only 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (b)
(c) Both 1 and 2 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (b)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (d)
97. Consider the following statements about the Brown 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (b)
Dwarfs: 81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (d)
1. They are the substellar objects whose mass is 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (b)
lighter than other planets, but greater than the 91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (d)
stars. 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (a) 100. (c)
104 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
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Q.1) The ‘government bonds’ which have no maturity C. Majority of life insurance business was with Indian
and are tradable on the floors of the stock companies.
exchanges are known as? D. None of the above
A. Consols Q.6) Consider the following statements regarding High
B. Contrarian Powered Money :
C. Ceteris Paribus 1. It is the total liability of RBI.
D. Cash Cow 2. It consists of currency which includes notes and
Q.2) If interest rate is increased in an economy, it will coins in circulation with the public.
1. Increase the consumption expenditure in the 3. It consists of deposits held by the Government of
economy. India and commercial banks with RBI.
2. Decrease tax collection of government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Decrease the investment expenditure in the A. 1 only B. 2 only
economy. C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3
4. Decrease the savings in the economy. Q.7) Which of the following is/are input pillars of the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ‘Global Innovation Index’?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only 1. Human capital and research
B. 1 and 2 only 2. Knowledge and technology
3. Business sophistication
C. 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
D. 3 and 4 only
Q.3) Recently, Bharat QR code has been launched for A. 1 and 3 only
the purpose of providing impetus to digital B. 2 only
banking and payments. Which among the C. 1 and 2 only
following is/are correct in that regard? D. 1, 2 and 3
1. It is capable of 360 degree of high speed reading. Q.8) With reference to “100 Octane petrol”, consider
2. It can store atleast 5 times more digits than the following statements :
conventional bar code. 1. Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) is the first
manufacturer in India to launch premium-grade
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 100 Octane petrol in the country.
A. 1 only 2. It is designed to extract better performance from
B. 2 only the engines of high-end bikes and cars, enhancing
C. Both 1 and 2 fuel economy and engine life.
D. Neither 1 nor 2 3. With this fuel, India has joined the league of six
Q.4) With reference to “Software Defined Radio Tactical countries worldwide where petrol with 100 or
(SDR-Tac)”, consider the following statements : higher-Octane number is sold.
1. It is jointly developed by Navy, BEL, DRDO and Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
DEAL. A. 1 only
2. It is intended to serve ship to ship, ship to shore B. 2 and 3 only
and ship to air voice and data communication for C. 1 and 3 only
network-centric operations. D. 2 only
3. This SDR system houses multiple types of Q.9) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
wavefor ms for narrowband and wideband (CACP) is mandated to advise on the price policy
applications. of certain crops. Which of the following crops is/
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? are included for Minimum Support Price?
A. 1 only 1. Wheat
B. 1 and 2 only 2. Gram
C. 2 and 3 only 3. Groundnut
D. 1, 2 and 3 4. Tea
Q.5) Regarding the economic situation of India at the 5. Coffee
eve of independence, which of the following Select the correct answer using the code given below.
statement is incorrect? A. 4 and 5 only
A. Majority of market was in control of Indian B. 1, 2 and 3 only
enterprises. C. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. Majority of deposits were with Indian banks. D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022 105
MOCK TEST
Q.10) Consider the following statements regarding Truck C. Paris Agreement
Farming practiced in Europe: D. Reykjavik Agreement
1. This is the region where farmers specialise in Q.16) The ‘Helina’ and ‘Dhruvastra’ were recently in
vegetables only. news. Which of the following is correct regarding
2. The name ‘truck farming’ is due to the travelling the same?
time of truck from the farm to the market A. These are main battle tanks designed and developed
overnight. indigenously by DRDO.
3. This is the type of farming practiced in dry area B. These are Surface-to-Air Missile systems developed
where the water is being carried on truck for by DRDO with transfer of technology from
irrigation and hence the name truck farming. France.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? C. These are Air-to-Air missiles system developed by
A. 1 and 2 only Israel Aerospace for Indian Army.
B. 2 and 3 only D. These are Anti-Tank Guided Missile Systems
C. 2 only developed by DRDO for Army and Air Force in
D. All of the above the country.
Q.11) Identify the State having following characteristics: Q.17) Which one of the following is not related to United
Nations?
1. The ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is called ‘Pama
A. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
Dabi’ or ‘Koman’ or Bringa’ in this state.
B. International Finance Corporation
2. This state has passed the first resolution for Joint
Forest Management. C. International Centre for Settlement of Investment
Disputes
3. The tribals of this state worship the tamarind and
mango trees during weddings. D. Bank for International Settlements
Q.18) In the context of gover nance, consider the
Which one of the following state has the above following :
characteristics?
1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows
A. Tripura B. Mizoram 2. Privatisation of higher educational institutions
C. Odisha D. Jharkhand 3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
Q.12) Pangong Tso is situated to the
4. Selling/offloading the shares of Public Sector
A. East of Aksai Chin Undertakings
B. East of Leh Which of the above can be used as measures to control
C. North of Gilgit the fiscal deficit in India?
D. North of Nubra Valley A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4
Q.13) Consider the following statements, with reference C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
to Gharials: Q.19) The Security Council of UN consists of 5
1. These are declared as protected species under the per manent members, and the remaining 10
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. members are elected by the General Assembly for
2. National Chambal Sanctuary is the largest home a term of ?
of the Gharials in India. A. 1 year B. 2 years
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? C. 3 years D. 5 years
A. 1 only B. 2 only Q.20) With reference to City Innovation Exchange (CiX)
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 platform, consider the following statements :
Q.14) With reference to Agricultural Subsidies under 1. It will connect cities to innovators across the
WTO provisions, consider the following national ecosystem to design innovative solutions
statements : for their pressing challenges.
1. Amber Box Subsidy covers direct payments made to 2. It is designed on the philosophy of ‘everyone is an
limit production. innovator’.
2. Green Box Subsidy is considered as trade distorting 3. It is launched by Department of Financial Affairs,
subsidy. Ministry of Finance.
3. Minimum Support Price (MSP) of India comes under Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Blue Box Subsidy. A. 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? B. 3 only
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3 only Q.21) The President can dismiss a Cabinet Minister, who
D. 2 only is also an MP, with?
Q.15) Which one of the following is used by the A. Consent from the Speaker.
Inter national Cour t of Justice in disputes B. The recommendation of the Prime Minister.
concerning riparian rights? C. A show cause note issued to the Judiciary.
A. Geneva Agreement D. The application of Doctrine of Pleasure of the
B. Helsinki Agreement President.
106 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
MOCK TEST
Q.22) Which among the following are the Unitary
Features of the Constitution of India?
1. Destructible States  2. Salaries, allowances and pension of the Chairman
2. Independent Judiciary  and Members of the Union Public Service
3. Flexibility of the Constitution
4. All India Services  3. Emoluments and allowances of the President and
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 3
Q.23) Which of the following is/are not a provision of
42nd Constitution Amendment Act, 1976?
1. Constitutional amendments were made beyond
judicial review
2. Raised tenure of Lok Sabha from 5 years to
6 years
3. Added three new words (i.e., Socialist, Secular and
Democratic) in the Preamble
4. Added fundamental duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 4 only
C. 3 only D. 1 only
Q.24) Which of the following statements is/are correct
about Swachh Iconic Places (SIP) initiative of
Indian Government?
1. The Ministry of Tourism is the nodal ministry for
this initiative.
2. Its objective is to achieve a distinctly higher level
of Sanitation/Cleanliness at these places, especially
on the peripheries and in approach areas.
3. It aims at enhancing the experience of both
domestic and foreign visitors by improving the
sanitation and cleanliness standards at and around
the sites.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Q.25) Consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of the United States of America
came into force in the year 1810.
2. All revenue bills must originate in the House of
Representatives of the US Congress.
3. George W. Bush is the only President in the history
of the United States of America whose father was
also the President of the United States of America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only
Q.26) Which of the following statements is/are incorrect
about ‘Central Bureau of Investigation’?
1. It is a statutory body.
2. It provides assistance to the Central Vigilance
Commission and Lokpal for prevention of
cor r uption and maintaining integrity in
administration.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.27) Which of the following are under the expenditure
‘charged’ upon the Consolidated Fund of India?
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
1. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges of
the High Court.
Commission.
other expenditure relating to his office.
4. Any sum required to satisfy any judgement, decree
or award of any court or arbitral tribunal.
5. Pensions of the judges of Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 5 B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 5 D. 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q.28) With reference to Global Bio-India 2021, consider
the following statements :
1. Global Bio-India is expected to facilitate recognition
of India as emerging Innovation Hub and Bio-
manufacturing Hub for the world.
2. The theme for this year is “Transforming Lives”
and tag line “Biosciences to Bioeconomy”.
3. The first edition of Global Bio-India was held in
2019 in New Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Q.29) Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A censure motion should state the reasons for its
adoption in the Lok Sabha whereas no-confidence
motion need not contain the reasons for its
adoption.
2. If a censure motion gets passed in the Lok Sabha,
the Council of Ministers must resign from office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.30) Which among the following kinds of majority is
required when Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
allowing the Parliament of India to make law on
State List in the national interest?
A. Simple Majority
B. Special Majority 
C. Special Majority and consent of the half of the
State Legislatures by Special Majority 
D. Special Majority and consent of the half of the
State Legislatures by Simple Majority 
Q.31) Consider the following statements in context of
“Cut motions” in Parliament :
1. Token Cut intends to ‘reduce the demand by a
specified amount’ representing the economy that
can be affected.
2. Disapproval of Policy Cut motion ‘represents
disapproval of the policy underlying the demand’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
107
MOCK TEST
Q.32) With reference to Augmented Reality Head
Mounted Display (ARHMD) System, consider the
following statements :
1. It intends to enhance the engagement capability
of Indian Navy during night data computation for
decision support and integration of output of
Thermal Imaging sight.
2. It intends to capability enhancement to Indian
Navy’s Land Based Air Defence Weapon Systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.33) Consider the following statements :
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is
vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of
the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.34) If the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly
decides to resign, he should submit his resignation
to the ?
A. Chief Minister
B. Deputy Speaker
C. Judge of the High Cou rt
D. President
Q.35) According to the Constitution of India, which are
the duties that can be assigned to an Inter State
Council?
1. Enquiring, investigating and adjudicating upon
disputes which may arise between states.
2. Investigating and discussing subjects in which the
states or the Centre and the states have a common
interest.
3. Making recommendations upon any such subject,
and particularly for the better co-ordination of
policy and action on it.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only D. 3 only
Q.36) With reference to the National Urban Digital
Mission (NUDM), consider the following
statements :
1. It will institutionalise a citizen-centric and
ecosystem-driven approach to urban governance
and service delivery in 2022 cities by 2022.
2. It has been launched by the Ministry of Housing
and Urban Affairs along with the Ministry of
Science and Technology.
3. It will create a shared digital infrastructure for urban
India to provide holistic support to cities and towns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Q.37) If the President of India revokes a proclamation
of emergency by subsequent proclamation then
which among the following houses of the
Parliament has/have authority to approve such
subsequent proclamation?
A. Lok Sabha  D. Neither 1 nor 2
108
B. Rajya Sabha 
C. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 
D. Neither Lok Sabha nor Rajya Sabha 
Q.38) Which of the following conditions is/are necessary
to recognise a political party as a national party?
1. If it secures six percent of valid votes polled in
any four or more states at a general election to the
Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly; and, in
addition, it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from
any state or states.
2. If it is recognised as a state party in four states.
3. If it secures eight percent of the total valid votes
polled in the six or more states.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 3 only B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 only
Q.39) Which among the following national bodies are
the Constitutional Bodies?
1. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes 
2. National Commission for Women 
3. National Commission for Minorities 
4. National Commission for Backward Classes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only  B. 1 and 4 only 
C. 1, 2 and 3 only  D. 2 and 4 only 
Q.40) Consider the following statements about solar
cycles :
1. The Sun rotates more quickly at its poles than at
its equator.
2. The sunspots which form at the surface with an
11-year periodicity are the only route to probe the
solar dynamo or solar magnetism inside the Sun.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.41) With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the
difference/differences between Jagirdar and
Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu
of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars
were holders of revenue rights without obligation
to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and
revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.42) Consider the following statements in the context
of the penetration of Portuguese in India :
1. Portuguese established her trading settlements along
the eastern coast of Tamilnadu.
2. Portugeese involved in piracy, inhuman cruelties
and secured many trading concessions by
threatening Mughal Emperors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
MOCK TEST
Q.43) The ‘Treaty of Gandamak’ in May 1879 was signed Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
between which of the following? A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only
A. The British and Afghan Rulers C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
B. The British and Tibetan Ruler Q.50) During Indian modern education developments,
C. The French and Burmese Rulers which of the following commission/committee
D. The British and Punjab Rulers was set up to go into conditions and prospects of
Q.44) With reference to Vertical Launch Short Range universities in India and to suggest measures for
Surface-to-Air Missile (VL-SRSAM), consider the improvement in their constitution and working ?
following statements : A. Butler Committee
1. VL-SRSAM is meant for neutralising various aerial B. Frazer Commission
threats at close ranges including sea-skimming C. Raleigh Commission
targets. D. Aitchison Commission
2. It is designed and developed indigenously by Q.51) Consider the following pairs :
DRDO for Indian Navy. 1. Lord Curzon : Appointment of Universities
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Commission (1902) and passing of Indian
A. 1 only B. 2 only Universities Act (1904)
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 2. Lord Reading : Deepavali Declaration
Q.45) Which of the following statements is/are correct 3. Lord Irwin : Appointment of the Harcourt Butler
regarding Brahmo Samaj? Indian States Commission (1927)
1. It opposed idolatry. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for matched?
interpreting the religious texts. A. 1, 2 and 3
3. It popularised the doctrine that the Vedas are B. 2 and 3 only
infallible. C. 1 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. D. 1 and 3 only
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only Q.52) The Diaoyu and Senkaku Islands are in news
C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 regarding the claims over the sovereignty of the
Q.46) Which one of the following upheavals took place nation. These islands are disputed between which
in Bengal immediately after the Revolt of 1857? of the following countries?
A. Sanyasi Rebellion A. Japan and China
B. Santhal Rebellion B. China and Russia
C. Indigo Disturbances C. Japan and Russia
D. Pabna Disturbances D. China and Vietnam
Q.47) With reference to Theosophical Society, consider Q.53) With reference to activities during the phase of
the following statements : Quit India Movement (QIM), consider the
following statements :
1. The movement came to be allied with the Hindu
renaissance. 1. Biju Patnaik was associated with the underground
movement and revolutionary activities in support
2. The movement was started by Annie Besant. of QIM.
3. It opposed child marriage and advocated the 2. Chittu Pande formed a parallel government and
abolition of caste discrimination. captured all the ten police stations in Ballia, in east
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UP.
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 only 3. Rashbehari Bose, a revolutionary activist mobilised
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 2 only the Indian soldiers taken as prisoners of war by
Q.48) With reference to anti-dumping duty, consider the the Japanese for an armed rebellion against the
following statements : British colonial rule.
1. The duty is aimed at ensuring fair trading practices Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
and creating a level-playing field for domestic A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2 only
producers vis-a-vis foreign producers and exporters. C. 1 and 2 only D. 3 only
2. The imposition of anti-dumping duty is permissible Q.54) Which of the following statements is/are correct
under the World Trade Organization (WTO) with regard to Indus Valley Civilization (IVC)
regime. script?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. The IVC script follows a boustrophedonic style.
A. 1 only B. 2 only 2. It was deciphered by IIT scientists and found to
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 be linked with Kharoshti script.
Q.49) With reference to the British Indian Association, Select the correct answer using the code given below.
consider the following statements : A. 1 only
1. It was exclusively Indian in its membership. B. 2 only
2. It represented primarily the local landlord interests. C. Both 1 and 2
3. It was mainly active in Bombay and western India. D. Neither 1 nor 2
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022 109
MOCK TEST
Q.55) Consider the following statements with respect to 1. It was introduced by Arthur Holmes in 1912.
the Charvaka Philosophical System : 2. According to this theory, all the continents formed
1. The system believes only in materialism. a single continental mass with a mega ocean
2. The system does not believe in soul, god, or any surrounding it.
other life beyond the present one. 3. It failed to give an account of the forces responsible
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? for drifting of the continents.
A. 1 only B. 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 A. 1 only B. 2 only
Q.56) With reference to “Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog”, C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
consider the following statements : Q.62) Which of the following factors have an impact on
1. It is an apex advisory body to address the issues Earth’s shape?
related to conservation, protection and development 1. Distribution of mass on Earth.
of cows and their progeny. 2. Postglacial rebound.
2. It reviews existing laws, policies as well as suggest 3. Gravitational pull of the moon and sun.
measures for optimum economic utilisation of cow Select the correct answer using the code given below.
wealth. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only
3. It is chaired by Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Husbandry & Dairying.
Q.63) Which of the following sources help in studying
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? about the interior of the earth?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only 1. Magnetic Field
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 2. Gravitation
Q.57) Consider the following statements regarding
features of Mahayana Buddhism : 3. Seismic activity
1. Its follower does not belief in Bodhisattvas. 4. Mining activity
2. The Buddha’s presence was shown in sculpture by Select the correct answer using the code given below.
using certain signs. A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only
3. The Buddha’s attainment of enlightenment was C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
shown by sculptures of the peepal tree. Q.64) Which of the following statements is/are correct
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? about Zolgensma gene therapy to treat spinal
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only muscular atrophy (SMA)?
C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 1. This therapy is a one-time injection that replaces
Q.58) Which of the following cave architectures has a the defective gene with normal gene and rectifies
unique feature of presence of high citadel known the disorder.
as “Upar-Kot” in front of the prayer hall? 2. This therapy is approved by US FDA for children
A. Nashik Caves B. Bagh Caves aged less than two years.
C. Junagarh Caves D. Ellora Caves 3. SMA is a genetic disorder in which one defective
gene causes muscle weakness and degenerates its
Q.59) Consider the following pairs with regard to various normal functions.
for ms of dance-drama or folk theatre and
associated states : Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. Nautanki : Maharashtra A. 1 only
2. Tamasha : Uttar Pradesh B. 1 and 2 only
3. Yakshagana : Karnataka C. 2 and 3 only
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly D. 1, 2 and 3
matched? Q.65) Which of the following are the initial conditions
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only for the emergence of a tropical cyclone?
C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 1. Large and continuous supply of warm and moist
Q.60) With reference to Acute Encephalitis Syndrome air that can release enormous latent heat.
(AES), consider the following statements : 2. Strong Coriolis force that can prevent filling of
1. The syndrome can be caused by virus, bacteria, low pressure at the centre.
fungi, and a range of agents. 3. Stable condition through the troposphere that
2. It affects central nervous system, mostly in children creates local disturbances around which a cyclone
and young adults. develops.
3. It is locally called chamkibukhar, surfaces during 4. Presence of strong vertical wind wedge, which
summer in the flood-prone districts of north Bihar. disturbs the vertical transport of latent heat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2 only A. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only B. 3 and 4 only
Q.61) Consider the following statements regarding C. 1, 2 and 3 only
continental drift theory : D. 2, 3 and 4 only
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MOCK TEST
Q.66) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
about distribution of temperature and salinity in
the world oceans?
1. The thermocline layer is characterised by rapid
increase in temperature with increasing depth.
2. Salinity, in general increases with increases in the
depth.
3. In the halocline zone, the salinity decreases with
increase of depth.
4. Other factors being constant, increasing salinity of
seawater causes its density to increase.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 2 and 4 only B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.67) What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial
counter-current?
A. The Earth’s rotation on its axis
B. Convergence of the two equatorial currents
C. Difference in salinity of water
D. Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator
Q.68) Which of the following statements is/are correct
about accredited investors?
1. These are professional investors who have an
understanding of various financial products and
the risks and returns associated with them.
2. They are recognised by many securities and
financial market regulators around the globe.
3. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced the
concept of “accredited investors”.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 2 only
Q.69) Which of the following is not a reason behind
occurrence of ‘Avalanches’ in Western Ghats?
A. Presence of steep slopes and vertical hills in
Western Ghats.
B. Mechanical weathering of the rocks due to
pronounced temperature change.
C. Western Ghats are made up of semi-consolidated
Sedimentary rocks.
D. Western Ghats receive heavy amount of rainfall in
short period of time.
Q.70) Which of the following ecological causes are
responsible for coral bleaching?
1. Temperature
2. Solar irradiance
3. Sedimentation
4. Subaerial exposure
5. Upwelling of sea water
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q.71) Consider the following statements in respect of
United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) :
1. It is established by the United Nations Environment
Program (UNEP).
2. It is based on Rio Declaration and the Forest
Principles.
3. All the member states of UN are its members.
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Q.72) Which of the following agencies has recently
planned to conduct airline mapping of Andaman
and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands to
get a bathymetric’ study of the ocean floor?
A. Anthropological Survey of India (AnSI)
B. Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute
(CMFRI)
C. Indian National Centre for Ocean Information
Services (INCOIS)
D. Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM)
Q.73) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
about the Meghna River Basin?
1. It is shared by Bangladesh and India.
2. It originates in the hills of Assam, where it is
referred to as the Barak River.
3. The confluence of the Surma and Kushiyara rivers in
Bhairab Bazar, Bangladesh forms the Meghna River.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Q.74) Though coffee and tea are cultivated on hill slopes,
there are some differences between them regarding
their cultivation. In this context, consider the
following statements:
1. Coffee plant requires hot and humid climate of
tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both
tropical and subtropical areas.
2. Coffee is a shade loving plant which is grown with
other shady trees whereas tea bush can be planted
in the open without any shade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 D. None of the above
Q.75) With reference to agricultural soils, consider the
following statements :
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically
reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to
the salinisation of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Q.76) The H-1B, H-4, H-2B, L-1 and J categories are
recently in news in relation to which of the
following?
A. These are types of legal immigrant visas to employ
foreign workers for jobs by the U.K Government.
B. These are immigrant visa categories which allow
US companies to employ foreign workers to work
and stay in the U.S.A.
C. These are types of inter-continental missile system
developed by China with a target range over 15000
km.
D. These are modern aircrafts developed by U.S.
Government that have been adapted for military
use.
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MOCK TEST
Q.77) Which of the following statements is/are correct 2. Stronger winds in area enhance pollution.
about Indian Climate? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The lofty Himalayas in the north along with its A. 1 only B. 2 only
extensions act as an effective climatic divide. C. Both 1 and 2 D. None of the above
2. The southern plateau receives high rainfall during Q.84) Consider the following statements :
June-September because of location toward 1. He led a Satyagraha march called “Savarnajatha”
windward sides of Western Ghats. for the sake of the untouchables.
3. Difference in air pressure causes reversal in the 2. He founded the Nair Service Society (NSS).
direction of monsoon winds.
3. He received the Padma Bhushan award in 1966.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Which of the following Indian personalities matches
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only with the above given description?
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 3 only A. Veerapandiya Kattabomman
Q.78) What is the correct sequence of occurrence of
the following cities in East Asia as one proceeds B. K. Kelappan
from South to North? C. T. S. Nair
1. Seoul 2. Taipei D. Mannathu Padmanabhan
3. Beijing 4. Hanoi Q.85) Which of the following statements is/are correct
about Environmental Pollution Control Authority
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (EPCA)?
A. 2 - 3 - 1 - 4 B. 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 1. It is Supreme Court-mandated body tasked with
C. 4 - 2 - 1 - 3 D. 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 taking various measures to tackle air pollution in
Q.79) Which of the following statements regarding the National Capital Region.
India’s Shola vegetation are true? 2. It was notified under the Air (Prevention and
1. The Shola grassland ecosystem is characterised by Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
dense growth of trees in the depressions and folds of
the Ghats surrounded by extensive areas of 3. It is chaired by Union Minister of Environment,
grasslands. Forest and Climate Change.
2. The forests have thick undergrowth, epiphytes, Select the correct answer using the code given below.
mosses and ferns. A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only
3. These forests are found in the areas lying between C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
2000 to 3000 metres. Q.86) Which of the following statements is/are correct
about Colombo Declaration on Sustainable
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Nitrogen Management?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only 1. Its ambition is to reduce the nitrogen waste to
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 one-third by 2030.
Q.80) With reference to “State of India’s Environment 2. It has been developed with the technical support
2021 Report” released recently, consider the of the International Nitrogen Management System
following statements : (INMS).
1. It is released by the Centre for Science and 3. It is jointly launched by India and Sri Lankan
Environment (CSE). Government with regard to sustainable use of
2. India ranked 117 in terms of sustainable nitrogen & its management.
development and was behind all South Asian Select the correct answer using the code given below.
nations including Pakistan and Bangladesh. A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 only
A. 1 only B. 2 only Q.87) In the context of CO 2 emission and Global
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Warming, what is the name of a market-driven
Q.81) Which of the following is/are the sources of ‘Land device under the UNFCC that allows developing
Pollution in India’? countries to get funds/incentives from the
1. Improper human activities developed countries to adopt batter technologies
2. Disposal of untreated industrial waste to reduce green house gas emissions?
3. Use of pesticides and fertilisers A. Carbon Footprint
Select the correct answer using the code given below. B. Carbon Credit Rating
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Clean Development Mechanism
C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 D. Emission Reduction Norm
Q.82) Which of the following can be an effect of Noise Q.88) With reference to Asia Economic Dialogue 2021,
Pollution? consider the following statements :
A. Hypertension B. Sleeping disorders 1. It is the flagship geoeconomics conference of the
C. Anxiety D. All of the above World Trade Organization (WTO).
Q.83) Consider the following statements with reference 2. The theme for 2021 year’s conference is “Post
to frequently occurring “smog” episodes in urban Covid-19 Global Trade and Finance Dynamics”.
areas of North India: Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
1. When the ‘mixing depth’ in the atmosphere is A. 1 only B. 2 only
shallow, pollution gets enhanced. C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
112 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
MOCK TEST
Q.89) Consider the following statements :
1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under
the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory
body.
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired
by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Q.90) With reference to the wetlands of India, consider
the following statements :
1. The country’s total geographical area under the
category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat
as compared to other States.
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal
wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.91) With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to
targeted developing countries to integrate climate
change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute
(WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable
Development (WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only
Q.92) The Cauvery-Vaigai-Gundar river linking project
is recently in news with regard to dispute between
which of the following States?
A. Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Telangana
B. Maharashtra and Telangana
C. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
D. Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka
Q.93) Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in
which of the following state?
A. Haryana B. Jammu & Kashmir
C. Tamil Nadu D. Gujarat
Q.94) Consider the following ‘three innovative market-
based mechanisms’ :
1. Emissions Trading
2. Joint Implementation
3. Clean Development Mechanism
Under which of the following protocol these
mechanisms came into force?
A. Cartagena Protocol
B. Kyoto Protocol
C. Montreal Protocol
D. Copenhagen Protocol
Q.95) Which of the following environmental organisations
derive directly from the 1992 Earth Summit?
1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
2. United Nations Convention to Combat
Desertification (UNCCD)
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
3. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC)
4. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 4 only B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.96) Which of the following is/are correct about “Khujli
Ghar” recently in news?
1. These are the cage houses meant to treat patients
suffering from itching problem using traditional
practices.
2. These are commonly found in the central India
tribal belt recently recognised by the UNESCO in
intangible cultural heritage.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q.97) Which of the following are Climate smar t
agriculture techniques?
1. Promoting soil carbon capture
2. Weather forecasting
3. Risk Insurances for crops
4. Increasing the organic content of the soil through
conservation tillage
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.98) Which of the following statements is/ are correct
about Ozone layer?
1. The Ozone layer absorbs a portion of the radiation
from the Sun known as UV-B radiation, preventing
it from reaching the Earth’s surface.
2. Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS) release
chlorine or bromine when they are exposed to
intense UV light in the stratosphere.
3. Natural processes, like large volcanic eruptions, can
have an effect on Ozone levels.
4. All the chlorine and bromine sources on the
Atmosphere and Earth contribute to ozone layer
depletion.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q.99) Neem tree has acquired industrial importance as
a source of
A. biopesticide and anti-fertility compound
B. anti-fertility compound, biofertiliser and anticancer
drug
C. biofer tiliser, biopesticide and anti-fertility
compound
D. anti-cancer drug, bio pesticide and biofertiliser
Q.100)The scientists have recently discovered a 17,300-
year-old rock art painting of a kangaroo in which
of the following region?
A. Australia’s Kimberley region
B. India’s Bhimbetka Caves of Raisen district
C. North America’s Rocky Mountains
D. America’s Ochre mines region
113
MOCK TEST
ANSWERS
1) A : ‘Consols’ is the abbreviated form of ‘Consolidated
Stock’. Consols have an indefinite life and are fully
supported by the sovereign power of the State. A
government bond or sovereign bond is a form of debt
that the government undertakes wherein it issues bonds
with the promise to pay periodic interest payments and also
repay the entire face value of the bond on the maturity date. So
far, the government has only issued bonds in the domestic
market.
2) C
3) A : QR code (Quick Response code) is a two
dimensional (matrix) machine-readable bar code made up of
black and white square. This code can be read by the camera
of a smartphone. It is capable of 360 degrees (Omni-
directional), high-speed reading. QR Code can store up
to 7089 digits as compared to conventional bar codes which
can store max 20 digits. It eliminates the need of using card
swiping machines. It carries information both horizontally
and vertically. It has error correction capability and can be
restored even if it is displayed only one QR code instead of
multiple, partially damaged, or dirty.
4) D
5) D : During the twentieth century, the Indian capitalists
gradually resorted to substituting foreign capital in the
areas of textile, steel, banking, jute, coal, tea, etc. As a
result, on the eve of independence:
Indian enterprises were in control of 72% of the Indian
market.
80% of the total deposits were with Indian banks.
79% of the life insurance business was in control of
Indian insurance companies.  reptiles into the Satkosia gorge of Mahanadi—the
Total assets of the top 3 Indian business houses were
more than the total assets of the top 3 non-Indian
business houses.
6) D
7) A : The Global Innovation Index (GII) is an evolving
project that builds on its previous editions while incorporating
newly available data and that is inspired by the latest research
on the measurement of innovation. The GII relies on two
sub-indices—the Innovation Input Sub-Index and the
Innovation Output Sub-Index—each built around key pillars.
Five input pillars capture elements of the national
economy that enable innovative activities:
1. Institutions;
2. Human capital and research;
3. Infrastructure;
4. Market sophistication; and
5. Business sophistication.
Two output pillars capture actual evidence of
innovation outputs:
Knowledge and technology outputs; and
Creative outputs.
Each pillar is divided into sub-pillars and each sub-
pillar is composed of individual indicators (81 in total in
2017). Sub-pillar scores are calculated as the weighted average
of individual indicators; pillar scores are calculated as the
weighted average of sub-pillar scores.
8) A 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) B
13) C : GHARIAL :
Gharial derives its name from ghara, an Indian word
for pot because of a bulbous knob (narial excrescence)
114
present at the end of their snout. The ghara also
renders gharial the only visibly sexually dimorphic
crocodilian.
They are a fresh-water crocodile and live in deep fast-
flowing rivers.
They are fish-eaters and their only viable population is
in the Chambal Sanctuar y. National Chambal
Sanctuary is the largest home of the Gharials in
India.
Odisha is the only state in India having all three species
— gharial, mugger and saltwater crocodile.
Dam, barrages, and water abstraction adversely affect
gharial by turning suitable river habitats into marginal/
unsuitable lakes, and by altering the quantity and quality
of water available to downstream river sections.
River bed cultivation threatens gharial survival by
alienating them from the terrestrial component of its
habitat leading to desertion and migration.
Removal of sand from riverbanks disrupts gharial
behaviour and may even force local populations to
desert the area.
Sustained mining activity may destroy vital basking and
nesting sites and may also result in direct mortality of
eggs during the nesting season.
Gharials are Schedule 1 species under Indian Wildlife
Act, 1972. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972 animals cannot be hunted by any person except
under some provisions provided by law.
IN NEWS:
Odisha has renewed its effort to revive the population
of gharials, a “critically endangered” species of
crocodile, in their natural habitat by releasing five
southernmost limit of gharials’ home range in India.
14) A : The agricultural subsidies, in the WTO
terminology, have in general been identified by ‘boxes’ which
have been given the colours of the traffic lights—green (means
permitted), amber (means slow down, i.e., to be reduced) and
red (means forbidden).
Amber Box - All subsidies which are supposed to distort
production and trade fall into the amber box. These include
government policies of minimum support prices (as MSP in
India) for agricultural products. Under the WTO provisions,
these subsidies are subject to reduction commitment to their
minimum level—to 5% and 10% for the developed and the
developing countries, respectively, of their total value of
agricultural outputs, per annum accordingly.
Blue Box - This is the amber box with conditions.
The conditions are designed to reduce distortions. Any
subsidy that would normally be in the amber box, is placed
in the blue box if it requires farmers to go for a certain
production level. These subsidies are nothing but certain
direct payments made to farmers by the government in the
form of assistance programs to encourage agriculture, rural
development, etc. At present, there are no limits on spending
on subsidies in the blue box.
Green Box - The agricultural subsidies which cause minimal
or no distortions to trade are put under the green box 70.
They must not involve price support.
15) D 16) D 17) D
18) B : What is Fiscal Deficit?
Fiscal Deficit is the difference between the total income
of the government (total taxes and non-debt capital
receipts) and its total expenditure.
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
MOCK TEST
A fiscal deficit situation occurs when the
government’s expenditure exceeds its income. This
difference is calculated both in absolute terms and
also as a percentage of the Gross Domestic Product
(GDP) of the country. A recurring high fiscal deficit
means that the government has been spending beyond
its means.
The government describes fiscal deficit of India as “the
excess of total disbursements from the
Consolidated Fund of India, excluding repayment
of the debt, over total receipts into the
Fund (excluding the debt receipts) during a financial
year”.
What causes Fiscal Deficit?
Sometimes, the governments spend on handouts and
other assistance to the weak and vulnerable sections
of the society such as the farmers and the poor. A
high fiscal deficit can also be good for the economy
if the money spent goes into the creation of productive
assets like highways, roads, ports and airports that boost
economic growth and result in job creation.
Measures to control the fiscal deficit in India:
In the context of the Indian economy, the following
measures can be adopted to reduce public expenditure for
reducing fiscal deficit and thereby check inflation.
A drastic reduction in expenditure on major
subsidies such as food, fertilisers, exports, electricity
to curtail public expenditure.
Another useful measure to cut public expenditure is
to reduce interest payments on past debt. In India,
interest payments account for about 40% of
expenditure on revenue account of the Central
Government. In our view, funds raised through
disinvestment in the public sector should be used
to retire a part of old public debt rather than
financing current expenditure. Retirement of public
debt quickly will reduce the burden of interest
payments in future.
Budgetary support to public sector enterprises other
than infrastructure projects should be substantially
reduced.
Austerity measures should be adopted to curtail
unnecessary expenditure in all gover nment
departments.
To reduce the fiscal deficit and thereby check rise in
inflation rate, apart from reducing government
expenditure, government revenue has to be raised.
19) B 20) A 21) B
22) C : There are following Unitary Features of the
Constitution of India from the given options:
Destructible States  be so charged.
Unlike in other federations, the states in India have no
right to territorial integrity. The Parliament can by unilateral
action change the area, boundaries or name of any state.
Moreover, it requires only a simple majority and not a special
majority. Hence, the Indian Federation is “an indestructible
Union of destructible states”. The American Federation,
on the other hand, is described as “an indestructible Union
of indestructible states”.
The flexibility of the Constitution  3. It is moved for censuring the Council of Ministers for
The process of a constitutional amendment is less rigid
than what is found in other federations. The bulk of the
Constitution can be amended by the unilateral action of
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
the Parliament, either by simple majority or by special
majority. Further, the power to initiate an amendment to the
Constitution lies only with the Centre. In the US, the states
can also propose an amendment to the Constitution.
All India Services 
In US, the Federal government and the state governments
have their separate public services. In India also, the Centre
and the states have their separate public services. But, in
addition, there are All-India services (IAS, IPS, and
IFS) which are common to both the Centre and the states.
The members of these services are recruited and trained by
the Centre which also possesses ultimate control over them.
Thus, these services violate the principle of federalism under
the Constitution.
The Independence of Judiciary is the Federal Feature of
the Constitution of India, not its Unitary Feature.
23) C 24) B 25) B 26) A
27) D : The budget consists of two types of
expenditur e—the expenditure ‘charged’ upon the
Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure ‘made’ from
the Consolidated Fund of India. The charged expenditure is
non-votable by the Parliament, that is, it can only be discussed
by the Parliament, while the other type has to be voted by the
Parliament.
The list of the charged expenditure is as follows:
1. Emoluments and allowances of the President and other
expenditure relating to his office.
2. Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the
Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker
and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
3. Salaries, allowances, and pensions of the judges
of the Supreme Court.
4. Pensions of the judges of High Courts.
5. Salary, allowances, and pension of the Comptroller
and Auditor-General of India.
6. Salaries, allowances, and pension of the Chairman and
Members of the Union Public Service Commission.
7. Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court, the
office of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
and the Union Public Ser vice Commission
including the salaries, allowances, and pensions
of the persons serving in these offices.
8. The debt charges for which the Government of India
is liable, including interest, sinking fund charges and
redemption charges and other expenditures relating to
the raising of loans and the service and redemption
of debt.
9. Any sum required to satisfy any judgment, decree
or award of any court or arbitral tribunal.
10. Any other expenditure declared by the Parliament to
28) D
29) A : Censure Motion vs No Confidence Motion
Censure Motion:
1. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok
Sabha. 
2. It can be moved against an individual minister or a
group of ministers or the entire Council of Ministers.
specific policies and actions.
4. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of
Ministers need not resign from the office.
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MOCK TEST
No-Confidence Motion:
1. It need not state the reasons for its adoption in the
Lok Sabha.
2. It can be moved against the entire Council of Ministers
only.
3. It is moved for ascertaining the confidence of Lok
Sabha in the Council of Ministers.
4. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of
Ministers must resign from office.
30) B 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) B
35) B : Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an
Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the states
and between Centre and states. Thus, the President can
establish such a council if at anytime it appears to him that
the public interest would be served by its establishment. He
can define the nature of duties to be performed by such a
council and its organisation and procedure.
Even though the President is empowered to define the
duties of an Inter-State Council, Article 263 specifies the
duties that can be assigned to it in the following manner:
(a) enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may
arise between states;
(b) investigating and discussing subjects in which the states
or the Centre and the states have a common interest;
and
(c) making recommendations upon any such subject, and
particularly for the better co-ordination of policy and
action on it.
Under the above provisions of Article 263, the President
has established the following councils to make
recommendations for the better coordination of policy and
action in the related subjects:
- Central Council of Health
- Central Council of Local Government and Urban
Development
- Four Regional Councils for Sales Tax for the Northern,
Eastern, Western and Southern Zones.
The Central Council of Indian Medicine and the Central
Council of Homoeopathy were set up under the Acts of
Parliament.
36) A
37) D : A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by
the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such
a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval.
Further, the President must revoke a proclamation
if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving
of its continuation. Again, this safeguard was
introduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.
Before the amendment, a proclamation could be
revoked by the President on his own and the Lok
Sabha had no control in this regard.
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 also provided that,
where one-tenth of the total number of members
of the Lok Sabha give written notice to the
Speaker (or to the President if the House is not in
session), a special sitting of the House should be held
within 14 days for the purpose of considering a
resolution disapproving the continuation of the
proclamation.
38) C : Conditions for Recognition as a National Party:
A party is recognised as a national party if any of the
following conditions are fulfilled:
1. If it secures six percent of valid votes polled in any
four or more states at a general election to the Lok
116
Sabha or to the Legislative Assembly; and, in addition,
it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or
states; or
2. If it wins two percent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a
general election; and these candidates are elected from
three states; or
3. If it is recognized as a state party in four states.
39) B 40) B
41) D : Basic difference between Jagirdars and
Zamindars
1. In Mughal India, Jagirdars under Mansabdari system
wer e assigned land in lieu of assigned
duties towards the empire such as police, judicial,
military; Zamindars too apar t from revenue
collecting duties had to render military duties and
perform Khidmat such as rendering soldiers to fill
the ranks of royal army at times of need and offer
gifts at the royal court.
2. Jagirdars were frequently transferred as promotion
and demotion was a regular part of empire as
loyalties towards Emperor were largely dependent on
the rank of jagir/mansab held by a Noble; on the
other hand, Zamindars had hereditary rights over
revenue as their sway over r ural society was
overarching in all aspects which rested on paternal
and patronage application of rituals.
42) B 43) A 44) C 45) B
46) C : Indigo Rebellion
Indigo upheavals took place in Bengal immediately
after the Revolt of 1857 as the indigo farmers revolted
in the Nadia district of Bengal by refusing to grow
indigo. They attacked the policemen who intervened.
The planters, in response to this, increased the
rents and evicted the farmers which led to more
agitations.
The farmers were led by the Biswas brothers of Nadia,
Rafiq Mondal of Malda and Kader Molla of Pabna.
Supported by
1. A class of zamindars
2. Bengali intelligentsia
3. Muslims and the missionaries
4. The whole of the rural population
5. The press
The play ‘Nil Darpan’ by Dinabandhu Mitra
written in 1858 – 59 portrayed the farmers’ situation
accurately. It showed how farmers were coerced into
planting indigo without adequate payment.
The play became a talking point and it urged the
Bengali intelligentsia to lend support to the indigo
revolt. Reverend James Long translated the play into
English on the authority by the Secretary to the
Governor of Bengal, W. S. Seton-Karr.
In response to the revolt, the government appointed
the Indigo Commission in 1860.
By the end of 1860, indigo cultivation was literally
washed away from Bengal since the planters closed
their factories and left for good.
47) A
48) C : The government may impose anti-dumping duty
for five years on certain type of steel products from few
countries, including Japan and Korea, to guard domestic players
from cheap imports as the Commerce Ministry has
recommended for the same.
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
MOCK TEST
According to a notification by the ministry’s investigation
arm DGTR, the duty “is recommended to be imposed for
five years” on imports of ‘Flat Rolled Products of Stainless
Steel’ from regions including European Union, Japan, Korea,
Malaysia and Taiwan.
In international trade parlance, dumping happens when
a country or a firm exports an item at a price lower than the
price of that product in its domestic market.
Dumping impacts the price of that product in the
impor ting countr y, hitting margins and profits of
manufacturing firms.
According to global trade norms, a country is allowed
to impose tariffs on such dumped products to provide a
level-playing field to domestic manufacturers. The duty
is imposed only after a thorough investigation by a quasi-
judicial body, such as DGTR in India.
The imposition of anti-dumping duty is permissible
under the World Trade Organization (WTO) regime.
The duty is aimed at ensuring fair trading practices and
creating a level-playing field for domestic producers vis-a-vis
foreign producers and exporters.
49) A 50) C 51) D
52) A : In the East China Sea, Japan is concerned about
China’s incursion into waters around the Senkaku Islands,
which are claimed by both countries and called the Diaoyu
Islands by China.
The new Chinese law allows Beijing’s coast guard to use
weapons against foreign ships that it sees as illegally entering
its waters, sparking fear that Japanese vessels navigating around
the Senkaku Islands would be targeted.
As the Senkaku Islands are claimed by both Beijing and
Tokyo and the South China Sea is claimed by the Philippines,
Taiwan and Vietnam, among others, China’s position is that
the new law streamlines operations and that the use of force
is a common practice among the other nations, including
Japan and South Korea.
53) A 54) A 55) C 56) B
57) D : The most famous Kushana ruler was Kanishka,
who ruled around 1900 years ago. He organised a Buddhist
council, where scholars met and discussed important matters.
Ashvaghosha, a poet who composed a biography of the
Buddha, the Buddhacharita, lived in his court. Ashvaghosha
and other Buddhist scholars now began writing in Sanskrit.
A new form of Buddhism, known as Mahayana Buddhism,
now developed. This had two distinct features. Earlier (in
Hinayana Buddhism), the Buddha’s presence was shown
in sculpture by using certain signs. For instance, his
attainment of enlightenment was shown by sculptures
of the peepal tree. Now, statues of the Buddha were made.
Many of these were made in Mathura, while others were
made in Taxila.
The second change was a belief in Bodhisattvas. These
were supposed to be persons who had attained enlightenment.
Once they attained enlightenment, they could live in complete
isolation and meditate in peace. However, instead of doing
that, they remained in the world to teach and help other
people.
The worship of Bodhisattvas became very popular and
spread throughout Central Asia, China, and later to Korea
and Japan. Buddhism also spread to western and southern
India, where dozens of caves were hollowed out of hills for
monks to live in.
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
58) C : Junagarh Caves
Located in Gujarat, a unique feature of the Junagarh
caves is the presence of 30-50 ft high citadel known
as “Upar-Kot” in front of the prayer hall.
Uparkot caves, also Uperkot caves, are ancient man-
made caverns.
59) C 60) A 61) B 62) D 63) D 64) D
65) A : Tropical cyclones are intense low-pressure areas
confined to the area lying between 30o N and 30o S latitudes,
in the atmosphere around which high-velocity winds blow.
Some initial conditions for the emergence of a tropical
cyclone are:
1. Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air
that can release enormous latent heat.
2. Strong Coriolis force that can prevent the filling of
low pressure at the centre.
3. Unstable condition through the troposphere that
creates local disturbances around which a cyclone develops.
4. Absence of strong vertical wind wedge, which disturbs
the vertical transport of latent heat.
66) A
67) B : Earth rotates from west to east, so the piled up
water due to earth’s rotation will come down on its eastern
side and will thus flow in the eastward direction. ... Therefore,
essentially its the earth’s rotation that explains the eastward
flow of equatorial counter current.
68) D 69) C
70) D :
All of the above causes are correct regarding the coral
bleaching. As coral reef bleaching is a general response to
stress, it can be induced by a variety of factors, alone or in
combination. The factors are :
1. Temperature: It is one of the major causes. Coral
species live within a relatively narrow temperature
margin, and anomalously low and high sea temperatures
can induce coral bleaching.
2. Solar irradiance: Bleaching during the summer
months, during seasonal temperatures and irradiance
maxima often occurs disproportionately in shallow
living corals and on the exposed summits of colonies.
3. Sedimentation: Relatively few instances of coral
bleaching have been linked solely to sediment. It is
possible but has not been demonstrated, that sediment
loading could make zooxanthellae species more likely
to bleach.
4. Subaerial exposure: Sudden exposure of reef flat
corals to the atmosphere during events such as extreme
low tides, ENSO-related sea level drops or tectonic
uplift can potentially induce bleaching.
5. Upwelling of seawater: Upwelling of seawater mostly
towards the western sides of the continents are caused
due to the cold water currents. It causes bleaching of
corals and thus, there are very fewer findings of corals
on western sides of continents.
Other ecological causes of coral bleaching are
inorganic nutrients, xenobiotics and epizootics.
71) C 72) C 73) A 74) A
75) B : Plants obtain nutrients from two natural sources:
organic matter and minerals. Organic matter includes any
plant or animal material that returns to the soil and goes
through the decomposition process. In addition to providing
nutrients and habitat to organisms living in the soil, organic
matter also binds soil particles into aggregates and improves
the water holding capacity of soil. The sulphur cycle is the
117
MOCK TEST
collection of processes by which sulphur moves to and from
rock, waterways and living systems. The isotopic composition
of sedimentary sulphides provides primary information on
the evolution of the sulphur cycle. Too much salt can reduce
crop production and water infiltration on soils that have been
irrigated for 20 years or more. Too little salt can also result
in a chemically compacted soil. The level of sodium (Na) in
a soil can result in soil particles or even layers of differing
soil profiles forming a compacted layer that the roots do not
penetrate.
76) B
77) D :
FACTORS DETERMINING THE CLIMATE OF
INDIA:
The Himalayan Mountains: The lofty Himalayas in
the north along with its extensions act as an effective
climatic divide. The towering mountain chain provides
an invincible shield to protect the subcontinent from
the cold northern winds. These cold and chilly winds
originate near the Arctic circle and blow across central
and eastern Asia. The Himalayas also trap the monsoon
winds, forcing them to shed their moisture within the
subcontinent.
Distribution of Land and Water: India is flanked by
the Indian Ocean on three sides in the south and
girdled by a high and continuous mountain-wall in the
north. As compared to the landmass, water heats up
or cools down slowly. This differential heating of land
and sea creates different air pressure zones in different
seasons in and around the Indian subcontinent. The
difference in air pressure causes a reversal in the
direction of monsoon winds.
Relief: The physiography or relief of India also affects
the temperature, air pressure, direction, and speed of
the wind and the amount and distribution of
rainfall. The windward sides of Western Ghats and
Assam receive high rainfall during June-September
whereas the southern plateau remains dry due to
its leeward situation along the Western Ghats.
78) C 79) B 80) A
81) D : Land Pollution: Pollution involved is human and
animal excreta viruses and bacteria, garbage and vectors
therein, pesticides and fertiliser-residue alkalinity, fluorides,
radio-active substances. The sources are improper human
activities, disposal of untreated industrial waste, use of
pesticides and fertilisers.
Air Pollution: The sources are combustion of coal, petrol
and diesel, industrial processes, solid waste disposal, sewage
disposal, etc.
Water Pollution: The sources are sewage disposal, urban
run-off, toxic effluents from industries, run-off over cultivated
lands and nuclear power plants.
Noise Pollution: Aircraft, automobiles, trains, industrial
processing and advertising media.
82) D : Noise pollution can be defined as the presence
of continuous noise of increased threshold values. This
noise can cause various problems for both humans and
animals.
The increased noise levels interfere with the
physiological processes of the body. It can cause:
1. Tinnitus: It can be defined as continuous ringing in
the ears;
118
2. Sleeping Problems;
3. Increased Heart Beat and Blood Pressure;
4. Changes in the Behavioural Pattern;
5. Hearing Loss.
83) A 84) D 85) A 86) D
87) C : Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is a
mechanism of the Kyoto Protocol by which Annex B parties
countries having emission reduction targets can earn saleable
Certified Emission Reduction (CER) units by investing in
projects, programmes or policies in developing countries which
result in emission reduction. Developing countries thus get
the benefit of technology transfer through this mechanism.
88) A
89) B : Eco-sensitive zones are the ecologically important
areas designated to be protected from industrial pollution
and unregulated development under the Environment
Protection Act of 1986. Only environmentally hazardous
human activities are prohibited in those areas. Therefore, both
the statements are incorrect.
90) A : Wetlands cover around 3% of the total land area
of India. Gujarat occupies around 3 million hectares of
wetlands out of India’s total 10 million hectares of wetland
area. India has total 27,403 wetlands, of which 23,444 are
inland wetlands and 3,959 are coastal wetlands but the coastal
wetlands occupy an estimated 6,750 sq km, which is more
than the inland wetlands.
91) A 92) C 93) C 94) B 95) C 96) D
97) D : Climate-smart agriculture includes proven
practical techniques. For example:
By increasing the organic content of the soil through
conservation tillage, its water holding capacity increases,
making yields more resilient and reducing erosion.
Promoting soil carbon capture also helps mitigate
climate change. Another example is integrated soil
fertility management that can, lower fertilizer costs,
increase soil carbon and improve yields.
Climate-smart agriculture gives attention to landscape
approaches, for example, integrated planning of
land, agriculture, forests; fisheries and water to
ensure synergies are captured.
These can be further strengthened better weather
forecasting, more resilient food crops and risk insurance
to cover losses when the vagaries of weather strike.
98) B :
The Ozone layer absorbs a portion of the radiation
from the Sun known as UV-B radiation, preventing it from
reaching the Earth’s surface.  
Some natural processes, such as large volcanic eruptions,
can have an indirect effect on ozone levels. For example, Mt.
Pinatubo’s 1991 eruption did not increase stratospheric
chlorine concentrations, but it did produce large amounts
of tiny particles called aerosols - small particles or liquid
droplets in the atmosphere that can absorb or reflect sunlight
depending on their composition (different from consumer
products also known as aerosols).
These aerosols increase chlorine’s effectiveness at destroying
ozone. The aerosols in the stratosphere create a surface on
which CFC-based chlorine can destroy ozone. However,
the effect of volcanoes is short-lived.
99) A 100) A
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
MOCK TEST

1. Consider the following statements: (c) Advection

1. Temperature at tropopause is highest over equator (d) Radiation
than poles. 9. Which of the following factors control temperature
2. Thickness of troposphere is greatest at equator. distribution?
Choose correct code. 1. Latitude
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Distance from sea
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Altitude
2. At greater height of over 600 km wher e 4. Ocean currents
temperature is 5568oC, one does not feel warm Choose correct code.
because. (a) 1 and 3 only
(a) Low pressure (b) 1, 3, 4 only
(b) High air density (c) 1, 2, 3 only
(c) Gases become lighter due to low density (d) All the above
(d) Presence of electrically charged ions 10. This layer has absence of major weather
3. Though Poles have longer length of days phenomena. But there occurs circulation of weak
insolation becomes minimum at poles because winds and cirrus clouds in its lower part. The
(a) Sun rays are perpendicular to surface layer is—————.
(b) Higher Albedo of Ice (a) Troposphere
(c) Sun rays are parallel to surface (b) Stratosphere
(d) Both (b), (c) (c) Mesosphere
4. Consider the following statements? (d) Ionosphere
1. During perihelion, earth receives higher insolation 11. Consider the following statements :
than aphelion. 1. Specific heat of water is higher than land.
2. During perihelion, earth undergoes less severe 2. Albedo of water is higher than land.
winter in northern hemisphere Choose the incorrect pair:
Choose the correct code. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(b) 2 only 12. Loo, local wind over northern Rajasthan is due to
(c) Both 1 & 2 ———————.
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (a) Conduction
5. Reddish colour of sky during sunrise and sunset (b) Convection
is due to —————. (c) Advection
(a) Absorption
(d) Radiation
(b) Scattering 13. Consider the following statements :
(c) Reflection 1. Temperature increases with increasing height is
(d) Refraction called normal lapse rate.
6. Which of the following regions receives maximum 2. Normal lapse rate favours temperature inversion.
insolation?
Choose the incorrect code.
(a) Equator
(a) 1 only
(b) Tropics
(b) 2 only
(c) Temperate latitudes
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Poles
7. Lower layers of atmosphere are mainly heated (d) Neither 1 nor 2
through —————. 14. Which of the following factors favour temperature
inversion?
(a) Conduction
1. Long winter night
(b) Convection
2. Cloudy sky
(c) Advection
3. Snow covered aness
(d) Radiation
8. Through which of the following process, transfer 4. Slow air movements
of heat takes place from one body to other without (a) 1, 3 and 4
aid of medium? (b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) Conduction (c) 1, 3 and 4
(b) Convection (d) 1 and 4 only
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022 119
MOCK TEST
15. Which of the following does not occur as a result 23. Which of the following local-wind called snow-
of temperature inversion? eater?
(a) Fog (a) Chinook (b) Harmattan
(b) Frost (c) Sirocco (d) Mistral
(c) Cyclonic condition 24. Choose the incorrect pair
(d) Atmospheric stability Local Wind Places
16. Consider the following statements. (a) Foehn - North Slope of Alps
1. Pressure decreases with increasing attitude. (b) Harmattan - Guinea
2. Pressure decreases with increasing latitude. (c) Mistral - Italy
Choose the incorrect code. (d) Bora - Adriatic Coast
25. Which of the following are warm winds?
(a) 1 only
1. Blizzard
(b) 2 only
2. Norwester
(c) Both 1 & 2
3. Santo Am
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
17. Which of the following are only dynamically 4. Bora
induced pressure belts? (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
1. Equatorial low pressure belt (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. Sub tropical high pressure belt 26. The transport of pollutants from troposphere to
3. Sub polar low pressure belt stratosphere occurs mainly due to —————.
4. Polar high pressure belt. (a) Advection
Choose the correct code. (b) Vertical mixing within jetstreams
(a) 1 and 4 only (c) Conduction
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Radiation
27. Consider the following statements:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. The ability of air to hold water depends on pressure.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
18. Which of the following climate receive rainfall 2. Relative humidity increases when temperature
because of shifting of pressure belts? increases.
1. Mediterranean Climate Choose correct code.
2. Monsoon Climate (a) 1 only
3. Savannah Climate (b) 2 only
Choose the correct code. (c) Both 1 & 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 Nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only 28. Which of the following are cold winds?
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. Pampero
(d) All the above 2. Mistral
19. The distinctive feature of winter rainfall is 3. Chinook
associated with ———————. 4. Blizzard
(a) Equatorial Climate Choose correct code.
(b) Mediterranean Climate (a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Monsoon Climate (b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above (c) 1, 2 and 4
20. Why tropical cyclones not formed at equator? (d) All the above
(a) Low supply of moist air 29. Which of the following conditions favour dew
(b) Absence of corialis force formation?
(c) Less pressure gradient 1. Clear sky
(d) All the above 2. Low relative humidity
21. Consider the following statements: 3. Calm air
1. Coriolis force is directly proportional to angle of 4. Cold night
latitude. Choose correct code.
2. Greater the coriolis force, greater the change in (a) 1, 2 and 3
wind speed. (b) 2, 3 and 4
Choose the correct code. (c) 1, 3 and 4
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 30. It is a violent stormy cold wind with dry snow,
22. Choose the correct statement: in North and South Polar Region. The wind is
1. Cyclone rotates clockwise in southern hemisphere. —————.
2. Anti-cyclone occurs when wind circulate around (a) Purga
high pressure points. (b) Blizzard
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Levanter
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (d) Pampero
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MOCK TEST
31. Consider the following statements. 39. Tornadoes that occur over water are called——.
1. Fog occurs when condensation takes place below (a) Thunderstorms
freezing point. (b) Water sprouts
2. Frost occurs when condensation takes place above (c) Water Spots
freezing point. (d) Cloud Bursts
Choose the incorrect code. 40. Which of the following states has places on the
(a) 1 only same latitude as of Arunachal Pradesh?
(b) 2 only (a) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Both 1 & 2 (b) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (c) Punjab
32. Consider the following statements. (d) Rajasthan
1. Fog has more moisture than mist. 41. Which of the following articles in the Constitution
2. Mist is frequent over mountains where rising warm of India has a bearing on rule of law?
air meets cold air. (a) Article 14 (b) Article 21
Choose the incorrect code. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
(a) 1 only 42. Recently Supreme Court of India allowed passive
euthanasia by stating that it forms part of which
(b) 2 only
of the following fundamental rights?
(c) Both 1 & 2 (a) Article 14 (b) Article 18
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2 (c) Article 21 (d) All the above
33. The precipitation that has several concentric layers 43. Consider the following statements in the context
of ice one over another is —————. of India
(a) Sleet 1. Right to Privacy as a fundamental right implies
(b) Snowfall that individual is allowed to anything within his/
(c) Hailstones her four walls.
(d) Frost 2. The state has no power to encroach upon
34. The type of rainfall that is most common in individual’s right to privacy in any case.
equatorial regions are ——————. 3. Individual’s right to privacy is subject to national
(a) Convectional interest.
(b) Orographic Choose the correct one.
(c) Cyclonic (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(d) None of the above (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
35. Despite weight of air, why one does not feel 44. With respect to Part III of the Constitution which
enormous weight on head? of the following rights are original part of
(a) Pressure decreases with increasing altitude Constitution?
(b) Pressure increases with increasing altitude 1. Right to Livelihood
(c) Our body exerts equal amount of pressure that 2. Right to Food
balance atmospheric pressure 3. Right to Information
(d) Our body exerts large amount of pressure than Choose the correct one.
atmospheric pressure. (a) 1 and 2 only
36. Choose the incorrect Match: (b) 2 only
Cyclone Names Place (c) 3 only
(a) Willy-Willy - Australia (d) None of the above
(b) Taifu - Philippines 45. Which of the following rights were added by the
(c) Hurricanes - Atlantic 86th Constitutional amendment?
(d) Typhoons - S. China Sea (a) Right to Privacy
37. In temperate cyclone, the conditions like cloudless (b) Right to Form Association
sky, high temperature, low air pressure are (c) Right to Education
associated with ————. (d) Right to Choose One’s Partner
(a) Cold Front 46. In the context of Indian polity, which of the
(b) Warm Front following is the correct relationship between
(c) Cold Sector fundamental rights and DPSPs?
(d) Warm Sector (a) Fundamental rights uphold the individual interest
38. Choose the correct statement: whereas the DPSPs uphold the community interest
1. Tropical cyclone occurs over land and sea, whereas (b) DPSPs are justiciable in nature
temperate cyclone occurs only on land. (c) Fundamental rights and DPSPs for ms the
2. Temperate cyclones are characterised by clear philosophical part of the Constitution
frontal system. (d) While fundamental rights promotes political
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only democracy, DPSP promotes social and economic
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 democracy
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022 121
MOCK TEST
47. Which of the following parts cannot be amended 2. Schedule 7
by Parliament in any case? 3. Schedule 11
1. Part III of the Constitution Choose the correct one
2. DPSPs (a) 1, 2 only
3. Article 368 (b) 2, 3 only
Choose the correct one. (c) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) All the above
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only 55. Which one of the following commissions was set
48. Consider the following statements : up in pursuance of a definite position under an
1. Fundamental rights are fundamental for the Article of the Constitution of India?
governance of the country. (a) National Human Rights Commission
2. DPSP poses limitations on the legislative power of (b) Election Commission
Parliament. (c) Enforcement Directorate
Choose the correct one. (d) All the above
(a) 1 only 56. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India
(b) 2 only can the transfer of land to private properties for
(c) Both 1 and 2 mining can be declared null and void?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 3rd Schedule
49. Consider the following statements (b) 5th Schedule
1) There is no provision in Part III of the Constitution (c) 9th Schedule
to ban stubble burning. (d) 12th Schedule
2) The Constitution of India does not define Right 57. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it
to Privacy. calls into activity
Choose the correct one (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and
(a) 1 only women.
(b) 2 only (b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) a band of dedicated party workers.
50. Which article of the Constitution deals with the 58. To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and
abolition of untouchability? Integrity of India is a provision made in the
1. Article 17 (a) Preamble of the Constitution
2. Article 15 (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Article 21 (c) Fundamental Rights
Choose the correct one : (d) Fundamental Duties
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 59. Which of the following is related to both Part III
and Part IV of the Constitution of India?
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) All the above
1. Separation of Judiciary from Executive
51. Which of the following constitutional amendments
immediately proceeds the Emergency period in 2. Access to free legal aid
India? 3. Livelihood
(a) 25th Constitutional Amendment Act Choose the correct one.
(b) 39th Constitutional Amendment Act (a) 1 only
(c) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (b) 2 only
(d) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (c) 1 and 2 only
52. Which of following constitutional amendment act (d) 2 and 3 only
does not require a change in Part III of the 60. The Constituent Assembly was set up under
Constitution of India? (a) Cripps Mission
(a) 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act (b) Cabinet Mission
(b) 97th Constitutional Amendment Act (c) Wavell Plan
(c) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act (d) Nehru Report
(d) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act 61. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
53. Which of the following amendment empowers the 1. Venus has an Earth-like magnetic field.
President to send back any matter for 2. Venus is the hottest planet in the solar system.
reconsideration by the Council of Ministers? 3. There’s one spacecraft currently flying around
(a) 39th Constitutional Amendment Act Venus is Japan’s Akatsuki orbiter.
(b) 40th Constitutional Amendment Act 4. Shukrayaan-1 is a proposed orbiter to Venus by
(c) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act the Indian Space Research Organisation.
(d) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (a) 1 only
54. Which of the following Parts has a bearing on (b) 1 and 3 only
federal structure of the Indian Constitution? (c) 1 and 2 only
1. Schedule 4 (d) None of the above
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022 123
MOCK TEST
62. Which of the following statements are correct? 68. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
1. The G-4 Nations comprises Brazil, Germany, India, 1. EPCA is an advisory body.
and Japan. 2. SAFAR is developed only by Indian Institute of
2. G-4 Nations support each other’s bids for Tropical Meteorology.
permanent seats on the United Nations Security 3. It measures only Air pollution.
Council. (a) 2 and 3 only
3. Corona is a group of RNA Viruses. (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) All the above
(c) 1 and 2 only 69. Pusa decomposer was recently in news. This is
(d) All the above related to
63. Which of the following statements are correct? (a) Organic farming
1. The External debt includes the total money owed (b) Stubble burning
by the Union Government, Corporations or Indian (c) Sugar Production
Citizens to foreign creditors. (d) Soil reclamation
2. External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) remains 70. Which of the following statements is/ar e
the largest source of External Debt. incorrect?
3. Non-Resident Deposits in Banks and Financial 1. A Cess is a form of tax levied by the government
Institutions is also considered as External Debt. on tax with specific purposes.
(a) 2 and 3 only 2. Cess is a divisible pool shared between Centre and
(b) 1 and 3 only States.
(c) 1 and 2 only 3. After implementation of GST, all forms of Cess
(d) All the above were abolished in India.
64. Which of the following statements are correct (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
about The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) (c) 2 only (d) 3 only
Amendment Bill, 2020? 71. “BOMBS AND PISTOLS DO NOT MAKE
1. Include “public servant” within its ambit, to provide REVOLUTION. THE SWORD OF
REVOLUTION IS SHARPENED ON THE
that no foreign contribution shall be accepted by WHETTING-STONE OF IDEAS” - Who gave this
any public servant. quote?
2. Prohibit any transfer of foreign contribution to (a) Azad
any association/person. (b) Bhagat Singh
3. Increase the limit for administrative expenses from (c) Lala Laj Pat Rai
existing 50% to 70%. (d) Mahatma Gandhi
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only 72. Which of the following statements are correct?
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) All the above 1. Atal Tunnel connects Manali and Lahul-Spiti Valley.
65) Kakatiya dynasty was closely related to 2. This Tunnel is located at Rohtang Pass.
(a) Godavari River 3. Rohtang Pass is present in Eastern Karakoram
(b) Krishna River range
(c) Cauvery River 4. Border Roads Organisation comes under the
(d) None of the above administrative control of the Ministry of Highways.
66. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. All the species of Cyanobacteria produce toxins. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All the above
2. Cyanobacteria occur naturally in standing water. 73. Sagittarius A is a?
3. Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action was signed (a) Supernova (b) Black hole
between US and Iran. (c) Neutron star (d) Dwarf planet
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 74. Which of the following pairs are cor rectly
(c) 2 only (d) None of the above matched?
67. Which of the following statements are true about 1. Baku – Azerbaijan
the official language policy of India? 2. Ganja – Azerbaijan
1. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every 3. Idlib – Syria
High Court. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only
2. The authoritative texts of all bills, acts, ordinances, (c) All the above (d) 3 only
orders, rules, regulations and bye-laws at the Central 75. Which of the following statements are correct?
and state levels. 1. Supply chain resilience initiative is an Japan which
3. Hindi written in Devanagari is national language aims to reduce de pendence on Chinese
of India. manufacturing.
(a) 2 and 3 only 2. Blue dot Network is a US plan to rate
(b) 1 and 3 only infrastructure projects for funding.
(c) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) All the above (c) Both 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
124 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022
MOCK TEST
76. Which of the following statements are correct? 83. Consider the following statement:
1. UN summit on biological diversity is first of its 1. All three phases of Paleolithic period could be
kind ever taken place on Biodiversity in the United traced in Belan Valley in Vindhayas.
Nations General Assembly. 2. Mehrgarh is the oldest Neolithic site in Indian
2. Living planet report is released by UNEP. subcontinent.
3. Aichi Target was adopted in COP 10 of Convention Which of the above statements are correct?
on Biological Diversity. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All the above 84. Consider the following statement:
77. Operation Twist is? 1. In many parts of India Chalcolithic culture
(a) Operation of Indian Naval Forces appeared after end of Bronze Age.
(b) Joint Military Operation of Quad 2. Jorwe culture belonged to the Chalcolithic culture
(c) Monetary Policy tool of Bramaputra valley.
(d) Humanitarian operation Which of the above statements are correct?
78. Which of the following countries signed Cyber (a) 1 only
security agreement? (b) 2 only
(a) India and US (c) Both 1 and 2 only
(b) India and Japan (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) India and France 85. Consider the following statements:
(d) India and Russia 1. Burzahom Neolithic site in Kashimir shows
79. Which of the following statements are correct? evidence of agricultural practice.
1. Existence of Black hole comes as a natural outcome 2. Pit dwelling is one of the distinguishing features
of Einstein’s theory of relativity. of Burzahom Neolithic site.
2. Light can be bent by Black hole. Which of the above statements are correct?
3. Bodies behind the Black hole can be visible to us. (a) 1 only
4. Radio telescopes are used to study Black holes. (b) 2 only
5. Event Horizon Telescope project is a joint initiative (c) Both 1 and 2 only
of NASA and ESA. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 86. Consider the following statements:
(b) 1 and 4 only 1. Paleolithic people lived predominantly in hilly slopes
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only and river valleys.
(d) All the above 2. Fossils of early men were absent in India.
80. Which of the following statements are correct? Which of the above statements are correct?
1. World Food Programme (WFP) created during the (a) 1 only
conference of FAO and UNGA.
(b) 2 only
2. The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the
World is a flagship report jointly prepared by the (c) Both 1 and 2 only
World Food Programme (WFP) and other agencies. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only 87. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. All the three phases of Harappan Civilisation could
(c) Both 1 and 2 only be found in Dholavira.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Rakhigarhi is the biggest site of Harrapan
81. Consider the following statements: Civilisation.
1. Iron was rarely used during Indus Valley Civilisation Which of the above statements are correct?
2. Lapis lazuli was known to the people of Indus (a) 1 only
Valley Civilisation. (b) 2 only
Which of the above given statements are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 88. Which one of the following is not a Indus Valley
82. Consider the following statements: Civilisation site?
1. Mesolithic people domesticated animals. (a) Kot Diji (b) Chanhudaro
2. Microliths are the characteristic tools of Mesolithic (c) Manda (d) Sarai Khola
people. 89. Which one of the following animals was not
Which of the above given statements are correct? domesticated by people of Indus valley?
(a) 1 only (a) Oxen
(b) 2 only (b) Cow
(c) Both 1 and 2 only (c) Buffaloes
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Cats
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022 125
MOCK TEST
90. Consider the following statements: Which of the above statements is correct?
1. Channel irrigation was the most common irrigation (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
method used in Harappa. (c) Both 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Rice was produced extensively in most of the 97. Consider the following statements:
Harappan Civilisation sites. 1. Rituals and Sacrificial for mulae were well
Which of the above statements is correct? established during Rig Vedic period.
(a) 1 only 2. Attaining Moksha was the main purpose of prayer
(b) 2 only during Rig Vedic period.
(c) Both 1 and 2 only Which of the above statements is correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
91. Consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Phallus worship is more prevalent during Harappan 98. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily
Civilisation. of
2. Amulets were used extensively by Harappan people. (a) Bhakti
Which of the above statements is correct? (b) image worship and Yajnas
(a) 1 only (c) worship of nature and Yajnas
(b) 2 only (d) worship of nature and Bhakti
(c) Both 1 and 2 only 99. The “dharma” and “rita” depict a central idea of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ancient Vedic Civilisation of India. In this context,
92. Consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. Bronze was more commonly used by Indus valley 1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of
people. the discharge of one’s duties to oneself and to
2. Late Harappan cultures are primarily Chalcolithic others.
in nature. 2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the
Which of the above statements is correct? functioning of the universe and all it contained.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
93. Consider the following statements: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
100. Consider the following statements:
1. Red and Black pottery is the characteristic pottery
of Harappan age. 1. Success of Magadha could be attributed to the
extensive use of horses in war.
2. Painted Grey ware is the characteristic pottery of
Vedic period. 2. Magadha possessed superior weapons owing to
availability of rich iron source in their kingdom.
Which of the above statements is correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWERS
94. Consider the following statements:
1. Atharva Veda contains details of rituals that have 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b)
to be performed during recitation of Vedas. 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b)
2. Brahmanas are text containing the social and 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c)
religious meaning of rituals. 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)
Which of the above statements is correct? 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (c)
(a) 1 only 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (b)
(b) 2 only 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c)
(c) Both 1 and 2 only 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (d)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (c)
95. Which one of the following is not a Painted Grey 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (d)
ware site? 51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (b)
(a) Hastinapur 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (b)
(b) Sravasti 61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (b)
(c) Mathura 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (b)
(d) Bhagwanpura 71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (c)
96. Consider the following statements: 76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (c)
1. Later Vedic times popular assemblies like Sabha 81. (b) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (c)
and Samiti lost their importance. 86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (d)
2. Ashramas are well established during the Later 91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (d)
Vedic period. 96. (a) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (c) 100. (b)
126 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, FEBRUARY 2022