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ANSWER KEY

GENERAL STUDIES
Prelims Test Series (PTS) for CSE 2023
30th April, 2023  |  [Test-12] Full Syllabus

Answer Key
1. (d) 21. (c) 41. (a) 61. (b) 81. (d)
2. (d) 22. (c) 42. (c) 62. (a) 82. (a)
3. (b) 23. (a) 43. (b) 63. (d) 83. (c)
4. (d) 24. (c) 44. (c) 64. (c) 84. (c)
5. (d) 25. (b) 45. (c) 65. (b) 85. (c)
6. (a) 26. (b) 46. (b) 66. (c) 86. (c)
7. (b) 27. (d) 47. (a) 67. (b) 87. (a)
8. (c) 28. (c) 48. (c) 68. (b) 88. (d)
9. (c) 29. (b) 49. (d) 69. (c) 89. (b)
10. (d) 30. (a) 50. (d) 70. (d) 90. (c)
11. (a) 31. (d) 51. (d) 71. (a) 91. (a)
12. (b) 32. (b) 52. (a) 72. (b) 92. (c)
13. (b) 33. (b) 53. (b) 73. (a) 93. (d)
14. (c) 34. (d) 54. (a) 74. (d) 94. (d)
15. (a) 35. (a) 55. (c) 75. (d) 95. (a)
16. (b) 36. (c) 56. (a) 76. (b) 96. (a)
17. (c) 37. (b) 57. (d) 77. (d) 97. (a)
18. (d) 38. (c) 58. (c) 78. (d) 98. (a)
19. (b) 39. (d) 59. (a) 79. (b) 99. (b)
20. (d) 40. (c) 60. (d) 80. (c) 100. (d)

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Prelims Test Series (PTS) for CSE 2023
PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
General Studies
Test-12
1. (d)
Option (d) is correct: Human rights are
rights inherent to all human beings, regardless
of race, sex, nationality, ethnicity, language,
religion, or any other status. Human rights
include the right to life and liberty, freedom
from slavery and torture, freedom of opinion
and expression, the right to work and
education, and many more. The foundations of
this body of law are the Charter of the United
Nations and the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights, adopted by the General
Assembly in 1945 and 1948, respectively.
Everyone is entitled to these rights, without
discrimination. The UDHR was proclaimed
by the UNGA Resolution 217A on December
10 1948 in Paris. It sets out, for the first time,
for fundamental human rights to be universally
2. (d)
protected.
• Article 1 says that all human beings
are born free and equal in dignity and
rights. They are endowed with reason and
conscience and should act towards one
another in a spirit of brotherhood.
• Article 12 says that no one shall be
subjected to arbitrary interference
with his privacy, family, home or
correspondence, nor to attacks upon his
honour and reputation. Everyone has the
right to the protection of the law against
such interference or attacks.
• Article 17 says everyone has the right
to own property alone as well as in
association with others. No one shall be
arbitrarily deprived of his property.
• Article 22 guarantees the right to social
security. According to it, everyone, as a
member of society, has the right to social
security and is entitled to realization,
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Test Code: 00230412
Detailed Explanations
Full Syllabus
through national effort and international
cooperation and in accordance with the
organization and resources of each State,
of the economic, social and cultural rights
indispensable for his dignity and the free
development of his personality.
• Article 26 says that everyone has the right
to education. Education shall be free, at
least in the elementary and fundamental
stages. Elementary education shall be
compulsory. Technical and professional
education shall be made generally
available and higher education shall be
equally accessible to all on the basis of
merit. Parents have a prior right to choose
the kind of education that shall be given to
their children.
Option (d) is correct: The Order of
Precedence in India is a protocol list in which
the Government of India's functionaries
and authorities are listed by rank and office.
The President of India issues the order,
which is upheld by the Ministry of Home
Affairs. According to the Ministry of Home
Affairs, the orders in the Table of Precedence
are meant for State and Ceremonial occasions
and have no application in the day-to-day
business of the Government. Following is the
order of precedence in India according to the
Home Ministry:
1. President
2. Vice President
3. Prime Minister
4. Governors of States within their respective
States
5. Former Presidents
6. Deputy Prime Ministers
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7. Chief Justice of India and Speaker of Lok
Sabha
8. Cabinet Ministers of the Union
Š Chief Ministers of States within
their respective States
Š Former Prime Ministers
Š Leaders of Opposition in Rajya
Sabha and Lok Sabha
9. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
10. Ambassadors Extraordinary and
Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners
of Commonwealth countries accredited to
India
Š Chief Ministers of States outside
their respective States
Š Governors of States outside their
respective States
11. Judges of the Supreme Court
12. Chairperson, Union Public Service
Commission
Š Chief Election Commissioner
Š Comptroller and Auditor General
of India
13. Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
Š Deputy Chief Ministers of States
Š Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha
Š Ministers of State of the Union (and
any other Minister in the Ministry of
Defence for defence matters)
14. Attorney General of India
Š Cabinet Secretary
Š Lieutenant Governors within their
respective Union Territories
3. (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Long-distance
communication between two points on the
earth is achieved through the reflection of
electromagnetic waves by the ionosphere.
Such waves are called sky waves. In the
frequency range from a few MHz up to 30 to
40 MHz, long-distance communication can
be achieved by the ionospheric reflection of
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
radio waves back towards the Earth. This mode
of propagation is called sky wave propagation
and is used by short-wave broadcast services.
The ionosphere is so called because of the
presence of a large number of ions or charged
particles.
Statement 2 is not correct: A space
wave travels in a straight line from the
transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna.
Space waves are used for line-of-sight
(LOS) communication as well as satellite
communication. At frequencies above 40
MHz, communication is essentially limited
to line-of-sight paths. At these frequencies,
the antennas are relatively smaller and can be
placed at heights of many wavelengths above
the ground. Because of the line-of-sight nature
of propagation, direct waves get blocked at
some point by the curvature of the earth. If the
signal is to be received beyond the horizon then
the receiving antenna must be high enough to
intercept the line-of-sight waves.
Statement 3 is correct: Television broadcasts,
microwave links and satellite communication
are some examples of communication systems
that use space wave mode of propagation.
4. (d)
An optical fibre is a flexible and transparent
fibre made of extruded glass (silica) or plastic,
slightly thicker than a human hair. It is able to
transmit light between the two ends. Light can
only be coupled to fibre at its entry points.
Statement 1 is correct: Electromagnetic
waves generated from electrical disturbances
or electrical noises do not interfere with
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
light signals. Optical fibres are non-inductive
and nonconductive in nature, so there is no
radiation and interference in the other circuits
and systems. Hence, the optical fibre system is
not vulnerable to interference, impulse noise
or cross-talk, it’s immune to electromagnetic
interference.
Statement 2 is correct: Fibre optic cables are
widely used in the field of medicine and are
an important part of non-intrusive surgical
methods, popularly known as endoscopy. In
such applications, bright light is used to light
up the surgery area within the body.
Statement 3 is correct: Electrical signals
communicate between two electrical devices.
The electrical signal is the way of transferring
information through the use of electricity
which carries the message. Microphones,
fax machines, remote controls for television
sets, etc., are some examples of devices using
electrical signals.
Fibre optic communication system consists of
three main components. These are an optical
transmitter, a fibre optic cable and an optical
receiver. The optical transmitter converts
electrical signals to optical signals. Fibre
optic cable carries this optical signal from
the optical transmitter to the optical receiver.
Finally, the optical receiver reconverts the
optical signal to an electrical signal. Optical
fibre uses light instead of electricity to carry
a signal. Optical fibre cables are made of glass
that reflects light and hence carry information
at high speed across limitless distances.
Statement 4 is correct: Optical fibre cables
do not have any metal conductors, and hence
they do not pose shock hazards in copper
cables. They do not emit sparks or cause
6. (a)
short circuits, which is important in explosive
gas or flammable environments.
5. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: The Surface Web
consists of websites that are accessible
through a traditional search engine such
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as Google. The Surface Web is the portion of
the World Wide Web that is readily available
to the general public and searchable with
standard web search engines.
Statement 2 is correct: The Deep Web refers
to a class of content on the Internet that, for
various technical reasons, is not indexed
by search engines, and thus would not be
accessible through a traditional search
engine. Information on the Deep Web includes
content on private intranets (internal networks
such as those at corporations, government
agencies, or universities), commercial
databases like Lexis Nexis or Westlaw, or sites
that produce content via search queries or form.
Statement 3 is correct: The Dark Web is
the segment of the Deep Web that has been
intentionally hidden. The Dark Web is a
general term that describes hidden Internet sites
that users cannot access without using special
software. While the content of these sites may
be accessed, the publishers of these sites are
concealed. Users access the Dark Web with the
expectation of being able to share information
and/or files with little risk of detection
Statement 1 is correct: Leprosy is a chronic
infectious disease caused by the bacteria
Mycobacterium leprae. The disease mainly
affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, the
mucosa of the upper respiratory tract, and the
eyes. Leprosy causes light-coloured patches
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on the skin with loss of sensation in the early
stages of the disease. It is a neglected tropical
disease (NTD).
Statement 2 is not correct: Leprosy is a curable
disease. The currently recommended treatment
regimen consists of three drugs: dapsone,
rifampicin and clofazimine. The combination
is referred to as multi-drug therapy (MDT).
The World Health Organization (WHO),
working through the country office in India,
supports the National Leprosy Eradication
Programme (NLEP). Early diagnosis and
prompt treatment can help to prevent
disabilities.
Statement 3 is not correct: Leprosy cannot
be a ground for divorce in India. The
Government of India has notified the Personal
Laws (Amendment) Act, 2019 which omits
leprosy as a ground for divorce from various
statutes governing marriage in India.
7. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: CD4 cells are a
type of white blood cell. They're also called
CD4 T lymphocytes or "helper T cells." That's
because they help fight infection by triggering
your immune system to destroy viruses,
bacteria, and other germs that may make a
person sick.
Statement 2 is correct: HIV attacks and
destroys CD4 cells. Without treatment, HIV
may destroy so many CD4 cells that the
immune system will have trouble fighting off
infections. HIV is the virus that causes AIDS
(acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). AIDS
is the most serious stage of an HIV infection.
Statements 3 and 4 are correct: CD4 T
lymphocytes are a part of the human
T-lymphocyte cells that are produced in the
bone marrow and eventually mature in the
thymus. They circulate in the body to fight
against bacteria, viruses, and other organisms.
CD4 T lymphocytes (CD4 cells) help
coordinate the immune response by stimulating
other immune cells, such as macrophages, B
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
lymphocytes (B cells), and CD8 T lymphocytes
(CD8 cells), to fight infection.
8. (c)
Statement 1 is not correct: The viruses
are non-cellular organisms that are
characterised by having an inert crystalline
structure outside the living cell. In addition to
proteins, viruses also contain genetic material,
which could be either RNA or DNA. No virus
contains both RNA and DNA.
Statement 2 is correct: Bacteria can be
classified into two groups on the basis of
the differences in the cell envelopes and
the manner in which they respond to the
staining procedure. Those that take up the
gram stain are Gram-positive and the others
that do not are called Gram-negative bacteria.
Gram-negative bacteria are resistant to multiple
drugs and are increasingly resistant to most
available antibiotics. These bacteria have built-
in abilities to find new ways to be resistant and
can pass along genetic materials that allow
other bacteria to become drug-resistant as well.
There is a presence of an extra outer membrane
in Gram-negative bacteria. It’s essentially an
extra line of defence that makes it harder for
antibiotics to penetrate, thus making Gram-
negative bacteria more difficult to kill and
more prone to developing resistance.
Statement 3 is correct: A virus is a
nucleoprotein and the genetic material is
infectious. In general, viruses that infect
plants have single-stranded RNA and viruses
that infect animals have either single or
double-stranded RNA or double-stranded
DNA. Bacterial viruses or bacteriophages
(viruses that infect bacteria) are usually
double-stranded DNA viruses.
9. (c)
The Department of Biotechnology released
the Guidelines for the Safety Assessment of
Genome Edited Plants 2022. The guidelines
determine the regulatory requirement for
the appropriate category of experiments
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
and provide the regulatory framework and
scientific guidance on data requirements in
the context of research and development of
Genome Edited Plants. The genome-edited
plants derived from the use of genome editing
techniques employing site-directed nucleases
(SDNs) such ZFNs, TALENs, CRISPR and
other nucleases with similar functions are
generally classified under three categories as
SDN-1, SDN-2, and SDN-3
Statement 1 is correct: SDN-1, site-directed
mutagenesis without using a DNA sequence
template. It Involves the unguided repair of a
targeted DNA break by the natural endogenous
DNA repair mechanism of the host organism.
The SDN-1 genome-edited plants produced
will be free from exogenous/foreign DNA.
SDN-2 site-directed mutagenesis using a DNA
sequence template. Genome-edited plants
belonging to the SDN-2 category carry specific
nucleotide substitutions introduced through
DNA repair templates but do not carry
any exogenous DNA and are comparable
to naturally occurring variants or mutants
obtainable through conventional mutagenesis.
Statement 2 is correct: SDN-3 site-directed
insertion of gene/large DNA sequence using
a DNA sequence template. Genome Edited
plants shall have the foreign gene(s) in a
specific location of the genome conferring
new/novel trait(s). These products will be
clearly distinguishable from the naturally
existing variations or mutations in the species.
The SDN1 and SDN2 Genome Edited Products
free from exogenous introduced DNA are
exempted from biosafety assessment (in
pursuance of Rule 20 of the Manufacture, Use,
Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous
Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered
Organisms or Cells Rules 1989). However,
Plants categorized as SDN-3 are subject
to regulation (under the Rules 1989) in the
same manner as genetically engineered plants
produced using other genetic transformation
methods.
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10. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Use of carbide gas
or acetylene gas is not permitted for the
artificial ripening of fruits under Food Safety
and Standards Regulations, 2011 due to the
potential health hazards. The Industrial-grade
calcium carbide, popularly known as “masala”
is often used by some unscrupulous traders to
release acetylene gas for the artificial ripening
of fruits like mango, banana, papaya, etc.
Calcium carbide contains traces of arsenic and
phosphorus which is harmful to humans and
may cause dizziness, frequent thirst, irritation,
weakness, difficulty in swallowing, vomiting,
skin ulcer, etc. The acetylene gas released from
calcium carbide is equally harmful to handlers.
There are chances that calcium carbide may
come in direct contact with fruits during
application and leave residues of arsenic and
phosphorus on fruits. Thus, the use of this
chemical for the ripening of fruits is banned in
India.
Statement 2 is correct: Ethylene is a
hormone naturally produced within the
fruit and regulates fruit ripening by initiating
and controlling a series of chemical and
biochemical activities. The treatment of unripe
fruits with ethylene gas triggers the natural
ripening until the fruit itself starts producing
ethylene in large quantities.
Statement 3 is correct: As per the Food
Safety and Standards (Prohibition and
Restrictions on Sales) Regulation, 2011,
the use of ethylene gas is permitted at a
concentration of up to 100 ppm (100µl/L)
depending upon the crop, variety and maturity
for artificial ripening of fruits. Ethylene, being
a natural hormone does not pose any health
hazard to consumers.
11. (a)
Option (a) is correct: Formaldehyde is
a colourless, strong-smelling, flammable
chemical that is produced industrially and used
in building materials such as particleboard,
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plywood, and other pressed-wood products.
Formalin, derived from formaldehyde, is a
known cancer-causing agent. It is commonly
used to preserve bodies in mortuaries. It
can also increase the shelf life of fresh food.
A large amount of formalin or formaldehyde
is used to preserve fish. In addition, it is
commonly used as a fungicide, germicide,
and disinfectant. Formaldehyde also occurs
naturally in the environment. It is produced
during the decay of plant material in the
soil and during normal chemical processes
in most living organisms. It is also a
combustion product found in tobacco smoke.
Studies of workers exposed to high levels of
formaldehyde, such as industrial workers and
embalmers, have found that formaldehyde
causes myeloid leukaemia and rare cancers,
including cancers of the paranasal sinuses, nasal
cavities, and nasopharynx. The general public
may be exposed to formaldehyde by breathing
contaminated air from sources such as pressed-
wood products, tobacco smoke, and automobile
tailpipe emissions. Another potential source
of exposure to formaldehyde is the use of
unvented fuel-burning appliances, such as gas
stoves, wood-burning stoves, and kerosene
heaters. It is a component of photochemical
smog. Formaldehyde is well-known formalin
(40%) solution used to preserve biological
specimens and to prepare bakelite (a phenol-
formaldehyde resin), urea-formaldehyde glues
and other polymeric products.
12. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: UV-A (315-400
nm) is not absorbed significantly by the
ozone layer and causes premature ageing of the
skin. The relatively long-wavelength UV-A
accounts for approximately 95 per cent of the
UV radiation reaching the Earth's surface. It
can penetrate into the deeper layers of the skin
and is responsible for the immediate tanning
effect. Furthermore, it also contributes to skin
ageing and wrinkling. For a long time, it was
thought that UV-A could not cause any lasting
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
damage. Recent studies strongly suggest that
it may also enhance the development of skin
cancers.
Statement 2 is correct: Medium-wavelength
UV-B (280-315 nm) is very biologically active
but cannot penetrate beyond the superficial
skin layers. It is responsible for delayed
tanning and burning; in addition to these
short-term effects, it enhances skin ageing and
significantly promotes the development of
skin cancer. Most solar UV-B is filtered by the
atmosphere. UV-B is only partially absorbed
and, as a result, humans and other life forms are
exposed to some UV-B radiation. Excessive
exposure to UV-B radiation increases the risks
of skin cancer, cataracts, and a suppressed
immune system for humans and also damages
terrestrial plant life, single-cell organisms, as
well as aquatic ecosystems.
Statement 3 is correct: Short-wavelength
UVC (100-280 nm) is the most damaging
type of UV radiation. UV-C radiation is
entirely absorbed within the ozone layer.
13. (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Visceral leishmaniasis
(VL), also known as kala-azar, is caused by
protozoan parasites which are transmitted
by the bite of infected female phlebotomine
sandflies.It is a neglected tropical disease
(NTD) and is the deadliest parasitic killer
after malaria. The disease affects some of the
world’s poorest people and is associated with
malnutrition, population displacement, poor
housing, a weak immune system, and a lack of
financial resources. Most cases occur in Brazil,
east Africa, and India. An estimated 50 000
to 90 000 new cases of VL occur worldwide
annually.
Statement 2 is correct: Human
papillomavirus (HPV) is the most common
sexually transmitted infection (STI). HPV
vaccines can prevent some of the health effects
HPV causes. HPV can cause cervical and
other cancers. It can also cause cancer in the
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
back of the throat. This can include the base
of the tongue and tonsils. Cancer often takes
years, even decades, to develop after a person
gets HPV. There are currently 4 vaccines that
have been prequalified by WHO, all protecting
against HPV types 16 and 18, which are known
to cause at least 70% of cervical cancers.
Statement 3 is not correct: Lumpy skin
disease is caused by the lumpy skin disease
virus (LSDV), which belongs to the genus
capripoxvirus, a part of the poxviridae family
(smallpox and monkeypox viruses are also a part
of the same family). It is not a zoonotic virus,
meaning the disease cannot spread to humans.
It is a contagious vector-borne disease spread
by vectors like mosquitoes, some biting flies,
and ticks and usually affects host animals like
cows and water buffaloes. Lumpy skin disease
affects the lymph nodes of the infected animal,
causing the nodes to enlarge and appear like
lumps on the skin, which is where it derives
its name from. National Centre for Veterinary
Type Culture, ICAR-National Research Centre
on Equines (ICAR-NRCE), Hisar (Haryana),
in collaboration with ICAR-Indian Veterinary
Research Institute (IVRI), Izatnagar (UP)
developed a homologous live-attenuated LSD
vaccine.
14. (c)
National Green Hydrogen Mission approved
with an aim to make India a global hub for
production, utilization and export of Green
Hydrogen and its derivatives.
Statement 1 is not correct: Blue Hydrogen is
produced via natural gas or coal gasification
combined with carbon capture storage (CCS)
or carbon capture use (CCU) technologies to
reduce carbon emissions.
Statement 2 is not correct: Grey Hydrogen
is produced via coal or lignite gasification
(black or brown), or via a process called
steam methane reformation (SMR) of
natural gas or methane (grey). These tend to
be mostly carbon-intensive processes.
© Copyright:  (8 – A)
Statement 3 is correct: Green Hydrogen is
produced using the electrolysis of water with
electricity generated by renewable energy.
The carbon intensity ultimately depends on the
carbon neutrality of the source of electricity
(i.e., the more renewable energy there is in the
electricity fuel mix, the “greener” the hydrogen
produced).
15. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Plain pottery was
more common than painted ware during
the Indus Valley Period. Plain pottery is
generally of red clay, with or without a fine
red or grey slip. It includes knobbed ware,
ornamented with rows of knobs. The black-
painted ware has a fine coating of red slip
on which geometric and animal designs are
executed in glossy black paint.
Statement 2 is not correct: Perforated pottery
includes a large hole at the bottom and small
holes all over the wall. It was probably used
for straining beverages.
Statement 3 is not correct: Polychrome
pottery is rare during the Indus Valley
period. It mainly comprises small vases
decorated with geometric patterns in red, black,
and green, rarely white and yellow.
Incised ware is also rare and the incised
decoration was confined to the bases of the
pans, always inside and to the dishes of offering
stands.
16. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Mesolithic
paintings are generally smaller in size and
linear representations are majorly present
during the paintings of Upper Paleolithic
period. Hunting scenes predominate in
Mesolithic paintings. The hunting scenes
depict people hunting in groups, armed with
barbed spears, pointed sticks, arrows and bows.
Statement 2 is correct: The Mesolithic artists
loved to paint animals. Though animals
were painted in a naturalistic style, humans
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were depicted only in a stylistic manner. In
some pictures, animals are chasing men. In
others, they are being chased and hunted by
men. Some of the animal paintings, especially
in the hunting scenes, show a fear of animals,
but many others show a feeling of tenderness
and love for them.
Statement 3 is correct: Mesolithic paintings
also depict the social life of that time like
children are painted running, jumping
and playing. Community dances provide a
common theme. There are paintings of people
gathering fruit or honey from trees, and of
women grinding and preparing food. Some of
the pictures of men, women and children seem
to depict a sort of family life.
17. (c)
Option (c) is not correct: The purpose of
producing seals during the Indus Valley
period was mainly commercial in nature.
It appears that the seals were also used as
amulets, carried on the persons of their owners,
perhaps as modern-day identity cards.
Option (a) is correct: Every seal is engraved
in a pictographic script which is yet to be
deciphered. They all bear a great variety
of motifs, most often of animals including
those of the bull, with or without the hump,
the elephant, tiger, goat and also monsters.
Sometimes trees or human figures were also
depicted.
Option (b) is correct: The standard
Harappan seal was a square plaque
2×2 square inches, made from steatite.
Archaeologists have discovered thousands of
seals, mostly made of steatite, and occasionally
of agate, chert, copper, faience and terracotta,
Option (d) is correct: The most remarkable
seal is the one depicted with a figure in the
centre and animals around it. This seal is
generally identified as the Pashupati Seal
by some scholars. This seal depicts a human
figure seated cross-legged. An elephant and a
tiger are depicted on the right side of the seated
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
figure, while on the left a rhinoceros and a
buffalo are seen. In addition to these animals,
two antelopes are shown below the seat.
18. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: The foundation
of a monastery was laid by Kumargupta I
in the fifth century CE and this was carried
forward by the later monarchs who built up a
fantastic university here. Buddhist monasteries
like Nalanda, thus, were prolific centres of art
production that had a decisive impact on the
arts of all Buddhist countries in Asia.
Statement 2 is not correct: There is
evidence that all three Buddhist doctrines—
Theravada, Mahayana and Vajrayana were
taught here. Monks made their way to Nalanda
and its neighbouring sites of Bodhgaya and
Kurkihar from China, Tibet and Central Asia
in the north, and Sri Lanka, Thailand, Burma
and various other countries from the south-
eastern parts of Asia.
19. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: The Mauryan
pillar capital found at Sarnath popularly known
as the Lion Capital is the finest example of
Mauryan sculptural tradition. It is also our
national emblem.
The Lion pillar capital symbolizes
Dharmachakrapravartana i.e. the first
sermon by the Buddha. It has become a
standard symbol of this great historical event
in the life of the Buddha.
Statement 2 is correct: The Lion Capital of
Sarnath pillar has four lions firmly seated
back to back on a circular abacus. The lion
figures of the capital are very impressive and
massive. The monumentality of the image is
easily noticeable. The facial musculature of the
lions is very strong. The lions appear as if they
have held their breath.
Statement 3 is not correct: The capital
without the crowning wheel and the lotus
base has been adopted as the National
Emblem of Independent India.
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
20. (d)
Option (d) is correct: Ellora caves are
located in Aurangabad District. It is located
a hundred kilometres from Ajanta and has
thirty-four Buddhist, Brahmanical and Jain
caves. It is a unique art-historical site in the
country as it has monasteries associated with
the three religions dating from the fifth century
CE onwards to the eleventh century CE.
It is also unique in terms of stylistic eclecticism,
i.e., the confluence of many styles in one
place. The caves of Ellora show the ongoing
differences between the two religions—
Buddhism and Brahmanical.
There are twelve Buddhist caves having
many images belonging to Vajrayana
Buddhism like Tara, Mahamayuri,
Akshobhya, Avalokiteshvara, Maitreya,
Amitabha, etc.
Ajanta has excavated double-storeyed caves
but at Ellora, the triple-storey is a unique
achievement. All the caves were plastered and
painted but nothing visible is left.
21. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The most common
name for the simple shikhara which is square
at the base and whose walls curve or slope
inward to a point on top is called the 'latina' or
the rekha-prasada type of shikara.
Latina buildings look like sharply rising
tall towers whereas in Phamsana buildings
there is a gentle rise to a single point over
the centre of the building.
Statement 2 is not correct: Phamsana
buildings tend to be broader and shorter
than latina ones. Phamsana roofs do not
curve inward, instead, they slope upwards on
a straight incline.
Statement 3 is correct: In many North
Indian temples, phamsana design is used for
the mandapas while the main garbhagriha
is housed in a latina building.
Later on, the latina buildings grew complex,
and instead of appearing like a single tall
© Copyright:  (10 – A)
tower, the temple began to support many
smaller towers, which were clustered together
like rising mountain peaks with the tallest one
being in the centre, and this was the one which
was always above the garbhagriha.
22. (c)
Statement 1 is not correct: Dravida temples
are usually enclosed within a compound
wall. The front wall has an entrance gateway
in its centre, which is known as a gopuram.
The shape of the main temple tower known
as Vimana in Tamil Nadu is like a stepped
pyramid that rises up geometrically rather than
the curving shikhara of North India.
Statement 2 is not correct: The North Indian
style of Nagara temple architecture consists
of multiple shikharas rising together as a
cluster was not popular in South India. At
some of the most sacred temples in South India,
the main temple in which the garbhagriha is
situated has, in fact, one of the smallest towers.
This is because it is usually the oldest part of
the temple.
Statement 3 is correct: At the entrance to the
North Indian temple’s garbhagriha, it would
be usual to find images such as mithunas and
the river goddesses, Ganga and Yamuna and in
South India generally we find the sculptures
of fierce dvarapalas or the door-keepers
guarding the temple.
23. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Mahabodhi Temple
is one of the holiest sites of Buddhism. It is
located in Bodh Gaya in central Bihar on the
banks of the Niranjana River. The Mahabodhi
Temple is one of the oldest brick temples in
India. Thus it is an important reminder of
the brickwork of that time.
Statement 2 is not correct: The original
structure of Mahabodhi temple, later
replaced, was built by the Mauryan emperor
Ashoka to commemorate the Buddha’s
Enlightenment. Bodhgaya is thus a pilgrimage
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site since Siddhartha achieved enlightenment
here and became Gautama Buddha.
Statement 3 is not correct: The design of
the temple is unusual. It is, strictly speaking,
neither Dravida nor Nagara. It is narrow like
a Nagara temple, but it rises without curving,
like a Dravida one.
24. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The well-known
dancing figure of Shiva as Nataraja evolved
and fully developed during the Chola Period
and since then many variations of this complex
bronze image have been modelled.
Statement 2 is not correct: A wide range
of Shiva iconography was evolved in the
Thanjavur (Tanjore) region of Tamil
Nadu i.e. Southern India. The ninth-century
Kalyana Sundara murti is highly remarkable for
the manner in which Panigrahana (ceremony
of marriage) is represented by two separate
statuettes.
Statement 3 is correct: Shiva is associated
with the end of the cosmic world with
which this dancing position i.e. Nataraja
is associated. In this Chola period bronze
sculpture he has been shown balancing himself
on his right leg and suppressing the apasmara
i.e. the demon of ignorance or forgetfulness.
25. (b)
Indian elephant (Elephas maximus) is
included in Schedule I of the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972 and in Appendix I
of the Convention on International Trade
in Endangered Species of Flora and Fauna
(CITES). It occurs in 16 of the 28 states in
the country. Project Elephant was launched
by the Government of India in the year 1992
as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with the
following objectives:
1. To protect elephants, their habitat and
corridors
2. To address issues of man-animal conflict
3. The Welfare of Captive Elephants
© Copyright:  (11 – A)
Full Syllabus [Test-12]
As of November 2022, India has 33 Elephant
Reserves, in 14 States, with Assam and
Tamil Nadu with the most Elephant
Reserves numbering five each. Meghalaya,
Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, and Andhra
Pradesh have one each.
Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Lemru
Elephant Reserve is in the state of
Chhattisgarh. The reserve is located in the
Korba district and it is aiming at reducing
the human-animal conflict and destruction of
property in addition to providing a permanent
habitat for the elephants in the region.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Dandeli
Elephant Reserve is in the state of Karnataka.
Dandeli is a natural habitat for several wildlife
animals like tigers, leopards, black panthers,
elephants, gaur, deer, antelopes, crocodiles,
and various kinds of snakes.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Agasthyamalai
Elephant Reserve is in the state of Tamil
Nadu. It is Tamil Nadu’s 5th Elephant Reserve
and also a Biosphere Reserve. the forest areas
of Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
and Kanyakumari Wildlife Sanctuary in the
Agasthyamalai landscape constitute the most
important habitats of Asian elephants in the
southernmost part of the western ghats. To
ensure the conservation of the rich elephant
habitats in the area and to also enrich the health
and connectivity of the elephant migratory
paths in the landscape through proper research
and effective management, the new reserve has
been notified.
Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Singphan
Elephant Reserve is in the state of Nagaland.
It is located in Mon district and is strategically
located in contiguity with the Abhaypur
Reserve Forest of Assam.
26. (b)
Option (b) is correct: Teesta river originates
as Chhombo Chhu from a glacial lake
Khangchung Chho at an elevation of 5,280
m in Sikkim. The glacial lake lies at the snout
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of the Teesta Khangse glacier descending from
Pauhunri peak (7,056 m) in the northwestern
direction. Teesta Khangse Glacier and
Chho Lhamo are also considered the source
of the Teesta River by many authors. The
tributaries on the eastern flank are shorter
in course but larger in number whereas the
tributaries on the western flank are much
longer with larger drainage areas, consequently
contributing much more amount of discharge
to the main Teesta River. Furthermore, right-
bank tributaries drain heavily glaciated
areas with large snow fields. The left bank
tributaries, on the other hand, originate from
semi-permanent and much smaller snow fields
as compared to the right bank tributaries. Left
bank tributaries are Lachung Chhu, Chakung
Chhu, Dik Chhu, Rani Khola, and Rangpo
Chhu. The right bank tributaries are
Zemu Chhu, Rangit River, and Rangyong
Chhu. Dibang and Lohit are the left-bank
tributaries of Brahmaputra.
There are two major longstanding water
disputes between India and Bangladesh –
the Teesta River dispute and the Ganges
River dispute, both of which are major sources
for fishermen, farmers and boatmen of both
countries. Recently both countries signed the
Kushiyara River water pact, with the next
step to resolve the Teesta water dispute.
27. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Tamil Nadu
witnessed elections in November 1920 when
electors (only men), accounting for just 3%
28. (c)
of the population, were enrolled, as a result
of the Montagu-Chelmsford Report and the
Government of India Act of 1919. Indian
National Congress boycotted the election due
to its participation in the Non-Cooperation
Movement. With Congress boycotting the
election, the South Indian Liberal Federation,
known as Justice Party won the election with
no significant opposition. The proportion of
elected members increased to over 70%. The
concept of dyarchy came into being with
© Copyright:  (12 – A)
Ministers, who were Indians, gaining limited
control over certain subjects, such as local
self-government and education. It was then
that the office of the Chief Minister, also called
the Premier, got instituted. Besides, one seat
in each territorial plural-member constituency,
28 in all was reserved for non-Brahmins.
Statement 2 is correct: As women were not
part of the electorate, the Council, in its first
session in April 1921, resolved to provide
voting rights to women. Subsequently, it
decided to remove the restriction on women
getting elected as members. In early 1927,
Muthulakshmi Reddy, the well-known
medical practitioner and social activist, became
the first woman member of the Council and, in
no time, became the Deputy President of the
Council. She was the first woman legislator
in British India.
Statement 3 is correct: The Justice Party
opposed Annie Besant and her Home
Rule Movement because it believed that
Home Rule would benefit the Brahmins.
The Justice Party was born mainly due to
the socio-political conflict in Madras City. In
order to prevent Brahmin domination, the non-
Brahmins opposed the Home Rule Movement.
They stood firmly against the transfer of power
from the British to a Brahmin overlordship.
The Justice Party through its English daily,
‘The Justice’ attacked the New India and Mrs
AnnieBesant, its editor, and ridiculed her as an
Irish Brahmin.
Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Sao Joao
or San Janv is an annual Catholic festival
celebrated in Goa. It is a celebration of the
birthday of St John the Baptiste. The feast
of Sao Joao in Goa coincides with the time
of the year when the monsoon usually has
commenced. On this day, groups of people go
around singing traditional songs accompanied
by instruments like ghumot, mhadalem, and
kansallem.
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Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Burlang
Yatra is a traditional annual festival of the
Kutia Kondh tribe of Odisha where the
community, especially the women, worship,
and exchanges seeds through a celebratory
mode of songs and dances at the village level.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Wangala
Festival, also known as the 100 drums
festival of Meghalaya is the most popular
festival among the Garos of Meghalaya.
Wangala Festival is a harvest festival held in
honour of Saljong, the Sun-god of fertility.
The celebration of the Wangala Festival marks
the end of a period of toil, which brings good
output to the fields. It also signifies the onset
of winter.
Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Basavana
Bagewadi is a historic town located in
Karnataka that is famous as the birthplace of
the 12th-century saint, poet, and social reformer
Basavanna, also known as Basaveshwara.
He is believed to have founded the Lingayat
sect, which is devoted to Shiva worship. He
composed simple poems with deep meaning,
known as Vachanas in the local language,
to spread the message of Shaivism. Basava
attained nirvana at Kudala Sangama, the same
place where he had started his spiritual pursuit.
There is an ancient temple in Basavana
Bagewadi, which date back to the Chalukyan
era and is similar to the temple at Kudala
Sangama that has been restored and renovated
recently.
29. (b)
The Supreme Court has original, appellate
and advisory jurisdiction. Under appellate
jurisdiction, the Supreme Court is primarily
a court of appeal and hears appeals against
the judgements of the lower courts. Appellate
jurisdiction means that the Supreme Court
will reconsider the case and the legal issues
involved in it. The High Courts too, have
appellate jurisdiction over the decisions given
by courts below them. Supreme Court enjoys
© Copyright:  (13 – A)
Full Syllabus [Test-12]
a wide appellate jurisdiction which can be
classified as
• Appeals in constitutional matters
• Appeals in civil matters
• Appeals in criminal matters
• Appeals by special leave
Statement 1 is not correct: According to
Article 139A, the Supreme Court may, if
it deems it expedient to do so for the ends
of justice, transfer any case, appeal or other
proceedings pending before any High Court
to any other High Court. The Supreme Court
has been conferred with the power to direct the
transfer of any civil or criminal case from one
State High Court to another State High Court
or from a Court subordinate to another State
High Court. The Supreme Court, if satisfied
that cases involving the same or substantially
the same questions of law are pending before it
and one or more High Courts or before two or
more High Courts and that such questions are
substantial questions of general importance,
may withdraw a case or cases pending before
the High Court or High Courts and dispose of
all such cases itself. Also, under the Writ of
Certiorari, the court orders a lower court or
another authority to transfer a matter pending
before it to the higher authority or court.
Statement 2 is not correct: Writ jurisdiction
of the Supreme Court is mentioned under
Article 32 of the Constitution which gives
an extensive original jurisdiction to the
Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of
Fundamental Rights. Any individual, whose
fundamental right has been violated, can
directly move the Supreme Court for remedy.
The Supreme Court can give special orders
in the form of writs. It is empowered to issue
directions, orders or writs, including writs
in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus,
prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari to
enforce them.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 133 states
that an appeal lies to the Supreme Court in
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civil matters if the High Court concerned
certifies under Article 134A that the case
involves a substantial question of law of
general importance, and that, in the opinion
of the High Court, the said question needs to
be decided by the Supreme Court.
Statement 4 is not correct: Article 131 gives
Original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court.
Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to
any dispute between the Government of
India and one or more States or between
the Government of India and any State or
States on one side and one or more States
on the other or between two or more States,
if and insofar as the dispute involves any
question (whether of law or of fact) on which
the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
30. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: As per the Income-
tax Act, a person engaged in business or
profession is required to maintain regular
books of account and further, he has to get
his accounts audited. To give relief to small
taxpayers from this tedious work, the Income-
tax Act has framed the presumptive taxation
scheme. A person adopting the presumptive
taxation scheme can declare income at a
prescribed rate and, in turn, is relieved from the
tedious job of maintenance of books of account
and also from getting the accounts audited. In
order to ease compliance and to promote non-
cash transactions, presumptive taxation limits
have been increased for micro-enterprises and
certain professionals to Rs 3 crores and Rs 75
lahks respectively, for taxpayers whose cash
receipts are no more than 5 per cent. Moreover,
to support MSMEs in the timely receipt of
payments, it is proposed to allow a deduction
for expenditure incurred on payments made to
them only when payment is actually made.
Statement 2 is correct: The new co-operative
society formed on or after 01.04.2023, which
commences manufacturing or production
by 31.03.2024 and does not avail of any
© Copyright:  (14 – A)
specified incentive or deduction, is proposed
to be allowed an option to pay tax at a
concessional rate of 15 per cent similar to
what is available to new manufacturing
companies. This announcement would benefit
new cooperatives engaged in manufacturing/
production activities.
Statement 3 is not correct: In the Union
Budget in 2017, the government had for the first
time announced that startups incorporated after
March 31, 2016, could avail of a tax holiday
for three out of seven years from the date of
incorporation, provided that annual turnover
does not exceed Rs 25 crore in any financial
year. India is now the third largest ecosystem
for start-ups globally and ranks second in
innovation quality among middle-income
countries. The proposal under the budget is to
extend the date of incorporation for income tax
benefits to start-ups from 31.03.23 to 31.3.24.
Further, it is proposed to provide the benefit
of carrying forward losses on change of
shareholding of start-ups from seven years
of incorporation to ten years.
31. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Raja Rammohan Roy
set up the Brahmo Samaj in 1828.
The Brahmo Samaj was an important
organization of religious reforms. It forbade
idol worship and discarded meaningless rites
and rituals. The Samaj also forbade its members
from attacking any religion. It believed in the
basic unity of all religions. Raja Rammohan
Roy believed that man should adopt truth and
goodness and should give up things based on
falsehood and superstition.
Literary works of Raja Ram Mohan Roy
are Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin (1804), Vedanta
Gantha (1815), Translation of an abridgement
of the Vedanta Sara (1816), Kenopanishads
(1816), Ishopanishad (1816), Kathopanishad
(1817), A Conference between the Advocate
for, and an Opponent of Practice of Burning
Widows Alive (Bengali and English) (1818),
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Mundaka Upanishad (1819), A Defence of
Hindu Theism (1820), The Precepts of Jesus-
The Guide to Peace and Happiness (1820),
Bengali Grammar (1826), The Universal
Religion (1829), History of Indian Philosophy
(1829), Gaudiya Vyakaran (1833)
When Lord Hastings relaxed press
censorship in 1819, Ram Mohan Roy found
three journals-The Brahmanical Magazine
(1821); The Bengali weekly, Samvad Kaumudi
(1821); The Persian weekly, Mirat-ul-Akbar.
Statement 2 is correct: Arya Samaj was the
most influential movement of all the religious
and social reform in northern India and it was
started by Dayanand Saraswati in 1875. He
held that the Vedas contained all the knowledge
imparted to man by God and essentials of
modern science could also be traced in them.
He also favoured the study of Western
sciences as well.
Statement 3 is correct: The principal feature
of Vivekananda’s social philosophy was his
insistence on the upliftment of the masses.
For him, service to the poor and downtrodden
was the highest religion. To organize such a
service, he founded the Ramakrishna Mission
in 1897. This Mission to date has played an
important role in providing social service in
times of national distress like famine, floods,
and epidemics. Many schools, hospitals, and
orphanages are run by it.
32. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Theosophical
society was founded in the USA in 1875 by a
Russian spiritualist Madame H.P. Blavatsky
and an American Col. H.S. Olcott. The
Society was introduced to India in 1879 and its
headquarters were set up at Adyar near Madras
in 1886. Its influence spread under Annie
Besant in 1893 who played an important role
in India’s struggle for freedom.
Statement 2 is correct: Its objective was
to promote studies in ancient religions,
philosophies and science, develop the divine
© Copyright:  (15 – A)
Full Syllabus [Test-12]
powers latent in man and form a universal
brotherhood of man. Annie Besant and
her associates advocated the revival and
strengthening of the ancient religions of
Hinduism, Zoroastrianism and Buddhism. It
recognized the doctrine of the transmigration
of the soul and also preached the universal
brotherhood of man.
Statement 3 is not correct: The Society
gave a helping hand in social and religious
reform, especially in South India. Branches
of the Theosophical Society were opened all
over India and its Journal Theosophist had a
wide circulation. Most of the work done by it
was influenced by Annie Besant.
33. (b)
The Council Act of 1909 was an extension of
the 1892 reforms, also known as the Morley-
Minto Reforms after the names of the then
Secretary of State (Lord Morley) and the then
Viceroy (Lord Minto).
Statement 1 is not correct: The British made
another calculated move to sow the seed of
communalism in Indian politics through
Morley Minto reforms by introducing
separate electorates for the Muslims. This
meant that from the constituencies dominated
by Muslims only Muslim candidates could be
elected. Hindus could only vote for Hindus,
and Muslims could only vote for Muslims.
Many leaders protested against this communal
electorate policy of the British to ‘Divide and
Rule’. Thus it was not Dalits but Muslims
who were awarded the Separate Electorate.
Statement 2 is correct: The act increased
the maximum additional membership of
the Imperial Legislative Council from 16
(to which it had been raised by the Indian
Councils Act of 1892) to 60. In the provincial
councils of Bombay (now Mumbai), Bengal,
and Madras (now Chennai), which had
been created in 1861, the permissible total
membership had been earlier raised to 20 by
the Indian Councils Act of 1892.
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
Statement 3 is not correct: Though the
number of members of the Legislative Council
increased, they had no real powers. They
remained mainly advisory in character. They
could not stop any bills from being passed
Nor did they have any power over the
budget.
34. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Although the revolt
was a big event in the history of India, it
had very little chance of success against
an organised and powerful enemy. It was
suppressed within a year of its outbreak. There
was no unity of purpose among the rebels.
The sepoys of Bengal wanted to revive the
ancient glories of the Mughals while Nana
Saheb and Tantya Tope tried to reestablish the
Maratha power. Rani Lakshmi Bai fought to
regain Jhansi, which she had lost as a result of
the British policy of the Doctrine of Lapse.
Statement 2 is correct: The rebels were
short of weapons and finances. Whatever
few weapons existed were old and outdated.
They were no match for the sophisticated and
modern weapons of the British.
Statement 3 is correct: The leadership of
the movement was weak. Indian leaders
lacked organization and planning. The rebel
leaders were no match for the British soldiers.
Most of its leaders thought only of their own
interests. They were motivated by narrow
personal gains. They fought to liberate only
their own territories. No national leader
emerged to coordinate the movement and
give it purpose and direction.
Statement 4 is correct: The British managed
to get the loyalty of the Madras and Bombay
regiments and the Sikh states. Afghans and
Gurkhas also supported the British. Many
Indian rulers refused to help the rebels. Some
were openly hostile to them and helped the
British in suppressing the revolt. The middle
and upper classes and the modern educated
Indians also did not support the revolt.
© Copyright:  (16 – A)
35. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: In August 1858 the
British crown assumed control of India from
the East India Company and in 1877 Queen
Victoria was crowned empress of India. This
brought to an end the rule of the East India
Company.
Statement 2 is not correct: There were
attempts to play native against natives on the
basis of caste, religion and region. All the big
posts in the army and the artillery departments
were reserved for the Europeans. There was
a strengthening of mutual distrust and fear
between Indians and the British.
Statement 3 is correct: In the proclamation of
1st November 1858, the Queen announced a
continuation of the Company’s policies. India
became a colony of the British Empire. The
Indian rulers were assured of their rights to
succession after adoption. The crown promised
to honour all the treaties and agreements made
by the company with the rulers of the Indian
State.
Statement 4 is correct: By now the British
had become distrustful of the Hindu-Muslim
unity. They decided to follow the policy of
dividing and ruling the country. They kept
tight control over key positions both in the
civil and military administration.
36. (c)
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Mappilas
were the Muslim cultivating tenants,
landless labourers and fishermen of the
Malabar region. The British occupation of the
Malabar region and their new land laws along
with the atrocities of the landlords (mainly
Hindus) led the Mappilas to revolt against
them. It took many years for the British to
crush the Mappilas.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Kols of
Singhbhum in the Chhotanagpur area
enjoyed autonomy under their chiefs but
the entry of the British threatened their
independence. Later the transfer of tribal lands
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and the coming of moneylenders, merchants
and British laws created a lot of tension. This
prompted the Kol tribe to organize themselves
and rebel.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Bhils were
largely concentrated in Khandesh (present-
day Maharashtra & Gujarat). Khandesh
came under British occupation in 1818. The
Bhils considered them outsiders. On the
instigation of Trimbakji, rebel minister of Baji
Rao II they revolted against the Britishers.
Pair 4 is not correctly matched: The area
of concentration of the Santhals was
called Daman-i-Koh or Santhal Pargana.
It extended from Bhagalpur in Bihar in the
north to Orissa in the south stretching from
Hazaribagh to the borders of Bengal.
37. (b)
Option (a) is not correct: The leader of the
Wahabi movement (the 1830s-1860s) was
Syed Ahmed Barelvi of Rae Bareilly who was
greatly influenced by the teachings of Abdul
Wahab of Arabia and Shah Waliullah, a Delhi
saint. The movement was primarily religious
in its origin. It soon assumed the character of
a class struggle in some places, especially in
Bengal. Irrespective of communal distinctions,
peasants united against their landlords.
Option (b) is correct: It was the Farazi
Movement (1838-1848) which was the first-
ever no-tax campaign against the British
Government led by Shariatullah Khan and
Dadu Mian. Their band of volunteers fought
heroically with the armed group of Indigo
planters and zamindars. It brought together all
the cultivators of Bengal against the tyranny
and illegal extractions by the landlords.
Option (c) is not correct: The peasants
launched a movement for the non-cultivation
of indigo in Bengal during 1859-1862. The
British adopted many ways through which they
could increase their profits. They also started
interfering with the basic means of livelihood
of the people. Not only did they introduce
© Copyright:  (17 – A)
Full Syllabus [Test-12]
new crops, they also brought new techniques
of farming. Heavy pressure was put on the
zamindars and peasants to pay high taxes and
grow commercial crops. One such commercial
crop was Indigo. The cultivation of indigo
was determined by the needs of the English
cloth markets.
Option (d) is not correct: The Sanyasi
Uprisings took place in Bengal between the
periods of 1770-1820s. The Sanyasis rose
in rebellion after the great famine of 1770
in Bengal which caused acute chaos and
misery. However, the immediate cause of
the rebellion was the restrictions imposed by
the British upon pilgrims visiting holy places
among both Hindus and Muslims.
38. (c)
Pair 1 is correctly matched: It was V.D.
Savarkar who drafted the revolt of
1857 directly into the historiography of
Indian nationalism by describing it, in a
1909 publication, as the "Indian War of
Independence", a war fought for "swadharma
and swaraj”. Although this claim was
vigorously denied by both Sen and Majumdar,
it received serious academic support in 1959
from S.B. Chaudhuri, who saw in the revolt
"the first combined attempt of many classes of
people to challenge a foreign power.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: In 1965
Thomas Metcalf wrote: "There is a
widespread agreement that it was something
more than a sepoy mutiny, but something
less than a national revolt". It was not
"national" because the popular character of
the revolt was limited to Upper India alone,
while the regions and groups that experienced
the benefits of British rule remained loyal.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: It was Eric
Stokes who viewed this revolt as one which
was elitist in character. Some historians like
Judith Brown think that during the revolt the
feudal elements were the decision makers and
that much of the revolt was determined and
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
shaped by the presence or absence of a thriving
magnate element committed to British rule, for
it was only they who could give the revolt a
general direction.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: C.A. Bayly has
discovered the rebellion of 1857 as "a set of
patriotic revolts". What the rebels demanded,
he writes, "was the restoration of the Indo-
Mughal patriots within the broader constellation
of Mughal legitimacy, animated by mutual
respect and a healthy balance between lands
and peoples". As the revolt made progress,
even among the so-called collaborators there
was no uncritical acceptance of British rule.
39. (d)
Option (d) is correct: Post 1927 Simon
Commission, Indian political leaders were
busy in drafting a Constitution. This is
known as the Nehru Report which formed
the outline of the Constitution. Among its
important recommendations were:
1. Declaration of Rights (Bill of Rights)
2. A parliamentary system of government
3. Adult franchise.
4. An independent judiciary with a
supreme court at its head.
Most of its recommendations formed the basis
of the Constitution of independent India which
was adopted more than twenty years later.
At the historic annual session of Congress in
Lahore in 1929, the Congress committed itself
to a demand for Purna- Swaraj or complete
independence and issued a call to the country
to celebrate 26th January as Purna-Swaraj Day.
On January 26, 1930, the Congress celebrated
‘Independence Day’. On the same day in 1950
the Constitution of Independent India was
adopted, making India a sovereign, democratic
socialist republic. Since then January 26th is
celebrated as Republic Day.
40. (c)
Statement 1 is not correct: The most
conspicuous feature of the Act of 1935 was the
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concept of an All India Federation comprising
the Provinces of British India and the Princely
States. It was compulsory for the Provinces
to join the proposed federation. For the
Princely States, it was voluntary.
Statement 2 is correct: The members from
the provinces were to be elected, while the
representatives of the States were to be
nominated by the rulers. Only 14 per cent of
the population in British India had the right to
vote.
Statement 3 is not correct: The powers of the
Legislature were confined and restricted.
It had no control over the defence and
foreign relations. The Act protected British
vested interests, discouraging the emergence
of national unity, rather than encouraging
separation and communalism. All nationalists,
including Nehru and Jinnah, condemned the
Act.
41. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The Himalayas can
be linearly divided into five parallel ranges
from north to south and each range is separated
by a prominent tectonic feature. The Higher/
Greater Himalaya lies to the south of the
Tethys Himalaya and is the highest part
of Himalaya. The tectonic feature termed
as Main Central Thrust demarcates the
boundary between the Higher and the
Lesser Himalayas. The Main Boundary Thrust
demarcates the tectonic boundary between the
Lesser and Outer Himalayas.
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Statement 2 is not correct: The Great
Boundary Fault lies in south-eastern
Rajasthan that separates the weakly deformed
and unmetamorphosed rocks of the Vindhyan
sediments from the older and deformed
Aravalli Supergroup.
43. (b)
42. (c)
Option (c) is correct: On the periphery
of Mumbai, in Vasai, lies Tungareshwar
Wildlife Sanctuary. Spread over 85 sq.
km, it forms a corridor between Sanjay
Gandhi National Park (also known as
Borivali National Park) and Tansa Wildlife
Sanctuary.
Features: There are three different types of
forests – Dry Deciduous, Moist Deciduous
and Semi-Evergreen. The region is rich in
biodiversity: The Leopard, Wild Boar, Barking
Deer, Langur, Bonnet and Rhesus Macaque,
and Black-naped Hare, as well as a multitude
of birds, including the Crested Serpent-eagle,
Jungle Owlet, White-eyed Buzzard, Oriental
Honey-buzzard, Emerald Dove and Heart-
spotted Woodpecker, can be found here.
However, the sanctuary is not without
its share of problems. Irresponsible
tourism, deforestation, illegal construction,
encroachment for agriculture, and hunting
have taken a toll on its natural beauty. It was
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
in the news because, in December 2022, the
Supreme Court exempted Maharashtra’s
Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary (TWS)
from its June order mandating the creation of
a 1 km eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) around all
protected areas in India.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Sohrai
Khovar painting is a traditional and
ritualistic mural art being practised by
local tribal women during local harvest and
marriage seasons using local, naturally
available soils of different colours in the
area of Hazaribagh district of Jharkhand.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Pithora
Art is created in order to seek the blessings
of the Pithora Devi, popularly worshipped
in Gujarat. The painting generally contains
elements of the mythology of the tribe as well
as the horses of the Gods and Goddesses
and the ancestors of that particular tribe. Daily
human activities such as trade and farming are
also given representation.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The famous
Rataul Mango has been named on the basis of
Rataul village in the Baghpat district of Uttar
Pradesh. It is very popular among common
people due to its special aroma and taste.
According to agricultural experts, Pakistan
also keeps claiming ownership of this mango,
but originally this mango originated from
Rataul village.
Pair 4 is not correctly matched: The
Tandoor Red Gram has got Registered GI
tag in Telangana. Tandur Red Gram is a
local variety of pigeon pea which is mainly
grown in the rainfed areas of the Tandur
and nearby places in the state. As per the
researchers, the fertile deep black soil with clay
minerals specifically in Tandur Region along
with huge limestone deposits can be attributed
to the specific quality traits of Tandur Redgram.
It contains about 24 per cent protein, which
is almost three times that of cereals and is
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
popularly known for its very good taste, and
better cooking quality.
46. (b)
44. (c)
Antarctica's "Doomsday Glacier",
nicknamed because its collapse could drive
catastrophic sea level rise, is melting rapidly
in unexpected ways, according to new research.
The Thwaites Glacier is roughly the size of
Florida and is located in West Antarctica. Part
of what holds it in place is an ice shelf that juts
out onto the surface of the ocean. Researchers
found warmer water was making its way
into crevasses and other openings known as
terraces, causing sideways melt of 30 metres
(98 feet) or more per year. Warm water is
getting into the weakest parts of the glacier and
making it worse.
Using an underwater robot vehicle known
as Icefin, mooring data and sensors, they
monitored the glacier’s grounding line, where
ice slides off the glacier and meets the ocean
for the first time.
45. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The word smog is
derived from smoke and fog. This is the most
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common example of air pollution that occurs
in many cities throughout the world. There are
two types of smog. Classical smog occurs in
cool humid climates. It is a mixture of smoke,
fog and sulphur dioxide. Chemically it is
a reducing mixture and so it is also called
reducing smog.
Statement 2 is correct: Photochemical smog
occurs in warm, dry and sunny climates.
The main components of the photochemical
smog result from the action of sunlight on
unsaturated hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides
produced by automobiles and factories.
Photochemical smog has a high concentration
of oxidising agents and is, therefore, called
oxidising smog. The common components of
photochemical smog are ozone, nitric oxide,
acrolein, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl
nitrate (PAN).
Statement 1 is not correct: Landslide
Atlas of India, a detailed guide identifying
Landslide Hotspots in the country was
released by National Remote Sensing
Centre (NRSC) under the Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO). NRSC
created a database of landslide-prone regions
of India based on events during 1998 – 2022. It
provides maps of about 80,000 landslides that
have been identified across India in the period
between 1998 and 2022, with a particular
emphasis on seasonal landslides triggered by
the 2014 and 2017 monsoon seasons, as well
as by the Sikkim earthquake.
Statement 2 is correct: Mizoram topped
the list, recording 12,385 landslide events
in the past 25 years, of which 8,926 were
recorded in 2017 alone. Mizoram is followed
by Uttarakhand (11,219) and Kerala.
Statement 3 is correct: The table shows the
rank of districts of India for their exposure to
landslides.
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Other Key Highlights:
• India is among the top five landslide-
prone countries globally, where at least
one death per 100 sq km is reported in a
year due to a landslide event.
• Uttarakhand, Kerala, Jammu and Kashmir,
Mizoram, Tripura, Nagaland and
Arunachal Pradesh reported the highest
number of landslides during 1998 – 2022.
• Nearly half of the country’s landslide-
prone area (0.18 million sq km) is located
in the states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh,
Sikkim, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Manipur,
Tripura and Nagaland.
• Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu
and Kashmir cover 0.14 million sq km of
the total landslide-prone areas.
47. (a)
Option (a) is correct: Arunachal Pradesh
state is home to various indigenous tribes, one
of which is the Idu Mishmi tribe. The IDU-
MISHMI is a major sub-tribe of the Mishmi
group. They inhabit the Lohit District,
Dibang Valley District and Lower Dibang
Valley District. They are of mongoloid stock
and speak the Tibeto-Burman language.
The tribe has a distinct culture and tradition
48. (c)
that is deeply connected to the wildlife of the
region, particularly the tigers and hoolock
gibbons. It is currently protesting against
the proposed tiger reserve in the Dibang
Wildlife Sanctuary. The Idu Mishmi tribe
fears that it will cut off access to their lands,
affecting their livelihoods and traditional
practices. To address these concerns, the
government has proposed the deployment of
a Special Tiger Protection Force, a stricter
security measure that will guard the area at all
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
times, ensuring the safety of the wildlife and
the Idu Mishmi tribe.
Additional information:
• The Idu Mishmi is one of the two major
tribes of the district. The Idu Mishmis can
be distinctively identified among other
tribal groups of Arunachal Pradesh by their
typical hairstyle, distinctive costumes and
artistic patterns embedded in their clothes.
People of sober nature still maintain deep-
rooted aesthetic values in their day-to-
day life with great pride and honour. All-
pervading goddess Nani-Intaya is the sole
creator of the universe for the Idus.
• The Idus have their distinct dialect, which
falls under the Tibeto-Burman group of
languages. Traditionally, Idus believe in
animism. They worship several benevolent
and malevolent spirits. Nani-Intaya and
Masello Zino are worshipped as creators
of mankind and the universe as a whole.
• The major festivals of the Idus are ‘Reh’
and ‘Ke-meh-ha’. The reh festival is held
during the month of February. It is an
occasion for people to relax, enjoy, dance,
eat and drink
• The Idus are expert craftsmen. The Idu
women, in particular, are very good
weavers.
• The Idu Mishmi language is considered
endangered by UNESCO, and efforts are
being made to document and preserve it.
The WPA, 1972 regulates the protection of
wild animals, birds and plants. The Wildlife
(Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 seeks to
increase the species protected under the law
and implement the Convention on International
Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna
and Flora (CITES).
Statement 1 is correct: Earlier, the Act had
six schedules for specially protected plants
(one), specially protected animals (four), and
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
vermin species (one). Vermin refers to small
animals that carry disease and destroy food.
The Amendment reduces the total number
of schedules to four by (i) reducing the
number of schedules for specially protected
animals to two (one for greater protection
level), (ii) removing the schedule for vermin
species, and (iii) inserting a new schedule
for specimens listed in the Appendices under
CITES (scheduled specimens).
Statement 2 is not correct: The Amendment
Act empowered the central government
to regulate or prohibit the import, trade,
possession or proliferation of invasive alien
species. Invasive alien species refers to plant
or animal species which are not native to India
and whose introduction may adversely impact
wildlife or its habitat. The central government
may authorize an officer to seize and dispose of
the invasive species.
Statement 3 is correct: Under the Act, state
governments may declare areas adjacent
to national parks and sanctuaries as a
conservation reserve, for protecting flora and
fauna, and their habitat. The Amendment Act
empowered the central government to also
notify a conservation reserve.
Additional information:
• The Amendment Act provided for any
person to voluntarily surrender any captive
animals or animal products to the Chief
Wildlife Warden. No compensation will
be paid to the person for surrendering such
items. The surrendered items become the
50. (d)
property of the state government.
• The Act prescribes imprisonment terms
and fines for violating the provisions of the
Act. The Amendment Act increases these
fines for general violations up to 1 Lakh.
49. (d)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The twin
tropical cyclones are caused by what are
called equatorial Rossby waves (huge waves
in the ocean with wavelengths of around
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4,000–5,000 kilometres). A pair of tropical
cyclones, one on each side of the equator,
was spinning at roughly the same distance
from the equator, but in opposite directions.
This system has a vortex in the northern
hemisphere and another in the southern
hemisphere, and each of these is a mirror
image of the other. Both have a positive value
of vorticity which is a measure of rotation.
Once twin cyclones are formed they will
generally move west. In the Northern
Hemisphere, they will have a slightly
northerly component of motion, while in
the southern hemisphere, they usually
have a slightly southern component to
their movement due to the Coriolis effect. An
eastward-moving tropical disturbance called
the Madden-Julian Oscillation helped fuel
the twin storms by promoting convection and
strong westerly winds.
Statement 3 is correct: In the northern Indian
Ocean, Tropical Cyclone Asani advanced
west-northwest in May 2022 and had maximum
sustained winds of 100-110 kilometres (60-70
miles) per hour as it moved across the Bay of
Bengal. South of the equator, Tropical Cyclone
Karim is roaming open seas west of Australia.
This twin cyclone system was formed in the
Indian Ocean region and originated at the
same longitude and drifted apart.
Note: The name Karim was given by the
South African country Seychelles. The name
Cyclone Asani was suggested by Sri Lanka.
Option (d) is correct: Lantana camara is an
innocuous-looking ornamental shrub brought
to India from Central America to adorn the
gardens of its British colonial rulers. It was
deceptively beautiful, its flowers changed
colour with age, turning white, yellow,
orange and pink. But within 50 years of its
introduction, the plant spread from hedgerows
and gardens and started killing native plants
in its vicinity.
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Researchers from the Wildlife Institute of
India (WII) found that the co-occurrence
of lantana and Pogostemon benghalensis
(Bengal shrub-mint, another non-native plant)
caused a “significant decline in the richness
of native plants and that of palatable plants” in
Madhya Pradesh’s Kanha Tiger Reserve.
Bandipur Tiger Reserve in Karnataka is
recording losses of cheetal [spotted deer] due
to a “paucity of quality forage and abundance
of lantana camara.
51. (d)
Adaptation is any attribute of the organism,
morphological, physiological, or behavioural,
that enables the organism to survive and
reproduce in its habitat.
52. (a)
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Morphology
refers to the study of form or externally visible
features. In the case of plants or microbes, the
term morphology precisely means only this. In
the case of animals, this refers to the external
appearance of the organs or parts of the body.
Morphological or structural adaptations
bring changes in the physical structure of
a species over time to make it physically
equipped. Examples include changes in body
sizes, colouration, the shape of organs, and
appendages (fins). Thorns in Acacia, and
Cactus are the most common morphological
means of defence.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Physiological
adaptations are a set of ongoing types of
intracellular, biochemical and metabolic
adjustments inside an organism’s body in order
to maintain it in equilibrium under any kind
of environmental condition. Some organisms
possess adaptations that are physiological
which allow them to respond quickly to a
stressful situation. Homeostasis is an example
in which the body of an organism remains in
this natural physiological equilibrium.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Some organisms
show behavioural responses to cope with
variations in their environment. Behavioural
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
adaptations are responsible for the changes
in behaviours and the way in which members
of a species act. Examples include migratory
skills, insect trapping ability in insectivorous
plants, etc. Hibernating during winter is an
example of a behavioural adaptation. Desert
lizards lack the physiological ability to deal
with the high temperatures of their habitat, but
manage to keep their body temperature fairly
constant by behavioural means. They bask
in the sun and absorb heat when their body
temperature drops below the comfort zone,
but move into the shade when the ambient
temperature starts increasing. Some species are
capable of burrowing into the soil to hide and
escape from the above-ground heat.
Statement 1 is correct: A cool and humid
climate impedes the decomposition of litter
in soil and promotes the formation of water-
soluble organic acids that are effective
weathering agents of primary minerals and
essential for the formation and development
of Podzols. Podzols are soils in which soil
organic matter (SOM), iron (Fe), and
aluminium (Al), among other elements,
are transformed, mobilised, transported,
and partially immobilised in the subsoil.
Podzols commonly develop under vegetation
with acidic litter (e.g. coniferous forest) that
releases large quantities of water-soluble
organic acids. They occur in humid areas
in Boreal and temperate zones and also in
the tropics. Podzols dominate in the North
Western Himalayan region. Podzols form on
unconsolidated, siliceous materials such as
quartz‐rich sands and sandstones, and on the
sedimentary debris derived from granitoid
rocks and gneisses, originating from glacial
and post‐glacial processes in particular.
Statements 2 and 3 are not correct: Alfisols
are base-rich mineral soils of subhumid and
humid regions. Generally, the subsoil contains
a significant accumulation of illuviated
silicate clays. Alfisol is pale, greyish brown
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
to reddish in colour and is fertile. However,
their productivity depends on moisture and
temperature. They are supplemented by
the moderate application of lime and other
chemical fertilizers.
In tropical rainforests, soils fall into two
classifications, which include ultisols and
oxisols. Ultisols are comparable with Alfisols
except for having low base saturation due to
advanced stages of weathering. These are
base-poor mineral soils of the humid region
developed under high rainfall areas. Ultisols
are known as well-weathered, acidic red
clay soils, deficient in major nutrients such
as calcium and potassium. Similarly, oxisols
are acidic, old, typically reddish, highly
weathered and leached, however, they are
well-drained compared to ultisols. The clay
content of ultisols is high, making it difficult
for water to penetrate and flow through.
54. (a)
53. (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Wular lake is the
largest freshwater lake in India, and 2nd
largest fresh-water lake of Asia, situated on
the foothills of Haramuk Mountain. It is the
result of tectonic activity. The main source of
water for Wular Lake is River Jhelum. This
lake also has a small island in its centre called
the ‘Zaina Lank’. This island was constructed
by King Zainul-Abi-Din. Wular Lake is also
said to be a remnant of Satisar Lake which
existed in ancient times.
Statement 2 is correct: Chilika Lake is the
largest brackish water lagoon in Asia and
the second-largest coastal lagoon in the world.
According to historical evidence, Chilika
Lake was part of the Bay of Bengal about
6,000 years ago. It is the first Indian wetland
of international importance to be designated
under the Ramsar Convention in 1981. It is
the largest brackish Water Lagoon with an
estuarine character that sprawls along the east
coast. It is the largest wintering ground for
migratory waterfowl found anywhere on the
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Indian sub-continent. It receives water from
rivers Daya and Bhargavi, and several small
streams.
Statement 3 is not correct: Vembanad
Lake is the longest lake in the country,
and the largest in Kerala. It is separated from
the Arabian Sea, with a narrow reef. India’s
famous Nehru Trophy Boat Race is hosted on
the waters of this lake. Vembanad Lake is
the second largest wetland system in India
after the Sunderbans in West Bengal and is
designated under the Ramsar Convention.
Statement 4 is correct: Lonar Lake is a lake
of the lagoon in the Maharashtra state. It was
created due to a meteorite. It is the only major
hover back in basalt rock. Its water is alkaline.
Lonar Lake has been declared a Wildlife
Sanctuary and also a Ramsar-recognised site.
It is also a notified Geo-Heritage Monument.
Option (a) is correct: The ‘Desertification
and Land Degradation Atlas’ is published
by Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO). It will be helpful in strengthening the
envisaged National Action Plan for achieving
land restoration targets by providing important
baseline and temporal data and technical inputs.
The 2021 Atlas provides the state-wise area of
degraded lands for the time frame 2018-19. The
analysis reveals that 97.85 million ha area of
the country is undergoing land degradation
i.e. 29.77% of the Total Geographic Area
(TGA) of the country during 2018-19.
During the timeframe 2011-13 and 2003-05, it
was observed as 96.40 million ha (29.32% of
the TGA) and 94.53 million ha (28.76% of the
TGA) respectively.
Land degradation is a decline in the
productivity of land in terms of bio-diversity
and economy, resulting from various causes
including climate and human-induced
factors, leading to the loss of the ecosystem.
Desertification is referred to as land degradation
occurring in arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid
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regions. The United Nations Convention
to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) had
identified desertification as one of the most
challenging environmental concerns of the
present and future. India is a signatory to
the UNCCD and is committed to achieving
the Land Degradation Neutral status and
restoration of 26 Million ha of degraded land
by 2030 which focuses on sustainable and
optimum utilisation of land resources. The
14th session of the Conference of Parties to
the UNCCD was hosted by India in 2019.
55. (c)
Pair 1 is correctly matched: A fringing reef
forms along the edge of the coast and is
attached to the land. It extends outward from
shore like a shelf, just below the surface of the
water. A fringing reef is composed of a reef
flat and a reef slope. The reef flat is nearest
to the shore. Due to heavy sediment, few live
corals live in the reef flat. It is mostly made
of exoskeletons. The reef slope faces the open
ocean. Most marine life is found on the reef
slope. Fringing reefs are the most common
type of coral reef. Fringing reefs are found
in the Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay. The
Andaman and Nicobar Islands have fringing
reefs.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: A barrier
reef is separated from the shore by a lagoon.
The reef forms a barrier between the coast
and the open ocean or sea. Some barrier-reefs
consist of chains of smaller reefs separated by
narrow waterways. The Great Barrier Reef is
constructed this way. The Gulf of Mannar
has a Barrier Reef. Andaman and Nicobar
Islands have barrier reefs on the west coast.
Reefs in the Gulf of Kutch are mostly of
fringing type along with offshore platform
reefs, patch reefs and coral pinnacles.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: An atoll is the
type of reef that is formed when a fringing
reef continues to grow upward from a volcanic
island that has sunk entirely below sea level.
Atolls are usually circular or oval in shape,
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
with an open lagoon in the centre. They are
common in the Indian and South Pacific
oceans. The Lakshadweep Islands are made
up of atolls. Lakshadweep along with the
Maldives and the Chagos Archipelagoes form
an interrupted chain of coral atolls and reefs
on a contiguous submarine bank covering
a distance of over 2000 km. This ridge is
supposed to be a continuation of the Arravali
mountains, and the islands are believed to be
remnants of the submerged mountain cliffs.
56. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Ex-situ conservation
is the preservation of components of biological
diversity outside their natural habitats.
This involves the conservation of genetic
resources, as well as wild and cultivated
species. Examples include the establishment
of botanical gardens, zoos, seed banks, gene
banks, animal translocation, tissue culture,
recreational gardens, etc. The Svalbard Global
Seed Vault in Norway houses the world’s
largest collection of seeds. India’s seed vault
is at Chang La (Ladakh) in the Himalayas.
Built in 2010 jointly with the Defence Institute
of High Altitude Research and the National
Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources, this seed
bank is the second largest in the world.
Statement 2 is not correct: In-situ
conservation is the process of protecting
an endangered plant or animal species in
its natural habitat, either by protecting or
cleaning up the habitat itself or by defending
the species from predators. Examples
include national parks, wildlife sanctuaries
and biosphere reserves. Cheetahs, brought
from Namibia and South Africa, are being
introduced in India under Project Cheetah,
which is the world's first inter-continental large
wild carnivore translocation project. It is an
example of ex-situ conservation.
57. (d)
The North-Eastern part of India is a biodiversity
hotspot due to plenty of amazing and interesting
places for wild animals to live.
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
Hoolock Gibbons are the only apes found in
India. The western hoolock gibbon has a much
wider range, as it is found in all the states of the
northeast, restricted between the south of the
Brahmaputra River and east of the Dibang
River. The eastern hoolock gibbon inhabits
specific pockets of Arunachal Pradesh and
Assam in India, southern China and north-
east Myanmar. Western Hoolock Gibbon
is found in eastern Bangladesh, northeastern
India (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur,
Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Tripura),
and northwestern Myanmar (west of the
Chindwin River). Eastern and Western
Hoolock Gibbon is Endangered.
The white-bellied heron, found in the
freshwater ecosystems of the Himalayas, is the
most endangered heron species in the world.
Listed as critically endangered on the IUCN
Red List. The entire global population is now
restricted to northern Myanmar, North-
East India and Bhutan. In India, it is found
in Assam and Namdapaha in Arunachal
Pradesh.
The Malabar civet is a small nocturnal
mammal. It lives in the Western Ghats of
India and is critically endangered. It used to
live in the forests and swamps, but now, a lot
of that habitat is destroyed and the civets live
in degraded forests and cashew plantations.
The pygmy hog is the smallest member of
the pig family. It is an Endangered species
according to the IUCN Red List. They live
in tall, dense and wet grasslands that have
a mixture of shrubs and trees. This species
once occupied parts of India, Bhutan and
Nepal, however today they are restricted to
northwest Assam in India.
Swamp Deer or Barasingha is a species of deer
that is vulnerable. There are three subspecies
of Barasingha found in India – Wetland, Hard-
ground and Eastern Barasingha. The Eastern
Barasingha, the smallest of Barasinghas
prefer tall alluvial grasslands, interspersed
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with swamps and are found in North-Eastern
India especially in Assam in protected areas
such as Kaziranga and Manas National
Park.
58. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The National Tiger
Conservation Authority (NTCA) conducts
tiger census in India every four years. The
recent census was done in 2022 which showed
that the tiger population in India grew by 200
from 2018 to 2022. The tiger census covered
forested habitats in 20 states of India.
Statement 2 is not correct: According to the
analysis, tiger occupancy in the Western
Ghats has declined. Significant declines
were observed in the Wayanad landscape,
border areas of Goa and Karnataka and the
protected areas of the Anamalai-Parambikulam
complex. Local extinctions of tiger populations
were observed in Sirsi, Kanyakumari, and
Srivilliputhur.
Statement 3 is correct: The tiger population
has increased substantially in the Shivalik
and Gangetic flood plains in the north followed
by central India, where tigers have entered
new areas in the states of Madhya Pradesh
and Maharashtra. Although tiger occupancy
in Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh and
Telangana showed a decline.
59. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The Aravalli Green
Wall Project is part of the Union Environment
Ministry's vision to create green corridors
across the country to combat land degradation
and desertification. The project covers the
states of Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat and
Delhi, where the Aravalli hills landscape span
over 6 million hectares of land.
Statement 2 is not correct: Aravalli Green
Wall Project will increase the green cover
and biodiversity of the Aravalli through
afforestation, reforestation and restoration of
water bodies and also improve the soil fertility,
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water availability and climate resilience of
the region. The project will also focus on
agroforestry and pasture development to
enhance the livelihoods of local communities.
It will involve planting native species of
trees and shrubs on scrubland, wasteland and
degraded forest land along with rejuvenating
and restoring surface water bodies such as
ponds, lakes and streams. It aims to prevent
the eastward expansion of the Thar Desert
and to reduce land degradation by creating
green barriers that will prevent soil erosion,
desertification and dust storms.
60. (d)
Option (d) is correct: Plasticulture
technology represents the use of plastics in
agriculture, horticulture, water management
and related areas. Plasticulture applications
offer a multitude of benefits and are considered
the most important indirect agricultural inputs
which result in moisture conservation, water
saving, reduction in fertilizer consumption,
helps in the precise application of water and
nutrients, controlled environment agriculture is
economically viable, plant protection through
the use of nets and use of innovative packaging
solutions help in increasing shelf-life and
during collection, storage & transportation of
fruits and vegetables.
The Broad Classification of plasticulture
applications is as follows
• Water management involving Lining of
canals, ponds and reservoirs with plastics
film, Drip and Sprinkler Irrigation,
PVC and HDPE pipes used for water
conveyance, and Sub-surface Drainage
• Nursery Management involving Nursery
bags, Pro-trays, Plastic plugs, Coco-pits,
Hanging baskets, Trays etc
• Surface cover cultivation which involves
Soil Solarisation, Plastics Mulching
• Controlled environment agriculture
like Greenhouses, Shade net houses, Low
tunnels, Plant Protection nets
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
• Innovative Packagings like Plastics crates,
bins, boxes, leno bags, unit packaging
products etc, CAP Covers, Controlled
Atmospheric Packaging (CAP) and
Modified Atmospheric Packaging
(MAP).
61. (b)
Statement 1 is correct: MDR is the fees that
a merchant must pay to his (acquirer) bank
for every credit/debit card transaction.
MDR hurts merchants’ profit margins and
discourages them from adopting Point of Sale
(PoS) terminals.
Statement 2 is not correct: MDR fee is
shared among 3 parties: 1) the customer’s card
issuing bank 2) the merchant’s acquiring bank
3) the payment gateway provider.
Statement 3 is correct: MEITY (Ministry
of Electronics & Information Technology)
announced up to ₹2,000 MDR Subsidy to
Merchant's Bank for RuPay debit card
transactions and UPI transactions. This will
encourage digital payment, especially in
small towns / rural areas.
62. (a)
Statement 1 is not correct: Bitcoin and
another cryptocurrency can be stored in
Crypto Digital Wallets. Such a wallet could
be a hot wallet or a cold wallet. Hot wallets
are connected to the internet (e.g. an online
app). Cold wallets are not connected to the
internet (e.g. a USB pen drive).
Statement 2 is not correct: There is a 30%
tax on profits from trading, selling, or
spending crypto and a 1% TDS tax on the
sale of crypto assets exceeding more than Rs.
50,000/- (Rs. 10,000/- in certain cases) in a
single financial year.
Statement 3 is correct: UNICEF set up a
Cryptocurrency Fund to accept donations
in cryptocurrencies. It has become the first
UN organisation to accept cryptocurrency.
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63. (d)
Option (d) is correct: Assets of Issue
Department of RBI- 1. Rupee coins; 2. Gold
coins; 3. Gold bullion; 4. Foreign Securities;
5. Government Securities.
Liabilities of Issue Department- Total Bank
notes in circulation, which consists of: 1.
Held by the Public; 2. Held by other Banks
in “Vault cash” (i.e. amount kept by banks for
day-to-day Operations.); 3. Other Deposits in
RBI.
64. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: When the RBI
increases the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), it
essentially requires banks to maintain a higher
percentage of their deposits as a reserve with
the central bank. This means that banks will
have less money available to lend out to
their customers, leading to a decrease in the
overall money supply in the economy. By
reducing the amount of money available for
lending, the RBI aims to decrease spending and
curb inflation. Therefore, for an expansionary
monetary policy, RBI would decrease CRR
and not increase it.
Statement 2 is correct: Similarly, when the
RBI decreases the Reverse Repo Rate, it
makes it less attractive for banks to park
their excess funds with the central bank.
This means that banks are more likely to lend
these funds out to their customers, increasing
the money supply in the economy. Therefore,
in an expansionary monetary policy, the
RBI would decrease the Reverse Repo Rate.
Statement 3 is not correct: The Marginal
Standing Facility (MSF) is a window that
allows banks to borrow from the RBI in case
of emergency. By increasing the MSF rate,
the RBI makes it more expensive for banks
to borrow from it, discouraging them from
doing so. This reduces the availability of credit
in the economy, which helps to curb inflation.
Therefore, in an expansionary monetary
policy, the RBI would decrease the MSF
rate.
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65. (b)
Option (b) is correct: An increase in
expenditure on public projects is the most
likely step to be taken by the government in
case of an economic recession and not in case
of an economic boom. This would facilitate
more demand and regain the economy back
to its normal output as a result of increased
demand owing to increased expenditure by the
government. An economic boom automatically
facilitates increased spending by consumers as
net disposable income increases. The equity
market also performs well owing to positive
effects on the economy as a result of the
economic boom.
66. (c)
Option (c) is correct: Based on the
recommendations of the Nachiket Mor
Committee, Payments Bank was set up to
operate on a smaller scale with minimal credit
risk. The main objective is to advance financial
inclusion by offering banking and financial
services to the unbanked and underbanked
areas, helping the migrant labour force, low-
income households, small entrepreneurs etc.
They are registered under the Companies Act
2013 but are governed by a host of legislations
such as the Banking Regulation Act, 1949; RBI
Act, 1934; Foreign Exchange Management
Act, 1999, Payment and Settlement Systems
Act, 2007 and the like. India currently has
6 Payment Banks namely, Airtel Payment
Bank, India Post Payment Bank, Fino, Paytm
Payment Bank, NSDL Payment Bank and Jio
Payment Bank. Activities That Cannot Be
Undertaken By Payment Banks:
• Payment banks receive a ‘differentiated’
bank licence from the RBI and hence
cannot lend.
• Payment banks cannot issue credit cards.
(But it can issue a debit card)
• It cannot accept time deposits or NRI
deposits. ( It can only accept demand
deposits)
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• It cannot issue loans.
• It cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake
non-banking financial activities.
67. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: RBI issues
Sovereign Gold Bond on behalf of the
government The denomination is in Gold
grams. But, RBI/Govt doesn’t ‘promise’ to
give back gold. They only promise to give
back rupees equivalent to the latest gold
price on maturity.
Statement 2 is correct: A bearer bond is
a fixed-income security that is owned by the
holder, or bearer, rather than by a registered
owner. The coupons for interest payments are
physically attached to the security. Anyone
who presents a bearer bond to the issuer
will get interest and principal. It is not linked
to a PAN card, Aadhar card or passport, voter
card or social security number.
Statement 3 is correct: A zero-coupon
bond, also known as an accrual bond, is a debt
security that does not pay interest but instead
trades at a deep discount, rendering a profit at
maturity, when the bond is redeemed for its
full face value.
Statement 4 is not correct: A catastrophe
bond (CAT) is a high-yield debt instrument
that is designed to raise money for companies in
the insurance industry in the event of a natural
disaster. A CAT bond allows the issuer to
receive funding from the bond only if specific
conditions, such as an earthquake or tornado,
occur. Government / Insurance companies
issue such bonds. Investors are promised a
high annual interest rate. But, if a natural
disaster happens, the investor's principal
will not be returned. If disaster doesn’t
happen then the principal will be returned.
68. (b)
India and Australia have committed A$5.8
million to the three-year India-Australia
Critical Minerals Investment Partnership.
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
The partnership's investments will seek to
build new supply chains supported by critical
minerals processed in Australia, which will
aid India's plans to reduce emissions from
its electricity network and become a global
manufacturing hub, including for electric
vehicles.
69. (c)
Option (c) is correct: Revenue receipts are
money the government earns as taxes and
non-taxes like dividend income, profits, etc.
Revenue expenditure includes administrative
expenses, salaries, pensions, etc.
Capital receipts cause a decrease in the assets
of the government or increase its liabilities.
Capital expenditure creates or reduces
liabilities. Assets like hospitals are a part of
capital expenditure for the government just
like proceeds from disinvestment and loans
received from foreign governments.
70. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: NAREDCO was
established, in 1998, under the aegis of the
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs,
Govt. of India, and is the premier real estate
government industry association of India. It
aims to provide the government, real estate
industry and the general public a legitimate
platform to address their concerns and find
effective solutions for issues plaguing the real
estate sector.
Statement 2 is correct: NAREDCO deals
with and represents all matters related to
real estate development by both the private
and public sectors, including planning and
layout of colonies, construction of residential,
commercial and institutional buildings,
development of townships, provision of
physical and social infrastructure etc.
Statement 3 is correct: The Union Minister
for Housing & Urban Affairs serves as the
Chief Patron of NAREDCO.
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71. (a)
Option (a) is correct: A credit default swap
(CDS) is a contract between two parties
in which one party purchases protection
from another party against losses from the
default of a borrower for a defined period
of time. A CDS is written on the debt of a
third party, called the reference entity, whose
relevant debt is called the reference obligation,
typically a senior unsecured bond. The CDS
pays off upon the occurrence of a credit event,
which includes bankruptcy, failure to pay, and,
in some countries, involuntary restructuring.
Settlement of a CDS can occur through a cash
payment from the credit protection seller to the
credit protection buyer as determined by the
cheapest-to-deliver obligation of the reference
entity or by physical delivery of the reference
obligation from the protection buyer to the
protection seller in exchange for the CDS
notional.
72. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: The Economics
of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)
is a global initiative focused on “making
nature’s values visible”. It was launched at
the G8 meeting of environment ministers in
Potsdam, Germany, in 2007.
Statement 2 is correct: Its principal objective
is to mainstream the values of biodiversity
and ecosystem services into decision-
making at all levels. It aims to achieve this
goal by following a structured approach
to valuation that helps decision-makers
recognize the wide range of benefits
provided by ecosystems and biodiversity,
demonstrate their values in economic terms
and, where appropriate, capture those
values in decision-making. It seeks to draw
attention to the global economic benefits of
biodiversity, highlights the growing costs of
biodiversity loss and ecosystem degradation,
and draws together expertise from the fields
of science, economics and policy to enable
practical actions moving forward.
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73. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The International
Whaling Commission was set up under
the International Convention for the
Regulation of Whaling which was signed
in Washington DC on 2nd December
1946. It was established as the global body
responsible for the management of whaling
and the conservation of whales. It is an inter-
governmental organisation with a current
membership of 88 governments from all over
the world. The preamble to the Convention
states that its purpose is to provide for the
proper conservation of whale stocks and
thus make possible the orderly development
of the whaling industry. An integral part of
the Convention is its legally binding 'Schedule.'
The Schedule sets out specific measures that
the IWC has collectively decided are necessary
in order to regulate whaling and conserve
whale stocks.
Statement 2 is not correct: IWC recognises
three different types of whaling: commercial,
aboriginal subsistence and special permit
(also known as scientific) whaling.
Following considerable debate, a commercial
whaling moratorium was adopted in 1982
and came into full force in 1986. The IWC
is responsible for setting catch limits for
commercial whaling with the exceptions of
Norway and Iceland. Japan left the IWC in
2019 and began to catch whales commercially
the same year. Having left the IWC is no longer
bound by the moratorium. Japanese catches are
also reported to the IWC.
The Commission continues to regulate
Aboriginal Subsistence Whaling which is
conducted by indigenous communities, often
in remote parts of the world. Regulation of
aboriginal whaling has always been a core
responsibility of the Commission and remains
so today. It recognises nutritional and cultural
needs and is underpinned by a rigorous
scientific process.
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The Convention contains a separate category of
special permit whaling for scientific research
purposes. Special permit whaling is not
regulated by the Commission but by national
governments, although none currently
undertake this type of whaling. Article VIII
stipulates that any country undertaking special
permit whaling should report to the IWC each
time a permit is issued.
Statement 3 is not correct: The IWC has a
current membership of 89 Governments from
countries all over the world. India has been
a member of the International Whaling
Commission since 1981 and has maintained a
consistent stand on whale conservation.
74. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: Goods and
Services Tax Appellate Tribunal is the
forum of second appeal in GST laws and the
first common forum of dispute resolution
between Centre and States. The appeals against
the orders in the first appeals issued by the
Appellate Authorities under the Central and
State GST Acts lie before the GST Appellate
Tribunal, which is common under the Central
as well as State GST Acts. Being a common
forum, GST Appellate Tribunal will ensure
that there is uniformity in the redressal of
disputes arising under GST, and therefore, in
the implementation of GST across the country.
They are not the first appellate authority
for GST-related cases. The first appellate
authority to the adjudicating authority( Addtal/
joint/asst commissioner) is the Commissioner/
Higher rank officer. Following it, the appeal
would be made to GSTAT and thereafter HC
and SC.
Statement 2 is not correct: GSTATs shall be
set up at the level of Union as well as States.
75. (d)
The Department of School Education and
Literacy has launched a National Mission to
improve learning outcomes at the elementary
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
level through an Integrated Teacher Training
Programme called NISHTHA under the
Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Samagra
Shiksha in 2019-20. NISHTHA is a capacity-
building programme for "Improving Quality of
School Education through Integrated Teacher
Training".
Utkarsh 2022 is the three-year roadmap of
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to improve
regulation and supervision, among other
functions of the central bank. Utkarsh 2022 is
in line with the RBI’s plan to strengthen the
regulatory and supervisory mechanism.
Integrated Ombudsman Scheme: In order
to ensure speedy resolution of customer
grievances against regulated entities (REs),
RBI brought about the Reserve Bank –
Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS)
– 2021 as a single-point resolution mechanism.
DAKSH is a web-based end-to-end workflow
application through which RBI shall monitor
compliance requirements in a more focused
manner with the objective of further improving
the compliance culture in Supervised Entities
(SEs) like Banks, NBFCs, etc.
76. (b)
Statement 1 is correct: In Golak Nath’s case,
the Supreme Court held that an amendment of
the Constitution is a legislative process and
is included within the plenary legislative
power of Parliament. The Constitution
Amendment under Article 368 is “law” within
the meaning of Article 13 of the Constitution
and therefore, if a Constitution amendment
takes away or abridges a Fundamental Right,
it is void. As a result of the judgment, the
Parliament passed the Constitution (Twenty-
fourth Amendment) Act, of 1971 which
amended the Constitution to provide expressly
that Parliament has the power to amend
any part of the Constitution including the
provisions relating to Fundamental Rights and
Amendment does not mean law under Article
13 by adding clause 4.
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
Statement 2 is correct: On the basis of the
Court’s view in Kesavananda Bharati’s case,
upholding the concept of the basic structure,
the Supreme Court in Minerva Mills case
declared that since the Constitution had
conferred a limited amending power on the
Parliament, the Parliament cannot under the
exercise of that limited power enlarge that very
power into an absolute power. Indeed, limited
amending power is one of the basic features of
our Constitution and, therefore, the limitations
on that power can not be destroyed. Anything
that destroys the balance between Fundamental
Rights and Directive Principles will by that
very fact destroy an essential element of the
basic structure of the Constitution.
Statement 3 is not correct: Kesavanand
Bharati case was decided by the Supreme
Court on the 24th of April 1973 while the 42nd
Amendment was made in 1976. The validity
of the 24th, 25th, and 29th Amendments was
challenged in this case. In the Kesavananda
Bharati Case, the Supreme Court reviewed
the decision in Golak Nath’s case. The case
was heard by the largest-ever Constitution
Bench of 13 Judges. The majority overruled
the decision of Golak Nath’s case holding that
a Constitution Amendment Act is not “law”
within the meaning of Article 13. It upholds
the validity of clause (4) of Article 13 and a
corresponding provision in Article 368(3),
inserted by the Twenty-fourth Amendment
Act, the Court settled in favour of the view
that Parliament has the power to amend the
Fundamental Rights but it cannot alter the
basic structure of the Constitution.
77. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: A windfall tax is
a tax levied by governments against certain
industries when economic conditions allow
those industries to experience significantly
above-average profits. Windfall taxes are
primarily levied on companies in the targeted
industry that have benefited the most from the
economic windfall, most often commodity-
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based businesses, whereas Angel Tax is a
tax levied on capital raised by unlisted
companies. Since this was impacting
investments made by angel investors in a big
way, this became popularly known as ‘angel
tax’. This tax provision was introduced in the
Finance Act, of 2012 and became applicable
from April 1, 2013.
Statement 2 is not correct: Companies
and industrial sectors that can be subject to
windfall taxes are those with massive increases
in profits, generally due to situations such as
wartime, commodities shortages, and other
situations and events that drive up prices.
Individuals may also be taxed on windfalls,
such as those from inheritances or lottery
winnings. Also, investments made by
individuals can be subject to the angel tax
if they are undertaken at a value above the
fair market value.
78. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: India is the 3rd
largest producer of fertilisers in the world
while being the 2nd largest consumer after
China.
Statement 2 is not correct: Urea is sold
at statutorily notified uniform MRP. At
present, the Urea is being provided to the
farmers at a statutorily notified Maximum
Retail Price (MRP) of Rs.242 per 45 kg
bag of urea (exclusive of charges towards
neem coating and taxes as applicable). The
difference between the delivered cost of urea
at the farm gate and net market realization by
the urea units is given as a subsidy to the urea
manufacturer/importer by the Government
of India. Accordingly, all farmers are being
supplied urea at subsidized rates.
Subsidy rates of P&K fertilisers are under the
Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme.
79. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: The right to move
freely throughout the territory of India is
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bestowed under Article 19 of the Constitution
of India, however, the right to travel abroad
has been derived from the right to life and
personal liberty provided under Article
21. In the Maneka Gandhi Vs The Union
of India case, the Supreme Court held that
the right to travel abroad is a Fundamental
Right and it is secured under Article 21 of the
Constitution. In 2019, the Supreme Court in
the case of Satish Chandra Verma vs. Union
of India reiterated that the right to travel
abroad is a genuine and basic human right
like marriage and family. The Court said that
the right to travel abroad is an important basic
human right for it nourishes the independent
and self-determining creative character of the
individual, not only by extending his freedom
of action but also by extending the scope of his
experience.
Statement 2 is correct: In 2017, the Supreme
Court of India in the case of Justice (Retd.) K.S.
Puttaswamy v. Union of India has declared
that the right to privacy is a fundamental right
protected under Part III of the Constitution
of India. It declared the right to privacy as
a fundamental right protected under the
Constitution of India under Article 21.
80. (c)
Option (c) is correct: The leader of the
opposition is one of the key parliamentary
functionaries whose role, though not defined
in any rule, is of very great importance in
the functioning of a legislature. He or she is
invariably a senior leader representing the main
opposition party in the legislature. The leader
of the opposition in the houses of the Indian
parliament is a statutory post. This post is
defined in the Salaries and Allowances of
Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act,
1977 as the leader of the biggest party in
opposition (numerically) to the government
and recognised as such by the speaker/
chairman. Thus, the Leader of the Opposition
in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha were
accorded statutory recognition and given
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
salary and certain other facilities and amenities
under the "Salary and Allowances of Leaders
of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977."
81. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: International IP
Index is released by the U.S. Chambers of
Commerce. India has ranked 42nd among 55
leading global economies on the International
IP Index released by the U.S. Chambers of
Commerce, and according to the report India is
ripe to become a leader for emerging markets
seeking to transform their economy through
IP-driven innovation.
Statement 2 is correct: According to
the report, India has taken steps to
improve enforcement against copyright-
infringing content and provides a best-
in-class framework to promote better
understanding and utilisation of IP assets.
However, addressing long-standing gaps in its
IP framework will be critical to India’s ability
to create a new model for the region and India’s
continued economic growth
Statement 3 is not correct: The Index evaluates
the IP framework in each economy across
50 unique indicators which industry believes
represent economies with the most effective
IP systems. The indicators create a snapshot
of an economy's overall IP ecosystem
and span nine categories of protection:
patents, copyrights, trademarks, design
rights, trade secrets, commercialization of IP
assets, enforcement, systemic efficiency, and
membership and ratification of international
treaties.
82. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Trends in maternal
mortality 2000 to 2020 Report was released
by the World Health Organization.
According to the report, a woman died every
two minutes because of pregnancy or childbirth
in 2020 which shows the stark persistence of
preventable maternal deaths over the past two
decades.
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Statement 2 is correct: The overall maternal
mortality rate dropped by 34.3 per cent over
a 20-year period, from 339 maternal deaths
per 100,000 live births in 2000 to 223 maternal
deaths in 2020, according to this report.
Statement 3 is not correct: The report presents
internationally comparable global, regional
and country-level estimates and trends for
maternal mortality between 2000 and 2020.
An estimated 287,000 maternal deaths occurred
in 2020, the report found, defined as deaths
that occur because of pregnancy- or childbirth-
related complications, during pregnancy or
within six weeks after pregnancy ends.
83. (c)
Myanmar shares borders with four Indian
states: Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh,
Manipur, and Nagaland. There are two
international entry-exit checkpoints open to
normal tourists/visitors with valid passports
and visas, one in the twin towns of Moreh
and Tamu in Manipur, and Rihkhawdar,
Zowkhawtar in Mizoram.
84. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry
of Environment, Forest and Climate
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Change (MoEFCC) has listed Neelakurinji
(Strobilanthes kunthiana) under Schedule
III of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972,
including it on the list of protected plants.
Statement 2 is not correct: It is a shrub that
grows in the shola forests of the Western
Ghats in South India. In the Western Ghats
region, nearly 70 varieties of Neelakurinji
plants have been identified. The most popular
Neelakurinji is Strobilanthes kunthiana which
blooms once in 12 years.
Statement 3 is correct: Destroying and
uprooting Neelakurinji plants is a major
threat to the flowering areas. Normally, the
Chief Wildlife Warden issues a statement to
the effect that destroying Neelakurinji plants
and flowers is a punishable offence under the
Wildlife Protection Act. Those who uproot or
destroy the plant will invite a fine of ₹25,000
and three years imprisonment. The cultivation
of Neelakurinji and its possession is also not
allowed.
85. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The Rule of Law
Index is published by the World Justice
Project (WJP), a US-based civil society
group. In 2022, India was ranked 77th out
of 140 countries. According to the report, the
rule of law has declined globally for the fifth
consecutive year.
Statement 2 is not correct: India has a
better position as compared to China,
Pakistan and Bangladesh but interestingly,
Nepal is the best-performing country in the
neighbourhood, scoring 0.52 and ranking
69.
India’s overall rule of law score decreased by
less than 1% in this year’s Index. While India’s
score remains unchanged from 2021 — 0.50,
we scored 0.51 in 2020.
Statement 3 is correct: As per World Justice
Project’s definition, the rule of law is “a
durable system of laws, institutions, norms
and community commitment.” The index
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examines the four core universal principles
through the following eight factors:
1. Constraints on Government Powers
2. Absence of Corruption
3. Open Government
4. Fundamental Rights
5. Order and Security
6. Regulatory Enforcement
7. Civil Justice
8. Criminal Justice
86. (c)
Recently, the first round of discussions
regarding amendments to the World Health
Organization (WHO) International Health
Regulations 2005 (IHR) concluded. During
the discussions, the working group heard more
than 300 suggested changes to the document.
Statement 1 is correct: The International
Health Regulations (IHR) 2005 is a legally
binding agreement of 196 countries to build
the capability to detect and report potential
public health emergencies worldwide. IHR
requires that all countries have the ability to
detect, assess, report, and respond to public
health events.
Statement 2 is correct: Under the
International Health Regulations 2005, WHO
has the authority to declare a Public Health
Emergency of International Concern
(PHEIC) when there is an extraordinary event
that poses a public health risk to other countries
through the international spread of disease.
87. (a)
Option (a) is correct: This fourth annual
report monitors global progress towards
the 2023 target for global elimination of
industrially produced trans-fatty acids
(TFA), highlighting achievements during
the past year (October 2021 – September
2022). Countries are responding to the World
Health Organization's (WHO) call to action by
putting into place best-practice TFA policies.
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
Mandatory TFA policies are currently in
effect for 3.4 billion people in 60 countries
(43% of the world population); of these, 43
countries have best-practice policies in effect.
Since May 2020, there has been significant
progress in TFA elimination around the world;
best-practice policies were passed in India in
February 2021.
88. (d)
“Euthanasia" is a term used to describe the
act of willfully ending one's life.
Active and passive euthanasia are two types
of euthanasia. Active euthanasia involves
an active intervention to end a person’s life
with substances or external force, such as
administering a lethal injection. Passive
euthanasia refers to withdrawing life support or
treatment that is essential to keep a terminally
ill person alive.
Statement 1 is not correct: Passive euthanasia
was legalized in India by the Supreme Court
in 2018, contingent upon the person having
a ‘living will’ or a written document that
specifies what actions should be taken if the
person is unable to make their own medical
decisions in the future. Active Euthanasia is
still illegal in India as of now.
Statement 2 is not correct: Initially, the
Supreme Court found that Article 21 is a clause
ensuring the protection of the right to life and
liberty and that no termination of life could
be placed into it by any stretch of the reason.
Thus initially there was no right to die under
the provisions of Article 21. But in the year
2018, when SC legalized Passive euthanasia;
it reinterpreted Article 21 as the Right to
life with dignity and thus finally accepted the
right to die with dignity.
89. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: It has been
launched by the Ministry of Rural
Development and Panchayati Raj with the
purpose of transforming lives and livelihoods
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
of people to measurable outcomes through the
convergence of various schemes.
Statement 2 is correct: This mission aims to
assess the outcome of various development
schemes in rural areas. It will ensure the
effective utilization of resources through the
convergence of various government schemes
with a focused micro plan for sustainable
livelihood for each marginalized household.
Statement 3 is correct: The Survey-2022
Questionnaire has 183 indicators and 216
data points covering 21 areas. The 21 sectors
being covered in the M A Survey are: (i)
good governance; (ii) agriculture and land
development, fuel and fodder; (iii) animal
husbandry; (iv) fisheries; (v) rural housing;
(vi) water and environmental sanitation; (vii)
roads and communications; (viii) conventional
and non-conventional energy; (ix) financial
and communication infrastructure; (x) markets
and fairs; (xi) the Public Distribution System;
(xii) library; (xiii) recreation and sports; (xiv)
education/vocational education, etc.
90. (c)
Recently, the US Centres for Disease Control
and Prevention highlighted the threat posed
by a rapidly spreading fungus called Candida
auris that is causing infections and deaths
among hospital patients across the country.
Statement 1 is not correct: It is a fungal
disease. Candida Auris is a recently identified,
single-cell fungus that can infect humans and
is moderately resistant to existing antifungal
drugs.
Statement 2 is not correct: Candida Auris is a
type of yeast that was first identified in 2009 and
is one of a number of species in the candida
family that can infect people. Covid-19
belongs to the family of Coronaviridae.
Statement 3 is correct: The infection spreads
easily from person to person — especially
within hospital environments and among
the medically vulnerable. It can also be spread
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through contact with infected surfaces and
lingers on objects including hospital equipment
such as bed rails, chairs and windowsills.
91. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The Belfast
Agreement, more commonly known as the
Good Friday Agreement, was signed on 10
April 1998 and approved by public votes in
Northern Ireland and the Republic of Ireland.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Good Friday
Agreement was a political deal designed to
bring an end to 30 years of violent conflict
in Northern Ireland. It states that Northern
Ireland is part of the UK and this can change
only through a referendum if most people in
Northern Ireland want it to.
The most important achievement of the
Good Friday Agreement has been an end to
bloodshed and enduring peace in the region,
apart from some sporadic violence.
92. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: In April 2023, to
commemorate 50 years of Project Tiger,
the Prime Minister of India launched the
International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) for
conservation of seven big cats namely Tiger,
Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah,
Jaguar and Puma harbouring our planet. The
alliance will strengthen global efforts and
partnerships on big cat conservation while
creating a platform for sharing knowledge
and best practices. The IBCA will support
existing species-specific inter-governmental
platforms and provide direct support to
recovery efforts in potential range habitats.
Statement 2 is correct: The alliance aims to
reach out to 97 range countries covering the
natural habitats of these seven Big Cats. It
will further strengthen global cooperation and
efforts to conserve the wild denizens, especially
the big cats. Membership to the alliance will be
open to other interested nations, international
organisations, etc.
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93. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: The North
Atlantic Treaty Organization was created in
1949 by the United States, Canada, and several
Western European nations. It was formed
after the conclusion of the Second World
War.
Statement 2 is not correct: On April 4, 2023,
Finland became the 31st country to join
NATO. All the Nordic nations are not NATO
members, as Sweden, a Nordic nation, is still
not a member of NATO. Nordic countries
include Finland, Iceland, Norway, Denmark,
Sweden, and the Faroe Islands (an archipelago
of islands as autonomous countries within the
kingdom of Denmark).
Statement 3 is correct: NATO’s purpose is
to guarantee the freedom and security of
its members through political and military
means. Politically, it promotes democratic
values and enables members to consult and
cooperate on defence and security-related
issues to solve problems, build trust and, in
the long run, prevent conflict. Militarily, it
is committed to the peaceful resolution of
disputes. If diplomatic efforts fail, it has the
military power to undertake crisis-management
operations. These are carried out under the
collective defence clause of Article 5 of the
Washington Treaty.
94. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: The Coastal
Aquaculture Authority Act, 2005 was
enacted by the Parliament of India which
provides for the establishment of the Coastal
Aquaculture Authority for regulating the
activities connected with coastal aquaculture
in coastal areas and other connected and
incidental matters. It is chaired by a Judge of
the High Court, serving or retired. It consists
of nine other members. The term of office of
the Chairperson and every other member is for
three years. Recently an amendment bill was
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
brought to include a representative from the
Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and
Dairying as a member.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The Coastal
Aquaculture Authority (Amendment) Bill 2023
seeks to decriminalise the offences under the
Act for promoting ease of doing business and
to fine-tune the operational procedures of the
Coastal Aquaculture Authority.
It also aimed at promoting newer forms of
environment-friendly coastal aquaculture
including cage culture, seaweed culture, marine
ornamental fish culture and pearl oyster culture
which has the potential for creating additional
employment opportunities.
The Bill also has a provision to prevent the use
of antibiotics and pharmacologically active
substances which are harmful to human
health in coastal aquaculture.
95. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The India Justice
Report is a first-of-its-kind national periodic
reporting that brings together, hitherto siloed
information, to measure the capacity of four
pillars of the justice system - the police,
the prison system, the judiciary and legal
aid—in each state, against its own declared
standards or benchmarks. The third edition
of India Justice Report 2022 was released in
April 2023. It has compiled and categorised
data of states and UTs.
Statement 2 is not correct: The number of
cases pending per judge is rising in most
States over the last five years. Uttar Pradesh
has the highest number of pending cases per
judge at subordinate courts followed by
Kerala. Rajasthan has the highest number
of pending cases at the High Court level
followed by Madhya Pradesh.
96. (a)
Option (a) is correct: Piezoelectric Effect is
the ability of certain materials to generate
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
an electric charge in response to applied
mechanical stress. The piezoelectric effect
is the phenomenon where certain materials
generate electricity when it is stretched.
Conversely, when electricity is provided, the
material undergoes a change in shape. It is
reversible, meaning that materials exhibiting
the direct piezoelectric effect (the generation
of electricity when stress is applied) also
exhibit the converse piezoelectric effect (the
generation of stress when an electric field is
applied).
Quartz is the most famous piezoelectric
crystal. It is used in this capacity in analogue
wristwatches and clocks. Such crystals are also
used in cigarette lighters, electric guitars, TV
remote controls, audio transducers, and other
instruments where converting mechanical
stress to a current is useful.
The piezoelectric effect is mostly noticed in
solids because of the presence of crystalline
structure, with atoms or molecules arranged
in a uniform pattern. When a crystal is
exposed to mechanical tension or pressure,
the lattice structure deforms, causing a change
in the positions of the charged particles, thus
developing a voltage. Because liquids and
98. (a)
vapours lack well-defined and ordered crystal
structures, they do not exhibit the piezoelectric
effect.
Recently, scientists have reported evidence
of the piezoelectric effect in liquids. Now,
with the observation of the piezoelectric
effect in liquid, the theory behind the
phenomenon stands challenged, demanding
better understanding.
97. (a) personal and national variations in happiness.
Option (a) is correct: The United Nations
World Water Development Report
(WWDR) is UN-Water’s flagship report
on water and sanitation issues. Launched
on World Water Day, the report focuses on
a different theme each year and gives policy
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recommendations to decision-makers by
offering best practices and in-depth analyses.
The WWDR is published by UNESCO on
behalf of UN-Water and its production is
coordinated by the UNESCO World Water
Assessment Programme. The WWDR
2023 directly informs the UN conference
discussions, describing how building
partnerships and enhancing cooperation across
all dimensions of sustainable development are
essential to accelerating progress towards the
Sustainable Development Goal for Water and
Sanitation (SDG 6) and realizing the human
rights to water and sanitation. Water use has
been increasing globally by roughly 1% per
year over the last 40 years and is expected to
grow at a similar rate through 2050, driven
by a combination of population growth,
socioeconomic development and changing
consumption patterns. The bulk of this increase
is concentrated in middle- and lower-income
countries, particularly in emerging economies.
Water scarcity is becoming endemic as a result
of the local impact of physical water stress,
coupled with the acceleration and spreading of
freshwater pollution.
Statement 1 is correct: The World Happiness
Report is a publication of the Sustainable
Development Solutions Network, powered
by the Gallup World Poll data. The World
Happiness Report reflects a worldwide demand
for more attention to happiness and well-being
as criteria for government policy. It reviews
the state of happiness in the world today and
shows how the science of happiness explains
Statement 2 is correct: The ranking uses
six key factors to measure happiness. These
are GDP per capita, social support, healthy
life expectancy, freedom, generosity, and
corruption. The rankings are not based on
any index of these six factors. The scores are
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instead based on individuals’ own assessments
with 10 being best and 0 being worst.
Statement 3 is not correct: According to
the findings of the 2023 report, India ranks
at 126th position out of 137 countries. It lags
behind its neighbouring nations like Nepal,
China, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka. At the
very bottom of the list is Afghanistan while
Pakistan stands at 108.
99. (b)
Statements 1 and 2 are not correct: Articles
93 to 97 of the Constitution deal with the post
of speaker and deputy of the Lok Sabha. Article
93 makes it obligatory for the Lok Sabha
to appoint a speaker and deputy speaker
to conduct house proceedings. Lok Sabha
Speaker and Deputy speakers are the Members
of Parliament. S/he takes the oath along with
other members by the pro-tem Speaker. Thus,
The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the
Lok Sabha do not take an oath of office.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 60 of the
Constitution of India provides for the provision
of an oath or affirmation by the President. The
Chief Justice of India administers the oath
of office to the President. In case the Chief
Justice of India is unavailable the oath shall be
administered by the seniormost judge of the
Supreme Court of India.
Statement 4 is correct: The Vice-President
of India is the second highest constitutional
office in the country. He serves for a five-year
term but can continue to be in office until the
successor assumes office. Article 69 of the
Constitution states that every Vice-President
shall, before entering upon his office, make
and subscribe before the President, or some
person appointed on that behalf by him, an
oath or affirmation.
100. (d)
Option (d) is correct: Special Leave Petition
or SLP holds a prime place in the Indian
judicial system. It provides the aggrieved party
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Full Syllabus [Test-12]
special permission to be heard in Apex court
in an appeal against any judgment or order of
any Court/tribunal in the territory of India. The
Constitution of India under Article 136 vests
the Supreme Court of India with a special
power to grant special leave to appeal against
any judgment or order or decree in any matter
or cause passed or made by any Court/tribunal
in the territory of India. Special Leave petition
or SLP can be presented under the following
circumstances:
• SLP can be filed against any judgment or
decree or order of any High Court /tribunal
in the territory of India.
• Or, SLP can be filed in case the High Court
refuses to grant the certificate of fitness for
appeal to the Supreme Court of India.
A writ petition can be termed as a formal
written order issued by a judicial authority who
possesses the authority to do so. The meaning
of the word ‘Writs’ means command in writing
in the name of the Court. It is a legal document
issued by the court that orders a person or
entity to perform a specific act or to cease
performing a specific action or deed. In India,
writs are issued by the Supreme Court
under Article 32 of the Constitution of India
and by the High Court under Article 226 of
the Constitution of India.
The Forty-Second Amendment Act, of 1976
had inserted Article 226A in the Constitution
which stated that the constitutional validity
of central laws is not to be considered in
proceedings under Article 226. The same was
repealed by the Forty-Third Amendment
Act, of 1977. Thus, the High Courts also have
the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be
constitutionally invalid.
A court of record is a court, the records of
which are admitted to be of evidentiary value
and are not to be questioned when produced
before any court. It also means that the acts
and judicial proceedings of the court are
enrolled for a perpetual memory and testimony,
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
and it has the power to fine and imprison for
contempt of its authority. These records are
used with high authority and their truth cannot
be questioned. In the Constitution, Article
129 makes the Supreme Court the court
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of record. It states that the Supreme Court
shall be a court of record and shall have all the
powers of such a court including the power
to punish for contempt of itself. Article 215
empowers the High Courts of the states to
be courts of record.
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