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ANSWER KEY

GENERAL STUDIES
Prelims Test Series (PTS) for CSE 2023
9th April, 2023  |  [Test-9] Full Syllabus

Answer Key

1. (c) 21. (c) 41. (a) 61. (b) 81. (b)

2. (b) 22. (d) 42. (a) 62. (c) 82. (d)
3. (b) 23. (b) 43. (d) 63. (b) 83. (a)
4. (d) 24. (c) 44. (c) 64. (b) 84. (c)
5. (b) 25. (c) 45. (d) 65. (a) 85. (c)
6. (a) 26. (d) 46. (a) 66. (d) 86. (d)
7. (c) 27. (d) 47. (b) 67. (c) 87. (b)
8. (d) 28. (b) 48. (d) 68. (c) 88. (a)
9. (a) 29. (c) 49. (a) 69. (d) 89. (d)
10. (a) 30. (a) 50. (a) 70. (d) 90. (c)
11. (d) 31. (c) 51. (b) 71. (b) 91. (b)
12. (b) 32. (b) 52. (c) 72. (a) 92. (c)
13. (d) 33. (d) 53. (c) 73. (d) 93. (d)
14. (c) 34. (d) 54. (b) 74. (c) 94. (a)
15. (c) 35. (b) 55. (c) 75. (c) 95. (c)
16. (d) 36. (a) 56. (a) 76. (a) 96. (a)
17. (c) 37. (d) 57. (c) 77. (d) 97. (d)
18. (b) 38. (c) 58. (c) 78. (b) 98. (b)
19. (d) 39. (b) 59. (c) 79. (b) 99. (d)
20. (c) 40. (d) 60. (d) 80. (a) 100. (b)

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Prelims Test Series (PTS) for CSE 2023
PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
General Studies
Test-9
1. (c)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: C. R. Das,
Motilal Nehru and other like-minded persons
hatched out a novel plan of non-cooperation
from within the reformed councils. They
formed the Swaraj Party on January 01,
1923. C. R. Das was the President of the party
and Motilal Nehru the Secretary. The party
was described as a party within the Congress
and not a rival organisation. The importance
of the Swaraj Party is that it introduced a
new strand of political activity within the
nationalist movement, that of council entry.
They believed that by entering the legislatures
they could make the constitutional experiment
of the British null and void. The Swaraj Party
demanded in its manifesto that the Indian
people should have the right to frame their own
Constitution. It was highlighted that the act of
the Constitution making will eventually take
India to Swaraj.
Statement 3 is correct: Gandhi was initially
completely opposed to the pro-changers and
he refused to treat council entry as part of the
Congress programme of non-cooperation.
Gradually, however, a compromise was
worked out between Gandhi and Chittaranjan
Das at the Belgaum session of the Congress in
1924. Under the new agreement, the Congress
leadership agreed to treat ‘Swarajism’ as the
official part of the Congress programme.
Statement 4 is not correct: The suspension
of the Non-Cooperation movement as well as
the internment of Gandhi paved the way for
wider ramifications. In the absence of Gandhi,
the Congress leaders were divided over the
question of the strategy to be adopted. As a
result, Congress got split into two groups
namely ‘No-changers’ and ‘Pro-changes’.
The group led by C.R. Das which favoured
© Copyright:  (2 – A)
Test Code: 00230409
Detailed Explanations
Full Syllabus
the council–entry move was known as ‘Pro-
changers’ and those who opposed the council-
entry move were called ‘No-changers’.The
“Pro-changers’’ included prominent leaders
like C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru and Satyamurti.
2. (b)
Statement 1 is correct: ‘Quit India’ resolution
was proposed by Jawaharlal Nehru and
seconded by Sardar Patel. The Quit India
Movement (August Kranti), in August
1942, was launched in response to Mahatma
Gandhi’s national call for satyagraha. The All-
India Congress Committee proclaimed a mass
protest demanding what Gandhiji called “an
orderly British withdrawal” from India. It was
for the determination, which appears in his
call to “Do or Die”, issued on 8 August at the
Gwalior Tank Maidan in Mumbai in 1942.
Statement 2 is not correct: Gandhi’s special
instructions were spelt out at the Gowalia Tank
meeting but not actually issued. They were
directed at various sections of society.
● Government servants do not resign but
declare their allegiance to Congress.
● Soldiers do not leave the Army but do not
fire on compatriots.
● Students, if confident, leave their studies.
Statement 3 is correct: Although at the
national level, the ability to galvanize rebellion
was limited, the movement is notable for
regional success, especially at Satara in
Maharashtra, Talcher in Orissa, and
Midnapore. In the Tamluk and Contai
subdivisions of Midnapore, the local
populace was successful in establishing
parallel governments, which continued to
function, until Gandhi personally requested
the leaders to disband in 1944. Chittu Pandey
led the Quit India Movement in Ballia, Uttar
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Pradesh. Described as the “Tiger of Ballia”
by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra
Bose, he headed the National Government
declared and established on 19 August 1942
for a few days before it was suppressed by the
British. The parallel government succeeded
in getting the Collector to hand over power
and release all the arrested Congress leaders.
But within a week, soldiers marched in and the
leaders had to flee.
3. (b)
Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Balshastri
Jambhekar (1812-1846) was a pioneer of
social reform through journalism in Bombay;
he attacked Brahmanical orthodoxy and tried to
reform popular Hinduism. In 1832, Jambhekar
started the first Anglo- Maratha newspaper
‘Darpan’, and in 1840, the first Marathi
monthly magazine ‘Digdarshan’. These
publications marked a first in the efforts to
create high-class journalism in western India.
Known as the father of Marathi journalism,
Jambhekar used the Darpan to awaken the
people to the awareness of social reforms, such
as widow remarriage, and to instil in the masses
a scientific approach to life.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Gopalhari
Deshmukh (1823-1892) was a social reformer
and rationalist from Maharashtra. He held the
post of a judge under the British raj but wrote
for an Anglo-Marathi weekly Prabhakar
under the pen name of Lokahitawadi on social
reform issues.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Maharishi
Debendranath Tagore (1817-1905), father
of Rabindranath Tagore and a product of
the best in traditional Indian learning and
Western thought headed the Tattvabodhini
Sabha (founded in 1839) which, along with its
organ Tattvabodhini Patrika in Bengali, was
devoted to the systematic study of India’s past
with a rational outlook and to the propagation
of Rammohan’s ideas.
© Copyright:  (3 – A)
Full Syllabus [Test-9]
4. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: The main
architectural features of Odisha temples are
classified in three orders, i.e., Rekhapida,
Pidhadeul and Khakra. Most of the main
temple sites are located in ancient Kalinga—
modern Puri District, including Bhubaneswar
or ancient Tribhuvanesvara, Puri and Konark.
The temples of Odisha constitute a distinct
sub-style within the nagara order. In general,
here the Shikhara, called Deul in Odisha, is
vertical almost until the top when it suddenly
curves sharply inwards. Deuls are preceded,
as usual, by mandapas called Jagamohana in
Odisha.
Statement 2 is not correct: The style of
temple architecture that became popular in
northern India is known as Nagara. River
goddesses like Ganga and Yamuna are usually
found at the entrance of a Garbhagriha in
a Nagara temple, Dvarapalas (doorkeepers)
are usually found on the gateways or
gopurams of Dravida temples, similarly,
Mithunas (erotic images), Navagrahas (the
nine auspicious planets) and Yakshas are also
placed at entrances to guard them.
5. (b)
Option (b) is correct: Kalam ezhuthu is an
ancient art woven into the ritualistic mores
of Bhagavati, Naga and Ayyappa temples in
Kerala. It refers to the pictorial representation
of deities on the floor (kalam) using coloured
powders (kolappodi) during ceremonies. It is
positioned on the floor outside the sanctum,
to the right of the main deity. Pigments derived
from natural sources such as charcoal, rice,
turmeric, lime and green leaves are used to
prepare the powders in five colours, black,
white, yellow, red and green. In kalamezhuthu,
weapons are often emphasised, contributing to
the personification of ‘ugram’ (aggression).
6. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: In India, the
Suharwardi order was introduced later
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
than the Chishti order. Bahauddin Zakaria
was the first and the most important Sufi of
the Suharwardi order in India. He spread and
made it popular particularly in Northern India.
Bahauddin Zakaria was the contemporary of
Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya.
Statement 2 is not correct: Naqshbandi
order was introduced in India with the
invasion of Babar. The order was founded by
the Khwaja Baha-ul-din Naqshband. It was
preached and popularized by one of his very
renowned disciples, Khawja Naseer-ul-din
Ubaidullah Ahrar. The mission of the Naqsh
Bandi emphasized the eradication of alien
elements that crept into Islam from the
native religions. Naqshbandi’s order was
less tolerant as compared to the Chishties,
Qadries and Suhawardies. There was another
important distinction. The Chishties, Qadries
and Suhawardies orders claimed themselves
to be the descendants of Ali whereas the
Naqshbandies traced their origin to the first
caliph, Abu Bakr. Their puritanical approach
made them austere and obstinately hard-liners.
They wanted to convert India into an Islamic
state and recommended to the Mughal kings
to impose jizyah (a kind of tax) on the Hindu
subjects.
7. (c)
Statement 1 is not correct: Asrava and
bandha are the categories through which the
jīva gets bound. Certain psychical conditions
like ignorance of the ultimate truth and passion
lead to the movement of karmic particles
towards the soul. That is Asrava. There is the
actual influx of karma and that is bandha.
The falling away of karma is also through
two stages. First through the right knowledge
and self-restraint the influx of fresh karma is
stopped and that is Samvara.
Statement 2 is correct: Teachings of the
Tirthankaras before Mahavira were known
as Purvas. Whereas canonical texts based
on Mahavira’s teachings are known as Jain
© Copyright:  (4 – A)
Agam. Mahavira’s teachings were first
orally transmitted to people. His disciples,
Ganadharas, wrote them down, first in the text
form of 14 Purvas (earlier works) and then
in 12 Angas (parts). According to the Jains,
there were original, since the time of the first
Tirthakara, two kinds of sacred books, the 14
Purvas and the 11 Angas.
Statement 3 is correct: Basadis are the Jain
monastic establishments in Southern India,
especially Karnataka. Like Tribhuvana Tilaka
Choodamani Basadi (thousand pillar Jain
temple) in Moodbidri in Dakshina Kannada
district of Karnataka. The Jammi Doddi area,
next to Akkanna and Madanna caves at the foot
of Indrakeeladri hill, nestled a Jain monastery
called Nedumbi Basadi which received the
patronage of Ayyana Mahadevi, the queen
of Kubjavishnu Varadana and founder of the
Eastern Chalukyan kingdom.
8. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: The discovery
of two more mounds in January 2014 at the
Harappan site of Rakhigarhi in Hisar
district, Haryana, has led to archaeologists
establishing it as the biggest Harappan
civilisation site. It is located in the Ghaggar-
Hakra river plain. Until then, specialists in the
Harappan civilisation had argued that Mohenjo-
Daro in Pakistan was the largest among the
2,000 Harappan sites known to exist in India,
Pakistan and Afghanistan. The archaeological
remains at Mohenjo-Daro extend around 300
hectares.
This site at village Banawali is on the dry bed
of the ancient river Sarasvati in Haryana.
The excavations have yielded a three-fold
culture sequence: Pre-Harappan (Early-
Harappan), Harappan and Bara (post-
Harappan). Pre-Harappan assemblage (2600-
2400 BC) is represented by the existence of
well-planned houses and a fortification wall
made of moulded bricks. Harappan Culture
(2400-1900 BC) is marked by the presence
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of a well-planned fortified township laid in
a radial pattern. Bara Culture (1900-1700
BC) is represented by the most distinguished
pottery, which is sturdy and heavy, made of
fine clay, baked carefully and dressed with
deep-toned oily gloss.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Easternmost
site is Alamgirpur on the Hindon river, a
tributary of Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh. The
Southernmost site is Daimabad in Maharashtra.
The Northernmost site is Manda on the River
Beas in Jammu and Kashmir. The Westernmost
site is Sutkagendorr on the Arabian sea shore
near the Iranian border.
Statement 3 is correct: They were aware of
the wheel and cotton. Pottery-making was
also an important industry in the Harappan
period. These were chiefly wheel-made treated
with a red coating and had decorations in black.
The Harappan people were aware of almost all
metals except iron. They manufactured gold
and silver objects. The gold objects include
beads, armlets, needles and other ornaments.
But the use of silver was more common than
gold. A large number of silver ornaments,
dishes, etc. have been discovered. Several
copper tools and weapons have also been
discovered.
© Copyright:  (5 – A)
Full Syllabus [Test-9]
9. (a)
Option (a) is correct: The whole Tamilaham
in the Sangam period was divided into five
tinais or eco-zones, i.e., zones based on their
economic resources. These were: kurinji
(hilly region); palai (arid zone); mullai
(pastoral tracts); marudam (wetlands); and
neital (seacoast). Because of their different
geographical contexts and ecological
specialties people in different tinais had their
modes of subsistence. In kurinji, it was hunting
and gathering; in palai, where people could
not produce anything they took to raiding
and plundering; in mullai people practiced
animal husbandry; in marudam it was plough
agriculture; and in neital people took to fishing
and salt making.
10. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Balban adopted
a policy of consolidation rather than
expansion. He introduced a new theory of
kingship and redefined the relations between the
Sultan and nobility. Through these measures,
Balban strengthened the Delhi Sultanate.
Statement 2 is not correct: Since Alauddin
wanted to maintain a large army, he,
therefore, lowered and fixed the price of
the commodities of daily use. Alauddin’s
measures to control the markets were one of
the most important policy initiatives. Alauddin
chose to pay his soldiers’ salaries in cash
rather than iqtas. The soldiers would buy their
supplies from merchants in Delhi and it was
thus feared that merchants would raise their
prices. To stop this, Alauddin controlled the
prices of goods in Delhi. To control the prices,
Alauddin set up three different markets for
different commodities in Delhi. These markets
were the grain market (Mandi), cloth market
(Sarai Adl) and the market for horses, slaves,
cattle, etc. Prices were carefully surveyed by
officers, and merchants who did not sell at the
prescribed rates were punished.
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
Statement 3 is not correct: Muhammad bin
Tughlaq introduced “Token Currency” which
was somewhat like present-day paper currency,
but made out of cheap metals, not gold and
silver. He introduced a copper coin (Jittal)
in place of a silver coin (tanka) and ordered
that it should be accepted as equivalent to
the tanka. People in the fourteenth century did
not trust these coins. They saved their gold and
silver coins and paid all their taxes to the state
with this token currency. This cheap currency
could also be counterfeited easily.
11. (d)
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Budhu Bhagat
was the first revolutionary to be martyred
in the fight for freedom, against British
rule. He taught the tribals to fight for their
rights against the injustice of the British. He
displayed immense courage and stewardship
in initiating the Kol rebellion in 1832 against
British rule in tribal areas. He trained the
tribals in guerrilla warfare and defeated the
English army several times. He was martyred
while fighting for the country.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Tirot Sing, also
known as U Tirot Sing Syiem was a Khasi
chief in the early 19th century and declared
war and fought against the British in an
attempt to take over control of the Khasi
Hills. He fought the Anglo-Khasi War from
1823 to 1833. In the Anglo-Khasi War, the
Khasis resorted to guerrilla activity, which
dragged on for about four years. Tirot Sing
was shot at by the British and had to hide in a
cave. The British eventually captured him in
January 1833 and deported him to Dhaka.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Dora Bisoi was
the commander-in-chief of the princely state
of Ghumusar. He belonged to Khond Tribe.
He was imprisoned by the British because he
rebelled against them for their interference in
their religious practices and high land taxes.
In his absence, his nephew Chakra Bisoi led
the revolt against the British in Odisha. He
© Copyright:  (6 – A)
not only fought against the British for their
interference in the socio-religious practices
of the Kandh but also for causing undue
suffering to them. He fought a guerilla war
and fled to Patna state in western Odisha and
finally to central India and the British were
never able to apprehend him.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: Laxman Nayak,
a tribal leader of the Bhumia community
of the Koraput district played a significant
role during the Koraput uprising in
Odisha. During the Quit India Movement in
1942, it presented an excellent example of
the convergence of existing fituri (uprising)
traditions of tribal rebellions with the Pan-
India freedom struggle. He was hanged on 29
March 1943, in Berhampur jail.
12. (b)
Option (b) is correct: Mungri Orang alias
Malati Mem was one of the leading members
of the anti-opium campaign in tea gardens. In
1921, she was killed by government supporters
at Lalmati in Darrang district for supporting
Congress volunteers in the prohibition
campaign.
Bhogeswari Phukanani actively participated
in the Indian Freedom struggle and sacrificed
her life for her motherland. She was fired
by Captain Finch with his revolver when
Phukanani hit him with the pole of the
National Flag enraged by the disrespect shown
by the Captain towards the National Flag. She
succumbed to her injuries and died on 20th
September 1942.
Tileswari Barua joined the 1942 Quit India
Movement. Just 12 years old, the fearless
Tileswari Barua joined the Mrityu Bahini
(a death/suicide squad). As part of the
Movement, processions of freedom fighters
marched to hoist flags in the colonial police
stations. On 20 September 1942, Monbor
Nath led the Mrityu Bahini to the Dhekiajuli
Police Station. He was immediately gunned
down, and other volunteers in the squad too
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were attacked. Tileswari Barua was part of the
procession, and in the indiscriminate firing, she
was shot.
Rebati Lahon was an active participant and
organiser of the Quit India Movement in teok,
Assam. She was jailed in 1942.
13. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Lord Curzon
completely officialized the Calcutta
Corporation and gave it a European
majority by reducing the total membership
by a third. A similar policy was pursued in
the Indian Universities Act when he took
away the autonomy of the universities and,
in the same year (1904), the Official Secrets
Act extended a good deal of the scope of the
14. (c)
term ‘sedition’. The climax was reached by
the partition of Bengal (1905) which was
considered to be a subtle attack on the growing
solidarity of Indian nationalism.
Statement 2 is correct: The moderates in the
Congress, were shy of the idea of a boycott,
though they accepted swadeshi. Gopal Krishna
Gokhale argued that the term ‘boycott’ had a
sinister meaning as it implied a vindictive desire
to injure another and should be discarded. The
extremists, however, thought that the twin ideas
of Swadeshi and boycott were complementary
to each other as one could not succeed without
the other. The ‘Boycott Resolution’ passed
by this Congress at Varanasi (Benares) at
the instance of the extremists was a sort of
compromise and its confirmation at Calcutta
was resented by the moderates who prepared
themselves for a show of strength at the venue
of the next session which was changed from
Nagpur, a stronghold of the extremists, to Surat
where the moderate leader Pherozeshah Mehta
had a great following. The unity forged at the
Benaras Congress (1905) with the Bengal
Extremists proved advantageous to Tilak at
the Calcutta Congress (1906). Rash Behari
Ghosh was elected the Congress President
at the Surat session in 1907. In the meeting,
© Copyright:  (7 – A)
Full Syllabus [Test-9]
there was an open conflict with the proposal
of Ghosh being elected as President. Tilak was
not allowed to express his views on the matter.
Statement 3 is correct: During the Swadeshi
movement, the ineffectiveness of the Congress
to change the decision of the Government on the
Bengal Partition in 1905 allowed an extremist
group led by Tilak to make its voice felt in
the deliberations of the Congress. During its
session held in 1906 at Calcutta, the Congress
not only endorsed their plans but for the first
time in its history laid down as its goal, ‘the
system of Government obtaining in the
self-governing British colonies’, which the
President Dadabhai Naoroji, summed up in
one word ‘swaraj’.
Statement 1 is not correct: The First Anglo-
Maratha War (1775-82) began with the
treaty of Surat and ended with the Treaty
of Salbai. There was no clear victor. Under
the treaty, the English acquired Salsette and
Madhav Rao Narayan was recognised as
the rightful Peshwa. In the Treaty of Surat
in 1775 Raghunath Rao promised to cede
Salsette and Bassein to Company and refrain
to ally against the enemies of the Company.
Statement 2 is not correct: During the
Second-Anglo Maratha War (1803-05)
Bhonsale Raja of Nagpur was defeated and
the Treaty of Deogaon was signed. Scindia’s
French-trained army was defeated by Lord
Lake at Aligarh and at Delhi and finally a
Laswari. He concluded the Treaty of Surji
Arjungaon ceding to the British the Ganga-
Yamuna Doab territories as also Ahmadnagar
and Broach and giving up all his claims on
the Mughal emperor, the Peshwa, the Nizam
and Gaikwad. By another treaty concluded in
1804, Scindia agreed to have a subsidiary
alliance under the Company’s overlordship.
Holkar’s army was defeated by Frazer at Dig
and Lake at Farrukhabad in November 1804.
His capital Indore was captured. Later, Hokar
fled to Punjab.
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Statement 3 is correct: During the Third-
Anglo-Maratha War (1817-19), the
Peshwa’s army was finally defeated at
Ashti. He surrendered to the British on June
18, 1818. Scindias concluded a new treaty
with the British. Appa Sahib of Nagpur was
defeated at Sitabaldi Hills and Nagpur. Malhar
Rao Holkar II was defeated at Mehdipur.
Thus all Maratha opposition to British power
ended. A new settlement was made with the
Maratha chiefs. The Peshwa surrendered his
name and authority forever, and in return
was given eight lakhs of rupees as pension and
made to retire to Bithur near Kanpur. A small
district was, however, reserved at Satara for the
descendant of Sivaji as the Raja of Satara. The
remaining portions of the Peshwa’s territory
were annexed to the Presidency of Bombay.
The Bhonsle state of Nagpur disappeared.
15. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Through the 1830s
the officers of the Company insisted that
Afghanistan was important as a buffer against
Napoleonic France and Tsarist Russia. In
1836, Dost Muhammad, the then ruler
of Afghanistan offered his friendship to
the English in return for English help in re-
possessing the Peshawar valley which Ranjit
Singh, the Sikh ruler of Punjab had taken
away from the Afghans. Governor-General
Auckland, however, refused to intercede with
Ranjit Singh and instead proposed that the
Afghans promise not to ally with any other
country like Russia, France, or Turkey. Dost
Muhammad responded by showing signs of
friendship towards Russia. At this Aucldand
planned to depose Dost by force. The Court
of Directors concurred. The plan was put into
action by Tripartite Treaty signed on 26 June
1838 between Shah Shuja an ex-ruler of
Afghanistan, Ranjit Singh and the English.
Following this treaty, a force comprising the
armies of the Company, Ranjit Singh and
Shah Shuja was assembled to attack Kabul,
© Copyright:  (8 – A)
depose, Dost Muhammad, and establish
Shah Shuja on the throne.
Statement 2 is correct: Shah Shuja was
made the ruler of Afghanistan. British
troops, however, instead of withdrawing to
India began to garrison Kabul, Jalalabad,
Kandahar, and Ghazni. Shah Shuja attacked
the English in September 1840 but failed and
was sent to Calcutta as a prisoner. In September
1841, unrest against the British started.
They were killed and their cantonment was
besieged. The British regrouped and captured
Kabul in 1842. The Afghan War proved that
the British armies were not invincible and
could be defeated with suitable tactics as
those used by the hill tribes of Afghanistan.
Henceforth the English decided to confine
themselves within the North-West Frontier
and not venture into Afghanistan militarily.
16. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: The Jagirdari
system was not based upon feudalism as it
lacked two fundamental or major elements of
feudalism-hereditaries and sub-infeudation.
The Jagirdar was an officer of the state as the
collector of the revenue of his jagir land which
he realised on behalf of the state to obtain his
salary. He had no administrative control
over the land beyond revenue collection
and he had no right to grant it to anybody
under him. After his death, the jagir was
not necessarily inherited by his successor. It
could be resumed by the state.
Statement 2 is not correct: The mansab
system was based upon the organization of
the public services of the empire. A mansab
was personal and not hereditary and there
could be no sub-infeudation in respect of
the mansab. Even the wealth and property of
a mansabdar reverted to the state by escheat
after his death.
Statement 3 is not correct: Both the Jagirdari
and Mansabdari system were not feudal.
This absence of a feudal organization with its
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principles of rights and obligations, privileges
and duties deprived the government of a
force which could serve as a healthy check on
royal absolutism.
17. (c)
Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Under the
Delhi Sultanate, Wazir exercised control
over the financial department. Next to him
in the finance ministry were the Mushrif-
i-Mamalik (accountant-general) and the
Mustaufi-i-Mamalik (auditor-general).
Originally, Mushrif maintained the account
of receipts and disbursements, and Mustaufi
audited them. Under Firoz Tughluq, the
Mushrif was put in charge of receipts and
the Mustaufi of expenditures. There was, of
course, a large staff to assist the Mushrif and
Mustaufi headed, respectively, by a Nazir
and Waquf. The department of the Wazir
was called Diwan-i-Wazarat.
Pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched: The
Diwan-i-Arz was headed by the Ariz-i-
Mamalik, controls the military department
and with the assistance of provincial and
local officers, recruits and manages the army.
There was an important department headed
by the Barid-i-Mamalik, which functioned
as the intelligence branch of the government.
Through a network of local Barids, it kept the
centre informed of happenings in all parts of
the realm.
18. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: The Lodhis never
minted silver coins, however, they issued
a heavy bullion coin of 145 grains called
Bahloli. Among the silver coins, the Iltutmish
silver tanka weighed about 175 grains during
the sultanate period.
Statement 2 is not correct: Iltutmish system
of currency was bimetallic with parallel
coins in copper, the basic unit of which
was the Jital. Sher Shah Suri established a
bimetallic system by issuing a rupee of silver
and making the tanka a purely copper coin.
© Copyright:  (9 – A)
Full Syllabus [Test-9]
The Mughals from Akbar onwards continued
the same system
Statement 3 is correct: The Mughals also
issued gold coins, known as mohur or Ashrafi,
but these were not normally used in the market.
The Mughal coins were of great metallic
purity and uniformity. The minting was
‘free’ in the sense that anyone could take
bullion to the mint and get it coined at a small
charge (not exceeding 6 % of the value). The
value of coins, therefore, corresponded with
their weight in bullion.
19. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Visistadvaita means
modified monism. The ultimate reality
according to it is Brahman (God) who is
immanent in the matter and individual
souls and controls them from within. All the
three-God, soul and matter- are real, but
God is the inner substance, while matter and
souls are his attributes. They are absolutely
dependent on God, although they are eternal,
relatively free and responsible for their actions.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Ramanuja
was the founder of Visistadvaita Siddhanta.
His commentary on the Vedanta Sutras
called the Sribhasya and the Gitabhasya,
are among his best-known works. Of his
followers, in later years, the most outstanding
was Vedanta Desika and Pillai Lokacarya, the
founders of the two sub-schools, Vadagalai
(Northern) and Tengalai (Southern). The
former was the author of the well-known
Satadusani, a polemic against the Advaita
Siddhanta of Sankara.
20. (c)
Option (c) is correct: The Raushaniyah
movement owed its origin to Miyan Bayazid
Ansari (d. A.D. 1581), a native of Jalandhar.
He emphasised the interiorization of religious
rites and inspired his followers with the ideal of
ascetic self-denial. His successors frequently
came into conflict with the Mughal emperors
as their activities often disturbed the peace in
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
the Kabul-Indus region. While differing from
one another in many respects, the Shattari, the
Raushaniyah and the Mahdawi movements
had one thing in common: they laid greater
emphasis on the spirit of religion than its form
and drew inspiration from the philosophy of
Wahdat-ul-wajood.
21. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Bose-Einstein
condensates are formed from bosons cooled
to just a fraction above absolute zero (but
not reaching absolute zero, at which point
atoms stop moving). This causes them to sink
to their lowest-energy state, moving extremely
slowly, and coming together close enough to
overlap - producing a high-density cloud of
atoms that acts like one ‘super atom’ or matter
wave. Because quantum mechanics, in which
each particle can be described as a wave, is
easier to observe on the atomic scale, Bose-
Einstein condensates allow scientists to study
quantum behaviour on a much larger scale,
instead of trying to study individual atoms.
Statement 2 is correct: Unlike solids, liquids,
gases and plasmas, BECs don’t form naturally.
All the atoms in a Bose-Einstein condensate
have the same quantum identity, so they
collectively exhibit properties that are
typically displayed only by individual atoms
or subatomic particles. Thus, BECs make
those microscopic characteristics visible at a
macroscopic scale.
22. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: Galvanisation
is a method of protecting steel and iron from
rusting by coating them with a thin layer of
zinc. The galvanized article is protected against
rusting even if the zinc coating is broken.
Statement 2 is not correct: Natural rubber
becomes soft at high temperatures (>335 K) and
brittle at low temperatures (<283 K) and shows
high water absorption capacity. It is soluble in
nonpolar solvents and is non-resistant to attack
© Copyright:  (10 – A)
by oxidizing agents. To improve upon these
physical properties, a process of vulcanization
is carried out. This process consists of heating
a mixture of raw rubber with sulphur and
an appropriate additive. On vulcanization,
sulphur forms cross links at the reactive sites
of double bonds, and thus the rubber gets
stiffened. In the manufacture of tyre rubber,
5% of sulphur is used as a crosslinking agent.
Synthetic rubber is any vulcanisable rubber-
like polymer, which is capable of getting
stretched to twice its length.
23. (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The basic
reproduction number (R0) is an epidemiologic
metric used to describe the contagiousness
or transmissibility of infectious agents. R0
tells you the average number of people who
will contract a contagious disease from one
person with that disease. It specifically applies
to a population of people who were previously
free of infection and haven’t been vaccinated.
Three possibilities exist for the potential
transmission or decline of a disease, depending
on its R0 value:
• If R0 is less than 1, each existing infection
causes less than one new infection. In
this case, the disease will decline and
eventually die out.
• If R0 equals 1, each existing infection
causes one new infection. The disease will
stay alive and stable, but there won’t be an
outbreak or an epidemic.
• If R0 is more than 1, each existing infection
causes more than one new infection. The
disease will be transmitted between people,
and there may be an outbreak or epidemic.
Statement 2 is correct: Vaccination
campaigns reduce the proportion of a
population at risk for infection and have proven
to be highly effective in mitigating future
outbreaks. This conclusion is sometimes used
to suggest that vaccination campaigns aim to
remove susceptible members of the population
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to reduce the R0 for the event to <1. Although
the removal of susceptible members from the
population will affect infection transmission
by reducing the number of effective contacts
between infectious and susceptible persons,
this activity will technically not reduce the R0
value because the definition of R0 includes
the assumption of a completely susceptible
population. When examining the effect of
vaccination, the more appropriate metric to
use is the effective reproduction number (R),
which is similar to R0 but does not assume the
complete susceptibility of the population and,
therefore, can be estimated with populations
having immune members. Efforts aimed at
reducing the number of susceptible persons
within a population through vaccination would
result in a reduction of the R-value, rather than
the R0 value.
Statement 3 is not correct: R0 is not a
biological constant for a pathogen, a rate over
time, or a measure of disease severity. R0 is not
used to measure the severity of disease rather
it is used to indicate the contagiousness and
transmissibility of infectious pathogens.
24. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Satellites in polar orbits
usually travel past Earth from north to south
rather than from west to east, passing roughly
over Earth’s poles, although not precisely over
poles. Polar orbits are a type of low Earth orbit,
as they are at low altitudes between 200 to
1000 km. Sun-synchronous orbit (SSO) is a
particular kind of polar orbit.
Statement 2 is correct: Satellites in
SSO, travelling over the polar regions, are
synchronous with the Sun. This means they are
synchronized to always be in the same ‘fixed’
position relative to the Sun. This means that
the satellite always visits the same spot at the
same local time – for example, passing the city
of Paris every day at noon exactly. This means
that the satellite will always observe a point on
the Earth as if constantly at the same time
© Copyright:  (11 – A)
Full Syllabus [Test-9]
of the day, which serves several applications;
for example, it means that scientists and those
who use satellite images can compare how
somewhere changes over time.
25. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: There are only two
copies of nuclear DNA per cell versus hundreds
to thousands of copies of mitochondrial DNA
(mtDNA). This high copy number enhances
the likelihood of the detection of the DNA
in degraded samples such as environmental
samples. It is due to this reason the majority
of eDNA studies use a mitochondrial gene
as a marker. Often, degraded DNA samples
do not produce proper results. But from
environmentally damaged DNA samples,
DNA information can be recovered with
mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA).
Statement 2 is correct: Unlike nuclear DNA
which contains genetic material inherited from
both the mother and the father, mtDNA only
contains genetic material inherited from the
mother. This does not allow the identification
of hybrid organisms in the environment
but only permits the determination of the
maternal species of the organism. This is a
major limitation in cases where an invasive
species hybridizes with a native species.
26. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Sand can be classified
into three types based on grain sizes, coarse,
medium, and fine. The shape of sand
particles affects their density and stability
and overall engineering behaviour. Smooth
rounded particles would offer less resistance
to rearrangement than angular or elongated
particles with rough surfaces. Desert sand
grains are finer and smoother so their
surface chemistry would not be able to offer
a sufficient number of multidirectional
chemical linkages.
Desert sands possess an open structure,
and there is a little interlock between sand
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
grains. If this sand is kept dry, these bonding
bridges provide considerable bearing strength.
But if the sand becomes wet, the bridges soften
and when overloaded, the bridges break and
collapse.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Sea sand
does not have high compressive strength,
high tensile strength, etc so it cannot be used in
construction activities.
In sea sand, chloride is present which will cause
corrosion of steel and iron which ultimately
leads to reducing the carrying capacity of steel
and iron, so the structure built using this may
not be sustainable.
27. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Protons and neutrons
(i.e., nucleons), are composed of smaller
fundamental building blocks known as
quarks. Quarks have fractional charges and
the charges are of opposite signs. The proton,
with a net charge of +1, is composed of two
up quarks, each with a charge of +2/3, and one
down quark, with a −1/3 charge. The neutron,
having no net electrical charge, is composed of
two down quarks, each with a −1/3 charge, and
one up quark with a +2/3 charge, cancelling
out to a net of zero.
Statement 2 is correct: All particles
composed of quarks are subject to a strong
nuclear force and are known as hadrons.
The particles not subject to strong force are
known as leptons. The electron, along with
its antimatter counterpart the positron, belongs
to the lepton family of particles and, as such,
is not subject to the strong nuclear force.
Statement 3 is correct: Bosons are the
particles that do not constitute matter but
rather mediate the interactions governing
the behaviour of matter. These particles
carry energy and forces throughout the
universe. Bosons, as a group, are characterized
by the common feature of zero or integral
intrinsic angular momentum or spin. While
there are several categories of bosons (which
© Copyright:  (12 – A)
mediate the fundamental forces of gravity,
electromagnetism, the weak nuclear force, and
the strong nuclear force), the most familiar
boson is the photon, the mediator of the
electromagnetic force.
28. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Prokaryotes
like bacteria or blue-green algae usually
contain single circular chromosomes (called
nucleoids). However, in some prokaryotes,
there may be more than one chromosome,
for example, Vibrio cholerae.
In eukaryotes, the chromosomes are present
inside a well-defined nucleus.
Statement 2 is correct: Prokaryotic cells,
such as bacteria, have a free-floating
chromosome that is not enclosed in a nuclear
membrane. Instead, the DNA simply exists
in a region of the cell called the nucleoid.
Prokaryotic cells only have a small range of
organelles, generally, only a plasma membrane
and ribosomes.
Eukaryotic cells, on the other hand, have
chromosomes that are enclosed in a true
nucleus and are therefore separated from
the cytoplasm by the nuclear membrane.
Eukaryotic cells also have a wide range of
organelles that perform specialized functions.
29. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Virus-like particles
(VLPs) are small particles that contain certain
proteins from the outer coat of a virus. Virus-
like particles do not contain any genetic
material from the virus and cannot cause
an infection. They are used to make vaccines
that can help the body’s immune system kill
microorganisms and certain cancer cells.
Virus-like particles were used to make vaccines
that prevent cervical cancer caused by human
papillomaviruses (HPV). They were also used
to make vaccines that prevent liver cancer
caused by infection with the hepatitis B virus.
Statement 2 is correct: VLPs are non-
infectious multiprotein structures that
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are engineered to self-assemble from viral
structural proteins. A virus-like particle is not
infectious because it does not contain any viral
genetic material. As they are very similar to
real viral molecules, introducing a VLP into
the body will trigger an immune response, but
a person will not experience any symptoms of
the virus they are being vaccinated against.
30. (a)
Statement 1 is not correct: The high-
temperature gas-cooled reactor (HTGR)
is a nuclear fission reactor technology,
using fully ceramic fuels, and one of the
advanced nuclear technologies currently under
development. HTGRs rely on tri-structural
isotropic (TRISO) coated fuel particles with
enhanced thermal resistance and confinement
performance, a graphite moderator with large
thermal capacity and heat transfer properties,
and a chemically inert helium coolant. The
combination of these features enables the
passive removal of decay and residual heat
to the air in the event of an accident without
equipment actuation or operator action, which
could reduce the probability of transients with
core melt conditions.
Statement 2 is correct: Due to the low
reactor power density and high thermal
capacity of the graphite core structure, the
reactor temperature rise after an accident
is slow and the system ensures a long grace
period, typically more than several days or a
week.
Statement 3 is not correct: One has to
process some metric tons and tens of cubic
meters quantities of TRISO fuels to obtain a
significant quantity of nuclear material, using
either grind-leach or burn-leach of electrolysis
in nitric acid whose technology is still not
matured at industrial level. In addition, high
burnup of the spent fuel of HTGR designs
is also one of the key proliferation resistance
features due to higher-order plutonium
isotopes that produce decay heat and a high
dose rate.
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Full Syllabus [Test-9]
31. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Wetlands are
ecotones (transition zones) between
terrestrial and aquatic environments.
They make up a myriad of landforms that are
inundated or saturated by water, part or all of
the year, and support specialised vegetation
adapted to such conditions. They play an
important role in the recharge of groundwater
as well as provide habitat to large numbers of
biota. They play an extremely important role
in managing the runoff during monsoon and
other storm events and preventing flooding.
They also create a microclimate around them
and help moderate ambient temperatures.
Statement 2 is not correct: Just the inclusion
of a wetland under the Ramsar Convention
is meaningless unless follow-up resources
are invested in them to restore them
ecologically. Ramsar listing has no legal
sanction under any Indian law and while it is a
matter of prestige for a wetland to be declared
a Ramsar-listed wetland it does not, ipso facto,
help in its protection for restoration. Moreover,
a mere 75 listed as Ramsar sites against such a
vast number of certified wetlands (2,31,195) is
a minuscule number.
Statement 3 is correct: Wetlands
(Conservation and Management) Rules,
2017 notified by the Environment Ministry,
decentralises wetlands management by giving
states powers to not only identify and notify
wetlands within their jurisdictions but
also keep a watch on prohibited activities.
Seeking to protect over 2 lakh wetlands across
the country, the Centre has come out with
rules to identify and manage these ecologically
fragile areas which play an important role in
flood control, groundwater recharge, preserving
plant varieties, supporting migratory birds and
protecting coastlines.
32. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: The Grievance
Appellate Committee (GAC) is established
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
under the Information Technology
(Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media
Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 made under the
Information Technology Act, 2000. The
GAC deals with the appeals of users (Digital
Nagriks) aggrieved by decisions of Grievance
Officers of social media intermediaries and
other intermediaries on complaints of users or
victims against violation of the rules and any
other matters about the computer resources
made available by the intermediary.
Statement 2 is correct: GAC is a critical piece
of overall policy and legal framework to ensure
that the Internet in India is Open, Safe, Trusted
and Accountable. The need for GAC was created
due to large numbers of grievances being left
unaddressed or unsatisfactorily addressed by
Internet Intermediaries. GAC is expected to
create a culture of responsiveness amongst
all Internet Platforms and Intermediaries
towards their consumers.
Statement 3 is not correct: The GAC will be
a virtual Digital platform that will operate
only online and digitally, wherein the entire
appeal process, from the filing of the appeal
to the decision thereof, shall be conducted
digitally.
33. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Recently, the
National Crisis Management Committee
(NCMC) under the Chairmanship of
Cabinet Secretary met and reviewed the
situation in Joshimath. A National Crisis
Management Committee is a committee set up
by the Government of India and is headed
by the Cabinet Secretary during the wake of
a natural calamity for effective coordination
and implementation of relief measures and
operations.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The other
members of this Committee include the
secretary to the Prime Minister, secretaries
of the ministries of home affairs, defence,
agriculture and cooperation etc. It deals with
© Copyright:  (14 – A)
major crises which have serious or national
ramifications. Its key functions is to oversee
the Command, Control and Coordination of the
disaster response. The NCMC gives direction
to the Crisis Management Group as deemed
necessary.
34. (d)
Option (d) is correct: India and South Africa
27 January 2023 have signed a Memorandum
of Understanding (MoU) on cooperation in
the reintroduction of cheetahs in India. The
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on
Reintroduction of Cheetah to India facilitates
cooperation between the parties to establish
a viable and secure cheetah population in
India; promotes conservation and ensures that
expertise is shared and exchanged, and capacity
built, to promote cheetah conservation.
35. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: The National
Cancer Grid (NCG) is an initiative of
the Government of India through the
Department of Atomic Energy and its
grant-in-aid institution, the Tata Memorial
Centre, to create a network of cancer
centres, research institutes, patient groups
and charitable institutions across India to
develop uniform standards of patient care for
prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of cancer;
providing specialised training and education in
oncology and facilitating collaborative basic,
translational and clinical research in cancer.
Statement 2 is correct: The National Cancer
Grid was created in 2012 with the broad
vision of creating uniform standards of
cancer care across India. Eight years later,
it has grown into the world’s largest cancer
network with 287 members, comprising
cancer centres, research institutes, patient
advocacy groups, charitable organisations and
professional societies. Between the member
organisations of the NCG, the network
treats over 750,000 new patients with cancer
annually, which is over 60% of all of India’s
cancer burden.
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Statement 3 is not correct: The NCG partners
with the Ayushman Bharat – Pradhan
Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)
and not with Integrated Diseases Surveillance
Programme in ensuring evidence-based cancer
care and rationalising tariff packages under the
scheme. The NCG’s work on Patient Health
Records (PHR) was extensively used in the
National Health Authority’s National Digital
Health Mission (NDHM) recently launched by
the Prime Minister.
36. (a)
Golden Langur: Gee’s golden langur
(Trachypithecus geei), also known as simply
the golden langur, is an Old World monkey.
It is found in a small region of Western Assam
and the neighbouring foothills of the Black
Mountains of Bhutan. Its habitat is bounded
on the south by the Brahmaputra River, on the
east by the Manas River, on the west by the
Sankosh River, in Assam and on the north by
the Black Mountains of Bhutan.
Statement 1 is correct: Golden Langur is
a Schedule-I species under the Wildlife
Protection Act of 1972. It is listed as among
the world’s 25 most endangered primates.
38. (c)
Statement 2 is not correct: Chakrashila,
Assam is India’s first wildlife sanctuary
with golden langur as the primary species.
37. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Article 30 of the
Constitution of India states that, all minorities,
whether based on religion or language, shall
have the right to establish and administer
educational institutions of their choice. It
also states that the State shall not discriminate
against any educational institution in granting
aid to educational institutions, on the ground
that it is under the management of a minority,
whether based on religion or language.
Statement 2 is correct: The States
Reorganisation Commission (SRC) 1956,
recommended for creation of a mechanism
to address the grievances of the Linguistic
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Full Syllabus [Test-9]
Minorities. Based on the recommendations of
the SRC, the 7th Constitutional (Amendment)
Act, of 1957 was enacted, whereby Articles,
350A and 350B were included in the
Constitution. Article 350B provides for a
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, who
is known as the Commissioner for Linguistic
Minorities in India (CLM) to investigate all
the matters relating to the Safeguards provided
for the linguistic minorities in India under the
Constitution and report to the President.
Statement 3 is correct: The linguistic
minorities are considered as a group or
collectivities of individuals residing in the
territory of India or any part thereof having a
distinct language or script of their own. The
word linguistic minorities has not been
defined in the Constitution of India, but the
language of the minority group need not be
one of the twenty-two languages mentioned
in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
Linguistic Minorities at the State level means
any group or groups of people whose mother
tongues are different from the principal
language of the State.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Type 1
diabetes mellitus (T1D) is an autoimmune
disease that leads to the destruction of
insulin-producing pancreatic beta cells.
Individuals with T1D require life-long insulin
replacement with multiple daily insulin
injections daily, insulin pump therapy, or the
use of an automated insulin delivery system.
Some people have certain genes (traits passed
on from parent to child) that make them more
likely to develop type 1 diabetes. However,
many of them won’t go on to have type 1
diabetes even if they have the genes.
Statement 3 is not correct: T1D is one of the
most frequent chronic diseases in children but
can have its onset at any age. In adults, new-
onset type 1 diabetes may be misdiagnosed as
type 2 diabetes and is more common than
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
youth-onset T1D. There has been a steady
increase in the incidence and prevalence of
T1D, representing approximately 5% to 10%
of people with diabetes.
39. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: International
Criminal Court (ICC) was established
in 2002 and headquartered in The Hague
(Netherlands). The Rome Statute of the
International Criminal Court is the treaty that
established the ICC. The Court is participating
in a global fight to end impunity, and through
international criminal justice, the Court aims
to hold those responsible accountable for their
crimes and to help prevent these crimes from
happening again. ​​ The Court cannot reach
these goals alone. As a court of last resort, it
seeks to complement, not replace, national
Courts. Governed by an international treaty
called the Rome Statute, the ICC is the world’s
first permanent international criminal court.
Statement 2 is not correct: It is not a
United Nations organisation but the Court
has a cooperation agreement with the United
Nations. When a situation is not within the
Court’s jurisdiction, the United Nations
Security Council can refer the situation to the
ICC granting it jurisdiction.
Statement 3 is correct: Presently (2023),
123 countries are States Parties to the Rome
Statute of the International Criminal Court.
Out of them, 33 are from African States,
19 are from Asia-Pacific States, 18 are from
Eastern Europe, 28 are from Latin American
and Caribbean States, and 25 are from Western
European and other States. India is not a
member of the International Criminal
Court as of March 2023.
40. (d)
Both statements are not correct: The National
Aeronautics and Space Administration
(NASA) rolled out its Artemis I moon
mission in March 2022 to the launchpad
for testing at the Kennedy Space Centre in
© Copyright:  (16 – A)
Florida, United States. ARTEMIS means
Acceleration, Reconnection, Turbulence and
Electrodynamics of the Moon’s Interaction
with the Sun. It is NASA’s next mission to
the Moon. Its objective is to measure what
happens when the Sun’s radiation hits our
rocky moon, where there is no magnetic field
to protect it. With the Artemis program, NASA
will land the first woman and next man on
the Moon by 2024.
NASA’s powerful new rocket, the Space
Launch System (SLS), will send astronauts
aboard the Orion spacecraft nearly a quarter
million miles from Earth to lunar orbit.
41. (a)
Option(a) is correct: Parboiled rice refers
to rice that has been partially boiled at the
paddy stage, before milling. Parboiling of rice
is not a new practice and has been followed in
India since ancient times. However, there is no
specific definition of parboiled rice by the Food
Corporation of India or the Food Ministry.
There are several processes for parboiling
rice. The Paddy Processing Research Centre
(PPRC), Thanjavur follows a method known
as the chromate soaking process. It uses
chromate, a family of salt in which the anion
contains both chromium and oxygen, which
removes the odour from the wet rice.
42. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Currently, in India,
water dispute resolution is governed by
the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, of
1956. As per this law, the state governments
can approach the centre for a tribunal for the
resolution of a water dispute. The decision of
the tribunal is final. The Act was amended in
2002, to include the major recommendations of
the Sarkaria Commission. The amendments
mandated a one-year time frame to set up the
water disputes tribunal and also a 3-year time
frame to give a decision.
Statement 2 is not correct: Entry 17 of the
State List deals with water i.e. water supply,
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irrigation, canal, drainage, embankments,
water storage and water power.
Entry 56 of the Union List empowers the
Union Government for the regulation and
development of inter-state rivers and river
valleys to the extent declared by Parliament to
be expedient in the public interest.
According to Article 262, in case of disputes
relating to waters:
• Parliament may by law provide for the
adjudication of any dispute or complaint
with respect to the use, distribution or
control of the waters of, or in, any inter-
State river or river valley.
• Parliament may, by law, provide that
neither the Supreme Court nor any other
44. (c)
court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect
of any such dispute or complaint.
43. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: Insurance
Regulatory Development Authority of
India (IRDAI) is a statutory body set
up by the IRDA Act, 1999. Following the
recommendations of the Malhotra Committee
report, in 1999, the Insurance Regulatory
and Development Authority (IRDA) was
constituted as an autonomous body to regulate
and develop the insurance industry. The IRDA
was incorporated as a statutory body in April
2000.
Statement 2 is correct: The authority is
responsible for the regulation, development
and supervision of the Indian insurance
industry.
• It has the responsibility and power to issue
a certificate of registration to the applicant
and renew, modify, withdraw, cancel or
suspend any of such registrations.
• To protect the interest of policyholders in
matters of assigning the policy, insurable
interest, surrender value of the policy,
nomination given by the policyholders,
settling of the insurance claims and other
terms of the insurance contract.
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Full Syllabus [Test-9]
• To specify the required qualifications,
practical training and the code of conduct
for the intermediaries or the agents and
insurance intermediaries.
• To specify the code of conduct for the loss
assessors and the surveyors.
• To promote efficiency and effectiveness in
the insurance business.
Statement 3 is correct: The chairman of
the IRDAI is also a member of the financial
stability and development council. Other
members include the Governor of RBI, the
Chairman, the Securities and Exchange Board
of India (SEBI), the Pension Fund Regulatory
and Development Authority (PFRDA), etc.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: World
Happiness Report is published by United
Nations Sustainable Development Solutions
Network (UNSDSN) in association with the
Gallup World Poll data. The report uses global
survey data to report how people evaluate their
own lives in countries worldwide. The report
takes into account factors such as Per capita
GDP, social support, healthy life expectancy,
freedom, generosity and corruption levels.
According to the 2022 report, ​​Finland has
topped the index for the 5th time in a row.
India continued to fare poorly in the World
Happiness Index, with its position marginally
improving to 136 as against 139 in 2021.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Global
Wind Report is released by the Global Wind
Energy Council (GWEC). According to the
report, 94 GW of capacity was added globally
in 2021. However, the pace of the addition of
new plants must quadruple to meet the global
climate targets.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Living
Planet Report is published every two years
by the World Wide Fund for Nature since
1998. It is based on the Living Planet Index
and ecological footprint calculations.
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
45. (d)
Option (d) is correct: A geomagnetic
storm is a major disturbance of Earth’s
magnetosphere that occurs when there is a very
efficient exchange of energy from the solar
wind into the space environment surrounding
Earth. These storms result from variations in
the solar wind that produce major changes in
the currents, plasmas, and fields in Earth’s
magnetosphere. During storms, the currents
in the ionosphere, as well as the energetic
particles that precipitate into the ionosphere add
energy in the form of heat that can increase the
density and distribution of density in the upper
atmosphere, causing extra drag on satellites
in low-earth orbit. The local heating also
creates strong horizontal variations in the
ionospheric density that can modify the
path of radio signals and create errors in the
positioning information provided by GPS.
While the storms create beautiful aurora, they
also can disrupt navigation systems such as the
Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
and create harmful geomagnetic induced
currents (GICs) in the power grid and
pipelines.
46. (a)
Option (a) is correct: The International
Intellectual Property Index is an annual
report compiled by the US Chambers of
Commerce. It evaluates and releases the
intellectual property environment of 55
surveyed countries based on nine key sets of
indicators. The indicators include patents,
copyrights, trademarks, design, trade
secrets, commercialization of IP assets,
systemic efficiencies, enforcement, and
ratification of international treaties. As of
2023, the United States has the best intellectual
property environment with an overall score of
95.48 points. India has improved its overall
International Intellectual Property (IIP)
score from 38.4% to 38.6% and is ranked
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43rd out of 55 countries on the International
Intellectual Property Index.
47. (b)
Option (b) is correct: Microsoft launched
the project ELLORA or Enabling Low
Resource Languages in 2015. Under the
project to bring ‘rare’ Indian languages
online. Under the project, researchers are
building digital resources of the languages.
They say that their purpose is to preserve a
language for posterity so that users of these
languages “can participate and interact in the
digital world.
48. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Also known as bovine
spongiform encephalopathy (BSE), mad
cow disease is degenerative, transmissible,
slowly progressive, and a fatal infection
that affects the central nervous system of
adult cattle. There is an abnormal version of
a protein found on cell surfaces, called a prion,
according to research. After getting altered,
these proteins destroy the nervous system
tissue- the brain and spinal cord.
Statement 2 is not correct: It usually takes
four to six years from the time a cow is
infected with the abnormal prion to when it
first shows symptoms of BSE. This is called
the incubation period. During the incubation
period, there is no way to tell that a cow has
BSE by looking at it.
Statement 3 is correct: Once a cow starts
to show symptoms, it gets sicker and sicker
until it dies, usually within two weeks to six
months. There is no treatment for BSE and
no vaccine to prevent it.
49. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Neuromorphic
computing is an approach to computing that
is inspired by the structure and function of
the human brain. A neuromorphic computer/
chip is any device that uses physical artificial
neurons (made from silicon) to do computations.
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In recent times, the term neuromorphic has been
used to describe analogue, digital, mixed-mode
analogue/digital VLSI, and software systems
that implement models of neural systems (for
perception, motor control, or multisensory
integration).
Statement 2 is not correct: Neuromorphic
computing provides benefits such as fast
parallel processing with minimum power
requirement. It also eliminates the need
for back-and-forth data movement between
components in the von Neumann architecture;
this is expected to drive its adoption for image
and signal processing applications. Moreover,
its expected adoption in consumer electronics,
automotive, healthcare, and military and
defence sectors will also be largely responsible
for driving the market growth.
50. (a)
Option (a) is correct: The Kirit Parikh
committee, which was set up by the
government to review the pricing formula
for gas produced in the country as global
energy prices soared, has recommended
complete liberalization of natural gas prices by
January 1, 2027.
The Committee wanted to make sure that
the government’s target of 15% of the gas in
the Indian economy by 2030 has a chance of
fulfilment. That requires the production of a
lot of domestic gas. Currently, only 6 % of our
total energy is from gas and we are importing
50% of gas.
51. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Local
Government is a State subject under the
Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of
India. Panchayat being a State Subject, State
Governments have the primary role in the
empowerment, enablement, and accountability
of the Panchayats. The Government of India
also has a critical role in the devolution of 3Fs
(funds, function, and functionaries) upon the
Panchayats because of its basic responsibilities
© Copyright:  (19 – A)
Full Syllabus [Test-9]
to ensure governance in accordance with the
constitutional provisions and also because of
the increasingly large fiscal transfers it makes
to the States in the functional domain of the
Panchayats, through Centrally Sponsored
Schemes and Additional central assistance.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 243C(2)
all the seats in a Panchayat shall be filled by
persons chosen by direct election from
territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area
and, for this purpose, each Panchayat area shall
be divided into territorial constituencies in such
manner that the ratio between the population
of each constituency and the number of seats
allotted to it shall, so far as practicable, be the
same throughout the Panchayat area.
Statement 3 is not correct: The 73rd
Amendment to the Constitution has given
Constitutional status to the Panchayats,
provided it with a complete framework, and
also imparted certainty. The Ministry of
Panchayati Raj was created in the year
2004 after which the Panchayat agenda has
received much wider public attention. This
Ministry has been pursuing three broad aspects
of the Panchayat Agenda: Empowerment,
Enablement, and Accountability.
52. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Social justice is an
application of distributive justice to wealth,
assets, privileges and advantages within a
society or a state. It involves the creation of
a just and fair social order and provides
justice for every member of the community.
It involves removing inequalities in society
and affording equal opportunities to all
individuals in the social, economic, and
political affairs of society. Social justice aims
toward creating political, economic, and social
democracy, ending class and caste distinctions.
It combines the principles of socialism with the
personal freedom granted by democracy.
Statement 2 is correct: In India lack of
access to good education or health care and
other such facilities is often found combined
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
with social discrimination on grounds of
caste. The creation of an egalitarian society
requires the Constitution to allow for
reservations of government jobs and quotas
for admissions to educational institutions
for people belonging to the Scheduled
Castes and Tribes providing them with
social justice. Article 15(5) states that the
State can make special provisions to facilitate
the same. Similarly, Article 16(4) provides for
reservation for any backward class of citizens
who are not adequately represented in the
services under the State.
53. (c)
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Supreme
Court in the Anuradha Bhasin v UOI case
declared that the freedom of speech and
expression and the freedom to practice any
profession or carry on any trade, business
or occupation over the medium of the internet
enjoys constitutional protection under Article
19(1)(a) and Article 19(1)(g). The restriction
upon such fundamental rights should be in
consonance with the mandate under Articles
19 (2) and (6) of the Constitution, inclusive
of the test of proportionality. Any order
suspending internet services indefinitely
is impermissible under the Temporary
Suspension of Telecom Services (Public
Emergency or Public Service) Rules, 2017
and is subject to judicial review.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: In the case of
NALSA v UOI in 2014 (National Legal
Services Authority of India), Supreme Court
legally recognize persons who fall outside the
male/female gender binary, including persons
who identify as “third gender”. The Court held
that the right to equality was framed in gender-
neutral terms (all persons). Consequently, the
right to equality would extend to transgender
persons also.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched: In the
Shreya Singhal case of 2015, the apex
court held Section 66A of the Information
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Technology Act violated constitutional rights
under freedom of speech and expression. It
held that the said section is not a protection
from defamation as cap defamation targets a
specific person and as such, the law should not
be a blanket cover. The court thereafter held
the section in its entirety to be null and void.
In the Lily Thomas case, the Supreme Court
also held that if any sitting member of
Parliament or State Legislature is convicted
of any offence under Section 8, Representation
of People Act, 1951 (for offences of promoting
enmity between different groups, dowry,
etc.), then “by virtue of such conviction and/
or sentence” they will be disqualified. The
court added that a convicted parliamentarian
or legislator’s membership will no longer be
protected by Section 8 (4), as was previously
the case. Earlier, the said provision protects
convicted legislators from disqualification on
account of their appeals pending before the
higher courts.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: In the Suchita
Srivastava case, Supreme Court clearly said
(and even gave the reference to this judgment
in Puttuswamy as well) that women’s
right to make a reproductive choice is
also a dimension of “personal liberty” as
understood under Article 21.
54. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: The Disaster
Management Act (DMA), 2005 was passed
under the constitutional provision of “Social
Security and Social Insurance” in the
Concurrent List of the Constitution. Article
249 gives Parliament the power to legislate
concerning a subject enumerated in the State
List in the national interest. Parliament can
legislate on subjects that are enumerated under
the State List on three conditions when Rajya
Sabha passes the resolution, During a national
emergency, and when two or more states pass
a resolution requesting Parliament to legislate
on subjects under State List.
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Statement 2 is not correct: 42nd amendment
Act 1976 shifted below mentioned five subjects
from the State list to the Concurrent List
i.e. Education, Forests, Protection of wild
animals and birds, Weights and measures,
and Administration of justice, constitution and
organisation of all courts except the Supreme
Court and the High Courts.
Statement 3 is correct: The concept of
‘Concurrent List’ in the Constitution of India
has been borrowed from the Constitution
of Australia. Central Government and State
Government both can make laws on the
subjects mentioned under it. The subjects
covered under it include actionable wrongs,
bankruptcy and insolvency, trust and
trustees, administrators-general and official
trustees, etc.
55. (c)
Statement 1 is not correct: The Economic
Survey (ES) 2022-23 stated that the pandemic-
induced contraction of the global output,
followed by the Russian-Ukraine conflict led
to a worldwide surge in inflation. Then, the
central banks across economies led by the
Federal Reserve responded with synchronised
policy rate hikes to curb inflation. The
rate hike by the US Fed drove capital into
the US markets causing the US Dollar to
appreciate against most currencies. This
led to the widening of the Current Account
Deficits (CAD) and increased inflationary
pressures in net importing economies. The
challenge of the depreciating rupee, although
better performing than most other currencies,
persists with the likelihood of further increases
in policy rates by the US Fed.
Statement 2 is correct: The rate hike
and persistent inflation, the consequent
dampening of the global economic outlook,
compounded by expectations of a further
increase in borrowing costs, was reflected
in the lowering of growth forecasts from
3.2 % in 2022 to 2.7 % in 2023 by the IMF
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Full Syllabus [Test-9]
in its October 2022 update of the World
Economic Outlook (WEO). A slower growth
in economic output coupled with increased
uncertainty will dampen trade growth. This is
seen in the lower forecast for growth in global
trade by the World Trade Organisation, from
3.5 % in 2022 to 1.0 % in 2023.
Statement 3 is correct: In 2013, the US
Federal Reserve decided to reduce the quantum
of a bond-buying programme (known as
quantitative easing) it began in response to the
2007-2009 global financial crisis and recession
that led to a sudden sell-off in global bonds and
stocks. As a result, many emerging market
economies that received large capital inflows,
suffered currency depreciation and outflows
of capital. Eventually, that phase came to be
known as a ‘taper tantrum’. Hardening US
Treasury yields reduce the yield differential
with other countries’ bonds, making them
less attractive. In India, foreign institutional
investors (FIIs) withdrew money from both
bonds and equities, and the value of the rupee
dipped over 15 % between May 22 and August
30, 2013. Consequently, the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) had to raise interest rates to control
the outflows.
56. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The credit growth to
the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises
(MSME) sector has been remarkably high,
over 30.6 %, on average during Jan-Nov
2022, supported by the extended Emergency
Credit Linked Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS)
of the Union government. In FY21, the
Government announced the Emergency
Credit Line Guarantee Scheme. The scheme
has succeeded in shielding micro, small and
medium enterprises from financial distress.
Statement 2 is correct: The Capital
Expenditure (Capex) of the central
government, which increased by 63.4 % in
the first eight months of FY23, was another
growth driver of the Indian economy in the
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
current year, crowding in the private Capex
since the January-March quarter of 2022.
On the current trend, it appears that the full
year’s capital expenditure budget will be
met.
Statement 3 is not correct: Private
Consumption as a percentage of GDP
stood at 58.4 % in Q2 of FY23, the highest
among the second quarters of all the years
since 2013-14, supported by a rebound in
contact-intensive services such as trade, hotel
and transport, which registered sequential
growth of 16 % in real terms in Q2 of FY23
compared to the previous quarter. The uptick
in private consumption has also given a boost
to production activity resulting in an increase
in capacity utilisation across sectors. India’s
economic growth in FY23 has been principally
led by private consumption and capital
formation. It has helped generate employment
as seen in the declining urban unemployment
rate and the faster net registration in Employee
Provident Fund.
57. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The creation
58. (c)
of digital identities such as Aadhar,
registration of unorganised workers on the
eshram portal, street vendors on SVANidhi,
taxpaying firms on GSTN, and MSMEs on
the Udayam portal, has played a significant
role in the inclusion of these groups under
the formal economic net. Out of the 1.27
crore enterprises registered on the Udyam
Portal, more than 93,000 micro-enterprises
have grown to become small enterprises, and
10,000 small enterprises have become medium
enterprises over the last two years. Digital
systems such as the Goods and Services Tax
Network (GSTN) and e-Way Bill system
have enabled the formalisation of business
transactions. The increasing number of GST
taxpayers, from 70 lahks in 2017 to more than
1.4 crores in 2022, indicates the expansion in
formal businesses.
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Statement 2 is correct: Despite tax
rationalisation, a positive trend of higher
tax buoyancy is visible in the economy. The
positive GST revenue collection trends have
strengthened further despite the pandemic.
The average monthly gross GST collection
has increased from ₹0.90 lakh crore in FY18
to ₹1.49 lakh crore in FY23 suggesting that
the buoyancy of the indirect tax system
replaced by GST has improved in the post-
GST regime.
Statement 1 is correct: To protect the interest
of consumers in the real estate sector, the Real
Estate Regulation and Development Act,
2016, mentions that the promoter has to
make sure that 70% of the amounts realised
for the real estate project from the allottees,
shall be deposited in a separate account to
be maintained in a scheduled bank to cover
the cost of construction and the land cost and
shall be used only for that project which shall
be withdrawn to cover the cost of the project,
in proportion to the percentage of completion
of the project as certified by an engineer, an
architect and a chartered accountant in practice.
Statement 2 is not correct: According to the
Real Estate Regulation and Development
Act, the promoter must enter into a prior
written agreement for sale with the buyer to
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accept a sum of more than 10% of the cost of
the apartment, plot, or building, as an advance
payment or an application fee and register the
said agreement for sale.
Statement 3 is correct: The establishment of
the Real Estate Regulatory Authority in every
Indian state monitors as well as adjudicates and
arbitrates any disputes concerning real estate
projects in the concerned state.
59. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: When the central bank
buys the security, this agreement of purchase
also has specifications about the date and
price of the resale of this security. This type of
agreement is called a repurchase agreement
or repo. The interest rate at which the
Reserve Bank provides liquidity under the
liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) to all
LAF participants against the collateral of
government and other approved securities
is called Repo Rate. From June 2020 to April
2022, Repo Rate has been constant at 3.75%.
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
maintained a status quo on the policy repo
rate between May 2020 and February 2022
after implementing a 115 basis points (bps)
reduction between March 2020 and May 2020.
Statement 2 is correct: Instead of the outright
sale of securities the central bank may sell
the securities through an agreement which
has a specification about the date and price
at which it will be repurchased. This type
of agreement is called a reverse repurchase
agreement or reverse repo. Reverse Repo
© Copyright:  (23 – A)
Full Syllabus [Test-9]
Rate is the interest rate at which the Reserve
Bank absorbs liquidity from banks against
the collateral of eligible government securities
under the LAF. Following the introduction of
SDF, the fixed rate reverse repo operations will
be at the discretion of the RBI for purposes
specified from time to time.
An increase in the reverse repo rate will decrease
the money supply and vice-versa, with other
things remaining constant. An increase in the
reverse repo rate means that commercial banks
will get more incentives to park their funds
with the RBI, thereby decreasing the supply of
money in the market.
60. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: An integrated food
security scheme for providing free foodgrains
to Antodaya Ann Yojna (AAY) and Primary
Household (PHH) beneficiaries under the
name Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann
Yojana (PMGKAY) has been launched. Free
foodgrains will be provided under PMGKAY
for the year 2023 to all PHH and AAY
beneficiaries, as per entitlement under
NFSA.
The integrated scheme will strengthen
the provisions of NFSA, 2013 in terms of
accessibility, affordability and availability of
foodgrains for the poor.
For the effective and uniform implementation
of NFSA 2013, PMGKAY will subsume the
two subsidy schemes of the Department of
Food and Public Distribution
(a) Food Subsidy to the Food Corporation of
India
(b)
Food Subsidy for decentralized
procurement states dealing with
procurement, allocation and delivery of
free foodgrains to the states under NFSA.
Implementation of the new scheme has started
from 1st January 2023, benefitting more than
80 crores of poor and poorest of poor people.
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
Statement 2 is not correct: PM Garib
Kalyan Anna Yojana (PM-GKAY), started
during the difficult time of the COVID-19
crisis, has provided food security to the poor,
needy and vulnerable households/beneficiaries
so that they do not suffer on account of non-
availability of adequate foodgrains. Under this,
5 kg of food grain per person per month is
provided free of cost for all the beneficiaries
covered under the NFSA [Antodaya Anna
Yojana and Priority Households] including
those covered under Direct Benefit Transfer
(DBT).
Statement 3 is not correct: The program is
operated by the Department of Food and Public
Distribution under the Ministry of Consumer
Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
61. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: The Insolvency
and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) has facilitated
the exit of distressed firms, thereby allocating
scarce economic resources towards more
productive use. Corporate Insolvency
Resolution Process CIRP is the process
of resolving the corporate insolvency of
a corporate debtor in accordance with the
provisions of the Code. The minimum amount
of default for initiating CIRP was ₹ 1 lakh.
The Government in March 2020, increased the
minimum amount of default to ₹ 1 crore.
Statement 2 is correct: A corporate debtor
is a corporate person who owes a debt to any
person. The IBC provides for a Corporate
Debtor (CD) to voluntarily liquidate itself
subject to the fulfilment of certain conditions
as prescribed under the Code. 1,351 corporate
persons initiated voluntary liquidation under
the Code as of end-September 2022.
Statement 3 is not correct: Real Estate,
Renting and Business Activities account
for 60% of the pending cases under CIRP in
the Service Sector. Sectoral analysis reveals
that 52% of the ongoing CIRPs belong to the
industry, followed by 37% in the services
sector by September 2022.
© Copyright:  (24 – A)
62. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Banks create a pool
of funds to cover NPAs and Potential NPAs
and these funds are classified as Provisions.
Provision Coverage ratio (PCR) refers to
the percentage of funds created against
the NPAs, a higher PCR reflects bank has
sufficient capital to withstand asset quality
pressures and will not need significant
incremental capital in case of extreme stress.
Statement 2 is not correct: As per RBI, banks
should augment their provisioning cushions
consisting of specific provisions against NPAs
as well as floating provisions, and ensure
that their total provisioning coverage ratio,
including floating provisions, is not less than
70%.
Statement 3 is correct: The three banks, State
Bank of India, ICICI Bank, and HDFC Bank
named as Domestic Systemically Important
Banks (D-SIBs) have maintained a PCR of
over 70% in 2022, with SBI maintaining 75%,
HDFC Bank Maintaining 73% and ICICI Bank
maintaining 79.2%. D-SIBs are subjected to
differentiated supervisory requirements and
higher intensity of supervision based on the
risks they pose to the financial system. RBI
place these banks in appropriate buckets
depending on their Systemic Importance
Scores (SISs). Based on the bucket in which a
D-SIB is placed, an additional common equity
requirement has to be applied to it. The RBI
categorises five such buckets with Additional
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 Full Syllabus [Test-9]

Common Equity Tier 1 requirements as a out of which GST accounts for 17%, Customs
percentage of Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs) 4% and Union Excise Duty accounts for 7%,
ranging from 0.20 to 1%. SBI has been and Direct taxes account for 30% of total
placed in bucket 3 with the requirement receipts which are Corporation Tax (accounts
of 0.60% while the other two are placed for 15%) and Income Tax (for 15%).
under bucket 1 with 0.20% requirement Statement 2 is correct: Borrowings and
of Additional CET 1 requirements. With a Other liabilities contribute to 34% of the
shrinking Gross Non-Performing Assets ratio total receipts i.e. Rs 17.86 lakh crore. Non-tax
(GNPA), the PCR has increased steadily since Receipts contribute 6%, and Non-Debt Capital
March 2021 and reached 71.6 % in September Receipts are 2%.
2022.
63. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Marginal
Standing Facility (MSF) Rate is the penal
rate at which banks can borrow, on an overnight
basis, from the Reserve Bank by dipping into
their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio
up to a predefined limit (2 %). This provides
a safety valve against unanticipated liquidity
shocks to the banking system. The MSF rate Statement 3 is correct: Interest payments
is placed at 25 basis points above the policy account for 20% of the total expenditure
which amounts to Rs 10.7 lakh crore, the
repo rate.
highest expenditure incurred of all categories.
Statement 2 is correct: Standing Deposit
Facility is the rate at which the Reserve Bank
accepts non collateralized deposits, on an
overnight basis, from all LAF participants.
The SDF is also a financial stability tool in
addition to its role in liquidity management.
The SDF rate is placed at 25 basis points below
the policy repo rate. With the introduction
of SDF in April 2022, the SDF rate replaced
the fixed reverse repo rate as the floor of the
LAF corridor. In 2018, the amended Section
17 of the RBI Act empowered the Reserve 65. (a)
Bank to introduce the SDF. By removing the Statement 1 is correct: Fiscal deficit is the
binding collateral constraint on the RBI, the difference between the government’s total
SDF strengthens the operating framework expenditure and its total receipts excluding
of monetary policy. borrowing. The fiscal deficit will have to
be financed through borrowing. Thus, it
64. (b) indicates the total borrowing requirements
Statement 1 is not correct: Receipts consist of the government from all sources. Out of
of Revenue Receipts and Capital Receipts. the total fiscal deficit of Rs 17.86 lakh crore
Revenue Receipts are further divided into in the Budget 2023-24, nearly Rs 12.30 crore
tax and non-tax receipts. Indirect Taxes debt is raised by issuing government securities
contribute to only 28% of the total receipts, and treasury bills.

© Copyright:  (25 – A) www.nextias.com

PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
Statement 2 is not correct: India’s external
debt, at US$ 620.7 billion as of end-March
2022, grew by 8.2 % over US$ 573.7 billion
as of end-March 2021. While 53.2 % of it
was denominated in the US dollar, Indian
rupee-denominated debt, estimated at 31.2
%, was the second largest. External debt as
a ratio to GDP fell marginally to 19.9 % as
of end-March 2022 from 21.2 % a year ago.
External debt can be raised to finance the fiscal
deficit and 1.2% of the fiscal deficit is to be
financed by raising external debts according to
the Budget 2023-24.
Statement 3 is not correct: Market
borrowings increased between the period
2016-17 to 2020-21. But, in 2021-22 it
dipped to Rs 814567 crores according to the
Actual Estimates presented during Budget
2023-24. The Revised Estimates for 2022-
23 have shown an increase to Rs 1195866
crores. Hence, it cannot be said that market
borrowings have increased in the past five
financial years.
66. (d)
The Department of Personnel and Training
(DoPT) has two main roles. Firstly, it acts
as a formulator of policy and a watchdog
of the government to ensure that certain
accepted standards and norms are followed
by all Ministries/Departments in recruitment,
regulation of service conditions, posting/
transfers, a deputation of personnel as well
as other related issues. Secondly, it has the
direct responsibility of being the cadre
controlling authority for the IAS and the
three Secretariat Services in the Central
Secretariat.
© Copyright:  (26 – A)
Statement 1 is correct: The DoPT operates the
Central Staffing Scheme under which suitable
officers from All India Services and Group ‘A’
Central Services are selected and then placed
in posts at the level of Deputy Secretary/
Director and Joint Secretary, based on tenure
deputation. The Department also deals with
cases of appointment to posts of Chairman,
Managing Director, and full-time Member of
the Board of Management of various Public
Sector Undertakings, Corporations, Banks,
and financial institutions.
Statement 2 is correct: The Services and
Vigilance Division of DoPT deal with Rules
on all the service matters in respect of All
India Services, Disciplinary cases against IAS
Officers for offences committed while working
at the Centre, All Financial and Administrative
matters concerning the Central Vigilance
Commission, Legislation/administration of
the Prevention of Corruption Act 1988,
Central Lokpal Legislation and matters
related therewith, etc.
Statement 3 is correct: The two organizations
through which the DoPT ensures the
recruitment of personnel for the Government
are the Union Public Service Commission
(UPSC) and the Staff Selection Commission
(SSC). There is a mandatory provision for
consulting the UPSC on all matters relating
to methods of recruitment, principles to be
followed in making promotions and transfers
from one service to another, and all disciplinary
matters.
67. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Article 345 of the
Constitution states that the Legislature of
a State may adopt any one or more of the
languages in use in the State or Hindi as the
language or languages to be used for all or
any of the official purposes of that State by
making a law on the same.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Eighth
Schedule to the Constitution consists of 22
languages of which 14 were initially included
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in the Constitution. The Sindhi language
was added in 1967. Thereafter three more
languages Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali
were included in 1992. Subsequently, Bodo,
Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added in
2004.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 344 of
the Constitution states that the President
establishes a Commission and Committee
on Official Language, which are responsible
for promoting the use of Hindi as the official
language of the Union and for considering
matters related to the language’s use.
The Commission is tasked with making
recommendations to the President on the
progressive use of Hindi for official purposes
and on the use of English and other languages
for official purposes.
68. (c)
Option (c) is correct: The Union Public
Service Commission (UPSC) consists of a
chairman and other members appointed
by the President of India. The Constitution
authorizes the President to determine the
conditions of service of the chairman and other
members of the Commission. The term of
office for both is six years or until they attain
the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
In the Constitution, violation of provisions
of the Constitution as a ground for removal
of the members or president of UPSC is not
mentioned.
As per Article 317 of the Constitution, the
President may by order remove from office the
Chairman or any other member if s/he is
• adjudged an insolvent,
• engages during his term of office in any
paid employment outside the duties of his
office or
• is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to
continue in office because of the infirmity
of mind or body.
They can also be removed by order of the
President on the ground of misbehaviour
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Full Syllabus [Test-9]
mentioned in Article 317. However, in this
case, the president has to refer the matter to the
Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme
Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause
of removal and advises so, the president can
remove the chairman or a member.
69. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: A person cannot
be elected as Vice-President unless he is a
citizen of India, he has completed the age of
35 years, and he is qualified for election as
a member of the Council of States (Rajya
Sabha). A person is not also eligible if he holds
any office of profit under the Government of
India or a State Government or any subordinate
local authority. The Vice-President shall be ex
officio Chairman of the Council of the States.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Vice-President
shall be elected by the members of an electoral
college consisting of all the members of both
Houses of Parliament following the system
of proportional representation using the
single transferable vote and the voting at such
election shall be by secret ballot.
Statement 3 is correct: All doubts and
disputes arising in connection with the election
of the Vice-President are enquired into and
decided by the Supreme Court of India
whose decision is final. A petition challenging
the election of the Vice-President is heard by
a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court of
India.
70. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court
has held that any decision of a tribunal
(inclusive of one passed under S. 25 of the
Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985) can
only be scrutinized by a High Court which
has territorial jurisdiction over the tribunal
in question. All decisions of tribunals created
under Article 323A and of the Constitution
will be subject to scrutiny before a
Division Bench of the High Court. Recently
prohibiting construction work at Rushikonda
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hills in Visakhapatnam, the Supreme Court
said the NGT is subordinate to the High
Court insofar as territorial jurisdiction is
concerned. The top court said that conflicting
orders passed by NGT and High Court could
lead to an anomalous situation, and the
authorities would be faced with difficulty as to
which orders they are required to follow.
Statement 2 is correct: The Swaran Singh
Committee (1976) noted that the High Courts
were burdened with service cases by public
servants. It recommended setting up:
(i) administrative tribunals (both at the
national level and state level) to adjudicate
on matters related to service conditions,
(ii) an all-India Appellate Tribunal for
matters from labour courts and industrial
tribunals, and
(iii) tribunals for deciding matters related to
various sectors (such as revenue, land
reforms, and essential commodities).
It further recommended that the decisions of
the tribunals should be subject to scrutiny by
the Supreme Court.
Statement 3 is correct: According to the
Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021, the Chairperson
and the Member of a Tribunal except for
State Administrative Tribunals shall be
appointed by the Central Government on the
recommendation of a Search-cum-Selection
Committee headed by the Chairperson, who
shall be the Chief Justice of India or a Judge
of Supreme Court nominated by him and
shall have the casting vote.
• two Members to be nominated
Government of India who are Secretaries;
• one Member as
ŠŠ outgoing Chairperson of the
Tribunal, in case of appointment of
a Chairperson of a Tribunal; or
ŠŠ sitting Chairperson of the Tribunal,
in case of appointment of a Member
of a Tribunal; or
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ŠŠ retired Judge of the Supreme Court
or a retired Chief Justice of a High
Court nominated by the Chief
Justice of India, in case of the
Chairperson of the Tribunal seeking
re-appointment.
• Secretary to the Government of India in
the Ministry or Department under which
the Tribunal is constituted or established
shall be the Member-Secretary without
any vote.
71. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: The 42nd
Amendment Act of 1976 added four new
subjects that required the State to secure the
healthy development of children (Article 39),
to promote equal justice, and to provide free
legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A), to secure
the participation of workers in the management
of industries (Article 43 A), to protect the
environment, forests, and wildlife (Article
48A).
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added
Article 38 which required the State to minimize
inequalities in income, status, facilities, and
opportunities.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 39A of the
Constitution of India provides free legal aid
to the poor and weaker sections of society and
ensures justice for all. In the year 1987, the
Legal Services Authorities Act was enacted
by the Parliament which came into force on
9th November 1995 to establish a nationwide
uniform network for providing free and
competent legal services to the weaker sections
of society based on equal opportunity.
72. (a)
Statement 1 is not correct: Lokpal
is established under the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act 2013 to inquire and
investigate allegations of corruption against
public functionaries who fall within the
scope and ambit of this Act. The body of
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Lokpal consists of a Chairperson with a
maximum of eight members of which 50%
shall be judicial members.
Statement 2 is correct: The administrative
expenses of the Lokpal, including all salaries,
allowances and pensions payable to or in respect
of the Chairperson, Members or Secretary or
other officers or staff of the Lokpal, shall be
charged upon the Consolidated Fund of
India and any fees or other money taken by
the Lokpal shall form part of that Fund.
Statement 3 is not correct: The Chairperson
and Members of Lokpal are appointed
by the President after obtaining the
recommendations of a Selection Committee
consisting of the Prime Minister who is
the Chairperson of this committee and the
members including the Speaker of the House
of the People, the Leader of Opposition in
the House of the People, the Chief Justice
of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court
nominated by him, one eminent jurist,
as recommended by the Chairperson and
Members who is nominated by the President.
73. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: There is no court fee
payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat.
If a matter pending in the court of law is
referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled
subsequently, the court fee originally paid
in the court on the complaints/petition is also
refunded back to the parties.
Statement 2 is correct: Lok Adalat is a
Statutory Organization under the Legal
Services Authorities Act, 1987, and was
created as an alternative dispute resolution
mechanism forum where disputes/cases
pending in the court of law or at the pre-
litigation stage are settled. Lok Adalats are
constituted at the National, State, District,
and Taluk levels via National Legal Service
Authority, State Legal Service Authority,
District Legel Service Authority, and Taluk
level Service Authority.
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Full Syllabus [Test-9]
Statement 3 is correct: The award (decision)
made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a
decree of a civil court and is final and binding
on all parties and no appeal against such an
award lies before any court of law. If the
parties are not satisfied with the award of
the Lok Adalat though there is no provision
for an appeal against such an award, they
are free to initiate litigation by approaching
the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing
a case by following the required procedure, in
the exercise of their right to litigate. The Lok
Adalat does not decide the matter so referred
at its own instance, instead the same would be
decided based on the compromise or settlement
between the parties.
Statement 4 is correct: The persons deciding
the cases in the Lok Adalats are called the
Members of the Lok Adalats, they have the
role of statutory conciliators only and do not
have any judicial role, therefore they can only
persuade the parties to conclude settling the
dispute outside the court in the Lok Adalat and
shall not pressurize or coerce any of the parties
to compromise or settle cases or matters either
directly or indirectly.
74. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Article 80(4)
provides that the representatives of each
State in the Council of States shall be
elected by the elected members of the State
Legislative Assemblies following the system
of proportional representation by means of the
single transferable vote. The members of the
council do not participate in the election of
the representatives of the state in the Rajya
Sabha.
Statement 2 is not correct: Article 169
talks about the creation or abolition of the
Legislative Council. For the creation or
abolition of the Legislative Council, the
Legislative Assembly must pass a resolution
that must be supported by a majority of
the total membership of the Assembly and
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
by a majority of not less than two-thirds of
the members of the Assembly present and
voting.
Statement 3 is correct: The state legislature
consists of the governor and the legislative
assembly and wherever there is a legislative
council, it also forms part of the state
legislature. As per Article 171 The total
number of members in the Legislative Council
of a State having such a Council shall not
exceed one-third of the total number of
members in the Legislative Assembly of
that State, provided that the total number of
members in the Legislative Council of a State
shall in no case be less than forty.
75. (c)
Statement 1 is not correct: Ordinarily, no
appeal from the final decision or orders of the
Armed Forces Tribunal can be challenged
before the High Courts. Recently, this has
been reiterated by the Delhi High Court. There
is no provision under the Armed Forces
Tribunal Act for an appeal against any such
final decision or order of the AFT before any
other forum like the High Courts. According
to the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, all final
decisions of AFT can solely be challenged
before the Supreme Court. The scope of an
appeal to the High Courts is limited and
restricted to the power of judicial review
which is to be exercised for the correction of
jurisdiction, etc.
Statement 2 is correct: The Armed Forces
Tribunal shall exercise all the jurisdiction,
powers, and authority exercisable under the
Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 concerning
an appeal against any order, decision, finding,
or sentence passed by a court martial or any
matter connected therewith or incidental
thereto. For the purposes of jurisdiction and
powers, the Tribunal is deemed to be a criminal
court.
Statement 3 is correct: The Tribunal may have
the powers to substitute for the findings of the
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court-martial, a finding of guilty for any other
offence for which the offender could have been
lawfully found guilty by the court martial and
pass a sentence afresh for the offence specified
or involved in such findings or if the sentence
is found to be excessive, illegal or unjust, the
Tribunal may
(i) remit the whole or any part of the
sentence, with or without conditions;
(ii) mitigate the punishment awarded
(iii) commute such punishment to any lesser
punishment or enhance the sentence
awarded by a court martial.
The Tribunal may release the appellant, if
sentenced to imprisonment, on parole with or
without conditions.
76. (a)
Option (a) is correct: The Global
Environment Facility (GEF), was established
on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit, as
a pilot program for the protection of the global
environment and to promote environmentally
sound and sustainable economic development.
It is a financial mechanism that provides
grant funds to developing countries for
projects and activities that aim to protect
the global environment. GEF resources are
available for projects that address the six
designated focal areas of biodiversity, climate
change, international waters, ozone depletion,
land degradation, primarily desertification,
deforestation and persistent organic pollutants.
The GEF provides funding to assist
developing countries in meeting the
objectives of international environmental
conventions. The GEF serves as a “financial
mechanism” to five conventions:
• Convention on Biological Diversity
(CBD),
• United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change (UNFCCC),
• Stockholm Convention on Persistent
Organic Pollutants (POPs),
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• UN Convention to Combat
Desertification (UNCCD), and
• Minamata Convention on Mercury.
77. (d)
Option (d) is correct: Indicator species are
living organisms that tell us that something
has changed or is going to change in their
environment. They can be easily observed, and
studying them is considered a cost-effective
way to predict changes in an ecosystem. These
species are also known as bioindicators.
These organisms interact with the environment
in ways that make them highly sensitive to any
changes. A few examples are:
• Lichen
• Spotted Owl
• Mayflies
• Salmon
• Marsh Periwinkles
• River Otters
• Salamanders
• E. Coli
• Bats
78. (b)
Option (b) is correct: The Green India
Mission (GIM) is one of the eight missions
under the National Action Plan on Climate
Change (NAPCC). It aims to respond to
climate change by a combination of adaptation
and mitigation measures, which would help:
• enhance carbon sinks
• adapt vulnerable species/ecosystems to the
changing climate
• adaptation of forest-dependant
communities
It is a Centrally Sponsored scheme with the
following sub-components:
• Enhancing quality of forest cover and
improving ecosystem services
• Ecosystem restoration and increase forest
cover
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Full Syllabus [Test-9]
• Enhancing tree cover in Urban and Peri-
urban areas
• Agro-Forestry and Social Forestry
• Restoration of wetlands
79. (b)
Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Provisioning
Services are the material benefits people derive
from ecosystems, e.g. supply of food, water,
fibres, wood and fuels.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Regulating
Services are the benefits obtained from the
regulation of ecosystem processes, e.g. the
regulation of air quality and soil fertility,
control of floods or crop pollination.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Supporting
Services are necessary for the production of
all other ecosystem services, e.g. by providing
plants and animals with living spaces, allowing
for a diversity of species, and maintaining
genetic diversity.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: Cultural
Services are non-material benefits people gain
from ecosystems, e.g. aesthetic and engineering
inspiration, cultural identity, tourism and
spiritual well-being.
80. (a)
Option (a) is correct: The Nilgiri Tahr is
the only mountain ungulate in southern India
amongst the 12 species present in India. It is
also the state animal of Tamil Nadu. The Nilgiri
tahr, which used to be found along the entire
stretch of Western Ghats, is presently found
only in small fragmented pockets. A large part
of its population has been wiped out from its
historical range. The existing populations are
under severe stress due to habitat loss and
hunting.
The lion-tailed macaque is an old-world
monkey, named due to its lion-like, long, thin
and tufted tail. It is one of the smallest macaque
species in the world. The natural range of this
species is restricted to the Western Ghats
Mountains, located in the southwestern part
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
of India. The preferred habitat of the Lion-
tailed macaques is broad-leaf trees, growing
in monsoon forests as well as evergreen and
semi-evergreen rainforests.
The Red Panda is a small arboreal mammal
found in the forests of India, Nepal, Bhutan,
and the northern mountains of Myanmar
and southern China. It thrives best at 2,200-
4,800m in mixed deciduous and conifer
forests with dense understories of bamboo.
In India, this elusive species is found in
Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Darjeeling and
Kalimpong districts of West Bengal. It is the
state animal of Sikkim.
Hoolock Gibbons are the only apes found in
India. The western hoolock gibbon has a much
wider range, as it is found in all the states of the
northeast, restricted between the south of the
Brahmaputra river and east of the Dibang
river. The eastern hoolock gibbon inhabits
specific pockets of Arunachal Pradesh and
Assam in India, southern China and north-
east Myanmar.
81. (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The Intergovernmental
Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) is an
international body for assessing the science
related to climate change. It was created
in 1988 by the World Meteorological
Organization (WMO) and the United
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
It is an organization of governments that are
members of the United Nations or WMO. The
IPCC currently has 195 members.
Statement 2 is not correct: IPCC assessments
provide a scientific basis for governments at
all levels to develop climate-related policies,
and they underlie negotiations at the United
Nations Framework Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC). The assessments are
policy-relevant but not policy prescriptive:
they may present projections of future climate
change based on different scenarios and the
risks that climate change poses and discuss
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the implications of response options, but they
do not tell policymakers what actions to take.
The IPCC works by assessing published
literature. It does not conduct its own
scientific research. For all findings, author
teams use defined language to characterize their
degree of certainty in assessment conclusions.
Statement 3 is correct: The IPCC along with
US Vice-President Al Gore Jr. was awarded
the Nobel Peace Prize in 2007 for their
efforts to build up and disseminate greater
knowledge about man-made climate change,
and to lay the foundations for the measures
that are needed to counteract such change The
prize was awarded at the end of the year which
saw the IPCC bring out its Fourth Assessment
Report (AR4).
82. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: Ocean
Acidification refers to the phenomenon in
which the pH level of the ocean around the
world reduces from its pre-industrial level
(not necessarily below 6). pH is the measure
of the acidity or basicity of a liquid solution.
A solution with a pH lower than 7 is acidic,
while a solution with a pH greater than 7 is
basic. The ocean is slightly basic. Before the
Industrial Revolution, the average ocean pH
was about 8.2. Today, the average ocean pH
is about 8.1. Each decrease of one pH unit
is a ten-fold increase in acidity. This means
that the acidity of the ocean today, on average,
is about 30% greater than it was during pre-
industrial times.
Statement 2 is not correct: A solution’s pH
represents the concentration of hydrogen
ions (H+) and hydroxyl ions (OH-) on a
scale of 0 to 14. For marine ecosystems, ocean
acidification presents a two-fold challenge:
higher acidity due to higher free hydrogen
ions and lower availability of carbonate
ions. Calcifying organisms – such as oysters,
crabs, sea urchins, lobsters and coral – need
carbonate ions to build and maintain their shells
and skeletons. Marine shells and skeletons may
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dissolve more easily as pH decreases. Energy
spent by marine organisms overcoming more
acidic conditions may reduce the energy
available for physiological processes, such
as reproduction and growth, threatening the
stability of food chains that would affect the
ecosystem resilience and economic activities,
such as fisheries and tourism.
83. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The Adaptation
Fund was established in 2001 to finance
concrete adaptation projects and programmes
in developing countries Parties to the Kyoto
Protocol that are particularly vulnerable to
the adverse effects of climate change. Parties
also decided that once the share of proceeds
becomes available under the Paris Agreement,
the Adaptation Fund shall no longer serve the
Kyoto Protocol.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Fund is
not wholly dependent on contributions of
funding from developed countries. The
Adaptation Fund was initially financed with
the share of proceeds amounting to two % of
certified emission reductions (CERs) issued
from activities under the clean development
mechanism (CDM) of the Kyoto Protocol,
and other sources of funding.Voluntary
contributions from government and private
donors represent an increasing share of the
Fund’s resources.
Statement 3 is not correct: The World Bank
is the Trustee of the Adaptation Fund on an
interim basis. On behalf of the Fund, the World
Bank performs two core functions. It sells the
Certified Emission Reduction certificates that
support the fund and manages the Adaptation
Fund Trust.
84. (c)
Option (c) is correct: The Dobson Unit is
the most common unit for measuring ozone
concentration in the atmosphere.
• One Dobson Unit is the number of molecules
of ozone that would be required to create a
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Full Syllabus [Test-9]
layer of pure ozone 0.01 millimetres thick
at a temperature of 0 degrees Celsius and a
pressure of 1 atmosphere.
• A column of air with an ozone concentration
of 1 Dobson Unit would contain about
2.69x1016 ozone molecules for every
square centimetre of the area at the base of
the column.
• Over the Earth’s surface, the ozone layer’s
average thickness is about 300 Dobson
Units or a layer that is 3 millimetres thick.
85. (c)
Option (c) is correct: The given phrase is
the most appropriate description of the
Mangrove forests.
• Mangroves are a group of trees and shrubs
that live in the coastal intertidal zone.
• These trees grow in areas with low-oxygen
soil, where slow-moving waters allow fine
sediments to accumulate.
• They dominate coastlines in tropical and
subtropical regions because they cannot
withstand freezing temperatures.
• They serve as a buffer between marine
and terrestrial communities and protect
shorelines from damaging winds, waves,
and floods.
• Mangrove thickets improve water quality
by filtering pollutants and trapping
sediments from the land, and they reduce
coastal erosion.
• They provide habitat for a diverse array
of terrestrial organisms, and many species
of coastal and offshore fish and shellfish
rely exclusively on mangroves as their
breeding, spawning, and hatching grounds.
• Because of their high salt tolerance,
mangroves are often among the first species
to colonize mud and sandbanks flooded by
seawater.
86. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: Pygmy hog is
the world’s rarest and smallest wild pig.
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It is classified as Endangered by the IUCN
and is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife
(Protection) Act of 1972. It is one of the very
few mammals that build its own home, or nest,
complete with a ‘roof’. It feeds primarily on
roots, tubers and other vegetative food as well
as insects, eggs, birds and reptiles.
Statement 2 is correct: They live in tall,
dense and wet grasslands that have a mixture
of shrubs and trees. This species once occupied
parts of India, Bhutan and Nepal, however
today they are restricted to northwest Assam
in India. Their decline is believed to be caused
by the elimination of their habitat through
human settlement, overgrazing of livestock,
commercial forestry, flood control projects
and agricultural encroachment. It is, at present,
found only in the reserve forest belts of the
Manas Wildlife Sanctuary and the Barnadi
Wildlife Sanctuary in northwestern Assam,
India.
Statement 3 is correct: It is also an indicator
species. Its presence reflects the health of its
primary habitat, the tall, wet grasslands of the
region.
87. (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Montreal Protocol
on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer
is an international agreement signed under
the Vienna Convention for the protection of
the ozone layer in 1987. It aimed to cut down
99% of all ozone-depleting substances. It was
a product of the recognition and international
consensus that ozone depletion is a global
problem, both in terms of its causes and its
effects.
Statement 2 is correct: The Vienna
Convention was the first convention of any
kind to be signed by every country involved,
taking effect in 1988 and reaching universal
ratification in 2009. Adopted on 16 September
1987, the Montreal Protocol is to date one
of the rare treaties to achieve universal
ratification. One hundred and ninety-seven
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U.N. member states adopted the Montreal
Protocol, making it the only U.N. treaty
ratified by every country on the planet. It
provided a set of practical, actionable tasks that
were universally agreed on. India, a Party to
the Montreal Protocol since June 1992, has
been successfully implementing the Montreal
Protocol and projects and activities for phasing
out of ozone-depleting substances, in line with
the phase-out schedule of the Protocol.
Statement 3 is not correct:
Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) are
being phased out under the Montreal
Protocol since they deplete the ozone layer.
HCFCs are both Ozone Depleting Substances
(ODS) and powerful greenhouse gases.
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) were introduced
as non-ozone-depleting alternatives to support
the timely phase-out of Chlorofluorocarbons
(CFCs) and HCFCs. While these chemicals
do not deplete the stratospheric ozone layer,
some of them have high Global Warming
Potentials (GWPs) ranging from 12 to 14,000.
The Kigali Amendment of 2016 agreed to add
HFCs to the list of controlled substances
and approved a timeline for their gradual
reduction by 80-85 per cent by the late 2040s.
88. (a)
Option (a) is correct: India is a Party to
the United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change, its Kyoto Protocol and
Paris Agreement. Under the Paris Agreement
in 2015, India submitted its first Nationally
Determined Contribution (NDC) balancing
the concerns and priorities of climate change,
sustainable development including poverty
eradication, and economic growth of the
country. In August 2022, India updated its
NDC for the period up to 2030 as under:
• To put forward and further propagate a
healthy and sustainable way of living based
on traditions and values of conservation
and moderation, including through a
mass movement for ‘LIFE’– ‘Lifestyle
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for Environment’ as a key to combating
climate change
• To adopt a climate-friendly and cleaner
path than the one followed hitherto by
others at the corresponding level of
economic development.
• To reduce the Emissions Intensity of its
GDP by 45 % by 2030, from the 2005
level
• To achieve about 50 % cumulative
electric power installed capacity from
non-fossil fuel-based energy resources
by 2030, with the help of the transfer of
technology and low-cost international
finance including from the Green
Climate Fund (GCF)
• To create an additional carbon sink of
2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent
through additional forest and tree cover by
2030.
• To better adapt to climate change by
enhancing investments in development
programmes in sectors vulnerable to
climate change, particularly agriculture,
water resources, the Himalayan region,
coastal regions, and health and disaster
management.
• To mobilize domestic and new &
additional funds from developed countries
to implement the above mitigation and
adaptation actions in view of the resource
required and the resource gap.
• To build capacities, and create a domestic
framework and international architecture
for quick diffusion of cutting-edge
climate technology in India and for
joint collaborative R&D for such future
technologies.
India’s vision is to achieve Net Zero Emissions
by 2070, in addition to attaining the short-term
targets including 500 GW of non-fossil fuel-
based electricity installed capacity by 2030,
so that cleaner fuel comprises 50% of the
installed capacity mix by 2030.
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Full Syllabus [Test-9]
89. (d)
Option (d) is correct: The United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP),
established in 1972, is the leading global
environmental authority that sets the
global environmental agenda, promotes the
coherent implementation of the environmental
dimension of sustainable development within
the United Nations system, and serves as
an authoritative advocate for the global
environment. The work of UNEP is structured
around seven broad thematic areas: climate
change, disasters and conflicts, ecosystem
management, environmental governance,
chemicals and waste, resource efficiency, and
the environment under review.
The Multilateral Environment Agreements
under UNEP are:
• Minamata Convention on Mercury
• Vienna Convention on the protection of
the ozone layer
• Convention on Long-range Transboundary
Air Pollution
• Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species (CITES)
• United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC)
• Convention on Biological Diversity
• Stockholm Convention on Persistent
Organic Pollutants
• Rotterdam Convention on hazardous
chemicals in international trade
• Basel Convention on the control of the
transboundary movement of hazardous
wastes.
90. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Petroleum coke
(abbreviated petcoke) is a carbonaceous Solid
Fuel delivered from refinery coker units or
other cracking processes. It is typically used
as a source of energy or fuel in cement, lime
kilns, industrial boilers, etc, or as a source of
carbon for industrial applications.
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
Statement 2 is not correct: Petcoke is a direct
replacement of coal as a fuel but has a higher
calorific value (> 7800 Kcal/Kg as compared
to 3500-4500 Kcal/Kg for coal). Though it
has a higher calorific value, it has high carbon
content. Therefore, when it does combust it
releases up to 10% more carbon dioxide
per unit of energy than normal coal. Increased
pollution controls are required during petcoke
combustion to capture the excess sulphur found
in low-grade petcoke.
Statement 3 is correct: Petroleum coke is a
highly stable product which is non-reactive
in ambient conditions. Therefore, there is little
risk of combustion during transportation.
Petcoke is hydrophobic as compared to
coal which is hydrophilic, thereby having
an edge during the rainy season. Being
solid fuel, Petcoke has low volatile matter
thus no evaporation losses. Helps save on
transportation costs due to higher density
compared to liquid fuels. It also has a Low
ash content.
91. (b)
Option (b) is correct: Gobind Ballabh Pant
Sagar located in the Sonbhadra district of
Uttar Pradesh, is the largest man-made lake
in India. It is India’s largest artificial lake and
the largest reservoir by volume.
Dhebar Lake, which is also called Jaisamand
Lake and is located in the Udaipur district of
Rajasthan, is the second biggest man-made
lake.
Sudarshan Lake in Gujarat is the oldest
man-made lake in India. This lake belongs to
the period of the Maurya Dynasty dating back
to 300 BC and it is situated in the Girnar area
of Saurashtra, Gujarat.
The largest freshwater lake in India is
Wular Lake (also coined as Wullar). It is also
one of the largest freshwater lakes in Asia.
Wular Lake is located in the Bandipora district
of Jammu and Kashmir, India. Tectonic
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activity has formed the lake basin and it is fed
by the Jhelum River.
92. (c)
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Teesta River
originates from the Tso Lhamo Lake at
an elevation of about 5280 m in the North
Sikkim district. It is the right bank tributary
of the Brahmaputra river system.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The
Bhagirathi River originates from Gaumukh
Glacier and flows about 193 km before
merging with Alaknanda to form River Ganga
at Devprayag. It lies in the Garhwal region and
is 205 km long. The River Alaknanda rises
at the confluence and is fed by Satopath and
Bhagirathi Kharak glaciers in Uttarakhand
and meets the Sarasvati River tributary at
Mana.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The river Son is
an important right-bank tributary of the river
Ganga. It originates from the Amarkantak
highlands in the hills of the Maikala range in
the Bilaspur district of Chhattisgarh.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: The river Chenab
(or Chandra Bhaga) is formed after the two
streams the Chandra and the Bhaga merge
with each other. The Chandra and the Bhaga
originate from the southwest and northwest
faces of the Baralacha pass respectively in the
Himalayan canton of Lahaul and Spiti valley
in Himachal Pradesh.
93. (d)
Option (d) is correct: The following factors
influence the amount of insolation received on
the earth’s surface:
• The angle of incidence: The angle
formed by the sun’s ray with the tangent
of the earth’s circle at a point is called
the angle of incidence. When the angle of
incidence is large the rays are concentrated
in a smaller area, giving more amount of
insolation at that place. Whereas if the sun’s
rays are oblique, the angle of incidence
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is small and the sun’s rays have to heat a
greater area, resulting in less amount of
insolation received there.
• The sun’s rays, with a small angle, traverse
more of the atmosphere, than rays striking
at a large angle. Longer the path of the sun’s
rays, the greater the amount of reflection
and absorption of heat by the atmosphere.
As a result, the intensity of insolation at a
place is less.
• Duration of the day (daily sunlight
period): The longer the duration of the
day, the greater the amount of insolation
received by the earth’s surface.
• Transparency of the atmosphere: It
determines the amount of insolation
reaching the earth’s surface depending
upon cloud cover, its thickness, dust
particles and water vapour, as they reflect,
absorb or transmit insolation. Thick
clouds hinder the insolation to reach the
earth while a clear sky helps it to reach the
surface. Water vapour absorbs insolation,
resulting in less amount of insolation
reaching the surface.
94. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Insolation reaches
the earth’s surface in short waves and heat
is radiated from the earth in long waves.
The atmosphere is transparent to short
waves and opaque to long waves. Hence
energy leaving the earth’s surface i.e. terrestrial
radiation heats the atmosphere more than the
incoming solar radiation i.e. insolation.
Statement 2 is correct: In conduction, the
heat energy flow continues till the temperature
of both objects becomes equal or the contact is
broken. Thus, conduction in the atmosphere
occurs at the zone of contact between the
atmosphere and the earth’s surface.
Statement 3 is not correct: Long winter
nights, clear sky, dry air and absence of
winds lead to quick radiation of heat from
the earth’s surface, as well as from the lower
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Full Syllabus [Test-9]
layers of the atmosphere which results in the
cooling of the air near the earth’s surface
causing inversion of temperature. The upper
layers which lose their heat not so quickly
are comparatively warm. Hence the normal
condition in which temperature decreases with
increasing height is reversed. The cooler air
is nearer the earth and the warmer air is
aloft. In other words, temperature increases
with increasing height temporarily or locally.
This phenomenon is termed an inversion of
temperature.
95. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Torrid zone is situated
between the Tropic of Cancer (23½°N) and
the Tropic of Capricorn (23½0 South). The
sun’s rays are almost vertical throughout the
year in this zone.
Statement 2 is not correct: Torrid zone is
the largest of the thermal zones and not the
Temperate zone. It covers almost half the area
of the earth’s surface. The temperate zones
are on either side of the Torrid zone. The
North Temperate Zone lies between the Tropic
of Cancer (23½0 North) and the Arctic Circle
(66½o North) The South Temperate Zone lies
between the Tropic of Capricorn (23½° South)
and the Antarctic Circle (66½° South).
Statement 3 is correct: The North Frigid
Zone lies between the Arctic Circle (66½0N)
and the North Pole (90° North). The South
Frigid Zone lies between the Antarctic
Circle (66½0 South) and the South Pole (900
South). During the winter season, the sun
does not rise above the horizon for almost
six months. These are the coldest regions of
the world.
96. (a)
Option (a) is correct: Moist Tropical
Deciduous Vegetation is the most widespread
vegetation cover in India. This type of
vegetation is found in areas receiving annual
rainfall of 100 to 200 cm. These include the
Sahyadris, the northeastern plateau of the
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PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS) for CSE 2023
peninsula, the Himalayan foothills in the
Shiwaliks, the bhabar and the terai. The
important characteristics of this vegetation are:
• The trees shed their leaves once a year in
the dry season.
• This is typical monsoon vegetation
consisting of a larger number of
commercially important species than the
evergreen forests.
• Teak, sal, sandalwood, shisham, cane
and bamboo are important trees of these
forests.
97. (d)
Option (d) is correct: Migration is the
movement of people from one place to another
with intentions of settling, permanently or
temporarily, at a new location (geographic
region). The movement often occurs over long
distances and from one country to another
(external migration), but internal migration
(within a single country) is also possible
Positive Impacts on Origin countries:
• Developing countries benefit from an
increase in remittances (payments sent
home by migrants).
• Decreases pressure on jobs and resources
• Migrants may return with new skills
Negative impacts on the origin country:
• People of working age move out reducing
the size of the country’s potential workforce
• Brain drains
Positive impacts on the host country:
• Richer and more diverse culture
• Helps to reduce labour shortages
• Migrants are more prepared to take
low-paid, low-skilled jobs (Reduced
labour costs)
Negative impacts on the host country:
• Increasing cost of services such as health
and education
• Overcrowding
98. (b)
Option (b) is correct: “Moidams (or
Maidams) represent the late medieval (13th-
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19th century CE) mound-burial tradition of
the Tai Ahoms in Assam, which lasted almost
600 years. It is on the tentative lists of World
Heritage Sites.
99. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Ice polar stratospheric
clouds, or nacreous clouds, occur mainly
at high latitudes during the winter when
temperatures in the stratosphere fall below
the frost point. They are most common in
Antarctica but have also been observed in the
Arctic, Scotland, Scandinavia, Alaska, Canada
and the northern Russian Federation. They are
also known as mother-of-pearl clouds.
Statement 2 is correct: Nimbostratus clouds
are dark, grey, featureless layers of cloud,
thick enough to block out the Sun and
produce persistent rain. Nimbostratus clouds
form through the deepening and thickening
of an altostratus cloud, often along warm or
occluded fronts.
Statement 3 is correct: Circular halos are
specifically produced by cirrus clouds,
which are thin, detached, hair-like clouds.
These clouds are formed very high up in the
atmosphere, at the height of over 20,000 feet.
100. (b)
Option (b) is correct: Two landlocked
countries in the world are double landlocked,
meaning that they are surrounded by countries
that are themselves landlocked. The only two
double landlocked countries in the world
are Uzbekistan and Liechtenstein.
Liechtenstein is a tiny country in Western
Europe, sandwiched between two other
landlocked countries, Switzerland and
Austria.
Uzbekistan is a country in Central Asia. It is
one of the 12 landlocked countries in Asia. It
is bordered by Turkmenistan, Afghanistan,
Tajikistan, Kazakhstan, and Kyrgyzstan, all
of which are, themselves, landlocked countries.
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