INSTA STATIC QUIZ

OCTOBER 2022

WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM INSIGHTSIAS
 INSTA STATIC QUIZ QUESTIONS
Table of Contents

1. ECONOMY .........................................................................................................................................2

2. ART AND CULTURE ........................................................................................................................... 12

3. ENVIRONMENT ................................................................................................................................ 13

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ QUESTIONS

1. Economy
1) Consider the following statements. 5) Consider the following statements regarding
1. Both GDP and GVA measure national difference between Consumer Price Index (CPI)
income. and GDP deflator
2. The GDP calculates India’s national 1. GDP deflator include prices of imported
income by adding up all the expenditures in the goods but they are not included in CPI.
economy. 2. The weights are constant in CPI, but they
3. If the government earned more from differ according to production level of each
taxes than what it spent on subsidies, GVA will be good in GDP deflator.
higher than GDP. 3. While CPI is released by Central Statistics
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Office (CSO), the data on GDP deflator is
a) 1, 3 released by Labour Bureau.
b) 1, 2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
c) 2, 3 a) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3 b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
2) Which of the following are the Sub-components d) 1, 2, 3
of GDP?
1. Government Final Consumption 6) Consider the following statements regarding
Expenditure Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
2. Gross Fixed Capital Formation 1. They were set up on the
3. Net Exports recommendations of the Narasimham
4. Private Final Consumption Expenditure Working Group.
Select the correct answer code: 2. The majority of equity of a regional rural
a) 1, 3 bank is held by the concerned state
b) 1, 2, 3 governments.
c) 2, 3, 4 3. The first Regional Rural Bank in India was
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 Prathama Grameen Bank.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3) Consider the following statements. a) 1 only
1. Real GDP is the GDP derived after adding b) 1, 2
the effect of inflation. c) 1, 3
2. The difference between the real and d) 1, 2, 3
nominal GDP shows the levels of inflation in the
year. 7) Consider the following statements regarding
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? Money supply
a) 1 only 1. The total stock of money in circulation
b) 2 only among the public at a particular point of
c) Both 1 and 2 time is called money supply.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. M1 and M2 are known as broad money.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
4) Consider the following statements regarding a) 1 only
GDP calculation. b) 2 only
1. Only newly produced goods are counted. c) Both 1 and 2
2. Only final marketable goods and services d) Neither 1 nor 2
are counted.
3. Care economy is part of GDP calculation. 8) Consider the following statements regarding the
Which of the above statements is/are correct? instruments of Monetary Policy.
a) 1, 2 1. Repo rate is the interest rate at which the
b) 1, 3 Reserve Bank provides overnight liquidity to banks
c) 2, 3 against the collateral of government and other
d) 1, 2, 3 approved securities under the liquidity adjustment
facility (LAF).
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2. The Reserve Bank also conducts variable
interest rate reverse repo auctions, as necessitated
under the market conditions.
3. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) consists
of only overnight auctions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
9) Consider the following statements.
1. Under Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS),
scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional
amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank
by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest.
2. Open Market Operations (OMOs) include
both purchase and sale of government securities, for
absorption and injection of liquidity respectively.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
10) Which of the following tools are used by the RBI
to control Inflation?
1. Variable Reserve Requirement
2. Moral Suasion
3. Liquidity Adjustment Facility
4. Bank rate
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
11) Consider the following statements.
1. If the rupee’s exchange rate falls, it
implies that buying American goods would become
cheaper.
2. In a free-market economy, the exchange
rate is decided by the supply and demand for rupees
and dollars.
3. In India, the exchange rate is fully
determined by the market.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
12) Which of the following can lead to weakening of
Indian rupee?
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1. Widening trade deficit
2. Foreign investors pulling out funds from
Indian stock market
3. Rapid increase of crude oil prices in the
global market.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
13) Participatory notes (P-notes) investments in the
Indian market is allowed in which of the
following instruments
1. Debt
2. Equity
3. Derivatives
4. Hybrid securities
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1. 2. 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
14) Consider the following statements regarding
Exchange Traded Funds (ETF).
1. ETFs are passive funds listed and traded
on stock exchanges like shares.
2. In an ETF, one can buy and sell units at
prevailing market price on a real time basis during
market hours.
3. Here the fund manager selects stocks
based on customers choice.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
15) Which of the following would be considered as
Foreign Direct Investment?
a) A Foreign company buying shares in stock
exchanges in India
b) A Foreign merchant banker buying shares
from Indian stock market
c) A Foreign entity setting up an educational
institution in India
d) A Foreign country pension fund investing
in Indian stock market
16) Consider the following statements regarding
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Consumer
Price Index (CPI) inflation.
1. CPI measures inflation at retail level paid
by the consumer, whereas prices used for
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compilation of WPI are collected at ex-factory level
for manufactured products.
2. A significant proportion of WPI item
basket represents manufacturing inputs and
intermediate goods which are not part of the CPI
item basket.
3. The WPI basket consists of services like
housing, education, medical care, recreation etc.
which are not part of CPI basket.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
17) Cost-Push Inflation is caused due to which of the
following reasons?
1. Hoarding and Speculation of commodities
2. Defective Supply chain
3. Depreciation of Currency
4. Crude oil price fluctuation
5. Low growth of Agricultural sector
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
18) Consider the following statements.
1. When an economy goes through a phase
of high inflation, there are chances that the
unemployment rate will fall.
2. High inflation can lower the purchasing
power of the consumer.
3. The RBI monetary policy has a direct
impact on controlling “cost-push” inflation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2 only
d) 2, 3
19) Consider the following statements.
1. Phillips Curve is an economic concept
stating that inflation and unemployment have a
stable and inverse relationship.
2. Stagflation is an economic scenario where
an economy faces high inflation and low growth and
high unemployment at the same time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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20) Consider the following statements.
1. The Unemployment Rate is the
percentage of people in the labour force who
demanded work but did not get it.
2. The labour force includes those who are
employed and those who are looking for work but
unable to get it.
3. The fall in Unemployment Rate happens
only when more jobs are created.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
21) Which of the following forms the part of Capital
Receipts?
1. Recovery of loans
2. Sale of shares in Public Sector
Undertakings (PSUs)
3. Fresh loans given by Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
22) Gross Domestic Capital Formation (GDCF), often
seen in the Budget and Economic Surveys,
essentially refers to
a) Money circulation in public hands
b) Capitalization of the Banking sector
c) Direct Retail Investment in consumer
goods sector
d) Creation of Infrastructure or durable
economic assets
23) In budget documents, the term ‘fiscal prudence’
is often mentioned. What does it imply?
1. Harmonization of monetary and fiscal targets.
2. Not taking any new government initiative to
lower government costs.
3. Reducing debt to GDP ratio of the country.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 3 only
d) 1, 3
24) Consider the following statements regarding Off-
budget borrowing.
1. Off-budget borrowing helps keep the
country’s fiscal deficit within acceptable
limits.
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2. Off-budget borrowings is not part of the
calculation of the fiscal indicators and does
not have any fiscal implications.
3. Public sector banks are not authorised to
fund off-budget expenses.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
25) Consider the following statements regarding the
Importance of Fiscal Policy in India.
1. Fiscal policy aims to minimise the
imbalance in the dispersal of income and
wealth.
2. Fiscal policy plays a key role in
elevating the rate of capital formation both
in the public and private sectors.
3. Fiscal policy helps in providing stimulus to
elevate the savings rate.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
26) Consider the following statements regarding the
Gandhian plan
1. The plan articulated a ‘decentralized
economic structure’ for India with ‘self-
contained villages’.
2. Jayaprakash Narayan formulated the
Gandhian Plan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
27) Consider the following statements
1. As per Adam Smith’s Wealth of Nations,
government fiscal policy should be used to
stabilize the level of output and
employment.
2. In a mixed economy, the Government
attempts to increase output and income and
seeks to stabilize the ups and downs in the
economy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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28) Which of the following explains the U-shaped
economic recovery?
a) The economy which quickly rises like a
phoenix after a crash.
b) It is the scenario in which growth after
falling, stagnates at low levels and does not recover
for a long, long time.
c) It is a scenario in which the economy,
after falling, struggles and muddles around a low
growth rate for some time, before rising gradually to
usual levels.
d) The growth rises sharply from the lows
much higher than the trend-line and stays there.
29) Consider the following statements regarding
interest coverage ratio (ICR).
1. The interest coverage ratio helps to
determine how easily a company can pay interest on
its outstanding debt.
2. The higher a borrowing company’s level of
interest coverage ratio, the worse is its ability to
service its debt.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
30) Consider the following statements.
1. Import cover is the number of months of
imports that could be paid for by a country’s
Forex reserves.
2. Import substitution is an inward-looking
trade strategy aimed at replacing imports
with domestic production.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
31) India has come a long way in liberating the
capital account transactions in the last three
decades and currently has partial capital account
convertibility. Which of the recent moves
indicate the above statement?
1. Increasing the foreign portfolio
investment limits in the Indian debt markets.
2. Introducing the Fully Accessible Route
(FAR) — through which non-residents can invest in
specified government securities without any
restrictions.
3. Easing of external commercial borrowing.
4. Allowing outbound FDI by Indian
incorporated entities.
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Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
32) Which of the following can be included in the
Foreign Direct Investment?
1. Foreign Currency Convertible bonds
2. Reinvesting profits earned from overseas
operations
3. Non-resident external deposits
4. Equity capital of unincorporated bodies
Select the correct answer code
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
33) Consider the following statements regarding
World Trade Organization (WTO).
1. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is
the only global international organization dealing
with the rules of trade between nations.
2. It officially commenced operations in
1995, under the Marrakesh Agreement.
3. After WTO came in to existence, General
Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT) ceased to
exist.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
34) Consider the following statements regarding
Ministerial Conference of the World Trade
Organization (WTO).
1. The Ministerial Conference is the topmost
decision-making body of the WTO, that is held in
Geneva every year.
2. The Ministerial Conference can take
decisions on all matters under any multilateral trade
agreements.
3. It was only at the recent Ministerial
Conference that members agreed on core rules for
e-commerce regulation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
35) Consider the following statements regarding
WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture.
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1. It entered into force with the
establishment of the WTO.
2. It is aimed to remove trade barriers and to
promote transparent market access and integration
of global markets.
3. The WTO’s Agriculture Committee
oversees implementation of the Agreement and
provides a forum for members to address related
concerns.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
36) Debtor Reporting System (DRS), sometimes seen
in news was established by
a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
b) World Bank
c) New Development Bank (NDB)
d) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
37) Consider the following statements.
1. The World Bank releases its World
Economic Outlook (WEO) twice every year.
2. The World Economic Outlook report acts
as benchmark for all economies to compare
and contrast.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
38) Consider the following statements regarding
Special Drawing Right (SDR).
1. The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an
interest-bearing international reserve asset
created by the IMF.
2. The value of the SDR is directly
determined by supply and demand in the
market.
3. It can be held and used by member
countries, private entities or individuals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1 only
d) 1, 3
39) Consider the following statements regarding
International Finance Corporation (IFC).
1. It was established as the private sector
arm of the International Monetary Fund
(IMF).
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2. It offers investment, advisory, and asset
management services to encourage private
sector development in developing countries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
40) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) can be used to
1. Supplementing IMF member countries’
official reserves.
2. Settle Balance of Payment transactions
3. Bridge fiscal deficit and fund
infrastructure projects
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2, 3
41) Washington Consensus refers to
a) Regulations over Foreign direct
investment (FDI)
b) Trade balancing Requirements of
developing countries
c) Free-market economic ideas
d) None of the above
42) Consider the following statements regarding
Extended Credit Facility of IMF.
1. The Extended Credit Facility (ECF)
provides financial assistance to countries with short-
term balance of payments problems.
2. The ECF was created under the Poverty
Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) to make IMFs
financial support more flexible and better tailored to
the diverse needs of low-income countries (LICs).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
43) Consider the following statements regarding the
functions of International Monetary Fund (IMF).
1. It assists in the establishment of a
multilateral system of payments and the elimination
of foreign exchange restrictions.
2. It promotes high employment and reduce
poverty around the world.
3. It assists member countries by
temporarily providing financial resources to correct
mal-adjustment in their balance of payments.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
44) Consider the following statements regarding
Asian Development Bank (ADB).
1. It is modeled closely on the World Bank,
and has a similar weighted voting system
where votes are distributed in proportion
with members’ capital subscriptions.
2. The bank admits the members of only the
United Nations Economic and Social
Commission for Asia and the Pacific.
3. It aims at reducing poverty in Asia and the
Pacific through inclusive economic growth,
environmentally sustainable growth, and
regional integration.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 3 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
45) Consider the following statements regarding
International Monetary and Finance Committee.
1. The International Monetary and Finance
Committee is a body under the World Bank.
2. The Committee discusses matters of
common concern affecting the global
economy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
46) Consider the following statements.
1. The Union Government promotes farmer
producer organisations (FPOs) under the Small
Farmers’ Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC), NABARD,
state governments and NGOs.
2. The share of small and marginal farmers in
India have decreased from the year 1980-81 to
2015-16.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
47) Which of the following practices can reduce
emissions from agriculture?
1. Alternate wetting and drying of paddy.
2. Organic agriculture.
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3. Increasing the productivity of milk and
meat production.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
48) From time to time, some farmers and farmers’
organizations have been making demands to
increase MSP for agricultural crops on the basis
of C2 (comprehensive cost) system. Consider the
following statements regarding C2 system.
1. ‘C2’ takes into account rentals and
interest forgone on owned land and machinery
owned by farmers, in addition to the A2+FL rate.
2. If we implement the principle of C2, the
MSP of paddy will increase much higher than that of
wheat.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
49) Consider the following statements regarding the
role played by Agricultural and Processed Food
Products Export Development Authority
(APEDA) in promoting millets production and
export.
1. APEDA has developed its own Virtual
Trade Fair (VTF) application to facilitate interaction
among exporters, producer organizations and
international buyers
2. APEDA has created Nutri Cereals Export
Promotion Forum to remove the bottlenecks in the
supply chain of nutria-cereals.
3. A series of Virtual Buyer-Seller Meets
(BSM) with Embassies, importers, exporters and
product associations from India have been
organized.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
50) While recommending minimum support prices
(MSPs), the Commission for Agricultural Costs
and Prices (CACP) looks at the following factors?
1. The market price trends at both domestic
and international level
2. Inter-crop price parity
3. A minimum of 10 per cent as the margin
over the cost of production
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4. The likely implications of an MSP on
consumers of that product
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
51) The economic cost of food grains to the Food
Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price
and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
a) transportation cost only
b) interest cost only
c) procurement incidentals and distribution
cost
d) procurement incidentals and charges for
godowns
52) Consider the following statements.
1. Before the start of the kharif-rabi cycle,
banks are given district-wise targets to lend to each
priority sector.
2. For the agricultural sector, banks extend
both short term and long-term loans at concessional
interest rates.
3. Cooperative banks operate through village
level Primary Agricultural Cooperative Societies
(PACS) for lending to farmers, while state
commercial banks deal with farmers individually.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
53) Consider the following statements regarding
System of Rice Intensification (SRI) method of
sowing paddy.
1. System of Rice Intensification (SRI) was
first developed in India and since then several
countries in the world have been practising it.
2. It gives equal or more produce than the
conventional rice cultivation, with less water, less
seed and less chemicals.
3. SRI is suitable in all types of soil including
the less fertile soil.
4. SRI method does not permit any weed
growth.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ QUESTIONS
54) Which of the following are the primary sources 2. Loans
of Edible Oils? 3. Deposits
1. Soybean Select the correct answer code:
2. Mustard a) 1, 2
3. Rice Bran b) 1, 3
4. Coconut c) 2, 3
5. Niger d) 1, 2, 3
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 59) Consider the following statements regarding
b) 1, 2, 5 Monetary Policy.
c) 1, 2, 3, 5 1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 with the responsibility of conducting monetary
policy under the provisions of Agreement on
55) Which one of the following inputs is required in Monetary Policy Framework Act.
less quantity in case of non-farming activities? 2. The primary objective of monetary policy
a) Labour is to maintain price stability and achieve growth.
b) Land 3. The inflation target is set by the Reserve
c) Raw material Bank of India once in every five years.
d) Capital Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
56) Consider the following statements regarding b) 2 only
base effect. c) 1, 3
1. The base effect refers to the impact of the d) 2, 3
rise in price level in the reference or previous year
over the corresponding rise in price levels in the 60) Tax buoyancy refers to the responsiveness of tax
current year. revenue growth to changes in GDP. If there is an
2. If the inflation rate was too low in the output growth and the tax buoyancy is not
corresponding period of the previous year, even a commensurate, then it can imply
relatively smaller rise in the Price Index will a) There is tax evasion
arithmetically give a high rate of current inflation. b) Growth in the non-taxed part of GDP
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? c) Both a and b
a) 1 only d) Neither a nor b
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 61) Which of the following are included in the eight
d) Neither 1 nor 2 core industries of Indian economy?
1. Electricity
57) Consider the following statements regarding 2. Steel
Collective Investment Scheme (CIS) in India. 3. Biogas
1. A Collective Investment Scheme is an 4. Refinery products
investment scheme where various individuals come Select the correct answer code:
together and pool their money in order to invest a) 1, 2, 3
their whole fund collection in a particular asset. b) 1, 3, 4
2. It is regulated by Securities Exchange c) 1, 2, 4
Board of India. d) 1, 2, 3, 4
3. Mutual funds comes under the category
of Collective Investment Scheme. 62) Consider the following statements.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. Among the operationally-run Central
a) 1 only Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) that have Ratna
b) 1, 2 status, the majority are Maharatna companies.
c) 1, 3 2. Eight core industrial sectors have a total
d) 1, 2, 3 weight of nearly 70% in the Index of Industrial
Production (IIP).
58) Which of the following forms the part of assets Which of the above statements is/are correct?
of any bank? a) 1 only
1. Reserves b) 2 only
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c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
63) Consider the following statements regarding
Development Finance Institutions (DFIs).
1. Development Finance Institutions
provide risk capital for economic development
projects on non-commercial basis.
2. In India, the first DFI was operationalised
before Independence, with the setting up of
the Industrial Finance Corporation (IFCI).
3. During the pre-liberalised era, India had
DFIs that were primarily engaged in
development of industry in the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 3
64) Which of the following are released by Labour
Bureau in the Ministry of Labour?
1. CPI for Industrial Workers (IW)
2. CPI for Urban Non-Manual Employees
(UNME)
3. CPI for Rural Labourers (RL)
4. CPI for Agricultural Labourers (AL)
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
65) Consider the following statements.
1. The labour force participation
rate essentially tells what percentage of the total
population want to be part of the workforce.
2. A low labour force participation
rate means fewer people are making themselves
available for economic activity.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
66) Consider the following statements regarding
five-year planning in India.
1. The First Five-year Plan was launched in
1951 which mainly focused in development of the
primary sector.
2. There were annual plans for three
consecutive years between the second and third
five-year plans.
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3. Indicative planning in India started from
Twelfth five-year plan, which was India's last Five-
Year Plan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
67) In some of the five-year plans, the Gadgil -
Mukharjee Formula was used to
a) Calculate the trajectory of industrial
growth in India
b) Allocate financial assistance to states
from the Centre
c) Determine maximum permissible limit of
External Borrowings by the Government
d) Determine the target of fiscal deficit for
the Government
68) India’s growth’s story from the eve of
Independence to the liberalization phase is
largely termed as ‘Hindu rate of growth’. What it
refers to?
a) Non inclusive growth story of India before
1990’s liberalization.
b) Religious belief of the successive
government right from the independence.
c) Irrational developmental agenda driven by
majoritarian society.
d) The phenomenon of sluggishness in
growth rate of Indian economy before
1990’s.
69) Consider the following statements regarding Five
Year Plans in India.
1. The Second Five Year plan followed
the Mahalanobis model.
2. Third Five Year Plan was based on Gadgil
Yojana.
2. “Garibi Hatao” slogan was given during
Fourth Five Year Plan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2, 3
70) In the History of Planning in India, Consider the
following statements regarding the People’s
Plan.
1. The plan was formulated by Jayaprakash
Narayan.
2. Agricultural and industrial sectors were
equally highlighted by the plan.
10

3. The plan advocated the need of providing
the people with the ‘basic necessities of life’.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
71) Consider the following statements.
1. The first Five Year Plan was based on the
ideas of Mahalanobis, which laid down the
basic ideas regarding goals of Indian
planning.
2. The Second Five Year Plan tried to build
the basis for a socialist pattern of society.
3. In the first seven five-year plans, trade
was characterised by import substitution
strategy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
72) Which of the following were the goals of the
planning system in India between 1950-1990?
1. Export promotion
2. Industrialization
3. Self-reliance
4. Equity
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 4
73) Consider the following statements regarding
First Five-year Plan (FYP).
1. The First Five Year Plan choose heavy
industries as the “prime moving force” of
the economy.
2. The University Grants Commission (UGC)
was set up at the end of the plan period.
3. The First Five Year Plan was followed by
the Bombay Plan which became the basis of
the Second Five Year Plan in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
74) Consider the following pairs regarding the idea
of planning in India.
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1. Visvesvaraya Plan – Focus on shifting the
labour from industrial sector to agriculture sector.
2. Gandhian Plan – Emphasis on cottage and
village level industries.
3. Bombay Plan – Emphasised on the
development of essential consumer goods industries
in India.
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
75) Consider the following statements regarding
Gandhian Plan.
1. Gandhian Plan was economic planning
formulated by Mahatma Gandhi before
independence.
2. The plan articulated a ‘decentralised
economic structure’ for India with ‘self-contained
villages’.
3. The plan laid more emphasis on
agriculture.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3
76) Consider the following statements regarding
Revenue deficit.
1. The revenue deficit includes only such
transactions that affect the current income and
expenditure of the government.
2. When the government incurs a revenue
deficit, it implies that the government is using up the
savings of the other sectors of the economy to
finance a part of its consumption expenditure.
3. Increase in revenue deficit can lead to
lower growth in economy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
77) Consider the following statements regarding the
effects of Inflation?
1. Inflation redistributes wealth from
creditors to debtors, i.e., lenders suffer and
borrowers benefit out of inflation.
2. With inflation, usually the currency of the
economy depreciates.
3. Holding money remains an intelligent
economic decision during inflation.
11

Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
78) Consider the following statements regarding
Wholesale Price index (WPI).
1. It is published by the office of the
Economic Adviser.
2. The Current base year is 2011–12.
3. Highest weightage under WPI is for
Primary Articles.
4. The prices used for compilation includes
indirect taxes, in order to remove impact of fiscal
policy.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
79) Which of the following is/are the major traits of
Recession?
1. There is a general fall in demand
2. Inflation remains lower or/and shows
further signs of falling down
3. Unemployment rate falls/ employment
rate grows
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
80) A wilful default is deemed to have occurred in
any of the following circumstances.
1. When there is a default in repayment
obligations by the unit (company/individual) to the
lender even when it has the capacity to honour the
said obligations.
2. When the asset bought by the lenders’
funds have been sold off without the
knowledge of the bank/lender.
3. The funds are not utilised for the specific
purpose for which finance was availed but
have been diverted for other purposes.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
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2. Art and Culture
1) Consider the following statements regarding
pottery during Harappan civilisation.
1. The pottery of the Harappan culture
consisted of mainly wheel-made ware, turned in
various shapes and sizes, but without any colours.
2. They used various mortars and cements
made of limestone, gypsum and mica.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2) Which of the following were the metropolis of
Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC)?
1. Dholavira
2. Harappa
3. Rakhigarhi
4. Rakhigarhi
Select the correct answer code:
a) 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
3) Consider the following statements regarding
Dholavira.
1. Here the walls were made of sandstone or
limestone instead of mud bricks in many other
Harappan sites.
2. Extensive mortal remains of humans have
been discovered at Dholavira.
3. It was also a hub of manufacturing
jewellery made of shells and semi-precious stones.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
4) Shigmo, a harvest festival is mainly celebrated in
a) Goa
b) Meghalaya
c) Maharashtra
d) Assam
5) Consider the following statements.
1. At the Mahabodhi temple, the Buddha is
sitting in the bhoomi-sparsha mudra, where his hand
is pointing towards the ground.
12
 INSTA STATIC QUIZ QUESTIONS
2. Bhoomi-sparsha mudra signifies 4) Which of the following sources add nitrogen
preaching. oxide into the atmosphere?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. Lightning stroke
a) 1 only 2. Reaction of Ultraviolet radiation with
b) 2 only ozone
c) Both 1 and 2 3. Bacteria living in soil
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
3. Environment
5) Which of the following are the characteristics of
1) Consider the following statements regarding Succession?
Ecotone. 1. Increased productivity
1. Ecotone is a zone of tension. 2. Increased diversity of organisms
2. Estuary is an example of Ecotone. 3. Decrease in the complexity of food webs.
3. A well-developed ecotone contain some 4. Shift of nutrients from the reservoirs
organisms which are entirely different from Select the correct answer code:
that of the adjoining communities. a) 1, 2
4. The organisms which occur most b) 1, 2, 3
abundantly in this zone are known as edge c) 1, 2, 4
species. d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3, 4 6) Consider the following statements regarding
b) 1, 2, 4 Ecological Niche.
c) 2, 3, 4 1. A niche can be described as the
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 interactions between a species with its biotic and
abiotic environment.
2) Geographically which among the following is the 2. Two species can occupy the same niche in
largest system? the same environment for a long time.
a) Ecosystem Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
b) Community a) 1 only
c) Population b) 2 only
d) Biome c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3) Consider the following statements regarding
Vegetative Propagation. 7) Consider the following statements.
1. Vegetative propagation is used in 1. Aestivation is the type of winter sleep,
methods such as layering or grafting to grow plants performed by the warm as well as cold-blooded
like sugarcane, roses, or grapes. animals.
2. Vegetative Propagation can help 2. Hibernation is the type of summer sleep,
propagate even those plants that have lost the performed by cold-blooded animals.
capacity to produce seeds. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. Plants produced under the practice bear a) 1 only
no genetic resemblance to the parent plant thus b) 2 only
promoting biodiversity. c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the above statements is/are correct? d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2 8) Which of the following reasons can be attributed
c) 1, 3 for rarely finding very small animals in Polar
d) 2, 3 Regions?
1. Very small animals tend to lose body heat
very fast when it is cold outside.

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ QUESTIONS
2. Very small animals have a smaller surface a) 1, 2
area relative to their volume. b) 1, 3
3. Very small animals have to expend much c) 2, 3
energy to generate body heat through d) 1, 2, 3
metabolism.
Select the correct answer code: 13) Consider the following statements regarding
a) 1, 2 Ecological Succession.
b) 1, 3 1. The gradual and fairly predictable change
c) 2, 3 in the species composition of a given area is called
d) 1, 2, 3 ecological succession.
2. Primary succession begins in areas where
9) The largest contributor of Greenhouse effect is natural biotic communities have been destroyed.
a) Carbon Dioxide 3. The entire sequence of communities that
b) Methane successively change in a given area are called sere(s).
c) Water Vapour Which of the above statements is/are correct?
d) Nitrous oxides a) 1 only
b) 1, 3
10) Which of the following pairs of soil type and its c) 1, 2
characteristic are correctly matched? d) 1, 2, 3
1. Oxisols : These soils are very old and
highly weathered 14) An ecological pyramid is a diagrammatic
2. Entisols : Weakly developed soils with no presentation to describe trophic levels. How the
horizons knowledge of ecological pyramid can help us in
3. Histosols : Soils having weakly or quickly conservation of an ecosystem?
developed hozirons 1. It helps us to recognize an invasive
4. Inceptisols : These soils have very high species.
quantity of organic matter in the upper layers 2. It helps us to identify bio-accumulation.
Select the correct answer code: 3. It helps us to identify bio-magnification.
a) 1, 2, 3 Select the correct answer code:
b) 1, 2 a) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4 b) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
11) Arrange the following ecosystems in the
decreasing order of biomass productivity (g per 15) Consider the following statements.
metre square per year). 1. The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem
1. Coral reefs capture about 1% of the energy of sunlight that falls
2. Open Ocean on their leaves and convert it into food energy.
3. Temperate Forests 2. The biomass in the upper trophic levels is
4. Swamps and marshes generally very high as compared to the lower trophic
Select the correct answer code: levels.
a) 4-3-1-2 3. The energy pyramid of an ecosystem is
b) 4-1-3-2 always upright and narrows to the top.
c) 1-4-3-2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
d) 1-3-4-2 a) 3 only
b) 1, 3
12) Consider the following statements regarding c) 2, 3
Algal bloom. d) 1, 2, 3
1. An algal bloom is a rapid increase or
accumulation in the population of algae in 16) Consider the following statements.
freshwater systems. 1. Phytoplankton are the foundation of the
2. It is often recognized by the discoloration aquatic food web as the primary producers, and they
in the water from the algae's pigments. help absorb atmospheric carbon dioxide.
3. An example of algal bloom is a kelp forest.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
www.insightsonindia.com 14

2. Zooplankton feed on phytoplankton and
play a vital role in transfer of organic matter from
primary producers to secondary consumers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
17) Coral Reefs are Important in which of the
following ways?
1. Coral reefs control the concentration of
carbon dioxide in the lower atmosphere and in the
sea water.
2. Coral reefs check sea waves against going
towards sea coasts by reducing their speed.
3. Corals are used as medicines by human
communities living along coasts.
4. They also provide food to different types
of sea animals and support fish productions.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
18) Consider the following statements regarding
Temperate Deciduous Biome
1. They are found in areas with warm moist
summers and cool winters.
2. Soils of temperate forests are podozolic
and fairly deep.
3. The trees shed their leaves in the summer
season.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
19) Consider the following statements:
1. These are the most widespread forests in
India
2. These forests are also found in the north-
eastern states along the foothills of Himalayas
3. They spread over regions which receive
rainfall between 70-200 cm
The above statements are related to:
a) Montane forests
b) Tropical Thorn forests
c) Semi Evergreen forests
d) Tropical Deciduous Forests
20) Consider the following statements regarding
Boreal Forests.
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1. They have evergreen plant species such as
Spruce, fir and pine trees.
2. Boreal forest soils are characterized by
thick podzols.
3. The productivity and community stability
of a boreal forest are lower than other forest
ecosystem.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
21) Consider the following statements regarding
Mangroves.
1. Mangroves are very specialised forest
ecosystems of tropical and subtropical regions
bordering certain sea coasts.
2. They stabilise the shoreline and act as
bulwark against encroachments by the sea.
3. They do not grow in low-oxygen soil.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
22) Which of the following are the causes of coral
bleaching?
1. Sediments such as sand or dirt covering the
coral.
2. Increased exposure to ultraviolet (UV)
radiation.
3. Excess nutrients such as ammonia and
nitrate from fertilizers and household products entering
the reef ecosystem.
4. Large amounts of storm water from heavy
rains flooding the reef.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
23) The coastal ecosystems of mangroves, tidal
marshes, and seagrass meadows provide
numerous benefits and services along coasts like
1. Sequester and store coastal blue carbon
from the atmosphere
2. Food security for many coastal
communities
3. Protection from storms and sea level rise
4. Regulation of coastal water quality
5. Provision of habitat for commercially
important fisheries
15

Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
24) India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and
has declared many areas as Ramsar Sites. Which
of the following statements best describes as to
how we should maintain these sites in the
context of this Convention?
a) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem
approach and permit tourism and recreation only
b) Keep all the sites completely inaccessible
to man so that they will not be exploited
c) Conserve all the sites for a period without
any exploitation, and then allow complete use of
them by future generations
d) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem
approach and allow their simultaneous sustainable
use
25) Consider the following pairs of wetlands and
their location
1. Kabartal Wetland : Bihar
2. Wadhwana Wetland : Punjab
3. Harike Wetland : Gujarat
4. Renuka Wetland : Himachal Pradesh
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
26) Consider the following statements regarding
Microplastics.
1. Microplastics are tiny plastic particles with
an upper size limit of 5nm in diameter.
2. Primary microplastics happens when
larger plastics undergo weathering, through
exposure to conditions like wave action, wind
abrasion, and ultraviolet radiation from sunlight.
3. Secondary microplastics enter the
environment directly and include microbeads found
in personal care products and plastic fibres used in
synthetic textiles.
How many statement/s given above is/are correct?
a) only 1 statement
b) only 2 statements
c) All the 3 statements are correct
d) None of the above statements are correct
27) Consider the following statements regarding
Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
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1. Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) have
the property of long-range environmental transport
(LRET).
2. Exposure to POPs can lead to cancer and
diseases of immune system.
3. As we move up the food chain,
concentrations of POPs tend to decrease so that
animals at the top of the food chain tend to have the
low concentrations of these chemicals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2
28) Consider the following statements regarding
Nitrogen pollution.
1. Since Nitrates cannot penetrate deep into
the soil, they pollute only surface water and not
groundwater.
2. Agriculture remains the largest
contributor to nitrogen emissions.
3. Both Nitrous oxide and Nitrogen dioxide
are greenhouse gases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
29) Smog is a kind of air pollution caused by
1. Slash-and-burning of crops.
2. Pollutants generated from paint and
hairspray.
3. Burning of large amounts of coal.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
30) Consider the following statements regarding
Photochemical smog.
1. Photochemical smog is a term used to
describe air pollution that is a result of the
interaction of sunlight with certain chemicals in the
atmosphere.
2. One of the primary components of
photochemical smog is stratospheric ozone.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
16

31) Consider the following statements regarding
measurement of Biodiversity.
1. Alpha diversity: It refers to the diversity
within a particular area or ecosystem.
2. Beta diversity: It is a comparison of
diversity between ecosystems.
3. Gamma diversity: It is a measure of the
overall diversity for the different ecosystems within
a region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
32) Consider the following statements regarding
Biodiversity
1. Biodiversity is the term popularized by the
socio-biologist Edward Wilson.
2. Species diversity means a single species
might show high diversity at the genetic
level over its distributional range.
3. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e.
Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western
Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1 only
d) 2, 3
33) Which of the following are criteria to qualify as a
biodiversity hotspot?
1. It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants
as endemics.
2. It must have 70% or less of its original
natural vegetation.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
34) Consider the following statements.
1. Biodiversity is always greater in higher
latitudes as compared to the lower latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients,
biodiversity is normally greater in the higher
altitudes as compared to the lower altitudes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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35) Consider the following statements regarding
International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN).
1. Its main aim is to mobilize the public in
support of nature conservation.
2. It was involved in establishing the World
Wide Fund for Nature.
3. It has observer and consultative status at
the United Nations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 2 only
36) Which of the following are the characteristic of
pollutants for Biomagnification to occur?
1. Pollutant must be biologically active
2. Pollutant must be short-lived
3. Pollutant must be soluble in fats
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
37) Consider the following statements.
1. The higher amounts of waste increases
the rates of decomposition, thereby decreases the
Dissolved Oxygen content of water.
2. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the
amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in
decomposing the organic wastes present in water.
3. The higher value of Biochemical Oxygen
Demand (BOD) indicates higher Dissolved Oxygen
content of water.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
38) Consider the following statements regarding
Dissolved oxygen.
1. In fresh water the average concentration
of dissolved oxygen is 150 times lower than the
concentration of oxygen in an equivalent volume of
air.
2. Dissolved oxygen escapes the water body
through respiration of fish and
zooplanktons.
3. Increasing the temperature of a
waterbody increases the dissolved oxygen in
that waterbody.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
17
 INSTA STATIC QUIZ QUESTIONS
a) 2 only 43) Consider the following statements regarding life
b) 1, 2 form in aquatic ecosystem.
c) 1, 3 1. Periphyton: These are organisms which
d) 1, 2, 3 remain attached to stems and leaves of
rooted plants.
39) Consider the following statements regarding In- 2. Nekton: These are unattached organisms
situ bioremediation techniques. which live at the air water interface
1. Bioventing is the supply of air and 4. Benthos: The benthic organisms are those
nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to found living in the bottom of the water
stimulate the growth of indigenous bacteria. mass.
2. In Biosparging, Microorganisms are Which of the above statements is/are correct?
imported to a contaminated site to enhance a) 1, 3
degradation process. b) 1, 2
3. Bioaugmentation is the injection of air c) 2, 3
under pressure below the water table to increase d) 1, 2, 3
groundwater oxygen concentrations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 44) Consider the following statements regarding
a) 1, 2 Seaweeds.
b) 1, 3 1. Seaweeds are macroscopic algae, which
c) 1 only mean they have no differentiation of true tissues
d) 2, 3 such as roots, stems and leaves.
2. Seaweeds have the ability to bind and
40) Which of the following are the components of accumulate metals strongly.
Biodiversity Heritage Sites? 3. Seaweeds usually grow in deep coastal
1. Richness of wild as well as domesticated waters wherever sizable substrata is available.
species Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. Presence of rare and threatened species a) 1 only
3. Presence of species of evolutionary b) 1, 2
significance c) 1, 3
4. Having significant cultural, ethical or d) 2, 3
aesthetic values
Select the correct answer code: 45) Some species of plants are insectivorous, this is
a) 1, 2, 3 because
b) 1, 3, 4 a) They have remained in that particular
c) 2, 3, 4 stage of evolution as living fossils, a link
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 between autotrophs and heterotrophs
b) Their growth in shady and dark places
41) Which of the following plant micronutrients is does not allow them to undertake sufficient
associated with chlorophyll formation in plants? photosynthesis and thus they depend on insects for
1. Magnesium nutrition
2. Iron c) They are adapted to grow in nitrogen
3. Copper deficient soils and thus they depend on
Select the correct answer code: insects for sufficient nitrogenous nutrition
a) 1, 2 d) They cannot synthesize certain vitamins
b) 1, 3 themselves and depend on the insects
c) 2, 3 digested by them
d) 1, 2, 3

42) Photoperiodism is a phenomenon related to

a) Flowering in plants
b) Mode of photosynthesis in plants
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

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