INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS

QUIZ QUESTIONS

FEBRUARY 2023

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 INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
Table of Contents

1. ECONOMY .........................................................................................................................................2

2. ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT ..........................................................................................................6

3. GEOGRAPHY ......................................................................................................................................9

4. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND PROGRAMMES ................................................................................. 10

5. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY............................................................................................................. 11

6. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANISATIONS .......................................................................... 13

7. POLITY ............................................................................................................................................. 13

8. HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE............................................................................................................ 15

9. AGRICULTURE .................................................................................................................................. 16

10. DEFENCE AND SECURITY............................................................................................................... 16

11. MAPS / PLACES............................................................................................................................. 17

12. MISCELLANEOUS .......................................................................................................................... 17

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 INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS

1. Economy
1) Consider the following statements regarding 2. Adds to risk weighted assets
Trademark. 3. Results in lesser interest income
1. A trademark is a symbol, design, word or Select the correct code?
phrase that is identified with a business. a) 1, 2
2. When a trademark is registered, its owner b) 1, 3
can claim exclusive rights on its use. c) 2, 3
3. A trademark is valid indefinitely without d) 1, 2, 3
any renewal.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 5) The FRBM Act contain an ‘escape clause’ under
a) 1 only which Centre can exceed the annual fiscal deficit
b) 1, 2 target on which of the following grounds?
c) 1, 3 1. Collapse of agriculture
d) 1, 2, 3 2. National security
3. Structural reforms
2) Consider the following statements. 4. Decline in real output growth of a quarter
1. In India, the trademark registered with the by at least three percentage points below the
Controller General of Patents, Designs, and average of the previous four quarters.
Trademarks is protected by law. Select the correct answer code:
2. Using a registered trademark without a) 1, 3, 4
authorisation of the entity that owns the trademark b) 1, 2, 3
is a violation or infringement of the trademark. c) 2, 3, 4
3. Using a substantially similar mark for d) 1, 2, 3, 4
similar goods or services does not amount to
infringement of the trademark. 6) Consider the following statements regarding
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Fixed Capital Formation.
a) 2 only 1. Fixed capital includes construction of
b) 1, 3 dwellings, which may not add to the productive
c) 1, 2 capacity of the economy.
d) 1, 2, 3 2. Fixed capital formation is directly related
with economic growth rate.
3) Consider the following statements regarding 3. Long term growth will be achieved if
Additional Tier-1 (AT1) bonds. resources from Fixed Capital are diverted towards
1. AT1 bonds are unsecured bonds that have consumption.
no maturity date. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. They have a call option, which can be used a) 1, 2
by the banks to buy these bonds back from b) 2, 3
investors. c) 1, 3
3. These bonds are typically used by banks to d) 1 only
bolster their core or tier-1 capital.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct? 7) With reference to Indian economy, which of the
a) 1, 2 following best describes Exit policy
b) 1, 3 a) Disinvestment policy of Public sector
c) 2, 3 enterprises
d) 1, 2, 3 b) Policy of reparation of income by multi-
national companies
4) Non-performing Assets (NPAs) are loans made c) Right or ability of an industrial unit or a
by a bank or finance company on which firm to withdraw from or to close down.
repayments or interest payments are not being d) Export policy that guides direction of
made on time. How do high NPAs affect the exports from India
Banks in India?
1. Banks tend to lower the interest rates on 8) Invisible account of the balance of payments
deposits comprises of
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1. Expenditure by foreign tourists in India
2. Remittances by overseas Indians
3. Receipts from export of software services
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
9) Bond yield is the return an investor gets on that
bond or on a particular government security.
Which of the following factors affect the bond
yield in India?
1. Monetary policy of the Reserve Bank of
India
2. Fiscal position of the government
3. Global markets
4. Inflation in the economy
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
10) Consider the following statements.
1. Pro-cyclical fiscal policy stabilizes the
business cycle by being contractionary (reduce
spending/increase taxes) in good times and
expansionary (increase spending/reduce taxes) in
bad times.
2. Counter-cyclical fiscal policy becomes
critical during an economic crisis.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
11) Foreign exchange reserves are held in the form
of
1. Gold
2. US dollars
3. Non-dollar currencies
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
12) Which of the following statements best
describes the term ‘Unemployment’?
a) A situation in which government is largely
failed to create good jobs in the market.
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b) A situation in which individuals are
working, but not able to generate any
income.
c) A situation in which individuals are willing
to work at the prevailing rate of wages
but could not get the job.
d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) are
correct
13) International capital flows have been uncertain
and volatile, causing exchange rate and balance
of payment crises. Among the various sources of
external capital available to India which source is
most preferable one?
a) External Commercial Borrowing
b) Portfolio Investment
c) Foreign Institutional Investment
d) Foreign Direct Investment
14) Consider the following statements.
1. In India, Agricultural commodities like
cotton, paddy, soyabean, mustard seed, etc., are
traded on the National Commodities and Derivatives
Exchange (NCDEX) and the Multi Commodity
Exchange (MCX).
2. Derivatives are short-term financial
contracts that are bought and sold in the market.
3. Profits are made in the derivatives trade
by predicting price movements of the asset that
underlies the contract.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
15) India has partial capital account convertibility.
This implies that
1. India will have a negative sovereign credit
rating.
2. Private foreign denominated debt needs
to be met by either private export earnings or India’s
forex reserves.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
16) In Economic theory and policy making,
‘Consumer Welfare’ is deemed to be maximized
when
a) All individuals are able to purchase goods
beyond their means of earning
3

b) A large number of individuals are able to
purchase goods at a much lower market
price that they were willing to pay
c) All individuals attain an ideal state of
having no demand for any more goods and
services
d) Every individual is able to purchase goods
at the exact market price they were willing
to pay
17) Consider the following statements.
1. During colonial times, the Indian rupee
was virtually linked to the British pound rather than
to gold which it earned through exports.
2. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) rules does
not allow cross border trade transactions in rupee.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
18) Annual Financial Statement (AFS) of a
Government in a financial year includes
1. Estimates of revenue and capital receipts
2. Estimates of expenditure
3. Introduction of new schemes/projects
4. Ways and means to raise the revenue
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
19) Consider the following statements.
1. Co-location is a data centre facility where
third parties can lease space for servers and other
computer hardware.
2. National Stock Exchange introduced co-
location facilities and offered traders/brokers the
ability to place their servers within NSE’s data
centre.
3. Securities Appellate Tribunal is
a statutory and autonomous body created under the
provisions of SEBI Act, 1992 and whose jurisdiction
extends to companies situated across India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
20) The Government carries out Disinvestment to
achieve which of the following goals?
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1. Encourage open market to have wide
share in ownership
2. Reduce Financial burden on Government
3. Introduce competition with market
discipline
4. Depoliticise essential services
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
21) Consider the following statements regarding
Gold ETF.
1. Gold ETFs are passive investment
instruments that are based on gold prices and invest
in gold bullion.
2. The price of One Gold ETF unit is equal to
1 gram of gold of at least 99.5 percent purity.
3. Gold ETFs can be redeemed for
physical gold.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
22) Sovereign credit ratings can significantly affect
which of the following in the Indian Economy?
1. Own-country exchange rates
2. Stock market returns
2. Bond Yields
4. Foreign direct investment (FDI)
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
23) Consider the following statements.
1. A depository is an organization which
holds securities like shares and bonds of investors in
electronic form.
2. A depository also provides services
related to transactions in securities.
3. In India, National Securities Depository
Limited (NSDL) is the only depository registered with
SEBI.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
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 INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
24) Usually which of the following agencies project 28) Consider the following statements regarding
India’s growth? Extended Fund Facility (EFF).
1. Asian Development Bank 1. The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) is a
2. Moody's Investors Service lending facility of the International Monetary Fund
3. World Bank (IMF).
4. Fitch Ratings Inc. 2. It mainly provides assistance to countries
5. Organisation for Economic Co-operation for fulfilling developmental needs.
and Development (OECD) 3. Amounts drawn under an EFF can be
Select the correct answer code: repaid over 5 to 10 years in instalments.
a) 1, 3, 4 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 a) 1, 2
c) 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
25) Which of the following statements best describe
the term Entrenched inflation? 29) Which of the following reduce accumulation of
a) Inflation that is due to temporary capital stock in the economy?
problems and is rectified once the underlying 1. Depreciation of assets
problems are resolved. 2. Spending on infrastructure rather than
b) Inflation that tends to stick around even capacity building of financial institutions
after the immediate problems that spurred it on Select the correct answer code:
have resolved. a) 1 only
c) Inflation due to cut in the supply of key b) 2 only
commodities because of negative economic shock c) Both 1 and 2
d) Inflation due to the price level increases at d) Neither 1 nor 2
a very rapid rate.
30) Which of the following best describes ‘Bank
26) Which of the following can be considered as Rate’?
‘black swan events’ based on the terminology a) It is the rate at which bank penalizes the
popularised by the author Nassim Nicholas customers if they do not pay interest
Taleb? regularly
1. 2008 global financial crisis b) It is the rate at which banks lend to their
2. Fall of the Soviet Union customers based on their Credit score.
3. Terrorist attack in the US on September c) It is the rate at which central bank lends
11, 2001 money to the commercial banks.
Select the correct answer code: d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) are
a) 1, 2 correct.
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3 31) The balance of payments includes both the
d) 1, 2, 3 current account and capital account. Consider
the following statements regarding this
27) Consider the following statements regarding 1. The current account includes a nation’s
Revenue receipts. net trade in goods and services, its net earnings on
1. Revenue receipts creates a liability for the cross-border investments, and its net transfer
government. payments.
2. Revenue receipts are regular and 2. The capital account is included in
recurring in nature. calculations of national output, while the current
3. They do not lead to any reduction in the account is not.
government’s assets. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only
a) 1, 2 b) 2 only
b) 1, 3 c) Both 1 and 2
c) 2, 3 d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) 1, 2, 3

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32) Consider the following statements regarding
RBI’s Open Market Operations (OMOs).
1. OMOs can be used to tame short-term
inflation in the economy.
2. They are to be mandatorily conducted
once every year to adjust liquidity in the
security markets.
3. No intermediaries such as commercial
banks are involved in OMOs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
33) Consider the following statements regarding
Financial Stability Board (FSB).
1. The Financial Stability Board (FSB) is an
international body established by World Bank.
2. It was established following the onset of
2008 Global financial crisis.
3. It monitors and makes recommendations
about the global financial system.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
34) Consider the following statements.
1. The evergreening of loans means, banks
try to revive a loan that is on the verge of default by
granting further loans to the same borrower.
2. RBI’s surplus transfer or Dividend to the
Government constitutes tax revenue to the
Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Ecology and
Environment
1) Consider the following statements regarding
Bagasse.
1. Bagasse is the dry pulpy fibrous material
that remains after crushing sugarcane or sorghum
stalks to extract their juice.
2. It is primarily composed of lignin.
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3. It is used as a biofuel for the production of
heat, energy, and electricity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
2) Consider the following statements regarding
Clean Development Mechanism (CDM).
1.
The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is a
market-based approach to reducing emissions of
the greenhouse gases that contribute to climate
change.
2. A CDM project activity might involve a
rural electrification project using solar panels or the
installation of more energy-efficient boilers.
3. The projects registered by India under the
CDM is the highest in the world.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 1 only
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 3
3) Biodiversity Heritage Sites in India are protected
under
a) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
b) Environment Protection Act, 1986
c) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
d) None of the above
4) What do you understand by the term ‘Social
Forestry’?
1. Reducing the pressure on the traditional
forest area by encouraging plantations on
community land.
2. Promoting commercial harvesting of
timber and non-timber products from
traditional forests by community to meet
local demands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
5) Which of the following places has the world’s
highest concentration of Indian one-horned
rhinos?
a) Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary
b) Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary
c) Bor Wildlife Sanctuary
d) Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary
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 INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
c) 2, 3
6) Consider the following statements regarding Red d) 1, 2, 3
Sanders.
1. Red Sanders or red sandalwood, is an 10) Species are classified by the IUCN Red List into
endemic tree species with distribution restricted to which of the following groups?
the Eastern Ghats of India. 1. Least concern
2. Under the foreign trade policy of India, 2. Data deficient
the import and export of Red Sanders is prohibited. 3. Not evaluated
3. It is listed under Schedule IV of The 4. Extinct in the wild
Wildlife Protection Act and Endangered as per IUCN Select the correct answer code:
Red List. a) 1, 2, 3
Which of the above statements is/are correct? b) 1, 4
a) 1 only c) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3 11) Consider the following pairs of wetlands and the
State they are located.
7) Consider the following statements regarding the 1. Tampara Lake : Odisha
distribution of Wetlands in India. 2. Kanjirankulam Bird Sanctuary : Tamil Nadu
1. According to National Wetland Inventory 3. Hygam Wetland Conservation Reserve :
and Assessment compiled by ISRO, wetlands are Andhra Pradesh
spread over more than 10 percent of the total Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
geographical area of India. a) 1 only
2. In state-wise distribution of wetlands, b) 1, 2
West Bengal is at the top position. c) 2, 3
3. Inland-natural wetlands account for d) 1, 2, 3
maximum share compared to coastal-natural
wetlands. 12) What are the sources that add nitrogen oxides
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (NOx) into the atmosphere?
a) 1, 2 1. Bacteria living in soil
b) 1, 3 2. Reaction of Ultraviolet radiation with ozone
c) 3 only 3. Lightning stroke
d) 2, 3 Select the correct answer code:
a) 2, 3
8) Which of the following can reveal patterns of b) 1, 3
climate change on earth? c) 1, 2
a) Study of tree rings d) 1, 2, 3
b) Study of Interglacial periods
c) Both a and b 13) Which of the following factors can lead to the
d) Neither a nor b creation of urban heat islands?
1. Vehicular emissions
9) Consider the following statements regarding 2. Concrete and asphalt structures
IUCN Red List. 3. Deforestation
1. The aim of the IUCN Red List is to convey 4. Density of population
the urgency of conservation issues to the public and Select the correct answer code:
policy makers, as well as help the international a) 1, 3
community to reduce species extinction. b) 1, 2, 3
2. It is the world’s most comprehensive c) 1, 3, 4
inventory of the global conservation status of d) 1, 2, 3, 4
biological species.
3. The pink pages in this publication include 14) Which of the following commodities/products
the formerly endangered species. is/are considered as Minor Forest Produce?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. Mahua Seeds
a) 1, 2 2. Teak
b) 1, 3 3. Sal Leaves
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4. Wild Honey 2. Increase in salinity in the soil can lead to
5. Seeded Tamarind change in the Plant Species Distribution in the
Select the correct answer code: region.
a) 1, 2, 3 Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
b) 1, 2, 4, 5 a) 1 only
c) 1, 3, 4, 5 b) 2 only
d) 2, 4, 5 c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
15) Consider the following statements regarding
Ruminant species. 19) Which of the following are the applications of
1. Ruminants are herbivorous grazing Shade house, used in farming?
mammals that are able to acquire nutrients from 1. It helps protect against pest attack.
plant-based food by fermenting it in a 2. It helps in quality drying of various agro
specialized stomach prior to digestion, principally products.
through microbial actions. 3. It helps in cultivation of flower plants and
2. Cows, sheep, goats, and buffaloes are foliage plants.
some of the Ruminants. 4. It is used for hardening tissue culture
3. Ruminant animals release methane mainly plantlets.
through burping. Select the correct answer code:
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2, 3
a) 1, 2 b) 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3 c) 1, 4
c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3
20) Consider the following statements.
16) Consider the following statements regarding 1. Mulch is a protective layer of material that
Mangroves. is spread on top of the soil.
1. Mangroves are salt-tolerant plant 2. As mulches slowly decompose, they
communities found in both tropical and subtropical provide organic matter which helps keep the soil
intertidal regions. loose.
2. In India, Gujarat has the highest Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
mangrove cover. a) 1 only
3. In India, there has been a decrease in the b) 2 only
mangrove cover from 1990 to 2021. c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the above statements is/are correct? d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only 21) Consider the following statements.
c) 1, 3 1. In its raw form, biogas can be used as a
d) 2, 3 clean cooking fuel.
2. Biogas can be purified and upgraded up to
17) ‘State of World Mangroves 2022’ report is 98 per cent of purity to make it suitable to be used
released by as a green fuel for transportation or filling of
a) United Nations Environment cylinders.
Programme (UNEP) 3. The Sustainable Alternatives Towards
b) Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) Affordable Transporation (SATAT) scheme by the
c) World Sustainable Ministry of New and Renewable Energy encourages
Development Forum (WSDF) entrepreneurs to set up compressed biogas (CBG)
d) None of the above plants.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
18) Consider the following statements. a) 1, 2
1. Decline in forest cover can lead to b) 1, 3
Nutrient depletion like phosphorus and nitrogen in c) 2, 3
the soil. d) 1, 2, 3

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3. Geography
1) Consider the following statements.
1. Kandla port is the first port developed
after India’s Independence
2. Visakhapatnam port is the oldest but
artificial port in India
3. Chennai port is the deepest landlocked
port in India
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
2) Which of the following are the destabilising
geological processes that pose a serious threat
to human habitation in the highlands of western
Ghats?
1. Land subsidence
2. Lateral spread
3. Soil piping
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
3) Consider the following statements.
1. Coal Mines (Nationalization) Act, 1973
was enacted to nationalise all the coal mines in
India.
2. Auctioning of coal mines to the private
players is done on the basis of offer of highest price/
tonne.
3. 90% of lignite reserves in India occur in
eastern parts of the India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
4) Consider the following statements.
1. In the last one decade, India’s total
fertility rate (TFR) has never been below the
replacement level fertility.
2. When the share of the working-age
population is larger than the non-working-age share
of the population, it can lead to demographic
dividend.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
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c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
5) Only one side of the Moon is visible from Earth
because
1. There is atmospheric refraction on earth
whereas atmosphere is absent on Moon.
2. Moon rotates on its axis at the same rate
that the Moon orbits the Earth
3. The moon has a geoid shape and the earth
has an axial tilt.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
6) Which of the following statement is correct
regarding Profundal zone?
a) It is a deep zone of inland body of free-
standing water, located below the range of
effective light penetration.
b) It is upper zone of inland body of free-
standing water
c) It is a deep zone of the sea located below
the range of effective light penetration.
d) None of the above.
7) Consider the following statements.
1. An earthquake causes many different
intensities of shaking, depending on how deep it is
located on the earth’s crust and how far it is from its
epicentre.
2. Earthquakes of lower magnitude are
always of low intensity.
3. The Modified Mercalli Scale is used to
rank earthquake intensity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
8) Consider the following statements regarding
earthquake related aftershocks.
1. Aftershocks are a sequence of
earthquakes that happen after a larger mainshock.
2. Aftershocks occur near the fault zone
where the mainshock rupture had occurred.
3. They become less frequent with time, but
can continue for weeks or months.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
9

d) 1, 2, 3
4. Government Schemes
and Programmes
1) Consider the following statements regarding the
BharatNet project.
1. BharatNet project seeks to provide e-
governance services to Gram Panchayats through an
Optical Fibre network operated by Bharat
Broadband Network Limited.
2. It is a Centre-state collaborative project
funded by the Universal Service Obligation Fund.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2) Which of the following statements regarding
Atal Tinkering Laboratories (ATLs) is incorrect?
a) ATL is an initiate of Niti Aayog
b) It aims to build innovative solutions for
India’s unique problems
c) ATL is to foster curiosity, creativity, and
imagination amongst college students across the
length and breadth of India
d) All the above statements are correct
3) Consider the following statements regarding
mandatory minimum sentencing.
1. Mandatory minimum sentencing means a
quantum of punishment which cannot be reduced
below the period fixed.
2. In India, such sentences are prescribed for
sexual offenses under the Prevention of Children
from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act.
3. When the legislature has prescribed a
minimum sentence without discretion, the same
cannot be reduced by the courts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
4) Consider the following statements regarding
Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
1. Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), is a
statutory body under Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
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2. It Implements international co-operation
programmes relating to efficient use of
energy and its conservation.
3. It is responsible for spearheading the
improvement of energy efficiency in the
economy through various regulatory and
promotional instruments.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
5) Consider the following statements.
1. The Bharat Ratna and Padma
Vibhushan are India’s highest civilian honours, both
instituted after India’s independence.
2. Padma Awards have been conferred every
year to deserving civilians, without any interruptions
since its inception.
3. Unlike Bharat Ratna, Padma Awards are
conferred only to Indian citizens are not to
foreigners.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
6) Consider the following statements regarding
Padma Awards.
1. The awardees do not get any cash reward
but a certificate signed by the President apart from a
medallion which they can wear at public and
government functions.
2. The awards are not a conferment of title
and the awardees are expected to not use them as
prefix or suffix to their names.
3. Padma awards are awarded only once for
a person, meaning a Padma Shri awardee cannot
receive a Padma Bhushan or Padma Vibhushan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
7) Consider the following statements regarding
Padma Awards.
1. All Government servants including those
working with PSUs are eligible for these awards.
2. Any citizen of India can nominate a
potential recipient and one can even nominate one’s
own self.
10

3. The lifetime achievement of an individual
is among the main considerations for selecting the
awardees.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
8) Consider the following statements.
1. Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme
is a regulatory instrument to reduce Energy
Consumption in energy intensive industries, and the
Energy consumption norms are set by Bureau of
Energy Efficiency (BEE).
2. India is obligated to cut carbon emissions
under the provisions of the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
9) Consider the following statements regarding
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).
1, Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(TRAI) was established through an Act of Parliament.
2. TRAI regulate telecom services, including
fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which
were earlier vested in the Central Government.
3. Telecommunications Dispute Settlement
and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) was established at
the same time along with TRAI, to hear and dispose
of appeals against any direction or order of TRAI.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
5. Science and Technology
1) Consider the following statements.
1. After Human body is exposed to a virus
for the first time, it produces memory B cells that
circulate in the bloodstream and quickly produce
antibodies whenever the same strain of the virus
infects again.
2. Immune imprinting is a tendency of the
body to repeat its immune response based on the
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first variant it encountered, when the body comes
across a newer or slightly different variant.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2) Consider the following statements regarding
Artemis Mission.
1. The Artemis program is a robotic and
human Moon exploration program led by European
Space Agency (ESA).
2. The Artemis program intends to
reestablish a human presence on the Moon for the
first time since the Apollo 17 mission.
3. The Artemis program is a collaboration
of government space agencies and private
spaceflight companies, bound together by
the Artemis Accords.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
3) Asphyxiation is a condition that occurs
a) Due to side effect of a treatment or
medicine
b) When immune system cannot
fight infectious diseases
c) When Human body is deprived of oxygen
d) None of the above
4) Consider the following statements regarding
Norovirus.
1. Norovirus is one of the primary causes of
gastroenteritis.
2. The virus is not capable of surviving low
temperatures, and hence the outbreaks tend to be
more common during Summer.
3. The infection can be transmitted through
foods contaminated with the virus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 3 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
5) Acinetobacter baumannii, Enterococcus faecalis,
Escherichia coli are
a) Genes that are artificially modified by
inserting genetic material from another organism
b) Drugs administered to livestock as
painkillers/anti-inflammatory drugs.
11

c) Pathogens that have the ability to develop
resistance to antibiotics.
d) Vectors that cause Dengue and Malaria
6) A Biomarker is generally used as an indicator of
a) Phenotype and genotype of a microbe
b) Biodiversity of an ecosystem
c) Diseases in an organism
d) Increase in the size of a biome
7) Consider the following statements regarding
Lymphatic Filariasis (LF).
1. Lymphatic filariasis, commonly known as
elephantiasis, is a neglected tropical disease.
2. It does not spread to humans through the
bite of mosquitoes.
3. Infection is usually acquired in childhood
causing hidden damage to the lymphatic system and
the visible manifestations of the disease occur later
in life.
4. In India, Anti-filarial drugs are
administered door-to-door through a nationwide
Mass Drug Administration (MDA) campaign.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
8) Consider the following statements regarding
Euthanasia.
1. Euthanasia refers to the practice of an
individual deliberately ending their life, oftentimes
to get relief from intolerable pain and suffering.
2. Active euthanasia refers to withdrawing
life support or treatment that is essential to keep a
terminally ill person alive.
3. In India, both the law and Supreme Court
order bans the practice of Euthanasia.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
9) “Superbugs” can develop with the abuse of
1. Antiparasitics
2. Antibiotics
3. Antivirals
4. Antifungals
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
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10) Consider the following statements regarding
Anamorphic projection technology.
1. Anamorphic projection creates an illusion
of reality.
2. It involves projecting on a large surface a
distorted image with the use of optical devices such
as mirrors or lenses.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
11) Consider the following statements regarding
Lab-grown diamonds (LGDs).
1. Lab-grown diamonds are produced using
specific technology which mimics the geological
processes that grow natural diamonds.
2. LGDs are chemically, physically and
optically diamond and thus it is difficult to
differentiate between LGD and an Earth Mined
Diamond.
3. They can be produced only through
extreme low temperature and low-pressure method.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
12) Consider the following statements.
1. Anthrax is an infectious disease caused by
Bacillus anthracis.
2. The disease-causing microbe for Anthrax
occurs naturally in soil.
3. Anthrax does not affect domestic or wild
animals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
13) Consider the following statements regarding
NISAR Satellite.
1. It is an Earth-observation satellite, wholly
developed by Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO).
2. It consists of both L-band and S-band
synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments, which
makes it a dual-frequency imaging radar satellite.
3. It is capable of penetrating clouds and can
collect data day and night regardless of the weather
conditions.
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 INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
Which of the above statements is/are correct? c) 2, 3, 4
a) 1, 2 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3 4) Which of the following statements is correct
d) 1, 2, 3 regarding Balfour Declaration of 1926?
a) British government established a
14) The term ‘Drug’, as per statutory provisions, "national home for the Jewish people" in Palestine
means b) India's membership of
1. preparations applied on human body for the Commonwealth of Nations
the purpose of repelling insects like mosquitoes. c) Dominions were defined as autonomous
2. substances used for the destruction communities within the British Empire
of vermin or insects which cause disease in human d) British government seeking the support of
beings or animals. Indian political leaders during the First World War.
3. substances intended to affect the
structure or any function of the human body. 5) Consider the following statements regarding
Select the correct answer code: International Court of Justice (ICJ).
a) 1, 2 1. ICJ acts as an appeal court for any
b) 1, 3 international tribunal.
c) 2, 3 2. ICJ can Suo Moto deal with any
d) 1, 2, 3 international dispute.
3. United Nations Charter authorizes the UN
Security Council to enforce ICJ rulings.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
6. International Relations c) 2, 3
and Organisations d) 3 only

1) United Nations Global Compact is associated 6) Partnership for Global Infrastructure and
with Investment (PGII), recently seen in news is the
a) Mitigate Climate Change initiative of
b) Refugee Crisis a) G20 countries
c) Encourage businesses to adopt b) G7 countries
sustainable and socially responsible policies c) World Bank
d) Management of global commons d) Organisation for Economic Co-operation
and Development (OECD)
2) Which of the following country provides
assistance to other countries for socio-economic
development projects under High Impact
Community Development Project (HICDP) 7. Polity
scheme?
a) United States 1) Which of the following is the competent
b) Japan authority to change the name of any State of
c) India India?
d) United Kingdom a) Concerned State Legislature
b) Union Home Minister
3) ‘I2U2’ group, recently seen in news comprises of c) Parliament
1. US d) Governor of the State
2. Iraq
3. India 2) Which of the following cases of the Supreme
4. UAE Court of India are related to Surveillance?
Select the correct answer code: 1. S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India verdict of
a) 1, 2, 3 2017
b) 1, 3, 4

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2. People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) vs
Union of India case
3. Indra Sawhney and Others vs. Union of
India & Others
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
3) The judgement “Kedar Nath vs State of Bihar
(1962)”, sometimes seen in news is related to
a) Person's right to not be unlawfully
detained
b) Basic structure of the Constitution
c) Constitutionality of Sec. 124A of IPC
d) Balance between Fundamental Rights and
DPSPs
4) Consider the following statements regarding
Cabinet Committees.
1. Cabinet Committees are mentioned in the
Constitution of India.
2. They facilitate in-depth examination of
policy issues and effective coordination.
3. The Cabinet can review their decisions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
5) Consider the following statements regarding
Contempt of Court.
1. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, states
that fair criticism of any case which has been
heard and decided is not contempt.
2. Civil contempt means wilful disobedience
to any judgement and publication of any
matter which lowers the authority of a
court.
3. Criminal contempt means doing an act
that obstructs the administration of Justice.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3
6) Consider the following statements.
1. The Bar Council of India is a statutory
body that regulates the legal practice and legal
education in India.
2. In India, the law empowers the Bar
Council of India (BCI) to make rules with respect to
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“the standard of professional conduct and etiquette
to be observed by advocates”.
3. In India, the law allows the lawyers and
legal practitioners to advertise their work.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
7) Consider the following statements.
1. State legislatures can make law
prescribing a requirement of residence for jobs in a
particular state.
2. Reservation for Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is
referred to as vertical reservation.
3. Horizontal reservation refers to
opportunity provided to beneficiaries such as
women, the transgender community, domicile and
individuals with disabilities, cutting through the
vertical categories.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
8) Consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution of India grants the
Supreme Court the power to review its judgments or
orders.
2. A review petition must be filed within 30
days of pronouncement of the judgment.
3. A review petition is allowed on narrow
grounds to correct grave errors that have resulted in
a miscarriage of justice.
4. The Constitution of India species that the
review petitions must be heard in an open court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 4
9) In India which of the following states have
notified Fifth Schedule areas?
1. Odisha
2. Telangana
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Himachal Pradesh
5. Rajasthan
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 4, 5
14

c) 2, 3, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
10) Article 87 of the constitution of India provides
which of the following occasion(s) on which the
President of India addresses a joint sitting of the
parliament.
1. Opening session of a new legislature after
a general election.
2. First sitting of Parliament each year.
3. Deadlock over the Constitution
Amendment Bill between both the houses of
parliament.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
11) Consider the following statements regarding the
President’s address to the Parliament of India as
contained in Article 87 of the Constitution.
1. The address of the President highlights
the government’s accomplishments from the
previous year and sets the broad governance agenda
for the coming year.
2. After the President’s address, the two
Houses move a motion to thank the President for
her speech.
3. Till now there are no instances of
amendments passed to the motion of thanks in both
the houses of the parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
12) PESA Act empowers gram sabhas to play a key
role in approving development plans and
controlling all social sectors. This includes
1. Preventing land alienation
2. Regulating intoxicants
3. Managing local markets
4. Exercising control over all forest
resources.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
13) Consider the following statements regarding
Zero Hour, in the Indian parliamentary system.
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1. While Question Hour is strictly regulated,
Zero Hour is an Indian parliamentary innovation.
2. It is mentioned in the parliamentary rules
book.
3. During this hour, MPs can raise matters
without any prior notice.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3
14) With reference to Parliamentary Standing
Committees consider the following statements:
1. Standing Committees are permanent in
nature.
2. Standing Committees not only supervise
the work of various departments but also
their budget.
3. Members of all the Standing committees
are selected from both Houses.
4. Public Accounts Committee is an example
of Standing Committee.
5. Standing Committees are means of
parliamentary control over the executive.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3, 5
b) 1, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
8. History, Art and Culture
1) Consider the following statements.
1. Charaideo moidams are royal burial
sites of Ahom dynasty.
2. Charaideo moidams are mainly located in
Tripura.
3. Till now no cultural heritage site in the
North East India has been included in the
UNESCO World Heritage Sites list.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
2) Consider the following statements regarding
Uroosi.
1. Uroosi is a Gupta-era architectural
feature.
15

2. Wooden shutters are used as partition
walls within buildings, instead of concrete walls.
3. Uroosi work includes octagonal and
decagonal ornamental pillars too.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
3) Consider the following statements regarding
Mughal Gardens.
1. A defining feature of these gardens is the
use of waterways, often to demarcate the various
quadrants of the garden.
2. Gardens surrounding Humanyun’s
Tomb in Delhi and Nishat Bagh in Srinagar were built
in this style.
3. At present India is the only country to
have Mughal Gardens.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
9. Agriculture
1) Consider the following statements regarding
Conservation Agriculture (CA).
1. Conservation Agriculture (CA) is a farming
system that can prevent losses of arable land while
regenerating degraded lands.
2. It includes crop-livestock integration and
the integration of trees and pastures into
agricultural landscapes.
3. External inputs such as agrochemicals are
completely avoided so that it does not disrupt the
biological processes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
2) Which of the following are the advantages of
Drip irrigation.
1. Prevents disease by minimizing water
contact with the leaves, stems, and fruit of plants.
2. It reduces weed growth.
3. Reduces leaching of water and nutrients
below the root zone.
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Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
3) Consider the following statements regarding
Coffee Production in India
1. Coffee in India is grown under a canopy of
thick natural shade in ecologically sensitive
regions of the Western and Eastern Ghats.
2. Kerala is the leading producer of coffee in
India.
3. The two main varieties of coffee grown in
India are Arabica and Robusta, with Arabica
type of coffee being produced more than
Robusta type In the last decade.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
10. Defence and Security
1) Consider the following statements.
1. A chargesheet is the final report prepared
by a police officer or investigative agencies after
completing their investigation of a case.
2. A chargesheet must be filed against the
accused within a prescribed period, otherwise the
arrest is illegal and the accused is entitled to bail.
3. The terms ‘chargesheet’ and ‘First
Information Report (FIR)’ are defined in Code of
Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
2) Consider the following statements regarding
live-fire exercises.
1. They are exercises used by military
personnel, in which live ammunition is used to
create conditions that are as close to real combat
scenarios as possible.
2. As part of No first use (NFU) policy, India
does not carry out live-fire exercises.
3. During live-fire training, soldiers are
placed in simulated combat situations and are given
16
 INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
the opportunity to use their weapons and 4. The Nile River does not flow through
equipment. Egypt.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3 a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2 b) 1, 2
c) 1 only c) 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3, 4

4) Berring strait connects which of the following

oceans/seas?
1. Arctic Ocean
11. Maps / Places 2. Atlantic Ocean
3. Pacific Ocean
1) Which of these African states border the 4. Mediterranean Sea
Mediterranean Sea? Select the correct answer code:
1. Egypt a) 1, 2
2. Chad b) 1, 3
3. Tunisia c) 2, 4
4. Niger d) 3, 4
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 3 5) Caspian Sea is bordered by
b) 3, 4 a) Russia, Kazakhstan, Afghanistan and Iran
c) 1 only b) Russia, Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan and Iran
d) 2, 3 c) Russia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan and Iran
d) Russia, Kazakhstan, Afghanistan and
2) Which of the following countries share their Azerbaijan
boundary with Lake Victoria?
1. Tanzania
2. Rwanda
3. Kenya 12. Miscellaneous
4. Uganda
Select the correct answer code: 1) Consider the following statements regarding
a) 1, 2 Darjeeling Himalayan Railway (DHR).
b) 1, 3, 4 1. The Darjeeling Himalayan Railway (DHR)
c) 1, 3 started its operations in the pre-independence era.
d) 2, 3, 4 2. The DHR is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
3. The DHR is part of the Eastern Frontier
3) Consider the following statements regarding Railway (EFR).
geography of Egypt. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Egypt is a transcontinental a) 1 only
country spanning both Africa and Asia. b) 1, 2
2. It is bordered by the Mediterranean c) 1, 3
Sea to the north and the Red Sea to the east. d) 2, 3
3. Suez Canal is located in Egypt, which
connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.

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