DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/03

Test No.
CSE QUALIFIER - 2022
POLITY - 3 03
Time Allowed: One Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

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1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number carefully
without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
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3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
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responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
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7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the
Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/03

PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/03
1. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the following
1. The grounds for national emergency were code:
broadened by the 44th Constitutional (a) 1 and 2 only
Amendment Act.
(b) 1 and 3 only
2. The proclamation of national emergency
(c) 2 and 3 only
is ‘immune’ to the judicial review due to
the 38th Constitutional Amendment Act (d) 1, 2 and 3
and is still immune today.
3. The financial emergency must be 4. Which of the following describes the correct
approved from both the Houses of the procedure prescribed in the Constitution of
Parliament. India for the revocation of a State Emergency
operational in a State?
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) It can be revoked by passing a bill in the
(a) 1 and 2 only Rajya Sabha.
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) It can be revoked by the written
(c) 3 only recommendation of the Governor of the

(d) 1 and 3 only
2. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding the ‘President’s Rule’?
1. The President is empowered by
the Constitution to proclaim ‘State
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Emergency’ if he/she is satisfied that the
state cannot be carried on in accordance
with the directions from the Union
Government.
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2. President can proclaim the State
Emergency that requires mandatory
approval of the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the following
code:
(a) 1 only
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State.
(c) It can be revoked by the subsequent
proclamation by the President himself/
herself.
(d) It can only be revoked by completing its
duration decided by both houses of the
Parliament, if not extended further.
5. Which of the following is/are correct about
the state’s legislature during the President’s
Rule?
1. The legislative process (formation of new
laws) remains suspended in the state till
the new legislative assembly is instated.
2. The President can declare that the powers
of the state legislature are to be exercised
by the Parliament.

(b) 2 only 3. Parliament can delegate the power to

make laws for the state to the President
(c) Both 1 and 2 or to any other authority specified by him
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 in this regard.
4. Laws made during the period of the
3. Which of the following statements is/are President’s rule cease to be operational
correct regarding the ‘President’s Rule’ in a unless it is again passed by the state
state? legislature.

1. It can be extended beyond 1 year if Select the correct answer using the following
a nationwide National Emergency is code:
already in operation. (a) 1 only
2. The satisfaction of the President in (b) 2 and 3 only
invoking Article 356 is final and conclusive
and cannot be challenged in any court. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

3. During a State Emergency, the President (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

can assume to himself/herself any of the
functions of the Government of the State 6. Which of the following correctly highlights the
and any of the powers vested in the difference between National emergency and
Governor. State emergency?

PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/03 2
 (a) Both can be extended up to a maximum
period of three years.
(b) During the National Emergency, the
state legislature continues to exist but in
the President’s rule, the state legislature
is either suspended or dissolved.
(c) In both cases, Parliament can make/
delegate to make laws for the state(s)
on the subjects enumerated in the State
list.
(d) None of the above.
7. In which of the following situations it will be
‘improper’ to use Article 356 of the Constitution
according to the guidelines laid down by the
Supreme Court based on the judgment in S. R.
Bommai case and the recommendations of the
Sarkaria Commission?
1. Internal disturbances, not amounting
to internal subversion or physical
breakdown.
2. When a state government is pursuing O
anti-secular politics.
3. Maladministration in the state or
allegations of corruption against the
ministry or stringent financial exigencies
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of the state.
4. Where after general elections to the
assembly, no party secures a majority,
that is, ‘Hung Assembly’.
5. Where a constitutional direction of the
Central government is disregarded by
the state government.
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Select the correct answer using the following
code:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
8. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding the proclamation of the
financial emergency by the President?
1. President must have prior approval of
both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
to proclaim the financial emergency.
2. Once it is approved by both the Houses
of the Parliament, it can continue
indefinitely.
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Select the correct answer using the following
code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which of the following is correct regarding the
consequences of the proclamation of a financial
emergency by the President?
(a) President may issue the direction for the
deduction of the salaries of all or any
class of persons serving the union except
judges of the Supreme Court and high
courts.
(b) The Centre’s executive authority extends
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to (but is not limited to) taking actions to
maintain the ‘rule of law’ and ‘law and
order’ in the states.
(c) All the money bills or other financial
bills passed by the state legislature can
be reserved for the Union Cabinet’s
consideration before approval of the
President.
(d) None of the above.
10. Which of the following is correct about the
revocation of the financial emergency?
(a) It can be revoked by the Parliament
after the Governor of the RBI submits
his/her report before the Parliament
declaring the end of the financial crisis
that led to the imposition of the financial
emergency.
(b) It may be revoked by the President at any
time by the subsequent proclamation.
(c) Proclamation by the President to revoke
a financial emergency must have the
approval of both the houses of the
parliament passed by a simple majority.
(d) All of the above.
11. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding the national emergency?
1. It can declared only when the security
of India or a part of it is threatened by
war or external aggression or armed
rebellion.
2. The 44th Amendment Act, 1976 enabled
the Parliament to limit the operation of
the national emergency to a specified
part of India.
 3. The emergency can be declared only 14. Which of the following statements is/are correct
on the concurrence of the cabinet and regarding the effects of National Emergency
not merely on the advice of the prime on Federalism?
minister. 1. The Centre becomes entitled to give
Select the correct answer using the code given executive directions to a state on ‘any’
matter.
below:
2. The laws made by Parliament on
(a) 1 and 3 only the state subjects during a National
(b) 2 only Emergency remain operative even after
the emergency has ceased to operate.
(c) 1 and 2 only
3. The President can modify the
(d) 3 only constitutional distribution of revenues
between the centre and the states while
12. Consider the following statements a proclamation of national emergency is
regarding approval and duration of National in operation.
Emergency: Select the correct answer using the code given
1. The proclamation of National Emergency below:

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must be approved by both the Houses of (a) 1 only
Parliament.
(b) 2 only
2. The parliamentary approval is necessary
(c) 1 and 3 only
for extension of National Emergency
every six months. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Every resolution approving the
proclamation of emergency or its
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continuance must be passed by either incorrect regarding the effects of National
House of Parliament by a simple Emergency?
majority. 1. The tenure of Lok Sabha can be extended
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by a law of Parliament for one year at a
Which of the statements given above is/are time.
correct?
2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined
(a) 2 and 3 only under Article 21 are automatically
(b) 1 and 2 only suspended.
3. President is authorised to suspend
(c) 2 only
the right to move any court for the
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(d) 1 only enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Select the correct answer using the code given
13. Consider the following statements: below:
1. Rajya Sabha has no role in the revocation (a) 1 and 2 only
of National Emergency despite the (b) 2 only
proclamation must be approved by this
House. (c) 3 only

2. A resolution of disapproval of national (d) 2 and 3 only

emergency is required to be passed only
with simple majority. 16. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The subjects of water supply and
correct? irrigation are listed in the concurrent
list of Schedule 7 of the Constitution of
(a) 1 only India.
(b) 2 only 2. Parliament may, by law provide that
neither the Supreme Court nor any other
(c) Both 1 and 2
court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of any inter-State river water dispute.

PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/03 4
 Which of the statements given above is/are 20. Inter-State council was first set up on the
correct? recommendation of which of the following?
(a) 1 only (a) Sarkaria Commission
(b) 2 only (b) Rajmannar Commission
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) First administrative reform commission
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Punchhi Commission

17. Consider the following with regards to sub- 21. Consider the following statements regarding
judice inter-state river water disputes: the inter-state trade and commerce in India:
River Water States involved 1. Article 301 of Indian Constitution
dispute declares that trade, commerce and
1. Mahadayi River Goa, Karnataka, intercourse throughout the territory of
Maharashtra India shall be free.
2. Vamsadhra River Andhra Pradesh, 2. The freedom of trade and commerce
Odisha afforded by Article 301 applies to inter-

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state activities but not to intra-state
3. Kaveri River Kerala, activities.
Karnataka,
Andhra Pradesh Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which of the above pairs are correctly (a) 1 only
matched?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b)
(c)
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
O (c)
(d)
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3 22. Consider the following statements:

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18. Consider the following statements:
1. Till date, no river board has been created
under River Board Act, 1956.
2. The most recent amendment made to
the Interstate River Water Disputes Act,
1956 was in 2002.
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1. Under no circumstances, the Parliament
can favor one state over another in the
inter-state trade and commerce between
two states.
2. A state government cannot make a law
to impose trade restrictions on another
state.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. Which of the following statements with regards
to inter-state council is not correct?
(a) The Indian Constitution provides for the
establishment of an Inter-State Council.
(b) Inter-State Council is not a permanent
constitutional body.
(c) The Union Home Minister acts as the
chairman of the council.
(d) Members of the council includes Chief
Ministers of all states.
23. Which of the following statements regarding
Zonal Councils in India is incorrect?
(a) Provision for Zonal Councils has
been provided under Part XIII of the
constitution
(b) There are five zonal councils formed
under States Reorganisation Act 1956
(c) The North Eastern Zonal Council was
not created under States Reorganisation
Act 1956

5 PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/03
 (d) Zonal councils are advisory bodies that 2. The laws made by Parliament are
make recommendations with regard to executed by the State unless stated
any matter of common interest otherwise.
Which of the statements given above is/are
24. Consider the following statements: correct?
1. The Union Home Minister is the common
(a) 1 only
chairman of five zonal councils formed
under States Reorganisation Act, 1956 (b) 2 only
2. The union territories of Andaman and (c) Both 1 and 2
Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep are not
members of any of the Zonal Councils. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct? 28. Consider the following statements:

(a) 1 only 1. The President can delegate executive

functions of the Centre to the State,
(b) 2 only without the consent of the State.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The Governor of State can delegate

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(d) Neither 1 or 2 executive functions of State to the
Centre, with the consent of the Central
Government.
25. Which of the following is not a purpose behind
the establishment of zonal councils? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Bringing out national integration
(b) Arresting the growth of acute State (a) 1 only
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consciousness, regionalism, linguism and (b) 2 only
particularistic tendencies
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Framing laws and rules relating to inter-
state affairs affecting multiple states in (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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a region
(d) Establishing a climate of co-operation 29. Which of the following is/are the impact
amongst the States for successful of National Emergency on Centre-State
and speedy execution of development relations?
projects 1. The President can issue ordinances on
State subjects.
26. In which of the following conditions, the 2. The President can make laws on subjects
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Parliament can make laws on subjects in the State list.

enumerated in State List?
Select the correct answer using the code given
1. When a state makes a request
below:
2. To fulfil an International Agreement
(a) 1 only
3. During Financial emergency
(b) 2 only
4. When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) Both 1 and 2
below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only 30. With reference to Goods and Services tax,
consider the following statements:
(c) 2 and 4 only
1. Both Centre and State have power to
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 make laws on taxation on Goods and
Services.
27. Consider the following statements: 2. Inter-state laws are exclusively under
1. The executive power in the state is jurisdiction of the Centre and intra-state
restricted so as to ensure compliance to exclusively under the jurisdiction of the
existing laws in the State. State Government.

PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/03 6
 Which of the statements given above is/are 33. Which of the following statements regarding
correct? special provisions for states under Article 371
to 371-J is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
1. Originally the Constitution did not make
(b) 2 only any special provisions for these states.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Under Article 371, President is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 empowered to setup development boards
for Vidarbha and Marathwada.

31. Which of the following statements regarding
5th schedule is/are correct?
1. The Governor of the state is empowered
to declare an area to be a scheduled area
in that particular state.
2. Each state under this schedule has
to establish a tribal advisory council
consisting of 20 members.
3. Article 371-J empowers President to
provide for the creation of a committee
of the Manipur Legislative Assembly
consisting of the members elected from
the Hill Areas of the state
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only

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3. The governor is empowered to direct if (b) 2 and 3 only
any particular act of Parliament apply to (c) 1 and 3 only
a scheduled area or apply with specified
(d) 1, 2 and 3
modifications and exceptions.
Select the correct answer using the code given 34. Consider the following statements regarding
below:
(a)
(b)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
O special provision for Andhra Pradesh and
Mizoram under Article 371-D and 371-G:
1. President can specify any part of Andhra
Pradesh which shall be regarded as
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(c) 2 only the local area for admission to any
educational institution.
(d) 1 and 3 only
2. The Mizoram Legislative Assembly is to
consist of not less than 50 members.
32. Which of the following statements regarding
6th schedule are correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Areas under the 6th schedule do not fall (a) 1 only
outside the executive authority of the
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(b) 2 only
state concerned.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. In Assam, Governor is empowered to
specifiy modifications and exceptions (d) Neither 1 nor 2
with respect to acts of both Parliament
and the state legislature. 35. Consider the following statements regarding
3. Each autonomous district has a district Jammu and Kashmir:
council consisting of 30 members, of whom 1. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation
four are nominated by the governor and Act, 2019 bifurcated the erstwhile State
the remaining 26 are elected on the basis by adding Kargil district to Jammu and
of adult franchise. Kashmir and Leh districts into Ladakh.

Select the correct answer using the code given 2. The Presidential order “The Constitution
below: (Application to Jammu and Kashmir)
Order, 2019 permanently deleted Article
(a) 1 and 2 only 370 from the Constitution.
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only

7 PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/03
 (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

36. Which of the following is/are non-tax revenue 39. Consider the following:
receipts of the State Government?
1. Rajamannar Commission
1. Posts and Telegraph
2. Rangarajan Committee
2. Fisheries
3. Punchhi Commission
3. Forests
Which of the above Committees/ Commissions
Select the correct option using the code given were established to recommend on Centre-
below.
State relations?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

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37. With regard to the Governor, which of the
following recommendations were given by the 40. With reference to National Integration Council,
Sarkaria Commission? consider the following statements:
1. He must be a person from outside of the 1. It is a statutory body, which was first
State. established in 1961.
2. He should be appointed in consultation 2. The members of NIC consist of Members
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with the Chief Minister of state, Vice- of Parliament and State legislative
president of India and Speaker of Lok assembly only.
Sabha.
3. The NIC was constituted to combat
3. He should be given post-retirement the evils of communalism, casteism,
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benefits. regionalism, and linguism.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

38. The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-

State relations gave which of the following 41. Consider the following statements:
recommendations to improve relationship 1. Centre-state legislative relations
between Centre and States? have been discussed in Part 11 of the
1. More All-India services should be Constitution.
created. 2. The distribution of powers between the
2. The Centre should take permission from Centre and the states in the Indian
the States, before deploying military Constitution is based on the scheme
forces in the State. provided in the Government of India Act
3. Before passing a legislation on Concurrent 1919.
list subject, the Centre should confer with Which of the above statements is/are correct?
the States.
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/03 8
42. Consider the following statements with 45. Consider the following statements and select
respect to recommendation given by Sarkaria the incorrect one:
Commission on Centre State Legislative
Relations: (a) In distributing subject matters between
the Centre and States, our constitution
1. The Centre should consult the states makers followed Canadian scheme.
before making a law on a subject of the
Concurrent List. (b) The division of legislative subjects
between the Centre and the States is
2. Powers related to taxation should
kept under 7th Schedule.
remain with Parliament, while the other
residuary powers should be placed in (c) Power to make laws with residuary
Concurrent List. subject is vested in the Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (d) Union list has precedence over state
(a) 1 only list and state list has precedence over
concurrent list.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 46. In context of legislative power of centre and
(d) Neither 1 and 2 state, consider the following statements:

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1. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978
43. With reference to various legislative increased the number of the subjects in
dimensions shared between centre and states, the Concurrent List.
consider the following statements: 2. Constitution and organization of all
1. Only President has the power to enforce courts including the Supreme Court and
any law of the Parliament in the tribal High Courts comes under the Concurrent
districts having a special status in List.
Schedule 6 states.
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2. Laws of Parliament govern the Indian
Subjects and their property in any part
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
of the world. (b) 2 only
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Which of the above statements is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
47. Consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The new Union territory of Jammu
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
and Kashmir has been provided with
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Legislative Assembly and Legislative

44. With reference to Territorial extent of central Council.
and state legislation, consider the following
2. The High Court of Jammu and Kashmir
statements:
is the common High Court for the Union
1. The Parliament can make regulations for Territories of Ladakh, and Jammu and
the peace, progress and good government Kashmir.
of Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep,
Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu Which of the statements given above is/are
and Ladakh. correct?
2. Laws made by the state are not applicable (a) 1 only
outside the state, except when there is
(b) 2 only
sufficient relation between the state and
object. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the above statement is/are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
48. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only
1. Parliament may by law form a new State
(c) Both 1 and 2
by separation of territory from any State
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 or by uniting two or more States.

9 PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/03
 2. First Schedule of the Constitution lists (c) Both 1 and 2
the States and their Capital cities. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 50. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 1 only ‘Administrative relations between the Centre
and the States’:
(b) 2 only
1. The President cannot entrust the
(c) Both 1 and 2 executive functions of the Centre to a
State without the consent of that state.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The only possible way a State can entrust
the executive functions of the State to the
49. Consider the following statements regarding Centre is through a legislation.
the parliamentary legislation in the state
3. A resolution supported by the two third
field:
members of the Rajya Sabha present and
1. Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution to voting alone can entrust the executive
make laws on the state list. functions of the Centre to a State without
the Consent of that state.

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2. Resolution should pass with a simple
majority. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 3 only
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 2 only
(b) 2 only 1 only
O (d)

™™™™™
SC
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 Space for Rough Work

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SC
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