DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/02

Test No.
CSE QUALIFIER - 2022
POLITY - 2 02
Time Allowed: One Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

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1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number carefully
without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
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3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
SC
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
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7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the
Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.

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1 PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/02

PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/02
1. Which of the following statements regarding must have the prior recommendation of
the political classification of the territory of the President of India.
India is not correct? 2. President can recommend any such bill
(a) A state’s legislature consists of a mentioned in statement 1, only after
Governor and a unicameral or a bicameral taking the formal view of the members of
legislature. the Union Cabinet.

(b) In 1950, the Constitution of India 3. The President (or Parliament) is not
described territories of India under four bound by the views of the state legislature
heads namely part A, B, C, and D. and may either accept or reject them,
regarding the bill mentioned in statement
(c) ‘Union Territories with legislature’ have 1, even if the views are received in time.
the Chief Minister as their executive
head while the ‘Union Territories without Select the correct answer using the following
legislature’ have the President as their code:
executive head. (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) ‘Union territories without legislature’ (b) 1 and 3 only
do not have representation in the Rajya
(c) 2 and 3 only
Sabha of the Parliament.

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(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Identify the A (Entity) and B (Actions) and
find the correct pair(s) of A and B from the list 4. Which of the following statements is/are
given below: correct regarding the organization of the
States in the Union of India under the Indian
A (Entity) B (Actions) Constitution?
1. The President
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To admit a new state into 1. The State of Andhra became the first
the union of India on the linguistic state formed in the year 1953,
advice of the Council of on the recommendation of Fazl Ali
the Ministers. Commission.
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2. The Parliament To admit a new state into 2. By the States Reorganisation Act (1956)
the union of India. and the 7th Constitutional Amendment
3. The President To establish a new state Act (1956), some of the Part C states
within the existing gave rise to the special type of territories
territory of the union known as the Union territories.
of India by issuing a 3. In the year 1972, the NEFA (North-
presidential order. East Frontier Agency) was reorganised
4. The Parliament To establish a new state into two separate states of Mizoram and
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into the union of India Arunachal Pradesh.

that is not a part of the Select the correct answer using the following
union before. code:
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 2 only
below:
(b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only 5. Consider the following statements regarding
the state of Sikkim:
3. Which of the following statements is/are correct 1. Sikkim became the 22nd state of the Union
about the power of the Parliament regarding of India and it was admitted in the Union
the alteration of states and their boundaries as a result of referendum in 1975.
within the territory of the Union of India? 2. 35th Constitutional Amendment Act
1. Any bill that is to be introduced relating (1974), conferred the Sikkim a status
to altering the area, boundary, or name of ‘Associate state’ but people of the
of one or more existing state(s) of India Sikkim state in 1975, voted to abolish

PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/02 2
 the institution of monarchy and make 2. They serve as a warning against the
Sikkim a State of Union of India. anti-national and antisocial activities in
public sphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct regarding the Constitution (First 9. Consider the following statements regarding
Amendment) Act, 1951? fundamental duties:
1. It was moved by then Prime Minister Mr. 1. They are non-justiciable and non-
J. L. Nehru. enforceable in nature.
2. It was not discussed in the Rajya Sabha 2. There is no legal sanction against their

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of the Parliament. violation.
3. It created the 9th Schedule of the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Constitution to prevent the land reform
laws from judicial review. (a) 1 only
Choose the correct answer using the following (b) 2 only
codes. (c) Both 1 and 2
(a)
(b)
(c)
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
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10. Which of the following statements regarding

Fundamental rights and duties are correct?
1, 2 and 3
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(d)
1. Rights of a Citizen also imply Duties for
him.
7. Which of the following statements regarding
evolution and features of Fundamental Duties 2. Right of One is the Duty of Others.
are correct? 3. Rights of a person also bring with them
1. The Fundamental Duties in the Indian the duty towards the State.
Constitution are inspired by the 4. A duty-centred society is more concerned
Constitution of erstwhile USSR. about the rights and freedoms of others
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2. The original constitution had 10 than a right cantered society.

fundamental duties and 11th was added Choose the correct option using the codes
by 42nd amendment act. given below:
3. They are confined to citizens of India only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
and not to any foreigner.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Choose the correct answer using the codes
given below: (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 only
11. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. Only Parliament can make laws which
(d) 3 only prescribe residence as a condition
of employment in a state or union
8. Consider the following statements regarding territory.
significance of Fundamental Duties: 2. Traffic in human beings is a subject in
1. They help the courts in examining and Concurrent list, and thus both Centre
determining the constitutional validity and State can make laws prescribing
of a law. punishments for the same.

3 PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/02
 Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the above statements is/are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 or 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Consider the following statements:
12. Consider the following statements: 1. A State is a Political Organisation while a
1. Article 31A specifies that any law made to Nation is a social, cultural, psychological,
implement Article 39 (b) and 39 (c), shall emotional and political unity.
not be held void even if it contravenes 2. Possession of a Definite Territory is
Fundamental right Article 14 and 19. essential for the State but not for a
Nation.
2. Article 31A was inserted through the
25th Constitutional Amendment Act. 3. Sovereignty is essential for State but not
for Nation.

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3. DPSPs are non-justiciable.
4. The State uses police power (force) for
Which of the statements given above is/are preserving its unity and integrity, the
incorrect? Nation is bound by strong cultural and
(a) 1 and 3 only historical links.

(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the above statements are correctly

highlighting the difference between a Nation
(c) 1 and 2 only
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(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
13. Which of the following is/are the philosophy
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based on which the Indian Constitution was (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
created? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Federalism
2. National Identity 16. Which of the following was not a part of the
original Constitution in 1949?
3. Individual Freedom
(a) To promote equal justice and to provide
4. Secularism
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free legal aid to the poor

Select the correct option using the code given
(b) Secure for all citizens a uniform civil code
below: throughout the country
(a) 1 and 4 only (c) Make provision for just and humane
(b) 1 and 2 only conditions of work and maternity relief

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) Organize agriculture and animal

husbandry on modern and scientific
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 lines

14. Consider the following statements: 17. Consider the following:

1. Freedom of press is an essential element
of the right to freedom of speech and
expression under Article 19 of the
constitution of India
2. The Constitution guarantees the right
to peaceful protest, therefore any public
way and public space can be occupied for
assembly.
1. Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 aligns
with one of the directives under Part IV
of the constitution.
2. The idea of Directive Principles for
State policy under Part IV of the Indian
constitution was adopted from the Irish
constitution.

PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/02 4
 Which of the above statements is/are correct? 21. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. In the Golaknath Case, the Supreme Court
held that the Fundamental Rights cannot
(b) 2 only
be amended for the implementation of
(c) Both 1 and 2 the Directive Principles.
(d) Neither 1 or 2 2. The DPSPs does not require legislation
for their implementation whereas the
Fundamental Rights require legislation
18. Which of the directive principles mentioned
for their implementation because FRs
under Part IV of the constitution can be
are justiciable in nature.
classified under Gandhian principles?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(a) Organize agriculture and animal
husbandry on modern and scientific correct?
lines (a) 1 only
(b) Promote cottage industries on an (b) 2 only
individual or co-operation basis in rural
(c) Both 1 and 2
areas
Neither 1 nor 2

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(c) Take steps to secure the participation (d)
of workers in the management of
industries 22. Which of the following laws restrict the
Freedom of Speech and Expression in India?
(d) Separate the judiciary from the executive
in the public services of the State 1. Whoever, by words, either spoken
or written, or by signs, or by visible
O representation, brings or attempts to
19. Which of the following reasons is often stated
bring into hatred or contempt, or excites
for the criticism of Directive Principles of State
or attempts to excite disaffection towards
Policy?
the Government can be punished with
1. It has no legal force. imprisonment.
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2. It may produce constitutional conflict 2. The punishment for words, either
between center and state. spoken or written, or signs or visible
3. It is arranged logically but it is not representations that promote, on grounds
exhaustive. of religion, race, place of birth, residence,
language, caste or community, feelings of
Select the correct answer using the codes given
enmity, hatred or ill-will between different
below:
religious, racial, language or regional
(a) 1 and 2 only groups or castes or communities.
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(b) 1 and 3 only 3. The punishments for deliberate and

(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
20. Which of the following best describes the
purpose of Part IV of the constitution?
(a) It seeks to establish economic and social
democracy in the country.
(b) It essentially contains a codification of
tasks integral to the Indian way of life.
(c) It preserves individual liberty and
democratic principles based on the
equality of all members of society.
(d) It serves as a constant reminder to every
citizen to observe certain basic norms
of democratic conduct and democratic
behaviour.
malicious acts, intended to outrage
religious feelings or any class by insulting
its religion or religious beliefs, by words,
either spoken or written, or by signs or
by visible representations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
23. Which of the following statements regarding
Constitutionalism are correct?
1. It is a complex of ideas, attitudes, and
patterns of behavior elaborating the

5 PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/02
 principle that the authority of government (c) 2 and 3 only
derives from and is limited by a body of
(d) 1, 2 and 3
fundamental law.
2. Under this system, the rulers demand
unquestioning obedience from the ruled. 26. With reference to Pravasi Bharatiya Divas,
Consider the following statement given
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are below:
correct?
1. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD)
(a) 1 only
Convention is the flagship event of the
(b) 2 only Ministry of Tourism.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is held every
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 year to mark the contribution of Overseas
Indian community in the development of
India.
24. Consider the following statements regarding
Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA): Which of the above statement is/are correct?
1. It allowed parliament to make laws (a) 1 only
imposing restrictions on the fundamental

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rights to freedom of expression, to (b) 2 only
assemble without arms and to form (c) Both 1 and 2
associations.
2. It covers terrorism, money laundering for (d) Neither 1 nor 2
terror financing and designation of groups
as well as individuals as terrorist. 27. Citizenship of India can be acquired in which
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Which of the statement(s) given above is/are of the following ways?
correct? 1. Citizenship at the commencement of the
(a) 1 only Constitution
(b) 2 only 2. Citizenship by birth
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(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Citizenship by descent
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Citizenship by registration
5. Citizenship by naturalization
25. Consider the following statements regarding 6. By incorporation of territory (by the
Information Technology (IT) Rules, 2021: Government of India)
1. The transactions carried out through
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electronic communication are exempted Select the correct answer using the code given
from the scope of the IT Act, 2000. below:
2. The “Statement of Objects and Reasons” (a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
of the IT Act itself states that it is
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
intended to prevent possible misuse
arising out of transactions and other (c) 1, 2 and 6 only
dealings concluded over the electronic
medium. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
3. The subjects “News and current affairs
content on online platforms” and “Films 28. With reference to Constitutional provision of
and Audio-Visual programmes made citizenship, which of the following statements
available by online content providers” lie is/are incorrect?
within the administrative ambit of the
1. People voluntarily acquiring citizenship
Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
(MIB). of a foreign country will not be citizens
of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 2. If a foreigner is staying in India for more
than 20 years, then he/she becomes a
(a) 1 and 3 only citizen of India due to the continuous
(b) 2 only stay for such a long time.

PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/02 6
 Select the correct answer using the code given (c) To protect the weaker sections from social
below: injustice.
(a) 1 only (d) To renounce practices derogatory to the
dignity of women.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 32. Consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The State cannot place restrictions on
freedom of religion only on the basis of
29. With reference to Renunciation of Indian social justice violations.
Citizenship, consider the following 2. Fundamental Rights guaranteed by
statements: Article 25 are available to citizens alone.
1. The Government of India may terminate Which of the statements given above is/are
the citizenship of an Indian citizen if the correct?
citizen has been living outside India for 5 (a) 1 only
years continuously.
(b) 2 only
2. When a person relinquishes his
citizenship, every minor child of that (c) Both 1 and 2

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person also loses Indian citizenship. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Provisions have been made with an upper
limit of 45 days for the renunciation 33. Consider the following statements:
process to be completed.
1. For Article 30, a community can be
Which of the above statement is/are correct? declared a minority on the basis of
religion, language or race.
(a)
(b)
(c)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
O 2. The right to establish and administer
educational institutions by the minorities
is not absolute.
3. Article 30 intends to place minorities
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
at an advantageous position over the
majority.
30. With reference to Citizenship (Amendment)
Act, 2019. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/ are
incorrect?
1. The Bill creates an exception for only
Hindus, Sikhs, and Buddhists, from (a) 1 and 3 only
Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan (b) 2 and 3 only
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who entered India on or before December

(c) 2 only
31st, 2014.
2. The requirement for them to stay in India (d) 1, 2 and 3
for at least 11 years before applying for
Indian citizenship has been reduced to 34. Which of the following can be best described
five years (by naturalisation). as the most important Article and ‘heart and
soul’ of the Indian Constitution?
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) Article 21
(a) 1 only
(b) Article 14
(b) 2 only
(c) Article 32
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Article 15
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
35. Match the following List I with List II.
31. Which of the following is not a key fundamental
duty enshrined in our constitution? List I List II

(a) To render national service when called A. Habeas Corpus 1. Against public
official for failing
upon to do so.
to perform their
(b) To safeguard public property. duty

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 B. Certiorari 2. To enforce 38. Consider the following statements:
individual 1. A private body merely working as an
liberty against instrument of the State does not come
unlawful detention within the meaning of the ‘State’ under
C. Mandamus 3. To direct inactivity Article 12.
D. Prohibition 4. For transfer of a 2. Article 13 implicitly provides for the
case from lower to doctrine of judicial review.
higher court Which of the above statements is/are
Select the correct option using the code given incorrect?
below:
(a) 1 only
A B C D
(b) 2 only
(a) 4 3 1 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 4 3 1 39. Which of the following statements regarding

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Right to Equality is incorrect?
36. Consider the following statements: (a) Rule of Law indicates different treatment
1. Fundamental Rights are essential to in different circumstances.
ensure the supremacy of the state over (b) President of India has immunity of
the people at large. getting no criminal proceedings instituted
2. Fundamental Rights facilitate people’s against them during his tenure.
participation in the political and
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(c) The concept of ‘equal protection of laws’
administrative process.
has been taken from the American
3. Fundamental Rights ensure reservation Constitution.
of seats for SCs and STs in educational
SC
(d) A Member of Parliament is not be liable to
institutions under Article 29 and 15.
any proceedings in any court in respect of
Which of the statements given above is/ are anything said by him in the Legislature.
correct?
(a) 2 only 40. Which of the following statements regarding
(b) 3 only the ‘Right to Freedom’ is/are correct?
1. Right to elementary education is available
(c) 1 and 2 only
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to the children of Indian citizens only.

(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Punitive detention is to punish a person
for an offence committed by him after
37. Which of the following statements regarding trial and conviction in a court.
fundamental rights is/are correct?
3. In preventive detention case, a person
1. They are meant for promoting the ideal cannot be detained for more than three
of political democracy in India. months without the report of an advisory
2. Right for protection of language, script board report.
and culture of minorities is available to Choose the correct option using the codes
citizens of India only. given below:
3. They are justiciable and sacrosanct.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) 2 and 3 only
below:
(c) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
41. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) 1 and 2 only the ‘Right against exploitation’:

PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/02 8
 1. The protection from human trafficking (c) 1 and 3 only
under Article 23 is availed against both
state and private person. (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. No child below the age of 14 years in

India is permitted to be employed in any 44. Consider the following pairs:
occupation and process.
Articles Directives
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. Article 40 To organise village panchayats
(a) 1 only and endow them with necessary
powers and authority to enable
(b) 2 only
them to function as units of self-
(c) Both 1 and 2 government
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Article 43 To prohibit the slaughter of
cows, calves and other milch and
42. Which of the following statements regarding draught cattle and to improve
Directive Principles of State Policy is/are their breeds
correct? 3. Article 48 To promote cottage industries on
1. The meaning of the term “State” in DPSP an individual or corporation basis

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is different from the same term used in in rural areas
Fundamental Rights. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
2. The Directive Principles are non- matched?
justiciable in nature and hence cannot
help the courts in examining and (a) 3 only
determining the constitutional validity (b) 2 and 3 only
of a law.

very comprehensive economic, social

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3. The Directive Principles constitute a

and political programme for a modern

(c)
(d)
1 only
1 and 2 only

democratic State.
45. ‘To protect and improve the environment and
SC
Select the correct answer using the codes given to safeguard forests and wildlife’ a part of
below: Liberal Directive Principles, was enshrined in
(a) 3 only the Constitution by:

(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Original Constitution

(c) 1 and 2 only (b) 42nd Constitutional Amendment act
(d) 1 and 3 only (c) The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
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(d) 44th Constitutional Amendment act

43. Which of the following Directive Principles
of State Policy are based on the Socialistic
Principles? 46. Consider the following statements regarding
directives outside part IV:
1. To promote equal justice and to provide
free legal aid to the poor. 1. Unlike Part IV, these are enforceable
under the court of law.
2. To secure the right to work, to education
and to public assistance in cases of 2. Under article 351, it is the duty of the
unemployment, old age, sickness and Union to promote Hindi as a language
disablement. and make it a mandatory medium of
3. To promote the educational and economic instruction in schools throughout the
interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker territory of India.
sections of the society and to protect them Which of the above statements is/are correct?
from social injustice and exploitation.
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below: (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

9 PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/02
47. Locally known as “Remna Ni and considered as 2. It is obligatory for the Parliament to
the most and only successful peace agreement enact laws for prescribing punishment for
in India after its independence, this Peace those acts that are declared to be offences
Accord was signed between Laldenga, the under the fundamental rights.
leader of a secessionist group, and the two
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
government representatives.
(a) 1 only
Which of the following is being described
here? (b) 2 only
(a) Assam Accord (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Naga Peace Accord (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Mizoram Peace Accord
50. Which of the following statements regarding
(d) Shillong Accord the Inner Line Permit is/are incorrect?
1. The concept of the Inner Line Permit was
48. A petition was filed by the NGO Naz Foundation coined by the Bardoloi Committee formed
and AIDS Bedhbhav Virodh Andolan against by the Constituent Assembly.
a colonial era Law in the Delhi High Court in

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2001. Which of the following is that Law? 2. No Indian citizen can overstay beyond the
period specified in the ILP in any of the
(a) Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code states protected under the ILP system.
(b) Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code below:

(d) Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (a) 1 only

O (b) 2 only
49. Consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Only parliament has the power to make
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
a law to make fundamental rights
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enforceable.

™™™™™
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PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/02 10
 Space for Rough Work

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SC
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11 PTS2022/CSEQ-3/012022/02