DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Test Booklet Series

PRELIMS FITNESS – 2024
T.B.C : P-SIA-F-UPGI
POLITY
Serial : PFB1-232408
TEST – 08
F
Time Allowed : One Hour Maximum Marks : 100

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

(1-F)
SIA-F-GS I
 (2-F)
SIA-F-GS I
1. Which among the following is/are the measures 3. It was the act that authorized the Local

taken part of the Charter Act of 1833 ? Governments in India to impose taxes on

1. Ending the monopoly of the Company over persons and also to punish the persons for not

trade with India paying taxes".

2. Abolishment of the Company's monopoly of The above Provision was introduced by

the China trade (a) Charter Act of 1793

3. Restoration of Presidencies power to make (b) Charter Act of 1813

laws (c) Charter Act of 1833

How many of the statements given above is/are (d) Charter Act of 1853

correct?

(a) Only one 4. Consider the following statements :

(b) Only two Statement I:

(c) All three Under the Government of India Act of 1919,

(d) None the Devolution rules were framed for the

delegation of authority from the center to

2. With reference to Indian Polity, Consider the the state.

following Pairs: Statement II:

S.No. Provisions Introduced The Devolution Rules classified all the

through subjects of administration into three

1. Ordinance - Government categories, namely, central, provincial and

Making Power of India Act of concurrent subjects.

1861 Which one of the following is correct in respect

2. Open Competition - Charter Act of of the above statements?

of Civil Servants 1833 (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are

3. Recognition of - Government correct, and Statement II is the correct

Portfolio System of India Act of explanation for Statement I

1892 (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

How many of the pairs given above is/are correct and Statement-II is not the correct

correct? explanation for Statement-I

(a) Only one (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is

(b) Only two incorrect

(c) All three (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is

(d) None correct

(3-F)
SIA-F-GS I
5. With reference to the Government of India Act Select the correct answer using the code given
of 1935, Consider the following :
below :
1. Extension of Special representation to
Labour (a) Only one
2. The establishment of a Federal Railway
(b) Only two
Authority
3. The establishment of a Central Public (c) Only three
Service Commission
(d) All four
4. Appointment of Audit General of India
How many of the above provisions was/were
introduced as part of the Act? 8. Consider the following statements :
(a) Only one
1. The Fifth Schedule of the Indian
(b) Only two
(c) Only three Constitution provides for the formation of
(d) All four
an Autonomous District Council (ADCs).

6. Which among the following functions is/are 2. ADCs have legislative and administrative
performed by the Constituent Assembly of
autonomy within the state but not Judicial
India?
1. Adoption of the National flag and National autonomy.
Song
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Election of First President of India
3. Ratification of India's membership to the correct?
Commonwealth
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
below : (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. With reference to the committees of the 9. A language can be included in the Eighth

Constitutional Assembly, How many of the Schedule of the Indian Constitution through
following committees is/are headed by
(a) An ordinary law
Jawaharlal Nehru?
1. Union Constitution Committee (b) A constitutional amendment law
2. Union Power Committee
(c) An executive resolution
3. Committee for negotiating with the States
4. Rules of Procedure Committee (d) A resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha

(4-F)
SIA-F-GS I
10. With reference to the IX Schedule of the Indian 13. Consider the following pairs:
Constitution, Consider the following S. Features of the Derived from
statements : No. Constitution
1. The Schedule was added through the 7th 1. Structural Part - British
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 Constitution
2. The Schedule consists of the state laws only 2. Philosophical - Irish Constitution
3. At present, all the laws placed under the
Part
Schedule are subjected to the Judicial
3. Political Part - Government of
Review
India Act of 1935
How many of the statements given above is/are
How many of the pairs given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None

11. Which among the following is incorrect with

reference to Indian Constitution ?
(a) Constitution provides a set of basic rules
that allow for minimal coordination amongst
members of a society.
(b) Constitution specifies who has the power to
make decisions in a society
(c) Constitution put some limits on the society
to limit their liberal functioning
(d) Constitution enables the Government to
create conditions for just society
12. How many of the following is/are covered under
the Second Schedule of the
Constitution?
1. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. Chairman of Legislative Council in the
states
3. The State ministers
4. Attorney General of India
14. With reference to X Schedule of the Indian
Constitution, Consider the following
statements :
Statement I:
The Schedule seeks to provide a stable
government by ensuring the legislators do
not switch sides.
Statement II:
The Schedule grants the presiding officer
the inherent authority to independently
initiate the disqualification of a legislator on
grounds of political defection.
Indian
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct, and Statement II is the correct
explanation for Statement I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

Select the correct answer using the code given correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
below : explanation for Statement-I
(a) Only one (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(b) Only two incorrect
(c) Only three (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(d) All four correct
(5-F)
SIA-F-GS I
15. Which among the following best describes the 17. Consider the following statements with respect
to Proportional Representation System of
Liberals approach towards equality in the
Election :
society?
1. In Proportional Representation System, the
(a) Liberals pointed out that private ownership entire country is considered a single

is the root cause of entrenched inequality in constituency

2. In Proportional Representation System, the
the society
people vote for an individual candidate
(b) Liberals uphold the principle of competition instead of a political party

as the most efficient way of achieving 3. In Proportional Representation system, the

candidate who wins the election gets the
equality in the society
majority of the votes
(c) Liberals recognised the role of State to bring How many of the above given is/are the
the equality and just society features of the Proportional Representation (PR)
System of Election?
(d) Liberals recognised the necessary linkage
(a) Only one
between social, political and economic (b) Only two
inequality (c) All three
(d) None

16. With reference to Sovereignty, Consider the 18. Consider the followings :
following statements : 1. Head of the State is indirectly elected by the
people.
1. Sovereignty is the supreme power by which
2. Vesting of political Sovereignty in the hands
the state commands and exerts political
of the people.
obedience from its people. 3. All public office being open to every citizen.
How many of the above features reflects India
2. The sovereign nation cannot cede part of its
as a Republic nation?
territory in favour of a foreign state.
(a) Only one
3. The absence of Sovereignty deprives the (b) Only two

territory the status of statehood. (c) All three

(d) None
How many of the statements given above is/are

correct? 19. The ideal of Social, Economic and Political

(a) Only one justice is taken from

(a) American revolution
(b) Only two
(b) French Revolution
(c) All three (c) Chinese Revolution
(d) None (d) Russian Revolution

(6-F)
SIA-F-GS I
20. Which among the following provisions of Indian 23. With reference to the State Reorganisation
Constitution strives to protect dignity of the Commission of 1953, Consider the following
Individual in India? statements :
1. Fundamental Rights 1. It was a five-member committee headed by
2. Directive Principles of State Policy Fazil Ali.
3. Fundamental Duties 2. It firmly rejected the idea of "One Language
Select the correct answer using the code given and One State".
below : 3. It recognised Linguistic and cultural
(a) 1 only homogeneity as a factor of reorganisation of
(b) 2 and 3 only the states
(c) 1 and 3 only 4. It suggested for the four-fold classification
(d) 1, 2 and 3 of states and territories
How many of the statements given above is/are
21. How many of the following modes that are correct ?
recognised by the International Laws can be (a) Only one
used by India to acquire a foreign territory? (b) Only two
1. Cession through plebiscite (c) Only three
2. Occupation of a Territory (d) All four
3. Conquest of a territory
Select the correct answer using the code given 24. With reference to acquired territories of India,
below : Consider the following pairs :
(a) Only one S.No. Acquired Constitutional
(b) Only two Territory Amendment
(c) All three 1. Puducherry - 10th
(d) None Constitutional
Amendment Act
22. Which among the following is/are the 2. Dadra and - 12th
prerequisite for the altering the name of any Nagar Haveli Constitutional
Indian States? Amendment Act
1. It requires the prior recommendation of the 3. Goa - 14th
President Constitutional
2. It does not require the consent of the Amendment Act
respective state legislature 4. Sikkim - 36th
3. It requires the amendment to the Constitutional
Constitution of India Amendment Act
Select the correct answer using the code given How many of the above given pairs are correctly
below : matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Only three
(d) 2 only (d) All four

(7-F)
SIA-F-GS I
25. How many of the following rights is /are 28. With reference to the Amendment of the
conferred by the Constitution of India only to Constitution of India, Consider the following
the Citizens of India ? statements :
1. Right to freedom of speech and expression 1. The introduction of a bill for amending the
2. Right to vote in Lok Sabha election Constitution can be initiated in either
3. Right to hold the position of judge of the House of Parliament.
Supreme Court
2. A private member can initiate a bill for
4. Right to freedom of Religion
amending the Constitution with the prior
Select the correct answer using the code given
permission of the President.
below :
3. The Provision of Joint Sitting is not
(a) Only one
applicable to the Constitutional
(b) Only two
Amendment bill.
(c) Only three
How many of the statements given above is/are
(d) All four
correct?
(a) Only one
26. Which among the following committees
recommended that dual citizenship be (b) Only two

permitted to foreign citizens of Indian descent (c) All three

settled in certain countries (d) None

(a) Rajendra Agrawal Committee
(b) Second ARC Committee 29. Which among the following Provisions requires
(c) L.M. Singhvi Committee the simple majority of the Parliament to amend
(d) Satyapal Singh Committee the Constitution of India?
1. Use of official languages in Parliament and
27. With reference to Overseas Citizens of State Legislature
India(OCI) Cardholders, consider the following 2. Elections to Parliament and state
statements : legislature
1. The OCI Cardholder and their spouses 3. Representation of states in Parliament
enjoy long-term visa-free travel and stay in
4. Matters related to the Supreme Court and
India
high courts
2. The OCI Cardholder enjoys parity with
5. Abolition or creation of legislative councils
(Non-Resident Indians) NRIs in all financial
in states.
fields
Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are
below :
correct?
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 5 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 3 and 4 only

(8-F)
SIA-F-GS I
30. Which among the following brought the 32. How many of the following Directive Principles
provisions of Reasonable Restrictions under
of State Policy is/are added through the 42nd
Article 19(2) to the fundamental Right to
freedom of speech and expression? Constitutional Amendment Act?
(a) First Constitutional Amendment Act
1. Equal justice and free legal aid
(b) Fifth Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) Twenty-fourth Constitutional Amendment 2. Participation of workers in the management

Act of Industries
(d) Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment
3. Promoting the formation and management
Act

of a cooperative society
31. Consider the following pairs.
Select the correct answer using the code given
S. Important Changes made
No. Amendments below :
1. 36th - Abolished the
(a) Only one
Amendment privy purses and
Act privileges of the (b) Only two
former rulers of
(c) All three
princely states.
2. 69th - Accorded a special (d) None

Amendment status to the

Act Union Territory of
33. A member of either House of Parliament or
Deihl
3. 81st - Reduced the either House of a State Legislature belonging to
Amendment voting age from
any political party who is disqualified on the
Act 21years to 18
years for Lok ground of defection shall also be disqualified
Sabha Election
either from being appointed as a minister or
4. 85th - Made the Right to
Amendment Education as the holding any remunerative political post. The
Act fundamental
Provision was added by
How many of the pairs given above is/are
correct? (a) 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act

(a) Only one pair (b) 66th Constitutional Amendment Act

(b) Only two pairs
(c) 84th Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs (d) 91st Constitutional Amendment Act

(9-F)
SIA-F-GS I
34. With reference to 101st Constitutional 36. How many of the following is/are the

Amendment Act of 2016, Consider the following
statements :
1. It conferred concurrent taxation power
upon Parliament and State legislature to
make laws related to Goods and Service Tax
advantages of the Parliamentary system over
the Presidential System of Government ?
1. Harmony between legislature and Executive
2. Stable and responsible Government
3. Continuity in the policy-making
4. Prevention of Despotism

2. It introduced the concept of "declared goods Select the correct answer using the code given
below :
of special importance" under the
(a) Only one
Constitution
(b) Only two
3. It provided for the establishment of the (c) Only three
Goods and Services Tax Council by a (d) All four

presidential order
37. Which among the following methods of
How many of the statements given above is/are
government system is based on the principles
correct? of collective leadership?
(a) Only one 1. Parliamentary System of Government
(b) Only two 2. Presidential System of Government
3. Semi-Presidential System of Government
(c) All three
Select the correct answer using the code given
(d) None
below :
(a) 1 only
35. With reference to 106th Constitutional (b) 2 and 3 only

Amendment Act of 2023, Consider the following (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
statements :

1. The Act provides 1/3rd of reservation to

38. With reference to the Indian Parliament,
women in both the Lok Sabha and state Consider the following :
legislative Assemblies 1. Parliament is not a Supreme body.

2. The reservation for women will be provided 2. The members of the Parliament alone can
become Ministers.
for 10 years
3. Ministers have the legal responsibility for
Which of the statements given above is/are the official acts.
correct? How many of the above is/are features of the
(a) 1 only Indian Parliamentary System ?
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None
(10-F)
SIA-F-GS I
39. Consider the following statements : 41. Consider the following statements about
1. Countries with a unitary form of Dragon Fruit or Kamalam:
Government will neither have a written
1. It has its origin in Southern Mexico, Central
constitution nor follow the supremacy of
America and South America.
the Constitution
2. The life expectancy of the crop is about 20
2. Countries with federal Governments have
years.
dual Governments with the division of
power between them 3. India is the largest exporter of Dragon Fruit.

Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the above statements is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

40. Consider the following statements. 42. Consider the following statements about

Statement I: millets:
In the enforcement of Fundamental rights 1. The UNGA declared 2023 as the
of citizens, the jurisdiction of the Supreme International Year of Millets
Court is original and exclusive.
2. The Ministry of Agriculture has organized
Statement II:
the Global Millets (Shree Anna) Conference
The Supreme Court can issue writs only for
to stimulate the Indian export of millets and
the enforcement of fundamental rights.
Which one of the following is correct in respect provide market linkages to the producers.

of the above statements? 3. India's export of millets has increased by

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are 12.5% during the period of April-December
correct, and Statement II is the correct 2023 as compared to the same period last
explanation for Statement I
year.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
(a) 1 and 3 only
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (b) 1 and 2 only

incorrect (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct

(11-F)
SIA-F-GS I
43. Consider the following statements about the O- 45. Consider the following statements about the

SMART Scheme: Colombo Security Conclave:

1. It is a government scheme that aims to 1. It was formed in 2011 as a trilateral

provide forecasts based on continuous
observation of our oceans for sustainable
harnessing of resources.
2. It is implemented by autonomous institutes
of the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
maritime security grouping of India, Sri
Lanka and the Maldives.
2. It aims to make maritime security, marine
pollution response and maritime search &
rescue priorities for the region.
Which of the above statements is/are not
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2

46. Consider the following statements about the

Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for
44. Consider the following statements about the
Prosperity (IPEF):
Green Tug Transition Program (GTTP):
1. It is a US-led economic grouping to advance
1. A tug boat or tug is a marine vessels that
resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness,
maneuver ships by pushing or pulling fairness and competitiveness among the
them, mostly using tow lines. participating nations.
2. The government has set a target of 2. It is based on 4 pillars: Trade, Supply

converting all the Tugs into Green Tugs by Chains, Clean Energy and Tax and anti-

2030. corruption.

3. The Green Hybrid Tugs will be powered by 3. India and 13 countries located in the Pacific
Oceans are its members.
a green hybrid propulsion system and
4. India has decided to stay away from the Tax
subsequently adopt non-fossil fuel
and anti-corruption pillar.
solutions.
How many of the above statements is/are
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) One only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Two only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Three only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All the above

(12-F)
SIA-F-GS I
47. Consider the following statements about the 49. Consider the following statements about the

Sand Battery: Black Sea Grain Initiative:

1. Sand or sand-like materials are used as the 1. The deal brokered by the United Nations

storage medium in high-temperature (UN) and Turkey between Russia and

thermal energy storage. Ukraine.

2. Finland is the 1st country to install sand 2. The Initiative allows for commercial food

batter that can store heat from renewable and fertilizer (including ammonia) exports

energy sources for months. from 3 key Russian ports in the Black Sea.

3. The sand battery storage system requires 3. The Joint Coordination Centre (JCC) was

electricity at all times. established to monitor the implementation

Which of the following statements is/are of the Initiative.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

50. Consider the following statements about the

48. Consider the following statements about the
Liquid Tree/ Liquid 3:
Cotton Corporation of India (CCI):
1. It is an urban photobioreactor that
1. It is established under the administrative
harnesses the power of microalgae to
control of the Ministry of Commerce.
improve the groundwater quality.
2. The major role is to undertake price support
2. It uses a photobioreactor with microalgae to
operations whenever the market price falls
bind carbon dioxide present in the
below the minimum support price.
environment through photosynthesis to
3. It also undertakes commercial purchase
convert it into oxygen.
operations to fulfill the raw material
3. The microalgae of a single liquid tree
requirement of the domestic textile industry
represent an equivalent of two 10-year-old
during the lean season.
trees or 200 square meters of lawn.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(13-F)
SIA-F-GS I