Test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 3

Test ID
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)
1013

INDIAN POLITY AND GOVENANCE-1

Time Allowed: 1 Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

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OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
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that question.

This test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 3
1. With respect to the “Regulating Act, 1773”, Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. It made the Governors of Bombay and (a) 1 only
Madras Presidencies subordinate to the
(b) 2 only
Governor-General of Bengal.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. It exempted the Governor-General from
the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (d) Neither 1 nor 2
for the acts done by him in his official
capacity. 4. With respect to the “Charter Act of 1813”,
3. It prohibited the servants of the consider the following statements:
Company from engaging in any private 1. It abolished the trade monopoly of the
trade.
Company in India.
Which of the statements given above are
2. It introduced an open competition
correct?
system of selection and recruitment of
(a) 1 and 2 only
the Civil Servants.
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. It authorised the local governments in
(c) 1 and 3 only
India to impose taxes on persons.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
2. With respect to the “Pitt’s India Act of
1784”, consider the following statements: (a) 1 and 2 only

1. The Company’s territories in India were, (b) 2 and 3 only

for the first time, called the ‘British (c) 1 and 3 only
possessions’ in India. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It empowered the Court of Directors to
supervise and direct all operations of
5. With respect to the “Charter Act of 1833”,
the civil and military government.
consider the following statements:
3. It laid down that the members of the
1. It ended the activities of the East India
Board of Control and their staffs were to
be paid out of the Indian revenues. Company as a commercial body.

Which of the statements given above is/are 2. The Governor-General of India was
correct? given exclusive legislative powers for the
(a) 1 only entire British India.
(b) 2 only 3. It made the Governor-General of Bengal
(c) 1 and 3 only as the Governor General of India and
(d) 2 and 3 only vested in him all civil and military
powers.
3. With respect to the “Charter Act of 1793”, Which of the statements given above are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. It laid down that the members of the (a) 1 and 2 only
Board of Control and their staffs were to (b) 2 and 3 only
be paid out of the Indian revenues.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. It gave the Governor-General control
(d) 1, 2 and 3
over the governments of the
subordinate Presidencies of Bombay
and Madras.

RAUSIAS-1013 1
6. With respect to the “Charter Act, 1853”, Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. It introduced, for the first time, local (a) 1 only
representation in the Indian (Central)
(b) 2 only
Legislative Council.
2. It separated, for the first time, the (c) Both 1 and 2
legislative and executive functions of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Governor-General’s Council.
3. The laws made under the previous Acts 9. With respect to the “Indian Councils Act of
were called as Regulations, while the
1892”, consider the following statements:
laws made under this Act were called as
Acts. 1. It gave the Legislative Councils the
Which of the statements given above is/are power to discuss the budget and
correct? address questions to the executive.
(a) 2 only 2. The word “election” was used, for the
(b) 1 and 2 only first time in the Act.
(c) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1 and 3 only correct?
(a) 1 only
7. With respect to the “Government of India (b) 2 only
Act of 1858”, consider the following
(c) Both 1 and 2
statements:
1. It ended the system of double (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Government by abolishing the Board of
Control and Court of Directors. 10. With respect to the “Indian Councils Act of
2. It empowered the Viceroy to issue 1909”, consider the following statements:
ordinances, without the concurrence of
1. It introduced a system of communal
the Legislative Council, during an
emergency. representation for the Muslims by
3. It created a new office, the Secretary of accepting the concept of ‘separate
State for India, vested with complete electorate’.
authority and control over the Indian 2. It separated, for the first time, the
administration. Provincial Budgets from the Central
Which of the statements given above are Budget.
correct?
3. For the first time, it provided the
(a) 1 and 2 only
association of the Indians with the
(b) 2 and 3 only
Executive Councils of the Viceroy and
(c) 1 and 3 only
the Governors.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
8. With respect to the “Indian Councils Act of
1861”, consider the following statements: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. It gave recognition to the ‘portfolio’ (b) 2 and 3 only
system, introduced by Lord Dalhousie. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. It initiated the process of (d) 1, 2 and 3
decentralisation by restoring the
legislative powers to the Bombay and
Madras Presidencies.

RAUSIAS-1013 2
11. Consider the following statements:
1. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution
is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution.
2. Economic liberty is explicitly provided
for in the Preamble to the Constitution
of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Which of the following Constitutional
Amendment Acts added three new words:
Socialist, Secular and Integrity in the
Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
14. Consider the following statements:
1. In the Berubari Union case, the
Supreme Court held that the Preamble
is a part of the Constitution.
2. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the
Supreme Court held that the Preamble
is not a part of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Consider the following statements:

(a) The 38th Constitutional Amendment 1. The Preamble is a prohibition upon the
Act, 1975 powers of the legislature.
(b) The 39th Constitutional Amendment 2. The Preamble’s provisions are
Act, 1975 enforceable in the courts of law.
(c) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Which of the statements given above is/are
Act, 1976 correct?
(d) The 44th Constitutional Amendment
(a) 1 only
Act, 1978
(b) 2 only

13. Consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2

1. The Preamble declares that fraternity (d) Neither 1 nor 2
has to assure the dignity of the
individual, and the unity and integrity
of the nation. 16. Which of the following terms are explicitly
provided in the Preamble to the Indian
2. The Preamble has been amended twice
Constitution?
so far.
3. ‘Economic Justice’, as one of the 1. Equality of status
objectives of the Indian Constitution, 2. Equality of opportunity
has been provided for in the Preamble
3. Liberty of worship
and the Fundamental Rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:

(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-1013 3
17. With reference to the Government of India Which of the statements given above are
Act, 1919, consider the following incorrect?
statements: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. It strengthened the Central control over (b) 2 and 3 only
the Provinces by merging the Central (c) 1 and 3 only
and the Provincial Subjects.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It introduced bicameralism and direct
elections in the country.
20. With reference to the Interim Government
3. It granted franchise to a limited number
of 1946, consider the following pairs:
of people on the basis of property, tax or
education. S.N. Members Portfolio

Which of the statements given above are 1. Dr. Rajendra Food and
correct? Prasad Agriculture
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. C. Industries and
(b) 2 and 3 only Rajagopalachari Supplies
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. Liaqat Ali Khan Finance
(d) 1, 2 and 3 4. Sardar Home,
Vallabhbhai Information and
18. With reference to the Simon Commission, Patel Broadcasting
consider the following statements:
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
1. The Commission recommended the
matched?
extension of responsible government in
(a) 1 and 2 only
the Provinces.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. The Commission recommended
establishment of a federation of British (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
India and Princely States. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Three Round Table Conferences were
convened for the consideration of the 21. With reference to the First Cabinet of Free
proposals of the Commission. India (1947), consider the following pairs:
Which of the statements given above are S.N. Members Portfolio
correct?
1. Maulana Abul Education
(a) 1 and 2 only Kalam Azad
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. Dr. John Mathai Railways and
(c) 1 and 3 only Transport
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Dr. Shyama Labour
Prasad Mukherji
19. With reference to the Government of India
4. Jagjivan Ram Industries and
Act, 1935, consider the following
Supplies
statements:
1. It provided for the adoption of dyarchy Which of the pairs given above are correctly
at the Provincial level and at the Centre. matched?
2. It provided for the establishment of a (a) 1 and 2 only
Reserve Bank of India. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. It introduced bicameralism in all the (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
eleven Provinces. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

RAUSIAS-1013 4
22. Which of the following statements 3. Order of Dr. K.M.
is not correct? Business Munshi
(a) Secularism is not opposed to all forms Committee
of institutionalised religious 4. Credentials Alladi
domination. Committee Krishnaswami
(b) Secularism promotes freedom within Ayyar
religions, and equality between, as well
as within, religions. Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(c) Secularism is equal protection by the
State to all religions. (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Indian secularism deals not only with (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
religious freedom of individuals but also (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
with religious freedom of minority (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
communities.
25. With reference to the Constituent
23. With reference to the Major Committees of Assembly, consider the following
the Constituent Assembly consider the statements:
following pairs: 1. The Constituent Assembly was not a
S.N. Committees Chairman sovereign body.

1. Union Constitution Dr. B.R. 2. The members of the Constituent

Committee Ambedkar Assembly were not directly elected by
the people of India.
2. Rules of Procedure Dr. Rajendra
Which of the statements given above is/are
Committee Prasad
correct?
3. States Committee Jawaharlal
(a) 1 only
Nehru
(b) 2 only
4. Provincial Sardar Patel (c) Both 1 and 2
Constitution
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Committee

Which of the pairs given above are correctly 26. With reference to Indian citizenship,
matched? consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. A person belonging to the acquired
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only territory to India would get the Indian
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only citizenship on the proposal towards
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 registration.
2. All children born in India in the year
2022 would get Indian citizenship, only
24. With reference to the Minor Committees of
if both of their parents are Indian
the Constituent Assembly consider the
citizens.
following pairs:
Which of the statements given above is/are
S.N. Committees Chairman
correct?
1. Ad-hoc Dr. Rajendra (a) 1 only
Committee on Prasad
(b) 2 only
the National Flag
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. House B. Pattabhi
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Committee Sitaramayya

RAUSIAS-1013 5
27. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. The Constitution of India does not given below:
explicitly provide any provision to deny (a) 1 and 2 only
citizenship on any ground. (b) 2 only
2. The power of acquisition and (c) 1 and 3 only
termination of Indian citizenship is only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
enjoyed by the Parliament.
3. Every person, who is a citizen of India,
would remain so until denied by the law 30. Which of the following benefits are entitled
made by the Parliament. to the Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs)?

Which of the statements given above are 1. The OCIs are eligible to fight in the
correct? elections to the Legislative Assembly
(a) 1 and 2 only from any state of India.

(b) 2 and 3 only 2. Life-long visas for any number of visits

to India.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. The OCIs can adopt Indian children.
4. The OCIs can practice law in India.

28. Which of the following persons is/are Select the correct answer using the code
qualified to acquire citizenship in India? given below:
1. A person born to foreigner parents in (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
the Indian territory after 2014. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
2. A person of Indian origin who is (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
ordinarily resident in India for seven (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
years.
3. A person having adequate knowledge of
31. With reference to the Citizenship
Indian languages mentioned in the
(Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the
Eighth Schedule.
following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code
1. The Act specifically lays down about the
given below:
provision of citizenship to religious
(a) 1 and 2 only
minorities persecuted in Pakistan,
(b) 2 only
Afghanistan and Bangladesh.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. The Overseas Citizens of India
(d) 2 and 3 only
committing legal offences can be denied
registration.
29. Indian citizen can be deprived of Indian 3. The Act provides citizenship to the
citizenship if
migrants on all grounds of citizenship,
1. He/she has shown disloyalty to the except naturalisation.
Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. If he/she, within five years after
correct?
registration or naturalisation, been
(a) 2 only
imprisoned in any country for two
years. (b) 2 and 3 only

3. He/she applies for foreign citizenship (c) 1 and 3 only

during ongoing war in India. (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-1013 6
32. Which of the following statements is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct with respect to Article 1 of the given below:
Indian Constitution?
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. It describes India as a ‘Federation of
States’. (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

2. The territory of India shall comprise all (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

the states and the Union Territories (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
only.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: 35. Which of the following statements is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only 1. If the Parliament has to alter the
(c) Both 1 and 2 boundaries of any state, the Bill has to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 be sent to the concerned states as well.
2. A Constitutional Amendment Act, under
33. Which of the following statements is/are Article 368, has to be passed to amend
correct with respect to Article 2 of the the required Schedules to include new
Indian Constitution? states.
1. It empowers the Parliament to admit
Select the correct answer using the code
and establish new states which are not
given below:
part of India.
2. It empowers the Parliament to make (a) 1 only
new states within the domestic (b) 2 only
territories of India.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 36. Which of the following statements is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. S.K. Dhar Linguistic Provinces
Commission recommended the
34. Which of the following statements are reorganisation of the states on the basis
correct with respect to Article 3 of the of administrative convenience, rather
Indian Constitution? than linguistic factor.
1. It allows the Parliament to increase or
2. The JVP Committee formally rejected
diminish the area of any state, change
language as the basis for the
the name of any state, separate or unify
the existing state. reorganisation of the states.

2. Prior recommendation of the President Select the correct answer using the code
is mandatory for introducing the Bill given below:
demanding such changes.
(a) 1 only
3. The Bill can be introduced only in the
(b) 2 only
Lok Sabha.
4. The President has to send the Bill to the (c) Both 1 and 2
concerned states as well. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1013 7
37. Which of the following statements is/are 40. Consider the following statements
correct regarding the Fazl Ali Commission? regarding the various aspects of freedom:
1. It broadly accepted language as the 1. Freedom is the absence of constraints.
basis of reorganisation of the states. 2. Freedom is the condition in which the
2. It took administrative conditions into people can develop their creativity and
capabilities.
account for state reorganisation.
3. To be free means to minimise social
Select the correct answer using the code
constraints that limit our ability to
given below:
make choices freely.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
38. Which of the following statements is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
1. The Union Territory of Puducherry is 41. Consider the following statements
regarding ‘Swaraj’ in the context of the
provided with a Legislative Assembly
freedom struggle in India:
and a Council of Ministers headed by a
1. It referred to freedom as a
Chief Minister.
constitutional and political demand,
2. The Parliament can make laws on any and as a value at the social-collective
subject of the three lists for level.
Puducherry. 2. Swaraj is liberation in redeeming one’s
Select the correct answer using the code self-respect, self-responsibility and
given below: capacities for self-realisation from the
(a) 1 only institutions of dehumanisation.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
39. Which of the following statements is/are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
1. Hyderabad was integrated with India by 42. Consider the following statements:
referendum. 1. Positive liberty recognises that one can
2. Junagarh was integrated by police be free only in the society.
action. 2. Negative liberty is only concerned with
3. Jammu & Kashmir was integrated by the inviolable area of non-interference
the Instrument of Accession. and not with the conditions in the
Select the correct answer using the code society.
given below: Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1013 8
43. Consider the following statements: 46. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
1. The advocates of Socialism are entirely matched?
opposed to the market. S.N. Provisions of the Sources
2. Jawahar Lal Nehru advocated seven Indian constitution
revolutions or ‘Sapta Kranti’ for fighting 1. The preamble of the Britain
inequalities. constitution
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Removal of Supreme United
correct? court and High court States of
judges America
(a) 1 only
3. The nomination of Ireland
(b) 2 only
members to Rajya
(c) Both 1 and 2 sabha
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
44. ‘A Just Society is that society in which (a) 1 only
ascending sense of reverence and (b) 2 and 3 only
descending sense of contempt is dissolved (c) 1 and 2 only
into the creation of a compassionate (d) 1, 2 and 3
society’. The above definition of ‘Just
Society’ was given by which of the following
47. Which of the following statements correctly
persons? relates to Harm Principle?
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru 1. Harm principle was proposed as a
(b) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar mechanism for limits on freedom.
(c) Mahatma Gandhi 2. According to Harm principle, we can
curb rights of others, only to protect
(d) Immanuel Kant
ourselves.
Select the correct answer using the code
45. Which of the following is/are included in given below:
the points of Objectives Resolution? (a) 1 only
1. All powers and authority of sovereign (b) 2 only
and independent India and its (c) Both 1 and 2
constitution shall flow from the people. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The minorities, backward and tribal
areas, depressed and other backward 48. Which of the following values are present in
classes shall be provided adequate the Preamble?
safeguards. 1. Preamble is a product of social contract.
3. The land would make full and willing 2. Dignity of individuals to be ensured.
contribution to the promotion of world 3. Empowerment of women
peace and welfare of mankind. 4. Social Justice
Select the correct answer using the code 5. Right to happiness
given below: 6. Environmental protection
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

RAUSIAS-1013 9
49. Which of the following relates most closely 1. All human beings to be the creation of
to spirit of democracy in a country? God.
(a) Development of citizens. 2. All human beings have equal worth.
(b) Highest office of the country is not 3. Constitutions recognize equality of
hereditary. citizens.
(c) Everyone is involved in formulating Select the correct answer using the code
plans for development for common given below:
good. (a) 3 only
(d) Everyone is equal before the law. (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
50. Which of the following are philosophical (d) 1, 2 and 3
rationales for idea of equality?

RAUSIAS-1013 10
Answers &
Explanations
of

TEST ID: 1013

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER – I)

Indian Polity and Governance-1

 ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
Indian Polity and Governance-1
GS Paper-I: (1013)
1. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The features of the Regulating Act,
1773, were as follows:
1. It designated the Governor of Bengal as
the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and
created an Executive Council of four
members to assist him. The first such
Governor-General was Lord Warren
Hastings.
2. It made the Governors of Bombay and
Madras Presidencies subordinate to the
Governor-General of Bengal, unlike
earlier, when the three Presidencies
were independent of one another.
3. It provided for the establishment of a
Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774),
comprising one Chief Justice and three
other judges.
4. It prohibited the servants of the
Company from engaging in any private
trade or accepting presents or bribes
from the ‘natives’.
5. It strengthened the control of the
British Government over the Company
by requiring the Court of Directors (the
governing body of the Company) to
report on its revenue, civil and military
affairs in India.
The Amending Act of 1781: It exempted
the Governor-General and the Council
from the jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court for the acts done by them in their
official capacity. Similarly, it also
exempted the servants of the Company
from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
for their official actions.
2. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The features of the Pitt’s India Act of
1784 were as follows:
RAUSIAS-1013
1. It distinguished between the
commercial and political functions of
the Company.
2. It allowed the Court of Directors to
manage the commercial affairs, but
created a new body, called the Board of
Control, to manage the political affairs.
Thus, it established a system of double
government.
3. It empowered the Board of Control to
supervise and direct all operations of
the civil and military government or
revenues of the British possessions in
India.
Thus, the Act was significant for two
reasons: First, the Company’s territories in
India were, for the first time, called the
‘British possessions in India’; and second,
the British Government was given the
supreme control over the Company’s affairs
and its administration in India.
The Charter Act of 1793: It laid down
that the members of the Board of
Control and their staffs were,
henceforth, to be paid out of the Indian
revenues.
3. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The features of the Charter Act of 1793
were as follows:
1. It extended the overriding power given
to Lord Cornwallis over his Council, to
all future Governor-Generals and the
Governors of the Presidencies.
2. It gave the Governor-General more
powers and control over the
governments of the subordinate
Presidencies of Bombay and Madras.
3. It extended the trade monopoly of the
Company in India for another period of
twenty years.
1
 4. It provided that the Commander-in-
Chief was not to be a member of the
Governor-General’s Council, unless he
was so appointed.
5. It laid down that the members of the
Board of Control and their staffs were,
henceforth, to be paid out of the Indian
revenues.
4. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The features of the Charter Act of 1813
were as follows:
1. It abolished the trade monopoly of the
Company in India, i.e., the Indian trade
was thrown open to all British
merchants. However, it continued the
monopoly of the Company over trade in
tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British
Crown over the Company’s territories in
India.
3. It allowed the Christian missionaries to
come to India for the purpose of
enlightening the people.
4. It provided for the spread of western
education among the inhabitants of the
British territories in India.
5. It authorised the local governments in
India to impose taxes on persons. They
could also punish the persons for not
paying taxes.
The Charter Act, 1853: It introduced an
open competition system of selection and
recruitment of the Civil Servants. The
covenanted Civil Service was, thus, thrown
open to the Indians also.
5. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The features of the Charter Act of 1833
were as follows:
1. It made the Governor-General of Bengal
as the Governor-General of India and
vested in him all civil and military
powers. Thus, the Act created, for the
first time, the Government of India
RAUSIAS-1013
having authority over the entire
territorial area possessed by the British
in India. Lord William Bentick was the
first Governor-General of India.
2. It deprived the Governors of Bombay
and Madras of their legislative powers.
The Governor-General of India was
given exclusive legislative powers for the
entire British India.
3. It ended the activities of the East India
Company as a commercial body, which
became a purely administrative body.
4. The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to
introduce a system of open competition
for the selection of the Civil Servants
and stated that the Indians should not
be debarred from holding any place,
office and employment under the
Company. However, this provision was
negated after opposition from the Court
of Directors.
6. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The features of the Charter Act, 1853,
were as follows:
1. It separated, for the first time, the
legislative and executive functions of
the Governor-General’s Council.
2. It introduced an open competition
system of selection and recruitment of
the Civil Servants. The covenanted Civil
Service was, thus, thrown open to the
Indians also.
3. It extended the Company’s rule and
allowed it to retain the possession of the
Indian territories on trust for the British
Crown. But, it did not specify any
particular period, unlike the previous
Charters.
4. It introduced, for the first time, local
representation in the Indian (Central)
Legislative Council. Of the six new
legislative members of the Governor-
General’s Council, four members were
appointed by the local (provincial)
governments of Madras, Bombay,
Bengal and Agra.
2
 The Charter Act of 1833: The Governor-
General of India was given exclusive
legislative powers for the entire British
India. The laws made under the previous
Acts were called as Regulations, while
the laws made under this Act were called
as Acts.
7. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The features of the Government of India
Act of 1858 were as follows:
1. It provided that India, henceforth, was
to be governed by, and in the name of,
Her Majesty. It changed the designation
of the Governor-General of India to that
of the Viceroy of India. He (Viceroy) was
the direct representative of the British
Crown in India. Lord Canning, thus,
became the first Viceroy of India.
2. It ended the system of double
Government by abolishing the Board of
Control and Court of Directors.
3. It created a new office, the Secretary of
State for India, vested with complete
authority and control over the Indian
administration.
4. It established a 15-member Council of
India to assist the Secretary of State for
India. The Council was an advisory
body.
The Indian Councils Act of 1861: It
empowered the Viceroy to issue
ordinances, without the concurrence of
the Legislative Council, during an
emergency. The life of such an ordinance
was six months.
8. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The features of the Indian Councils Act
of 1861 were as follows:
1. It made a beginning of the
representative institutions by
associating the Indians with the law-
making process. It, thus, provided that
the Viceroy should nominate some
RAUSIAS-1013
Indians as non-official members of his
expanded Council.
2. It initiated the process of
decentralisation by restoring the
legislative powers to the Bombay and
Madras Presidencies.
3. It also provided for the establishment of
new Legislative Councils for Bengal,
North-Western Provinces and Punjab.
4. It empowered the Viceroy to make rules
and orders for more convenient
transaction of business in the Council.
It also gave recognition to the
‘portfolio’ system, introduced by
Lord Canning in 1859.
5. It empowered the Viceroy to issue
ordinances, without the concurrence of
the Legislative Council, during an
emergency. The life of such an
ordinance was six months.
9. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The features of the Indian Councils Act
of 1892 were as follows:
1. It increased the number of additional
(non-official) members in the Central
and the Provincial Legislative Councils,
but maintained the official majority in
them.
2. It increased the functions of the
Legislative Councils and gave them the
power of discussing the budget and
addressing questions to the executive.
3. It provided for the nomination of some
non-official members of the (a) Central
Legislative Council by the Viceroy on
the recommendation of the Provincial
Legislative Councils and the
Bengal Chamber of Commerce; and (b) that
of the Provincial Legislative Councils by the
Governors on the recommendation of the
District Boards; Municipalities;
Universities; Trade Associations;
Zamindars; and Chambers.
The Act made a limited and indirect
provision for the use of election in filling up
3
 some of the non-official seats, both in the
Central and the Provincial Legislative
Councils. The word “election” was,
however, not used in the Act. The
process was described as nomination
made on the recommendation of certain
bodies.
10. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The features of the Indian Councils Act
of 1909 were as follows:
1. It considerably increased the size of the
Legislative Councils, both Central and
Provincial. The number of members in
the Central Legislative Council was
raised.
2. It retained official majority in the
Central Legislative Council, but allowed
the Provincial Legislative Councils to
have nonofficial majority.
3. It enlarged the deliberative functions of
the Legislative Councils at both the
levels. For example, the members were
allowed to ask supplementary
questions, move resolutions on the
budget and so on.
4. It provided (for the first time) for the
association of the Indians with the
Executive Councils of the Viceroy and
the Governors. Satyendra Prasad Sinha
became the first Indian to join the
Viceroy’s Executive Council.
5. It introduced a system of communal
representation for the Muslims by
accepting the concept of ‘separate
electorate’.
6. It also provided for the separate
representation of the Presidency
Corporations; Chambers of Commerce;
Universities; and Zamindars.
The Government of India Act of 1919: It
separated, for the first time, the
Provincial Budgets from the Central
Budget and authorised the Provincial
Legislatures to enact their Budgets.
RAUSIAS-1013
11. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is
based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’,
drafted and moved by Pandit Jawahar Lal
Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent
Assembly.
Economic liberty is not embodied in the
Preamble to the Constitution of India.
The Preamble has provided for the
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief,
faith and worship.
12. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is
based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’,
drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and
adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
The term ‘Preamble’ refers to the
introduction or preface to the Constitution.
It contains the summary or essence of the
Constitution. N.A. Palkhivala, an eminent
jurist and constitutional expert, called the
Preamble as the ‘identity card of the
Constitution.’
It has been amended by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act (1976),
which added three new words: Socialist,
Secular and Integrity.
13. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Preamble declares that fraternity has
to assure two things: the dignity of the
individual, and the unity and integrity of
the nation.
The Preamble has been amended only
once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act, which
has added three new words: Socialist,
Secular and Integrity–to the Preamble.
This Amendment was held to be valid.
The Preamble embodies the basic
philosophy and fundamental values:
political, moral and religious, on which the
Constitution is based. It contains the grand
4
 and noble vision of the Constituent
Assembly, and reflects the dreams and
aspirations of the founding fathers of the
Constitution.
‘Economic Justice’, as one of the
objectives of the Indian Constitution,
has been provided for in the Preamble
and the Directive Principles of State
Policy.
14. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
One of the controversies about the
Preamble is as to whether it is a part of the
Constitution or not. In the Berubari Union
case (1960), the Supreme Court said that
the Preamble shows the general
purposes behind the several provisions
in the Constitution, and is thus, a key to
the minds of the makers of the
Constitution.
Further, where the terms used in any
Article are ambiguous or capable of more
than one meaning, some assistance at
interpretation may be taken from the
objectives enshrined in the Preamble.
In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973),
the Supreme Court rejected the earlier
opinion and held that the Preamble is a
part of the Constitution. It observed that
the Preamble is of extreme importance and
the Constitution should be read and
interpreted in the light of the grand and
noble vision expressed in the Preamble.
In the LIC of India case (1995) also, the
Supreme Court again held that the
Preamble is an integral part of the
Constitution.
15. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Preamble is neither a source of
power to the legislature nor a
prohibition upon the powers of the
legislature.
It is non-justiciable, i.e., its provisions
are not enforceable in the courts of law.
RAUSIAS-1013
16. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Preamble, in its present form, reads:
“We, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having
solemnly resolved to constitute India into a
SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR
DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to
all its citizens:
JUSTICE, Social, Economic and Political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief,
faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all;
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the
individual and the unity and integrity of the
Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this
twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do
HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO
OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.
17. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Government of India Act of 1919 came
into force in 1921. This Act is also known
as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
The features of this Act were as follows:
1. It relaxed the Central control over
the Provinces by demarcating and
separating the Central and the
Provincial Subjects.
2. It further divided the Provincial
Subjects into two parts – ‘Transferred’
and ‘Reserved’.
3. It introduced, for the first time,
bicameralism and direct elections in the
country.
4. It required that 3 of the 6 members of
the Viceroy’s Executive Council (other
than the Commander-in-Chief) were to
be Indians.
5. It extended the principle of communal
representation by providing separate
electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians,
Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
5
 6. It granted franchise to a limited number
of people on the basis of property, tax or
education.
7. It created a new office of the High
Commissioner for India in London and
transferred to him some of the functions
hitherto performed by the Secretary of
State for India.
8. It provided for the establishment of a
Public Service Commission. Hence, a
Central Public Service Commission was
set up in 1926 for recruiting the Civil
Servants.
9. It separated, for the first time,
Provincial Budgets from the Central
Budget and authorised the Provincial
Legislatures to enact their Budgets.
10. It provided for the appointment of a
Statutory Commission to inquire into
and report on its working after ten years
of its coming into force.
18. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 In November, 1927, the British
Government announced the
appointment a seven-member Statutory
Commission under the Chairmanship of
Sir John Simon, to report on the
condition of India under its new
Constitution. All the members of the
Commission were British and hence, all
the parties boycotted the Commission.
The Commission submitted its report in
1930 and recommended the abolition of
dyarchy, extension of responsible
government in the Provinces,
establishment of a federation of British
India and Princely States, continuation
of communal electorate and so on.
 To consider the proposals of the
Commission, the British Government
convened three Round Table
Conferences of the representatives of
the British Government, British India
and the Indian Princely States. On the
basis of these discussions, a ‘White
RAUSIAS-1013
Paper on Constitutional Reforms’ was
prepared and submitted for the
consideration of the Joint Select
Committee of the British Parliament.
The recommendations of this
Committee were incorporated (with
certain changes) in the next
Government of India Act of 1935.
19. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935,
marked a second milestone towards a
completely responsible government in
India. It was a lengthy and detailed
document, having 321 Sections and 10
Schedules.
The features of this Act were as follows:
1. It provided for the establishment of an
All-India Federation, consisting of
Provinces and Princely States as units.
The Act divided the powers between the
Centre and the units in terms of three
lists – Federal List (for Centre, with 59
items); Provincial List (for Provinces,
with 54 items) and the Concurrent List
(for both, with 36 items). The Residuary
powers were given to the Viceroy.
However, the Federation never came
into being, as the Princely States did
not join it.
2. It abolished dyarchy in the Provinces
and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’
in its place.
3. It provided for the adoption of dyarchy
at the Centre.
4. It introduced bicameralism in 6 out
of 11 Provinces. Thus, the
legislatures of Bengal, Bombay,
Madras, Bihar, Assam and the United
Provinces were made bicameral,
consisting of a Legislative Council
(The Upper House) and a Legislative
Assembly (The Lower House).
However, many restrictions were
placed on them.
6
 5. It further extended the principle of 8. Liaquat Ali Finance
communal representation by providing Khan
separate electorates for the depressed
9. Abdur Rab Posts & Air
classes (Scheduled Castes), women and
Nishtar
labour (workers).
6. It abolished the Council of India, 10. Asaf Ali Railways &
established by the Government of India Transport
Act of 1858. The Secretary of State for 11. C. Education & Arts
India was provided with a team of Rajagopalach
advisors. ari
7. It extended franchise. About 10% of the
12. I.I. Commerce
total population got the voting right.
Chundrigar
8. It provided for the establishment of a
Reserve Bank of India to control the 13. Ghaznafar Ali Health
currency and credit of the country. Khan
9. It provided for the establishment of not 14. Joginder Nath Law
only a Federal Public Service Mandal
Commission, but also a Provincial
Public Service Commission and Joint
Public Service Commission for two or
more provinces. 21. Answer: (a)
10. It provided for the establishment of a Explanation:
Federal Court, which was set up in The First Cabinet of Free India (1947):
1937. S.N. Members Portfolios Held
1. Jawaharlal Prime Minister;
20. Answer: (b) Nehru External Affairs &
Explanation: Commonwealth
The Interim Government of 1946: Relations; Scientific
Research
S.N. Members Portfolios Held
2. Sardar Home, Information
1. Jawaharlal Vice-President of
Vallabhbhai & Broadcasting;
Nehru the Council;
Patel States
External Affairs &
Commonwealth 3. Dr. Rajendra Food & Agriculture
Relations Prasad

2. Sardar Home, Information 4. Maulana Abul Education

Kalam Azad
Vallabhbhai & Broadcasting
Patel 5. Dr. John Railways &
Mathai Transport
3. Dr. Rajendra Food & Agriculture
Prasad 6. R.K. Finance
Shanmugham
4. Dr. John Industries &
Chetty
Mathai Supplies
7. Dr. B.R. Law
5. Jagjivan Ram Labour Ambedkar
6. Sardar Baldev Defence 8. Jagjivan Ram Labour
Singh
9. Sardar Defence
7. C.H. Bhabha Works, Mines & Baldev Singh
Power

RAUSIAS-1013 7
 10. Raj Kumari Health key role in enacting laws abolishing caste
Amrit Kaur discrimination, dowry and sati, and
extending legal rights and social freedom to
11. C.H. Bhabha Commerce
Indian women.
12. Rafi Ahmed Communication While Nehru was prepared to be flexible on
Kidwai many counts, there was one thing on which
13. Dr. Shayama Industries & he was always firm and uncompromising.
Prasad Supplies Secularism for him meant a complete
Mukherji opposition to communalism of all kinds.
14. V.N. Gadgil Works, Mines & Nehru was particularly severe in his
Power criticism of the communalism of the
majority community, which posed a threat
to national unity. Secularism for him was
22. Answer: (a) not only a matter of principles, it was also
Explanation: the only guarantee of the unity and
Religious domination cannot be identified integrity of India.
only with interreligious domination. It takes Note: Indian secularism deals not only with
another conspicuous form, namely, intra- religious freedom of individuals but also
religious domination. As secularism is with religious freedom of minority
opposed to all forms of institutionalised communities. Within it, an individual has
religious domination, it challenges not the right to profess the religion of his or her
merely interreligious but also intra- choice. Likewise, religious minorities also
religious domination. have a right to exist and to maintain their
Secularism is a normative doctrine which own culture and educational institutions.
seeks to realise a secular society, i.e., one
devoid of either inter-religious or intra- 23. Answer: (c)
religious domination. Put positively, it
Explanation:
promotes freedom within religions, and
The Constituent Assembly appointed a
equality between, as well as within,
number of Committees to deal with
religions.
different tasks of Constitution-making. Out
According to Jawahar Lal Nehru,
of these, 8 were Major Committees and the
Secularism is ‘Equal protection by the State
others were Minor Committees. The names
to all religions’. He wanted a secular state
of these Committees and their Chairmen
to be one that “protects all religions, but are given below:
does not favour one at the expense of
Major Committees:
others and does not itself adopt any
1. Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal
religion as the state religion”. Nehru was
Nehru
the philosopher of Indian secularism.
2. Union Constitution Committee -
Nehru did not practise any religion, nor did
Jawaharlal Nehru
he believe in God. But for him secularism
did not mean hostility to religion. In that 3. Provincial Constitution Committee -
sense Sardar Patel
Nehru was very different from Ataturk in 4. Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R.
Turkey. At the same time Nehru was not in Ambedkar
favour of a complete separation between 5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental
religion and state. A secular state can Rights, Minorities and Tribal and
interfere in matters of religion to bring Excluded Areas - Sardar Patel. This
about social reform. Nehru himself played a

RAUSIAS-1013 8
 Committee had the following 5 Sub- Nalini Ranjan Sarkar (Not an Assembly
Committees: Member)
(a) Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee 10. Linguistic Provinces Commission - S.K.
- J.B. Kripalani Dar (Not an Assembly Member)
(b) Minorities Sub-Committee - H.C. 11. Special Committee to Examine the Draft
Mukherjee Constitution - Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and 12. Press Gallery Committee - Usha Nath
Assam Excluded and Partially Sen
Excluded Areas Sub-Committee - 13. Ad-hoc Committee on Citizenship - S.
Gopinath Bardoloi Varadachari (Not an Assembly Member)
(d) Excluded and Partially Excluded
Areas (other than those in Assam) 25. Answer: (c)
Sub-Committee - A.V. Thakkar
Explanation:
(e) North-West Frontier Tribal Areas
The critics have criticised the Constituent
Sub-Committee
Assembly on various grounds. These are as
6. Rules of Procedure Committee - Dr. follows:
Rajendra Prasad
1. Not a Representative Body: The critics
7. States Committee (Committee for have argued that the Constituent
Negotiating with States) - Jawaharlal Assembly was not a representative
Nehru body, as its members were not directly
8. Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra elected by the people of India, on the
Prasad basis of universal adult franchise.
2. Not a Sovereign Body: The critics
24. Answer: (d) maintained that the Constituent
Explanation: Assembly was not a sovereign body, as
Minor Committees – it was created by the proposals of the
British Government. Further, they said
1. Finance and Staff Committee - Dr.
that the Assembly held its sessions with
Rajendra Prasad
the permission of the British
2. Credentials Committee - Alladi
Government.
Krishnaswami Ayyar
3. Time Consuming: According to the
3. House Committee - B. Pattabhi
critics, the Constituent Assembly took
Sitaramayya
unduly long time to make the
4. Order of Business Committee - Dr. K.M. Constitution.
Munshi
4. Dominated by Congress: The critics
5. Ad-hoc Committee on the National Flag charged that the Constituent Assembly
- Dr. Rajendra Prasad was dominated by the Congress party.
6. Committee on the Functions of the 5. Lawyer-Politician Domination: It is
Constituent Assembly - G.V. also maintained by the critics that the
Mavalankar Constituent Assembly was dominated
7. Ad-hoc Committee on the Supreme by lawyers and politicians.
Court - S. Varadachari (Not an 6. Dominated by the Hindus: According
Assembly Member) to some critics, the Constituent
8. Committee on Chief Commissioners’ Assembly was a Hindu dominated body.
Provinces - B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya Lord Viscount Simon called it ‘a body of
9. Expert Committee on the Financial Hindus’.
Provisions of the Union Constitution -

RAUSIAS-1013 9
26. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, if any
foreign territory becomes a part of India,
the Government of India specifies the
persons, who among the people of the
territory, shall be the citizens of India
(no separate registration is required).
Such persons become the citizens of India
from the notified date. For example, when
Pondicherry became a part of India, the
Government of India issued the Citizenship
(Pondicherry) Order (1962), under the
Citizenship Act (1955).
Further, those born in India, on or after
December 3, 2004, are considered citizens
of India, only if both of their parents are
citizens of India or one of whose parents is
a citizen of India and the other is not an
illegal migrant at the time of their birth.
29. Answer: (a)
27. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Article 9 of the Constitution of India,
1949: The persons voluntarily acquiring
the citizenship of a foreign state, not to be
citizens.
Article 10 of the Constitution of India,
1949: Every person, who is or is deemed to
be a citizen of India under any of the
foregoing provisions of this Part, shall,
subject to the provisions of any law that
may be made by the Parliament, continue
to be such citizen.
Article 11 of the Constitution of India,
1949: The Parliament to regulate the
right of citizenship by law. Nothing in the
foregoing provisions of this Part shall
derogate from the power of the Parliament
to make any provision with respect to the
acquisition and termination of citizenship
and all other matters relating to
citizenship.
28. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The persons born in India on or after
December 3, 2004, are considered the
citizens of India, only if both of their
RAUSIAS-1013
parents are citizens of India, or one of
whose parents is a citizen of India and the
other is not an illegal migrant at the time of
their birth. The children of foreign
diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens
cannot acquire the Indian citizenship by
birth.
The Central Government may, on an
application, register as a citizen of India
any person (not being an illegal migrant), if
he is a person of Indian origin, who is
ordinarily resident in India for seven years
before making an application for
registration.
The Central Government may, on an
application, register as a citizen of India on
the condition that he has an adequate
knowledge of a language specified in the
Eighth Schedule to the Constitution.
Explanation:
Loss of Citizenship: The Citizenship Act
(1955) prescribes three ways of losing
citizenship, whether acquired under the Act
or prior to it under the Constitution, viz,
renunciation, termination and deprivation:
1. By Renunciation: Any citizen of India
of full age and capacity can make a
declaration renouncing his Indian
citizenship. Upon the registration of
that declaration, that person ceases to
be a citizen of India. However, if such a
declaration is made during a war in
which India is engaged, its registration
shall be withheld by the Central
Government. Further, when a person
renounces his Indian citizenship, every
minor child of that person also loses
Indian citizenship. However, when such
a child attains the age of eighteen, he
may resume Indian citizenship.
2. By Termination: When an Indian
citizen voluntarily (consciously,
knowingly and without duress, undue
influence or compulsion) acquires the
citizenship of another country, his
Indian citizenship automatically
terminates. This provision, however,
10
 does not apply during a war in which
India is engaged.
3. By Deprivation: It is a compulsory
termination of Indian citizenship by the
Central Government, if:
(a) the citizen has obtained the
citizenship by fraud;
(b) the citizen has shown disloyalty to
the Constitution of India;
(c) the citizen has unlawfully traded or
communicated with the enemy
during a war;
(d) the citizen has, within five years
after registration or naturalisation,
been imprisoned in any country for
two years; and
(e) the citizen has been ordinarily
resident out of India for seven years
continuously.
30. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
An Overseas Citizen of India (OCI)
cardholder shall not be entitled to the
right to equality of opportunity in the
matters of public employment, which
also include contesting the elections to
State Legislative Assemblies.
Benefits available to the OCIs:
(i) Multiple entry life-long visa for visiting
India for any purpose.
(ii) Exemption from registration with the
Foreigners Regional Registration
Officer (FRRO) or the Foreigners
Registration Officer (FRO) for any
length of stay in India.
(iii) Parity with the Non-Resident Indians
(NRIs) in respect of all facilities
available to them in economic,
financial and educational fields, except
in the matters relating to the
acquisition of agricultural or plantation
properties.
(iv) Registered Overseas Citizen of India
cardholder shall be treated at par with
RAUSIAS-1013
the Non-Resident Indians in the matter
of inter-country adoption of Indian
children.
(v) Registered Overseas Citizen of India
cardholder shall be treated at par with
the Resident Indian Nationals in the
matter of tariffs in air fares in domestic
sectors in India.
(vi) Registered Overseas Citizen of India
cardholder shall be charged the same
entry fee as domestic Indian visitors to
visit National Parks and Wildlife
Sanctuaries in India.
(vii) Parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRI)
in respect of:
(A) Entry fees to be charged for visiting
the national monuments, historical
sites and museums in India.
(B) Pursuing the following professions
in India, in pursuance of the
provisions contained in the relevant
Acts, namely:
(a) Doctors, dentists, nurses and
pharmacists;
(b) Advocates;
(c) Architects; and
(d) Chartered Accountants.
(C) To appear for the All-India Pre-
Medical Test or such other tests to
make them eligible for admission in
pursuance of the provisions
contained in the relevant Acts.
(viii) The State Governments should ensure
that the OCI cardholder registration
booklets of the OCI cardholders are
treated as their identification for any
services rendered to them. In case a
proof of residence is required, the
Overseas Citizens of India cardholder
may give an affidavit stating that a
particular/specific address may be
treated as their place of residence in
India.
11
31. Answer: (a) American Federation; and two, the states
Explanation: have no right to secede from the
The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, Federation. The Federation is a Union
because it is indestructible. The country is
provided that any person belonging to
an integral whole and divided into different
Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or
states only for the convenience of
Christian community from Afghanistan,
administration.
Bangladesh or Pakistan, who entered into
According to Article 1, the territory of
India on or before the 31st day of
India can be classified into three
December, 2014, and who has been
categories:
exempted by the Central Government by
1. The territories of the states;
or under Clause (c) of Sub-Section (2) of
Section 3 of the Passport (Entry into 2. The Union Territories; and
India) Act, 1920, or from the application of 3. The territories that may be acquired by
the provisions of the Foreigners Act, 1946, the Government of India at any time.
or any rule or order made thereunder, shall
not be treated as illegal migrant for the 33. Answer: (a)
purposes of this Act to gain Indian Explanation:
citizenship of India. Article 2 of the Indian Constitution
Any Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the
cardholder, who has violated any of the Union of India, or establish, new states on
provisions of this Citizenship Act and its such terms and conditions as it thinks fit’.
consequent amendment or provisions of Thus, Article 2 grants two powers to the
any other law for time being in force, as Parliament: (a) The power to admit into
may be specified by the Central the Union of India new states; and (b)
Government in the notification published in The power to establish new states. The
first refers to the admission of states
the Official Gazette, would be debarred the
which are already in existence, while the
ownership of the OCI card.
second refers to the establishment of
This Act provides the citizenship to the
states which were not in existence
migrants on the ground of naturalisation
before.
(temporal).
Notably, Article 2 relates to the admission
or establishment of new states that are not
32. Answer (d) part of the Union of India.
Explanation: Article 3, on the other hand, relates to the
Article 1 of the Indian Constitution formation of or changes in the existing
describes India, that is, Bharat as a states of the Union of India.
‘Union of States’, rather than a In other words, Article 3 deals with the
‘Federation of States’. The country is internal re-adjustment, inter se, of the
described as ‘Union’, although its territories of the constituent states of the
Constitution is federal in structure. Union of India.
According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the
phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred
34. Answer: (d)
to the ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons:
Explanation:
one, the Indian Federation is not the result
of an agreement among the states, like the Article 3 of the Indian Constitution
authorises the Parliament to:

RAUSIAS-1013 12
 (a) Form a new state by separation of (a) Form a new state by separation of
territory from any state or by uniting territory from any state or by uniting
two or more states or parts of states or two or more states or parts of states or
by uniting any territory to a part of any by uniting any territory to a part of any
state; state;
(b) Increase the area of any state; (b) Increase the area of any state;
(c) Diminish the area of any state; (c) Diminish the area of any state;
(d) Alter the boundaries of any state; and (d) Alter the boundaries of any state; and
(e) Alter the name of any state. (e) Alter the name of any state.
However, Article 3 lays down two However, Article 3 lays down two
conditions in this regard: one, a Bill conditions in this regard: one, a Bill
contemplating the above changes can be contemplating the above changes can be
introduced in the Parliament only with the introduced in the Parliament only with the
prior recommendation of the President; and prior recommendation of the President; and
two, before recommending the Bill, the two, before recommending the Bill, the
President has to refer the same to the State President has to refer the same to the State
Legislature concerned for expressing its Legislature concerned for expressing its
views within a specified period. Further, the views within a specified period.
power of the Parliament to form new states Article 4 declares that the laws made for
includes the power to form a new state or admission or establishment of new states
Union Territory by uniting a part of any (under Article 2) and formation of new
state or Union Territory to any other state states and alteration of areas, boundaries
or Union Territory. or names of existing states (under Articles
The President (or the Parliament) is not 3) are not to be considered as Amendments
bound by the views of the State Legislature of the Constitution under Article 368. This
and may either accept or reject them, even means that such laws can be passed by a
if the views are received in time. simple majority and by the ordinary
Further, it is not necessary to make a fresh legislative process.
reference to the State Legislature every time
an Amendment to the Bill is moved and 36. Answer: (c)
accepted in the Parliament. In case of a Explanation:
Union Territory, no reference need be made
The integration of the Princely States with
to the concerned legislature to ascertain its
the rest of India has purely an ‘ad hoc
views and the Parliament can itself take
arrangement’. There has been a demand
any action as it deems fit.
from different regions, particularly South
Note: The Bill can be introduced in the Lok India, for reorganisation of the states on
Sabha or Rajya Sabha. linguistic basis. Accordingly, in June,
1948, the Government of India appointed
35. Answer: (a) the Linguistic Provinces Commission,
Explanation: under the Chairmanship of S.K. Dhar, to
Article 3 of the Indian Constitution examine the feasibility of this. The
authorises the Parliament to: Commission submitted its report in
December, 1948, and recommended the
reorganisation of the states on the basis of

RAUSIAS-1013 13
 administrative convenience, rather than
linguistic factor. This created
resentment and led to the appointment of
another Linguistic Provinces Committee by
the Congress in December, 1948, itself to
examine the whole question afresh. It
consisted of Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai
Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya and hence,
was popularly known as the
Committee.
It submitted its report in April, 1949, and
formally rejected language as the basis for
the reorganisation of the states.
37. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The creation of Andhra state intensified the
demand from other regions for the creation
of the states on linguistic basis. This forced
the Government of India to appoint (in
1953) a three member
Reorganisation Commission, under
Chairmanship of Fazl Ali, to re-examine the
whole question. Its other two members
were K.M. Panikkar and H.N. Kunzru. It
submitted its report in 1955 and broadly
accepted language as the basis of the
reorganisation of the states. But, it rejected
the theory of ‘one language-one state’. Its
view was that the unity of India should be
regarded as the primary consideration in
any redrawing of the country’s political
units. It identified four major factors that
can be taken into account in any scheme of
reorganisation of the states:
(a) Preservation and strengthening of the
unity and security of the country.
(b) Linguistic and cultural homogeneity.
(c) Financial, economic and administrative
considerations.
(d) Planning and promotion of the welfare
of the people in each state, as well as of
the nation as a whole.
RAUSIAS-1013
38. Answer: (c)
much Explanation:
The Union Territories of Puducherry (in
1963), Delhi (in 1992) and Jammu &
Kashmir (in 2019), each, are provided with
a Legislative Assembly and a Council of
Ministers headed by a Chief Minister. The
remaining six Union Territories do not have
JVP such popular political institutions. But, the
establishment of such institutions in the
Union Territories does not diminish the
supreme control of the President and the
Parliament over them. The Parliament can
make laws on any subject of the three lists
(including the State List) for the Union
Territories. This power of the Parliament
also extends to Puducherry, Delhi and
Jammu & Kashmir, which have their own
local legislatures. This means that, the
legislative power of the Parliament for the
Union Territories on the subjects of the
States
State List remains unaffected even after
the
establishing a local legislature for them.
But, the Legislative Assembly of
Puducherry can also make laws on any
subject of the State List and the
Concurrent List.
39. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
At the time of independence, India
comprised two categories of political units,
namely, the British Provinces (under the
direct rule of the British Government) and
the Princely States (under the rule of the
native princes, but subject to the
paramountcy of the British Crown). The
Indian Independence Act (1947) created
two independent and separate dominions of
India and Pakistan, and gave three options
to the Princely States, viz., joining India,
joining Pakistan or remaining independent.
Of the 552 Princely States situated within
the geographical boundaries of India, 549
14
 joined India and the remaining 3 sensibilities and capabilities: be it in
(Hyderabad, Junagarh and Kashmir) sports, science, art, music or exploration. A
refused to join India. However, in course free society is one that enables one to
of time, they were also integrated with pursue one’s interests with a minimum of
India – Hyderabad by means of police constraints.
action, Junagarh by means of
referendum and Jammu & Kashmir by
41. Answer: (c)
the Instrument of Accession.
Explanation:
A concept analogous to Freedom in Indian
40. Answer: (d)
political thought is ‘Swaraj’. The term
Explanation: Swaraj incorporates within it two words —
Freedom is said to exist when external Swa (Self) and Raj (Rule). It can be
constraints on the individual are absent. In understood to mean both the rule of the
terms of this definition, an individual could self and rule over self.
be considered free if he/she is not subject
Swaraj, in the context of the freedom
to external controls or coercion, and is able
struggle in India referred to freedom as a
to make independent decisions and act in
constitutional and political demand, and as
an autonomous way.
a value at the social-collective level. That is
However, the absence of constraints is only why Swaraj was such an important rallying
one dimension of freedom. Freedom is also cry in the freedom movement, inspiring
about expanding the ability of the people to Tilak’s famous statement — “Swaraj is my
freely express themselves and develop their
birth right and I shall have it.”
potential. Freedom, in this sense, is the
It is the understanding of Swaraj as Rule
condition in which the people can develop
over the Self that was highlighted by
their creativity and capabilities.
Mahatma Gandhi in his work ‘Hind
Both these aspects of freedom — the
Swaraj’, where he states, “It is Swaraj when
absence of external constraints, as well as
we learn to rule ourselves”.
the existence of conditions in which the
Swaraj is not just freedom, but liberation in
people can develop their talents — are
redeeming one’s self-respect, self-
important. A free society would be one
responsibility and capacities for self-
which enables all its members to develop
realisation from the institutions of
their potential with the minimum of social
dehumanisation. Understanding the real
constraints.
‘Self’, and its relation to communities and
To be free means to reduce or minimise
society, is critical to the project of attaining
social constraints that limit our ability to
Swaraj.
make choices freely. However, this is only
Gandhiji believed the development that
one aspect of freedom. To put it in another
follows would liberate both the individual
way, freedom also has a positive dimension.
and collective potentialities guided by the
To be free, a society must widen the area in
principle of justice. Needless to say, such
which the individuals, groups, communities
an understanding is as relevant to the
or nations will be able to charter their own
twenty first century as it was when
destiny and be what they wish to be.
Gandhiji wrote the Hind Swaraj in 1909.
Freedom, in this sense, allows the full
development of the individual’s creativity,

RAUSIAS-1013 15
42. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Positive liberty recognises that one can be
free only in the society (not outside it) and
hence, tries to make that society such that
it enables the development of
individual, whereas negative liberty is only
concerned with the inviolable area of non-
interference and not with the conditions in
the society, outside this area, as such.
Of course, negative liberty would like to
expand this minimum area as much as is
possible, keeping in mind, however, the
stability of the society. Generally, they both
go together and support each other, but it
can happen that the tyrants justify their
rule by invoking arguments of positive
liberty.
43. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Socialism refers to a set of political ideas
that emerged as a response to
inequalities present in, and reproduced by,
the industrial capitalist economy.
The main concern of Socialism is how to
minimise the existing inequality
distribute the resources justly. Although
the advocates of Socialism are
entirely opposed to the market, they
favour some kind of government
regulation, planning and control over
certain key areas, such as education and
health care.
In India, the eminent socialist thinker,
Rammanohar Lohia, identified five kinds of
inequalities that need to be fought against
simultaneously: inequality between man
and woman, inequality based on skin
colour, caste-based inequality, colonial rule
of some countries over others, and, of
course, economic inequality.
This might appear a self-evident idea today.
But during Lohia’s time, it was common for
RAUSIAS-1013
the socialists to argue that class inequality
was the only form of inequality worth
struggling against. Other inequalities did
not matter or would end automatically if
economic inequality could be ended. Lohia
the argued that each of these inequalities had
independent roots and had to be fought
separately and simultaneously. He did not
speak of revolution in the singular. For him
struggle against these five inequalities
constituted five revolutions. He added two
more revolutions to this list: revolution for
civil liberties against unjust encroachments
on private life and revolution for non-
violence, for renunciation of weapons in
favour of Satyagraha. These were the
seven revolutions or Sapta Kranti which,
for Lohia, were the ideals of Socialism.
44. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Justice does not require absolute equality
and sameness in the way in which the
the
people live. But a society would be
considered unjust if the differences
between the rich and the poor are so great
that they seem to be living in different
and
worlds altogether, and if the relatively
deprived have no chance at all to improve
not
their condition, however hard they may
work. In other words, a just society should
provide the people with the basic minimum
conditions to enable them to live healthy
and secure lives, and develop their talents,
as well as equal opportunities to pursue
their chosen goals in the society.
Note: ‘A Just Society is that society in
which ascending sense of reverence and
descending sense of contempt is dissolved
into the creation of a compassionate
society’. This definition of Just Society was
given by Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar in
‘Annihilation of Caste’.
16
 Justice implies something which it is not 46. Answer: (b)
only right to do and wrong not to do; but Explanation:
which some individual person can claim Ireland:
from us as his moral right. – J. S. Mill.  Directive principles of state policy
 The nomination of members to Rajya
45. Answer: (d) sabha
Explanation:  Method of election of President
Main points of the Objectives Resolution – Britain:

 India is an independent, sovereign,  Parliamentary Government

republic;  Rule of Law, Legislative procedure

 India shall be a Union of erstwhile  Single Citizenship

British Indian territories, Indian States,  Cabinet system
and other parts outside United States of America:
 British India and Indian States as are  Impeachment of the president
willing to be a part of the Union;  Functions of president and vice-
 Territories forming the Union shall be president

autonomous units and exercise all  Removal of Supreme Court and High
powers and functions of the court judges

Government and administration, except  Fundamental Rights

those assigned to or vested in the  Judicial review
Union;  Independence of judiciary
 All powers and authority of sovereign  The preamble of the constitution
and independent India and its
constitution shall flow from the people; 47. Answer: (c)
 All people of India shall be guaranteed Explanation:
and secured social, economic and John Stuart Mill stated eloquently in his
political justice; equality of status and essay on Liberty.
opportunities and equality before law; Called the 'harm principle’. Let us quote his
and fundamental freedoms - of speech, statement and then try to explain it.
expression, belief, faith, worship, ...the sole end for which mankind are
vocation, association and action - warranted, individually or collectively, in
subject to law and public morality; interfering with the liberty of action of any
of their number, is self-protection. That the
 The minorities, backward and tribal
only purpose for which power can be
areas, depressed and other backward rightfully exercised over any member of a
classes shall be provided adequate civilised community, against his will, is to
safeguards; prevent harm to others.
 The territorial integrity of the Republic
and its sovereign rights on land, sea 48. Answer: (b)
and air shall be maintained according Explanation:
to justice and law of civilized nations;
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having
 The land would make full and willing solemnly resolved to constitute India into a
contribution to the promotion of world SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR
peace and welfare of mankind.

RAUSIAS-1013 17
 DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to
all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief,
faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the
individual and the unity and integrity of the
Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this
twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do
HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO
OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.
Thus, constitution does not explicitly
provide for
1. Right to happiness.
2. Environmental protection.
3. Empowerment of women.
49. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The distinction between democracy and
dictatorship is that in a democracy conflicts
over resources, or different visions of the
good life, are resolved through debate and a
respect for the rights of all and these
cannot be imposed from above. Thus, if
everyone in a society has a common stake
in achieving a better life, then everyone
needs to be involved in formulating the
plans of development and in devising ways
of implementing them.
RAUSIAS-1013
There is a difference between following a
plan made by others and sharing in the
formulation of the plans. Firstly, even if
others make plans with the best intentions,
they are likely to be less aware than you
about your specific needs. Secondly, being
an active part of the decision-making
all
process is empowering.
50. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The rationale for ideal of equality:
1. All human beings are creation of God.
(Religious justification)
2. All human being equal worth. (Moral
Argument)
Equality is a powerful moral and political
ideal that has inspired and guided human
society for many centuries. It is implicit in
all faiths and religions which proclaim all
human beings to be the creation of God. As
a political ideal the concept of equality
invokes the idea that all human beings
have an equal worth regardless of their
colour, gender, race, or nationality. It
maintains that human beings deserve
equal consideration and respect because of
their common humanity. It is this notion of
a shared humanity that lies behind, for
instance, the notions of universal human
rights or ‘crimes against humanity’.
Merely because constitutions recognize,
does not mean we believe in equality. For
ex. Constitutions of theocratic states
differentiates among people based on
religion. Thus, the philosophical ideal of
equality is much broader.
18