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DEDICATED PRELIM PROGRAM(DPP)

UPSC-CSE PRELIMINARY TEST SERIES – 2021/2022
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
TEST BOOKLET SERIES

Test Code:

E5
TEST BOOKLET

DPP GENERAL STUDIES

TEST -05

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST
BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES CODE A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside this line. DO NOT write anything else on the
Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel
that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose
ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. All items carry equal marks.
6. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BYA CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
I. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, One-Third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
II. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
III. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.

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TOPICS COVERD: Election Commission of India Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG),Attorney General of
India Advocate General of the State, Finance Commission National Commission for Backward
Classes,National Commission for Scheduled Castes National Commission for Scheduled Tribes,
Special officer for Linguistic Minorities Union Public Service Commission State Public Service

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Q.1) With reference to the National commission for
backward classes, consider the following statements:
1. It is a non-constitutional body.
2. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Social
Justice & Empowerment.
3. The conditions of service and tenure of office of
the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other
Members is determined by the President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.2) Consider the following options:
1. Elections to the Lok Sabha Constituency of South
Mumbai
2. Elections to the sole Rajya Sabha seat of
Puducherry
3. Elections to the Legislative Assembly of Delhi
4. Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation
Elections
5. Uttar Pradesh Gram Panchayat Raj Election
6. Elections to the Legislative Council of Karnataka
Which of the above elections are conducted by the
Election Commission of India?
a) 1,2 and 3 only
b) 3,4,5 and 6 only
c) 1,2,3 and 6 only
d) All of the above
Q.3) Which of the following are functions of the
election commission of India?
1. Determine the territorial areas of the electoral
constituencies
2. Grant recognition to political parties
3. Deregister political parties for unconstitutional
practices
4. Cancel polls in the event of rigging booth capturing
and violence
Select the correct Ans: using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q.4) With reference to Election Commission of India,
which of the following are explicitly mentioned in the
constitution?
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1. Manner of removal of the chief election
commissioner.
2. Qualification of the members of the election
commission
3. Total Term of the members of the election
commission
4. Various conditions of service of the chief election
commissioner
Select the correct Ans: using the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 4 only
Q.5) With reference to Election Commission of India,
consider the following statements:
1. The constitution provides security of tenure to all
the members of the Election Commission of India.
2. The constitution puts an obligation on the
governor of a state to make available to the
election commission such personnel as may be
necessary for various functions.
3. The constitution of India has debarred the retiring
election commissioners from any further
appointment under the government.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 only
Q.6) With reference to the National Commission on
backward class which of the following statements
is/are incorrect?
1. The NCBC is a statutory body established under
the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2. The first Backward classes commission or the
Mandal commission recommended that the
members of OBC be granted reservations to 27 %
of jobs under the Central government and public
sector undertakings.
3. Kalekar commission or the socially and
Educationally Backward Classes was established
with a mandate to “identify the socially or
educationally backward classes” of India.
Select the Answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1,2 and 3 only
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 1

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d) None of the above
Q.7) Consider the following statements about
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC):
1. It is a Constitutional body established originally in
2018 under Article 338B of constitution.
2. It consists of a chairperson and 3 other members.
3. It investigates and monitors all the matters relating
to economically backward classes under the
Constitution.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.8) Consider the following statements about
National Commission for Backward Classes:
1. It has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit.
2. The Commission can regulate its own procedure.
3. The chairperson of the Commission has the residuary
powers to decide on all questions and matters arising
in the Commission.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.9) Consider the following statements about the
functions of National Commission for Backward
Classes:
1. It can participate and advise on the planning process
of socio-economic development of the socially and
educationally backward classes.
2. It can evaluate the progress of development of
socially and educationally backward classes under the
Union but not under the States.
3. It presents its reports pertaining to union
government to the President and those pertaining to
state government to the Governor.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Q.10) Consider the following provisions made by the
102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018:
1. The Union and State governments need to consult
the National Commission for Backward Classes on all
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major policy matters affecting the socially and
educationally backward classes.
2. The President can specify the socially and
educationally backward classes with respect to any
State.
3. The union government, by notification can include or
exclude any socially and educationally backward class
from the Central list of socially and educationally
backward classes.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Q.11) Consider the following statements:
1. The members of the National Commission for
Backward Classes (NCBC) have collective responsibility.
2. The Secretary of the NCBC, in his discretion, can
delegate any of his functions or authority to a
subordinate officer without the approval of the
Chairperson.
3. NCBC cannot take action in the cases in which a
Court has already given its final verdict.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Q.12) Consider the following statements about
National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC):
1. It has been given constitutional status by 88th
Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. It consists of a chairperson and three other
members.
3. NCSC has to investigate all matters relating to the
constitutional and other legal safeguards for the Anglo-
Indian community.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 only
Q.13) Consider the following statements about
National Commission for Scheduled Castes:
1. It can participate and advise on the planning process
of socio-economic development of the scheduled
castes.
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 2

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2. It can evaluate the progress of development of
scheduled castes under the Union but not the States.
3. It has all the powers of a civil court and can summon
a person from any part of India.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Q.14) Consider the following provisions about
scheduled castes under the Constitution:
1. The Union and State governments need to consult
the National Commission for Scheduled Castes on all
major policy matters affecting the scheduled castes.
2. The President can specify the scheduled castes with
respect to any State.
3. The President, by law may include or exclude any
caste, race or tribe from the list of scheduled caste
specified in notification.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.15) Consider the following statements about
National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC):
1. The Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment is
the chairperson of the NCSC.
2. The Commission cannot take up investigations
directly and has to conduct them through state
agencies.
3. The Commission has to meet at least once in a
month.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.16) Consider the following statements about
National Commission for Scheduled Castes:
1. The Commission cannot take up matters that are
related to transfer.
2. The Complaint for violation of reservation policy can
be directly addressed to the chairman or vice chairman
of commission.
3. The Commission can regulate its own procedure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
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c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.17) Consider the following statements about the
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST):
1. The Commission takes measures to reduce and
eliminate the practice of shifting cultivation by tribals.
2. The Commission may hold more than one sitting
simultaneously in different parts of the country.
3. Any matter on which there is no provision in the
rules of procedure, the decision of the President shall
be sought.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.18) Consider the following statements about the
provisions made by the Constitution with reference to
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):
1. The UPSC consists of a chairperson and nine other
members.
2. The chairperson should be a person who has held
office for at least ten years under the Government of
India.
3. The chairperson and members of the UPSC hold
office for a term of six years and until they attain the
age of 65 years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.19) In which of the following instances the Union
Public Service Commission may not be consulted?
1. While making reservations of appointments or posts
in favour of any backward class of citizens.
2. While taking into considerations the claims of the
scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in making
appointments to services and posts.
3. All disciplinary matters affecting a person serving
under the Government of India.
4. Any claim for award of a pension in respect of
injuries sustained by a person while serving under the
Government of India.
Select the correct Ans: using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 3

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d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.20) Consider the following statements about State
Public Service Commission (SPSC) and Joint State
Public Service Commission (JSPSC):
1. SPSC is a constitutional body whereas JSPSC is a
statutory body.
2. The upper age limit to hold the office for the
members of SPSC is 62 years, whereas it is 65 years for
the members of JSPSC.
3. The chairperson and members of both SPSC and
JSPSC can be removed by the President only.
4. SPSC presents the report on annual performance to
the Governor of the state and JSPSC presents the
report on annual performance to the President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q.21) Consider the following statements about State
Public Service Commission:
1. The Constitution does not specify the strength of the
Commission but has left the matter to the discretion of
the President.
2. The Constitution authorises the President to
determine the conditions of service of the chairperson
and members of the Commission.
3. The Governor can appoint one of the members of
the SPSC as an acting chairperson in case of vacancy
and absence of the chairperson.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.22) Consider the following statements about State
Public Service Commission:
1. An Act of State Legislature can provide for exercise
of additional functions as respects the services of any
local authority.
2. The SPSC is consulted by the Governor while framing
rules for appointment to judicial service of the state
other than the posts of district judges.
3. The chairperson of the SPSC, on ceasing to hold
office, is eligible for appointment as the chairperson or
a member of the UPSC.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
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c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.23) Consider the following statements about the
removal of chairperson or any member of a State
Public Service Commission:
1. They can be removed by the President in a like
manner of a High Court Judge.
2. ‘Misbehaviour’ is one of the grounds for removal and
is defined in the Constitution.
3. During the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court,
the Governor can suspend the concerned chairperson
or member.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.24) Consider the following statements about the
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:
1. The provision for the Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities has been made under Part XVI (Special
provisions relating to certain classes) of the
Constitution.
2. The Special Officer is appointed by the President of
India.
3. The Constitution provides that the Special Officer
reports to the President annually and at such intervals
as the President may direct.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.25) Consider the following statements about the
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:
1. The provision for the Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities was made through the 7th Constitutional
Amendment Act.
2. The Constitution provides the Special Officer should
be a person from the group of linguistic minorities and
having 10 years of experience in the Government of
India or a state.
3. The Special Officer can investigate a matter when
children belonging to a linguistic minority group are not
provided instruction in the mother-tongue at the
primary stage of education.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 4
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b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct Ans: using the codes below.
c) 1 and 3 only a) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q.26) The prior recommendation of the President is d) 2, 3 and 4 only
needed to introduce which of these bills in the
Parliament? Q.29) Consider the following statements regarding
1. A bill involving expenditure from the Consolidated Attorney General of India
Fund of India. 1. Its office is mentioned in the Article 148 of the
2. A bill for the alteration of boundaries of states. Constitution.
3. A private member bill that concerns minority 2. He/she receives the Remuneration as fixed by the
welfare. Parliament.
4. Any ordinary bill in which the states may be 3. He/she is under the pleasure of the President.
interested. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
Select the correct Ans: using the codes below. b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3
a) 1 and 2 only d) 1 and 3
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only Q.30) Consider the following statements regarding
d) 1, 2 and 4 only Attorney General of India
1. The terms of office of the AG is not fixed by the
Constitution.
Q.27) Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the 2. Constitution does not provide the grounds for
President to promulgate ordinances. Consider the his/her removal.
following in this regard. 3. He/she should be a retired chief justice of India.
1. An ordinance made when both the Houses are in Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
session is valid if approved by the Council of a) 1 and 3
Ministers and Parliament. b) 1 and 2
2. An ordinance cannot be used to amend the c) 2 only
constitution. d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the above is/are correct?
Q.31) Consider the following statements
a) 1 only
1. Attorney General does not fall in the category of
b) 2 only
government servants
c) Both 1 and 2
2. He can defend accused persons in criminal
d) None of the above
prosecutions without the permission of the
Government of India.
3. He enjoys all the immunities and privileges that are
Q.28) The Governor has constitutional discretion in
available to a member of Parliament
which of the Following cases?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Seeking information from the chief minister with
a) 1 only
regard to the administrative and legislative
b) 1 and 3
matters of the state
c) 2 and 3
2. Approving any ordinary bill that falls under the
d) 1, 2 and 3
concurrent list
3. Recommendation for the imposition of the
Q.32) Consider the following statements regarding
President’s Rule in the state
Advocate General of State
4. Exercising his functions as the administrator of an
1. He must be a person who is qualified to be
adjoining union territory in case of additional
appointed a judge of Supreme Court.
charge
2. He holds office during the pleasure of Governor.

DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 5


OnlyIAS Nothing Else
3. He has a fixed tenure of 3 years as prescribed by
the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Q.33) With reference to National Commission of
Backward classes, consider the following statements:
1. It is a Constitutional body established through
the One Hundred and first constitutional
Amendment.
2. The pay and rank of members of the Commission
are those of Secretary to the Govt of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.34) With reference to the composition of the
National Commission of Backward Classes, consider
the following statements:
1. The rules provide for the mandatory appointment
of at least one-woman member in the
Commission.
2. The Chairperson of the commission is appointed
from amongst eminent socio-political workers
belonging to the socially and educationally
backward classes.
3. The Members of the Commission are not eligible
for appointment for more than one term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.35) With reference to the National Commission of
the Backward Classes which one of the following
statements is incorrect?
a) The Chairperson and the Members of the
Commission are appointed by the President by
warrant under his hand and seal.
b) It has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit.
c) The Commission is mandated by the Constitution
to specify the socially and educationally backward
classes.
d) None of the Above
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Q.36) With reference to the Welfare of the Backward
Classes (OBCs) in India, consider the following
statements:
1. It is one of the target groups of the Ministry of
Social Justice and Empowerment.
2. The Constitution of India does not provide a
specific definition of what constitutes the
‘Backward Classes’(BCs)
3. Article 338B of the Constitution of India provides a
national Commission for the welfare of the
‘Backward Classes’(BCs)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.37) With reference to the National Commission for
Scheduled Castes, consider the following statements:
1. The conditions of service of office of the members
of the Commission are determined by the
President.
2. It is empowered to enforce the attendance of any
person from any part of India while inquiring into
any complaint.
3. It is a multi-member body directly established by
the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.38) With reference to the National Commission for
Scheduled Castes, which one of the following
statements is incorrect?
a) The separate National Commission for Scheduled
Castes (SCs) came into existence as per the 65th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1990.
b) The Commission submits its annual report to the
President of India.
c) The state governments are required to consult the
Commission on all major policy matters affecting
the SCs.
d) The Commission has to investigate matters related
to legal safeguard of Anglo-Indian Communities.
Q.39) With reference to the National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes, consider the following statements:
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1. The term of office of Chairperson and each
member is five years from the date of assumption
of charge.
2. The Chairperson of the Commission has been given
the rank of Union Cabinet Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.40) With reference to the National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes, consider the following statements:
1. It is a five-member body with a Chairperson, Vice-
Chairperson and three other Members
2. The Commission is vested with powers of a civil
court.
3. The Union Minister of Tribal Affairs serves as an Ex-
officio Vice-Chairperson of the Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.41) Consider the following statement regarding
Election commission of India
1. Constitution at its enactment provided for a multi
member body of Election commission of India.
2. Election commission has essentially Administrative
and marginally Legislature as well as Judicative
powers.
Which of the above statements is/are Correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.42) Consider the following statements
1. Free and fair elections is one of the basic structures
propounded by the judiciary.
2. The two Election commissioner has equal status to
that of Chief Election commissioner.
3. Tenure of Both Election commissioner and regional
commissioner is free of political Executive control.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q.43) Consider the following statements with respect
to Election Commission
1. The Constitution itself has provided power to the
Election commission to demand necessary staff
from the President and Governor.
2. Election commission has power to take disciplinary
action against the officers for insubordination or
dereliction of duty while on election duty
3. Election commission has been given power to
superintendence, direction and control of the
preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to
state legislature
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Q.44) With reference to Article 324, consider the
following statements
1. Power conferred under Article 324 is subject to
limitations When Parliament or any State
Legislature has made a valid law relating to or in
connection with elections
2. While exercising power, Election commission shall
be confirmed to the rule of law and amenable to
norms of natural Justice
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.45) Consider the following statements:
1. Word elections in Article 324 includes every
process issued after the issuance of the
Notification for holding the election.
2. Election commission can withhold election to state
legislature if state government failed to complete
the process of issuance of photo identity cards by
the deadline.
3. Constitution has empowered the Election
commissioners to delete the name of a person
from the Electoral Roll-on certain grounds.
Which of the above statements is/are Incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q.46) With reference to Finance Commission,
consider the following statements
1. The Finance Commission's work involves
equalization of all public services across the States.
2. Finance Commission's work involves redressing the
vertical imbalances between the taxation powers
and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and
the States respectively.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are Correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.47) Which of the following, is duty of Finance
commission to make recommendations to the
President
1. Distribution of net proceed of taxes between
Centre and State.
2. Principles governing grant in aid of revenue of
states out of consolidated fund of States.
3. Measures needed to augment consolidated fund of
state to supplement resources of municipalities on
the basis of recommendation of state Finance
commission.
4. any other matter referred to the Commission by
the President in the interests of sound finance.
Choose the correct Ans: from the code given below:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.48) With reference to Finance commission, consider
the following statements
1. Chairman of Finance Commission is selected as per
qualification mentioned in Article 280 of
constitution
2. Special knowledge of finance and accounts of
government or qualification to be Judge of HC are
one of the prescribed conditions of selection for
members of the finance commission.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.49) Consider the following statements
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1. Recommendations of Finance commission are
implemented both by Presidential order as well as
Execution order
2. Recommendations related to grant in aid and
distribution of Union Taxes and Duties has to be
implemented by an executive order.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.50) Consider the following statements about
finance commission:
1. Financial or other interest which is likely to affect
prejudicially to a person's functions as a member is
a ground for disqualification of member of Finance
commission
2. President shall satisfy himself that person will have
no such financial or other interest as is likely to
affect prejudicially his functions as a member
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.51) With reference to Finance Commission,
consider the following statements
1. Commission, in the performance of their function,
has the power of Civil court under Codes of Civil
procedure
2. Commission can summon and enforce the
attendance of witnesses
3. Commission has power to require any person to
furnish information on such points or matters as in
the opinion of the Commission may be useful or
relevant to any matter under its consideration
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.52) With reference to Union Public Service
Commission, consider the following statements
1. Misbehaviour is the only ground for removal of
member or chairperson of Union Public Service
Commission.
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2. If a member or chairman becomes in any way
concerned or interested in any contract or
agreement made by or on behalf of the
Government of India in any way in profit, he would
be deemed guilty for misbehaviour.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.53) With reference to Union Public Service
Commission, consider the following statement
1. Parliament may regulate the number of members
of commission and their condition of service.
2. Conditions of service of a member of a Public
Service Commission cannot be varied to his
disadvantage after his appointment.
3. Expenses of Union public service commission is
charged on consolidated fund of India.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.54) Consider the following statements regarding
public service commissions
1. On ceasing to hold office Chairman of a State public
service commission (SPSC) can become member of
Union public service commission (UPSC)
2. On ceasing to hold office Member of State Public
Service Commission can become chairperson of
Union public service commission (UPSC)
3. On ceasing to hold office Member of UPSC can
become member of SPSC
4. On ceasing to hold office Chairman of SPSC can
become chairman of another SPSC
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q.55) With reference to public service commissions,
consider the following statements
1. State legislature may provide for exercise of
additional function related to services of state-by-
State public service commission
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2. UPSC shall be consulted, on any claim for the
award of a pension in respect of injuries sustained
by a person while serving under the Government
of India
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.56) With reference history of the office of
Comptroller and Auditor general of India (CAG),
consider the following statements
1. Govt of India Act 1858 record the first reference to
the office of Auditor General of India
2. Montford Reform 1918 made the Office of CAG
independent from the sovereign
3. Govt of India order 1936 laid down condition of
service of Auditor general and defined his duties
and powers
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.57) With reference to the office of CAG, consider
the following statements
1. In 1976, office of CAG was made responsible for
accounting and auditing of both the Central and
the State governments in pursuance of the quasi-
federal nature of the country
2. Salary of CAG finds mention in second schedule to
the Constitution of India
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.58) Consider the following statements regarding
office of CAG
1. CAG is appointed by warrant under hand and seal
of President.
2. CAG of India doesn't take oath.
3. It is the President who prescribe the form in which
the accounts of Union and states shall be
maintained and kept.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
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c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.59) Consider the following statement with
reference to the power of CAG
1. CAG is authorised to audit accounts related to
expenditure from consolidated funds of India and
Consolidated funds of all States.
2. CAG can also audit public account of India but not
Contingency fund of India
3. CAG can also audit local bodies on request of the
president or governor.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.60) Consider the following statements
1. CAG derives all its powers from constitution.
2. Duties and powers conferred by the Constitution
on the CAG under Article 149 is basic structure of
constitution as propounded by the judiciary.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are
incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.61) With reference to National commission for
Scheduled Caste, consider the following statements
1. Year 1978 saw modification of function and
rename of the of National commission for SCs &
STs (scheduled Tribe)
2. A separate National Commission for SCs came into
existence in 2004.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 & 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.62) Consider the following statements
1. In 1960, Lokur committee laid down standards to
put any community or caste in tribal group.
2. According to 2011 census, Scheduled Tribe account
for about 8.6% of country's population.
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3. Ministry of social justice and Empowerment
coordinates all activities related to schedule caste
and scheduled tribe.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Q.63) With reference to Complaint to National
commission for scheduled Tribes, Consider the
following statements
1. Complainant should disclose his full Identity and
give his full address while filing a complaint
2. Complains can't be directly addressed to the
chairman or vice chairman of the commission
3. Complains for which there is case pending in courts
need to be taken afresh with the commission
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) None of the above
Q.64) Which of the following functions are not
performed by National commission for Scheduled
Tribe?
a) To investigate and monitor matters relating to the
constitutional and other legal safeguards for the
STs.
b) Inquire specific complaints relating to deprivation
of rights of ST’s.
c) Declare Schedule tribe in an area in consultation
with the governor.
d) To present to the President, annually and at such
other times as it may deem fit, reports upon the
working of those safeguards.
Q.65) Which of the following doesn't come under the
ambit of the power of National commission for
scheduled Caste as a civil court
a) Summon any person from any part of the country
b) Requiring the discovery and production of any
document;
c) Receiving evidence on affidavits;
d) None of the above
Q.66) Consider the following statements with
reference to National commission for Backward
classes:
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1. Article 338 - B provides for National commission
for Backward Classes for socially and economically
backward classes.
2. Before it's establishment, power to look into
complaints and welfare measures with regard to
OBC was entrusted to National commission for
scheduled Tribe.
3. Kalelkar Commission (1953) was the first to
identify backward classes other than the
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes at the
national level.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of above
Q.67) With reference to Attorney General, consider
the following statements
1. His consent is required to initiate proceedings for
criminal contempt of Supreme Court in case
motion is brought by a person other than himself.
2. His consent is mandatory when a private citizen
wants to initiate a case of contempt of court
against a person.
3. The Supreme Court cannot take suo motu
cognizance in case of criminal contempt of
Supreme Court.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) None of the above
Q.68) Consider the following statements with
reference to Attorney General of India
1. Constitution neither has provided a fix term of
tenure nor prescribed the procedure for removal.
2. He has right of audience in proceedings of
parliament without right to vote.
3. He can't defend an accused person in any civil or
criminal proceedings.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.69) Consider the following statements with
reference to Special Officer for linguistic minorities
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1. Original constitution didn't Make any provision
with regard to special officer for linguistic
minorities
2. 7th Constitutional amendment gave way for it
through insertion of Article 350-B
3. Constitution has not specified any of tenure, salary,
allowance, service conditions and removal
procedure for the special officer for linguistic
minorities
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.70) Consider the following statements with
reference to Comptroller and Auditor general of India
(CAG)
1. Though appointment by President, the service
conditions are determined by the Parliament.
2. A cabinet minister can represent CAG in
parliament.
3. Only proved Misbehaviour or Incapacity can be the
ground for removal of CAG.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.71) In the context of the Uniform Civil Code,
consider the following statements:
1. It is the exclusive right of the Parliament to enact
laws governing personal laws of the citizens.
2. Article 25 of the Constitution protects the rights of
the individuals and not that of the religious
denominations.
3. The S. R. Bommai case separated religion from the
secular functions of the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q.72) Consider the following statements:
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1. Both Parliament and State legislatures can enact a Q.75) In relation to the Unlawful Activities
law under Article 16(3) to permit domicile based (Prevention) Act, 1967, which of the statements given
preferential treatment. below is/are incorrect?

2. Nagraj case (2006) judgement of the Supreme court
called for the quantifiable data on the backwardness of
the SC/ST.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
1. Investigation of cases under this Act is the sole
responsibility of the National Investigation Agency.
2. It empowers both Centre and State governments to
impose a ban on organizations.

a) 1 only 3. Both Individuals and organizations can be

b) 2 only designated as terrorists under this Act.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct Ans: using the codes given below:

Q.73) Consider the following pairs: a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only
Species IUCN Conservation c) 1 and 3 only
Status d) 1, 2, and 3

1. Forest Elephant Vulnerable Q.76) Consider the following pairs:

2. Asian Elephant Endangered Country Ports

3. Dugong Vulnerable 1. Seychelles Anjouan

4. Olive Ridley Turtles Critically Endangered 2. Madagascar Ehoala

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly 3. Bangladesh Mongla Port
matched?
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a) 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only a) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q.74) Consider the following statements:
Q.77) Consider the following statements regarding
1. PM Swasthya Suraksha Nidhi seeks to provide a Quasi-Resonant Amplification (QRA):
source of funding for the Ayushmann Bharat
Programme. 1. It is caused due to warming around the temperate
and tropical latitudes.
2. The proceeds of the PMSSN forms a part of the
Consolidated Fund of India. 2. There has been no evidence of Heat waves
associated with QRA from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q.78) Consider the following: a) 1 and 3 only

b) 3 only
1. Easy rechargeability c) 1 and 2 only
2. Lower cost d) 2 and 3 only
3. Capable of covering longer distances.
4. Recyclability Q.82) In the context of Quadrilateral Security
5. Less energy density Dialogue, consider the following statements:

Which of the above factors are favorable for the 1. It is a military grouping of the countries having
adoption of Aluminum Air batteries? converging interests in the Indo-Pacific region.
2. It came into existence on the sidelines of the East
a) 1, 2, 3, and 5 Asian Summit of 2017 in the Philippines.
b) 1, 3, and 5
c) 2, 3, and 4 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
a) 1 only
Q.79) Consider the following statements regarding b) 2 only
Millets in India: c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. India is the second largest producer of Millets after
China. https://www.financialexpress.com/defence/quad-
2. Millets are usually grown in areas of higher rainfall summit-2021-why-is-china-rattled/2212544/
above 500 mm.
3. Rajasthan accounts for the largest area under Millet Q.83) Consider the following pairs:
cultivation in India.
1. Red Sea Shatt Al- Arab
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
2. Persian Gulf Sharm El Sheikh
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only 3. Mediterranean Sea Port Said
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 2 only 4. Gulf of Oman Muscat

Q.80) Dhaudhan Dam, Orr Dam recently in news are Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
related to which of the following? matched?

a) Tapi- Narmada River linking a) 1, 3, and 4 only

b) Mahanadi- Godavari River linking b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) Kosi-Ghagra River linking c) 3 and 4 only
d) Ken-Betwa River linking d) 2 and 3 only

Q.81) In the context of the Indus Water Treaty, Q.84) Consider the following statements:
consider the following statements:
1. The addition of South Africa to BRICS occurred post
1. Tarbela and Mangla Dam projects were envisaged the formation of the New Development Bank.
in this treaty.
2. The Gulf Cooperation Council was formed by all
2. It provides rights to India to develop run off the
bordering countries of the Persian Gulf.
river projects on the western rivers.
3. Indus and Beas are located at the Northern and Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Southern ends of the Indus River Systems.
a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
b) 2 only

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c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.85) The terms Apatani, Zabo, Dighis, Paar, Jampois
are related to?
a) Traditional system of agriculture and irrigation.
b) Traditional water harvesting systems of India.
c) Tribes associated with the Island territories of India.
d) Tribal groups of the Northeastern states of India.
Q.86) Consider the following statements:
1. Commercial Banks and Development Finance
Institutions are incorporated under the Companies
Act.
2. National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and
Development aims at generating funds in foreign
currencies only.
3. It finances the long-term infrastructure projects
situated wholly within the geographical borders of the
country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above
Q.87) Consider the following statements:
1. National Payment Corporation of India has been
incorporated as the Critical Payment Infrastructure
Company of India.
2. Cyber Swachhta Kendra has been launched to
detect and remove the malicious software and other
related threats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.88) Consider the following statements:
1. Greater Bond Yields on the government bonds
drive up the prices of the stocks at the share market.
2. A higher bond yield of the USA government might
reduce investments in other economies.
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3. Regular increase in the prices of the stocks held by
a person attracts Capital Gains Tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Q.89) Consider the following statements:
1. Electric Vehicles equipped with batteries are
exempted from the levy of GST to enable their easy
adoption.
2. The Vehicle scrapping policy deals with both the
commercial and private vehicles only.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.90) Which of the statements given below is most
appropriate regarding the National Food Security Act,
2013?
a) There has been a continuous updation of the
Central Issue Price (CIP) of the food grains after every
three years.
b) It is the responsibility of the Central government to
issue licenses to the fair price shops for the purpose
of the distribution.
c) Shanta Kumar Committee suggested a revision in
the list of beneficiaries to include a greater number of
persons.
d) A higher food subsidy bill is attributed to the cost of
procurement and distribution being greater than the
CIP.
Q.91) Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Global Hunger Index (GHI), almost 50% of
Indian children suffer from stunting.
2. Bangladesh has been accorded a better rank than
India in both the GHI and the World Happiness Index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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a) 1 only a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.92) Consider the following statements regarding
the Large Hadron Collider: Q.95) Consider the following statements:

1. Large Hadron Collider deals with the study of the
fundamental particles and the detection of Black
Holes.
2. Particles at the Large Hadron Collider are made to
accelerate at a speed much greater than the speed of
light.
3. India has been accorded an Observer status at the
European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN).
1. Supercomputers exhibit parallel processing of
information unlike the ordinary computers that
exhibit serial processing.
2. The computing speed of supercomputers is
measured in FLOPS while that of ordinary computers
is measured in bytes.
3. The speed of the Fugaku supercomputer is approx.
ten times more than India’s PARAM Siddhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

a) 1 and 2 only a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3 d) 1, 2, and 3

Q.93) Consider the following pairs:
Personality
1. Prof. Velcheru Narayan Rao
2. King Bhumibol Adulyade
3. Ayya Vaikunda Swamikal
4. Lachit Borphukan
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
matched?
a) 1, 2, and 3 only
b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q.96) The Ministry of AYUSH is presently
implementing the Centrally Sponsored Scheme of
Associated with National AYUSH Mission (NAM) which, among other
objectives, aims to support herbal industry bodies
Telugu literature and promote medicinal plants. In this context, The
Govt. of India provides support to farmers in which of
Chakri Dynasty the following ways?
1. Funds and machinery for primary processing and
Samathwa Samajam
marketing infrastructure.
2. Cultivation of all types of medicinal plants on
Ahom Dynasty
farmer’s land.
3. Establishment of nurseries with backward linkages.
4. Post-harvest management with forward linkages.
Select the correct Ans: using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1,3 and 4 only
c) 2,3 and 4 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4

Q.94) Consider the following statements:
1. Coronal Mass Ejections are one of the reasons for
the failure of satellites in space.
2. ARKTIKA-M is a Russian endeavor to study the
warming of the two polar regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q.97) Consider the following statements:
1. The production of Raw silk in India has steadily
increased in the last five years.
2. The Central Silk Board (CSB) is a statutory body
under the Department of Animal Husbandry and
Dairying.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only

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c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above

Q.98) The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of

the following Harappan Sites?
a) Lothal
b) Dholavira
c) Kalibangan
d) Chanhudaro

Q.99) The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting

Countries (OPEC) and its allies, a group known as
OPEC+ were recently seen in news. Which of the Q.1) Ans: B
following countries belong to the OPEC+ group? Exp:
1. Russia
2. Azerbaijan Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a constitutional body.
3. Yemen 102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018 provides
4. China constitutional status to the National Commission for
5. Oman Backward Classes (NCBC).For this purpose amendment
Select the correct Ans: using the code given below: inserted a new article 338-B in the constitution.
a) 1,2 and 3 only
b) 1,2 and 5 only Statements 2 is incorrect: Previously NCBC was a
c) 3,4 and 5 only statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and
d) 1,2,3,4 and 5 Empowerment.

Q.100) The Global Climate Risk Index is published by Statement 3 is correct: The Commission consists of five
a) World Economic Forum members including a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson
b) German watch and three other Members appointed by the President
c) Climate Action network by warrant under his hand and seal. The conditions of
d) United Nations Environment Programme service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-
Chairperson and other Members is determined by the
President.

Q.2) Ans: C
Exp:
• Options 1, 2, 3 and 6 are correct: The Election
Commission administers elections to the Lok Sabha,
Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies
(including Delhi), State Legislative Councils and the
offices of the President and Vice President of the
country.
• Option 4 and 5 are not correct: According to Article
243K and Article 243-ZA ,the superintendence,
direction and control of the preparation of electoral
rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the
Municipalities and Panchayats shall be vested in
the State Election Commission consisting of a State
Election Commissioner to be appointed by the
Governor

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Q.3) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statements 1,2 and 4 are correct: The following is
a non-exhaustive list of the various functions of the
election commission of India:
o To determine the territorial areas of
the electoral constituencies
throughout the country on the basis of
the Delimitation Commission act of
parliament.
o To notify the dates and schedules of
elections and to scrutinize nomination
papers
o To register political parties for the
purpose of elections and grant them
the status of national or state parties
on the basis of their poll performance.
o To advise the president whether
elections can be held in a state under
president’s rule in order to extend the
period of emergency after one year
o To advise the president on matters
relating to the disqualifications of the
members of parliament.
o To appoint officers for inquiring into
disputes relating to electoral
arrangements.
o To act as a court for settling disputes
related to granting of recognition to
political parties and allotment of
election symbols to them
o To cancel polls in the event of rigging,
booths capturing, violence and other
irregularities.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The ECI in a recent
affidavit, pointed out to the Supreme Court
that Section 29A of the Representation of
People Act provides for procedure of
registration of political parties, but it does not
expressly confer any power on the Election
Commission regarding deregistration of
political parties. The Election Commission
went on to demand that it must be
empowered to deregister a political party if it
violates provisions of the Constitution and
refuses to bring reforms to maintain inner
party democracy.
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Q.4) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: According to article 324 of
the constitution the chief election commissioner
shall not be removed from his office except in like
manner and on the grounds as a judge of the
supreme court and the conditions of service of the
chief election commissioner shall not be varied to
his disadvantage after his appointment.
• Statements 2 is incorrect: The constitution has not
prescribed the qualifications ( legal, educational
administrative or judicial ) of the members of the
election commission. The supreme court, recently
pointed out that, there is a “gap” due to the lack of
a parliamentary law which transparently spells
out the eligibility criteria required for a person to
be an election commissioner and that there is a
“legitimate expectation in the Constitution of
India” that Election Commissioner should be
appointed through the “most transparent and just
process” formalised by a law enacted by the
Parliament.
• Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect: The constitution
has not prescribed the term and conditions of
service of the Election Commission members. The
Election commission (CONDITIONS OF SERVICE OF
ELECTION COMMISSIONERS AND TRANSACTION
OF BUSINESS)] Act, 1991, stipulates that the
members of the election commission shall hold
office for a term of 6 years or until they attend the
age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. The act
further stipulates various conditions of service of
the members of the election commission.
SOURCE: Bare act : election commission act, 1991
Q.5) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 324 provides the
Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) only with
security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his
office except in the same manner and on the same
ground as a judge of the supreme court and the
service conditions of the CEC cannot be varied to
his disadvantage after his appointment. The Other
election commissioners however, can be removed
from office on the recommendation of the CEC.
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• Statement 2 is correct: According to article 324(6),
the Governor of a State, shall, when so requested
by the Election Commission, make available to the
Election Commission or to a Regional
Commissioner such staff as may be necessary for
the discharge of the functions conferred on the
Election Commission by clause
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The constitution of India
has not debarred the retiring election
commissioners from any further appointment by
the government. This makes them susceptible to
political pressure from the ruling government
during their respective terms.
Q.6) Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Initially NCBC was a
statutory body established under the Ministry of
Social Justice and Empowerment, but later 102nd
Constitution Amendment Act, 2018 provided
constitutional status to the National Commission for
Backward Classes (NCBC). Thus NCBC is a
Constitutional body.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Second Backward
classes’ commission or Mandal commission
recommended that the members of OBC be granted
reservations to 27 % of jobs under the Central
government and public sector undertakings.
The First backward classes commission is called the
Kaka Kelkar commission.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Mandal commission or the
Socially and Educationally Backward Classes
commission was established with a mandate to
“identify the socially or educationally backward
classes” of India.
Source: M.LaxmiKanth and Google.
Q.7)
Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Commission
for Backward Classes was established in 1993,
when the Supreme Court in the Mandal Case
(1992) directed the Central Government to
constitute permanent statutory body to examine
the complaints of under-inclusion, overinclusion or
non-inclusion of any class of citizens in the list of
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backward classes. 102nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 2018 conferred a constitutional
status to the Commission under Article 338B of the
Constitution.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Commission consists
of a chairperson, a vice-chairperson and three
other members.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: It investigate and
monitor all matters relating to the constitutional
and other legal safeguards for the socially and
educationally backward classes
Reference: Laxmikanth
Q.8) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 338B(8) provides all
the powers of a civil court trying a suit to the
Commission.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 338B(4) provides
that the Commission shall have the powers to
regulate its own procedure.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Chairperson is the
head of the Commission and has the residuary
powers to decide on all questions and matters
arising in the Commission.
Reference: 102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018
http://www.ncbc.nic.in/User_Panel/UserView.aspx?T
ypeID=1219 – (Rule 2.1.1)
Q.9) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 338B (5) (c) assigns
the Commission the duty to participate and advise
on the socio-economic development of the socially
and educationally backward classes.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 338B (5) (c)
further provides that the Commission has to
evaluate the progress of development of socially
and educationally backward classes under the
Union and any State.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 338B (5) (d)
assigns the Commission the duty to present to the
President, annually and at such other times as the
Commission may deem fit, reports upon the
working of the safeguards for socially and
educationally backward classes. The President
forwards any report of the Commission pertaining
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 18

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
to a state government to the state government.
The government places it before the state
legislature.
Reference:
102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018
Q.10) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 338B (9), which was
added by 102nd Constitution Amendment Act, of
the Constitution provides that “the Union and
State Government shall consult the Commission on
all major policy matters affecting the socially and
educationally backward classes”.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 342A (1), which was
added by 102nd Constitution Amendment Act,
provides that “The President may with respect to
any State or Union territory, and where it is a State,
after consultation with the Governor thereof, by
public notification, specify the socially and
educationally backward classes which shall for the
purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be
socially and educationally backward classes in
relation to that State or Union territory”.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 342A (2), which
was added by 102nd Constitution Amendment Act,
provides that Parliament may by law include in or
exclude from the Central List of socially and
educationally backward classes specified in a
notification.
Reference: 102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018
Q.11) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Members of the
Commission have collective responsibility and
function by participating in the 'meetings' and
'sittings' of the Commission and looking after the
subjects allocated to them.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Secretary of the
NCBC may, in his discretion, delegate any of his
functions or authority to a subordinate officer of
the Secretariat with the approval of the
Chairperson.
• Statement 3 is Correct: The Commission is
required to inquire into specific complaints with
respect to the deprivation of rights and violation of
safeguards of socially & educationally backward
classes. No action will be taken in the cases in
which a Court has already given its final verdict.
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Q.12) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: 65th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1990 provided for establishment
of a high-level multi-member National Commission
for SCs and STs. The 89th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 2003 bifurcated the National
Commission for SCs and STs into NCSC and NCST.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: NCSC consists of a
chairperson, a vice-chairperson and three other
members.
• Statement 3 is correct: According to Article 338
(10) of the Constitution, the Commission has to
investigate all matters relating to the
constitutional and other legal safeguards for the
Anglo-Indian Community and report to the
President upon their working.
Reference: Laxmikanth
Q.13) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 338 assigns the
Commission the duty to participate and advise on
the socio-economic development of the scheduled
castes.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 338 further
provides that the Commission has to evaluate the
progress of development of scheduled castes
under the Union and any State.
• Statement 3 is correct: Article 338 provides that
the Commission has all the powers of a civil court
trying a suit and can summon and enforce the
attendance of any person from any part of India
and examine him on oath.
Reference: Laxmikanth
Q.14) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 338 (9) of the
Constitution provides that “the Union and State
Government shall consult the Commission on all
major policy matters affecting the scheduled
castes”.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 341(1) provides that
“The President may with respect to any State or
Union territory, and where it is a State, after
consultation with the Governor thereof, by public
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 19

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or
parts of or groups within castes, races or tribes
which shall be for the purposes of this Constitution
be deemed to be scheduled castes in relation to
that State or Union territory”.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Article 341(2) The
Parliament (not president), by law may include or
exclude any caste, race or tribe or groups within
castes, races or tribes from the list of scheduled
caste specified in notification.
Reference: Constitution of India
Q.15) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Minister of Social
Justice and Empowerment is not the chairperson
of the NCSC. It has its separate chairperson and
vice-chairperson and three members. They are
appointed by the President by warrant under his
hand and seal.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Commission may
adopt any one or more of the following methods
for investigating or inquiring into the matters
falling within its authority:
o by the Commission directly;
o by an Investigating Team
constituted at the
Headquarters of the
Commission;
o through its State offices
o by the State Agencies
o by any other
institution/department
funded by the Central
Government and its statutory
bodies.
• Statement 3 is correct: The commission has to
meet at least once in a month. The notice for a
meeting shall normally be issued two weeks in
advance.
Reference:
Laxmikanth
http://ncsc.nic.in/pages/display/126-rules-of-
procedure (Rule 7.2, 8.1)
Q.16) Ans: B
Exp:
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• Statement 1 is incorrect: The cases of
administrative nature like
transfer/posting/grading of Annual Confidential
Reports cannot be taken up by the Commission
unless there is caste-based harassment of the
petitioner.
• Statement 2 is correct: As per the rule of
commission any Complaint within jurisdiction of
commission should be directly addressed to the
chairman/vice chairman/secretary of NCSC, Delhi
or head of its state offices.
• Statement 3 is correct: The commission is vested
with the power to regulate its own procedure.
Reference:
Laxmikanth
http://ncsc.nic.in/pages/display/126-rules-of-
procedure (Rule 7.4.1)
Reference: Laxmikanth
Q.17) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Commission has to
take measures to reduce and ultimately eliminate
the practice of shifting cultivation by tribal that
lead to their continuous disempowerment and
degradation of land and the environment.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Commission may hold
more than one sitting simultaneously in different
parts of the country with different Members
functioning separately.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: If a question arises
regarding any such matter for which no provision
exists in the rules of procedure, the decision of the
Chairperson shall be sought. The Chairperson may,
if he deems fit, direct that the matter may be
considered at a meeting of the Commission.
Reference:
Laxmikanth
https://ncst.nic.in/content/rules-
procedure#:~:text=Clause%204%20of%20the%20Artic
le,notified%20on%2017%20September%2C%202004.
(Rule 86, 54)
Q.18) Ans: B
Exp:
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 20

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• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does
not specify the strength of the UPSC and has left
the matter to the discretion of the President, who
determines its composition. Usually, the
commission consists of nine to eleven members
including the chairman.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does
not provide the qualification for the membership
of the commission, except that one-half of the
members of the Commission should be such
persons who have held office for at least ten years
either under the Government of India or under the
government of a state.
• Statement 3 is correct: Article 316(2) provides that
the chairperson and members of the Commission
hold office for a term of six years or until they
attain the age of 65 years.
Reference: Laxmikanth
Q.19) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 320(4) provides that
the UPSC may not be consulted as respects the
manner in which any provision related to Article
16(4), i.e. reservations of appointments or posts in
favour of any backward class of citizens.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 320(4) further
provides that the UPSC may not be consulted as
respects the manner in which effect may be given
to the provisions of Article 335, i.e. the claims of
the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in
making appointments to services and posts.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 320(3)(c) provides
that the UPSC shall be consulted for all disciplinary
matters affecting a person serving under the
Government of India.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Article 320(3)(e) provides
that the UPSC shall be consulted on Any claim for
award of a pension in respect of injuries sustained
by a person while serving under the Government
of India.
Reference: Laxmikanth
Q.20) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The SPSC is created directly
by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an
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Act of the Parliament on the request of the state
legislature concerned.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The chairperson and
members of SPSC and JSPSC hold office for a term
of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years.
• Statement 3 is correct: Although the chairperson
and members of a SPSC are appointed by the
Governor, they can be removed only by the
President. The chairperson and members of JSPSC
are appointed and removed by the President.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: The report of SPSC is
presented to the Governor of the state and the
report of JSPSC is presented to each of the
concerned State Governors.
Reference:
Laxmikanth
Q.21)
Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does
not specify the strength of the Commission but has
left the matter to the discretion of the Governor of
the State.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution
authorises the Governor to determine the
conditions of service of the chairperson and
members of the Commission.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Governor can appoint
one of the members of the SPSC as an acting
chairperson in case of vacancy and absence of the
chairperson. This provision was added through the
15th Constitution Amendment.
Reference: Laxmikanth
Q.22) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 321 provides that
the State Legislature may provide for exercise of
additional functions by the SPSC as respects to the
services of the State and also as respects the
services of any local authority or other body
corporate constituted by law or of any public
institution.
• Statement 2 is correct: The SPSC is consulted by
the Governor while framing rules for appointment
to judicial service of the state other than the posts
of district judges. In this regard, the concerned
state High Court is also consulted.
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 21

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
• Statement 3 is correct: The chairperson of a SPSC,
on ceasing to hold office, is eligible for
appointment as the chairperson or member of the
UPSC or as the chairperson of any other SPSC, but
not for any other employment under the
Government of India or a state.
Reference: Laxmikanth
Q.23) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The chairperson or a
member of a SPSC can be removed from the office
by the President only in the manner and on the
grounds mentioned in the Constitution. They are
clearly defined in the Constitution and are not like
the manner of a High Court Judge.
• Statement 2 is correct: The President can remove
the chairperson or any other member of SPSC for
misbehaviour. The Constitution has defined
‘misbehaviour’ in this context. The Constitution
states that the chairman or any other member of a
SPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour, if he
(a) is concerned or interested in any contract or
agreement made by the Government of India or
the government of a state, or (b) participates in any
way in the profit of such contract or agreement or
in any benefit therefrom otherwise than as a
member and in common with other members of an
incorporated company.
• Statement 3 is correct: During the course of
enquiry by the Supreme Court, the governor can
suspend the concerned chairman or member,
pending the final removal order of the president on
receipt of the report of the Supreme Court.
Reference: Laxmikanth
Q.24) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The provision for the
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities has been
made under Article 350B of the Constitution which
is in the Chapter IV (Special Directives) under Part
XVII (Official language) of the Constitution.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 350B(1) provides
that the Special Officer to be appointed by the
President.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 350B(2) provides
that the Special Officer shall report to the
President upon those matters at such intervals as
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the President may direct. There is no provision for
annual reports.
Reference: Laxmikanth
Q.25) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The provision for the
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was made
through 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956,
which inserted Article 350B into the Constitution.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does
not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and
allowances, service conditions and procedure for
removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities.
• Statement 3 is correct: It is the duty of the Special
Officer to investigate all matters relating to the
safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under
the Constitution. It includes the provision made
under Article 350A of the Constitution which states
that “It shall be the endeavour of every State and
of every local authority within the State to provide
adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-
tongue at the primary stage of education to
children belonging to linguistic minority groups.”
Reference: Lakshmikanthan
Q.26) Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: It becomes a money bill and
thus the President must approve the introduction of
the bill.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 3, the President
must recommend the introduction of this bill as it has
the potential to significantly affect the federal balance
of power between centre and states.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The constitution does not
distinguish between Private or public bills when it
comes to the requirement of prior Presidential assent.
Statement 4 incorrect: It is only in certain cases, such
as alternation of state boundaries which needs prior
permission of the President. In other cases, it is not
mandatory.
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 22

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Q.27) Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: He can promulgate an
ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament
are not in session. An ordinance can also be issued
when only one House is in session because a law can
be passed by both the Houses and not by one House
alone.
An ordinance made when both the Houses are in
session is void. Thus, the power of the President to
legislate by ordinance is not a parallel power of
legislation.
Statement 2 is correct: This is because a constitutional
amendment requires a special majority in both houses
of Parliament, unlike an ordinary legislation that can be
approved by a simple majority. Moreover, some
amendments may require the approval of half of the
states as well with a special majority of parliament.
Q.28) Ans: C
Exp:
The governor has constitutional discretion in the
following cases:
Statement 1 is correct: Seeking information from the
chief minister with regard to the administrative and
legislative matters of the state and Reservation of a bill
for the consideration of the President.
Statement 2 is incorrect: There is such provision in the
constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: Recommendation for the
imposition of the President’s Rule in the state.
Statement 4 is correct: While exercising his functions
as the administrator of an adjoining union territory (in
case of additional charge). And also, for Determining
the amount payable by the Government of Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous
Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses
for mineral exploration.
Q.29) Ans: B
Exp:
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Statement 1 is incorrect the constitution (Article 76)
has provided for the office of the Attorney General of
India. He/she is the highest law officer in the country.
Statement 2 is incorrect the remuneration of the AG is
not fixed by the constitution. He receives such
remuneration as the President may determine (not
fixed by the Parliament).
Statement 3 is correct the term of office of the AG is
not fixed by the constitution. Further, the constitution
does not contain the procedure and grounds for
his/her removal. he/she holds office during the
pleasure of the president.
Extraedge by Onlyias
A148 under the Constitution provides for an
independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG). He/she is the guardian of
the public purse
Source of reference Polity Lazxmikant
Q.30) Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct The term of office of the AG is
not fixed by the constitution.He/she is the highest law
officer in the country. He/she is a part of the Union
executive.
Statement 2 is correct the constitution does not
contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.
He/she may be removed by the president any time.
he/she may also quit his/her office by submitting his
resignation to the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect. He/she must be a person who
is qualified to be appointed by a judge of the Supreme
court. In other words, he/she must be a citizen of India
and must have been a judge of some high court for five
years or an advocate of some high court for ten years
or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President.
Extraedge by Onlyias
He also represents the Government of India in any
reference made by the President to the SC under
Article 143 of the constitution.
Source of reference polity Laxmikant
Q.31) Ans: B
Exp:
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 23

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Statement 1 is correct: Attorney General is not a full-
time counsel for the government. He does not fall in
the category of government servants. Further, he/she
is not debarred from private legal practices.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Some of the limitations which
are placed on the Attorney general in order to avoid
any complication and conflict of duty includes that
he/she should not defend accused persons in criminal
prosecutions without the permission of GoI.
Statement 3 is correct: He/she has the right to speak
and to take part in the proceedings of both the houses
of Parliament or their joint sittings and any committee
of the Parliament of which he may be named a
member, without right to vote. He enjoys all the
privileges and immunities that are available to a
member of Parliament.
Extraedge by Onlyias
The constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office
of the AG for India. he/she is the highest law officer in
the country.
Source of reference Polity Laxmikant
Q.32) Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: An Advocate general of state
must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a
judge of a high court (not SC). He must be a citizen of
India and must have held a judicial office for 10 years
or have been an advocate of a high court for 10 years.
Statement 2 is correct: The advocate general is
appointed by the Governor. Further the constitution
does not contain procedure and grounds for his
removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the
Governor
Statement 3 is incorrect: The term of office of the
advocate general is not fixed by the constitution. The
remuneration of the advocate general is not fixed by
the constitution. He receives such remuneration as the
governor may determine.
Extraedge by Onlyias
Article 165 of the constitution provided for the office of
Advocate general of the states. He/she is the highest law
officer in the state. Thus he corresponds to the Attorney
General of India.
Source of reference Laxmikant polity
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Q.33) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: National Commission for
Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted
by the Central Govt by The National Commission
for Backward Classes Act, 1993. However it is
accorded Constitutional Status and constituted
through “The One Hundred and Second
Amendment constitutional amendment .The One
Hundred and First Amendment)Act, 2016, this
amendment introduced a national Goods and
Services Tax (GST) in India from 1 July 2017.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Commission consists
of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and three other
Members in the rank & pay of Secretary to the
Govt of India.
Source:
http://www.ncbc.nic.in/User_Panel/UserView.aspx?
TypeID=1025
Q.34) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statements 1 and 2 are correct: National
Commission for Backward Classes Chairperson,
Vice-Chairperson and Members (Conditions of
Service and Tenure) Rules, 2018 provide that The
Members of the Commission shall be appointed
from amongst persons of ability, integrity and
standing who have had a record of selfless service
to the cause of justice for the socially and
educationally backward classes. The Chairperson
shall be appointed from amongst eminent socio-
political workers belonging to the socially and
educationally backward classes. At least one other
Member shall be appointed from amongst
women.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Members shall not
be eligible for appointment for more than two
terms. Thus the members are eligible for
appointment for more than one term.
Source:
http://socialjustice.nic.in/writereaddata/UploadFile
/Rules_NCBC_2018.pdf
Page 5
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 24

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Q.35) Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Chairperson, Vice-
Chairperson and other Members of the National
Commission of the Backward Classes are appointed by
the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
Statement 2 is correct: The Commission had all the
powers of a civil court trying a suit.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Article 342A. (1) the
President is empowered to specify the socially and
educationally backward classes which shall for the
purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be socially
and educationally backward classes in relation to that
State or Union territory, as the case may be.
Source:
http://socialjustice.nic.in/writereaddata/UploadFile
/Constitution_102_Amendment.pdf
Q.36) Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Department of Social
Justice & Empowerment , Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment is entrusted with the empowerment of
the disadvantaged and marginalized sections of the
society. The target groups of the Ministry are:
Scheduled Castes, Other Backward Classes ,Senior
Citizens ,Victims of Substance Abuse ,Denotified,
Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes, Beggars,
Transgender.
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution has neither
specified the Backward Classes (BCs) nor used a single
uniform expression to characterise the BCs. The
expression ‘BCs’ means such backward classes of
citizens other than the SCs and the STs as may be
specified by the Central Government.
Statement 3 is Correct: Article 338B of the
Constitution of India provides that there shall be a
Commission for the socially and educationally
backward classes to be known as the National
Commission for Backward Classes.
Source:
http://socialjustice.nic.in/UserView/index?mid=766
61
M. Laxmikanth, Fifth Edition : Page 945, Specification
of Classes
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Q.37) Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The National Commission for
Scheduled Castes Consists of a chairperson, a vice-
chairperson and three other members. They are
appointed by the President by warrant under his hand
and seal. Their conditions of service and tenure of
office are also determined by the President.
Statement 2 is correct: The Commission, while
investigating any matter or inquiring into any
complaint, has all the powers of a civil court trying a
suit and in particular in summoning and enforcing the
attendance of any person from any part of India and
examining him on oath.
Statement 3 is correct: The National Commission for
Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional body in the
sense that it is directly established by Article 338 of
the Constitution.
Source: Indian Polity M. Laxmikanth, Fifth Edition
Q.38) Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The 65 th Constitutional
Amendment Act of 1990 provided for the
establishment of a high level multi-member National
Commission for SCs and STs in the place of a single
Special Officer for SCs and STs.
The 89 th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003
bifurcated the combined National Commission for SCs
and STs into two separate bodies, namely, National
Commission for Scheduled Castes (under Article 338)
and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (under
Article 338-A).
The separate National Commission for SCs came into
existence in 2004.
Statement 2 is correct: The Commission submits its
annual report to the President of India.
Statement 3 is correct: The Central government and
the state governments are required to consult the
Commission on all major policy matters affecting the
SCs.
Statement 4 is correct: Besides the members of the
Scs the Commission has to investigate all matters
relating to the constitutional and other legal
safeguards of the Anglo-Indian Community and report
to the President upon their working. Thus provides
safeguards against the exploitation of the community.
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 25

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Source: Indian Polity M. Laxmikanth, Fifth Edition
Q.39) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The National
Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was
established by amending Article 338 and inserting
a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the
Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003.The
term of office of Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson
and each member is three years from the date of
assumption of charge.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Chairperson has been
given the rank of Union Cabinet Minister, and the
Vice-Chairperson that of a Minister of State and
other Members have the rank of a Secretary to the
Government of India.
Source: https://ncst.nic.in/content/introduction
Q.40) Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes, shall consist of a Chairperson, Vice-
Chairperson and three other Members and the
conditions of service and tenure of office of the
Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other members so
appointed shall be such as the President may
determine.
Statement 2 is correct: The Commission is vested with
powers of a civil court having authority to: Summon
and enforce attendance of any person and examine on
oath; Discovery & production of any documents,
Receive evidence on affidavits; Requisition any public
record or copy thereof from any court or office; Issue
Commissions for examination of witnesses and
documents; and Any matter which President, by rule,
may determine.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Union Minister of Tribal
Affairs does not serve as an Ex-officio Vice-Chairperson
of the Commission.
Q.41) Ans: B
Exp:
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• Statement 1 is Incorrect: Originally the Election
commission was not a multi member body it was a
single member body. For the first time two
additional Commissioners were appointed on 16th
October 1989 but they had a very short tenure till
1st January 1990. Later, on 1st October 1993 two
additional Election Commissioners were
appointed. The concept of multi-member
Commission has been in operation since then, with
decision making power by majority vote.
• Statement 2 is Correct: In Mohinder Singh Gill &
Anr. vs The Chief Election Commissioner and
Others (December 2, 1977), the Supreme Court
ruled that “Article 324, on the face of it, vests vast
functions in the Commission, which may be powers
or duties, essentially administrative, and
marginally, even judicative or legislative”
Source:
https://www.google.com/amp/s/indianexpress.com/a
rticle/what-is/what-is-article-324-in-the-indian-
constitution-5729800/lite/
Q.42) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: Election commission,
under Article 324, has to ensure free and fair
election. Free and fair election, although objective
of Election commission, is also a Basic Structure
• Statement 2 is Correct: T.N. Seshan v. Union of
India, the Supreme Court unanimously upheld the
constitutionality of the. Chief Election
commissioner & other Election commissioner
(condition of service) Amendment Act 1994
equating the status, powers and authority of the
two Election Commissioners with that of the CEO.
• Statement 3 is Correct: the tenure of office of
other Election Commissioners and the Regional
Commissioners is also free of the political
executive control so far, none of them can be
removed from office except on the
recommendation of the CEC.
Source:
http://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-2032-
election-commission-of-india-articles-324-to-329-
.html
Q.43) Ans: C
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 26

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: Clause (6) of Article 324
provides that the President, or the Governor of a
State shall, when so requested by the Election
Commission, make available to the Election
Commission or to a Regional Commissioner such
staff as may be necessary for the discharge of the
functions conferred on the Election Commission.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Commission shall
have power to recommend disciplinary action, to
the competent authority, against the officers for
insubordination or dereliction of duty while on
election duty. Hence it can only recommend
disciplinary action & not take action by itself
• Statement 3 is Correct: Election commission has
been given power to superintendence, direction
and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for
all elections to both Parliament and to the
Legislature of every State
Source:
http://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-2032-
election-commission-of-india-articles-324-to-329-
.html
Q.44) Ans: D
Exp:
The power conferred on the Commission under Article
324 (1) is subjected to two limitations, namely
• Statement 1 is correct: When Parliament or any
State Legislature has made a valid law relating to
or in connection with elections, the Commission
shall act in conformity with such law.
• Statement 2 is Correct: The Commission while
exercising power shall conform to the rule of law,
act bona fide and be amenable to the norms of
natural justice.
Source:
http://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-2032-
election-commission-of-india-articles-324-to-329-
.html
Q.45) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: The word elections in
Article 324 includes the entire process of election,
which embraces many steps some of which have
an important bearing on the process of choosing a
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candidate. It includes every process issued after
the issuance of the Notification for holding the
election
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: Ram Deo Bhandari v.
Election Commission,the Supreme Court held that
the Election Commission was free to take such
steps as it considered necessary to ensure a free
and fair poll, but, it would not withhold the
elections to the Legislative Assembly of a State on
the ground that the said Government had failed to
complete the process of issuance of photo identity
cards by the deadline prescribed by the
Commission.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: Section 22 of the
Representation of the People Act, 1950 empowers
the Electoral Registration Officer of a constituency
to delete the name of a person from the Electoral
Roll on certain grounds. It has been held that such
deletion must be done only after giving to the
person concerned meaningful opportunity of
hearing and after following requisite procedure.
Source:
http://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-2032-
election-commission-of-india-articles-324-to-329-
.html
Q.46) Ans: C
Exp:
• Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Finance
Commission is constituted by the President under
article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its
recommendations on distribution of tax revenues
between the Union and the States and amongst
the States themselves. Two distinctive features of
the Commission’s work involve
o Redressing the vertical imbalances
between the taxation powers and
expenditure responsibilities of the
centre and the States respectively
,and
o Equalization of all public services
across the States.
Source:
https://fincomindia.nic.in/ShowContentOne.aspx?id=
8&Section=1
Q.47)
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 27
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Ans: B Source:
Exp: https://fincomindia.nic.in/ShowContentOne.aspx?id=
It is the duty of the Commission to make 8&Section=1
recommendations to the President in following
matter -
• Statement 1 is Correct: For the distribution Q.49) Ans: A
between the Union and the States of the net
proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, Exp:
divided between them and the allocation between • Statement 1 is Correct while Statement 2 is
the States of the respective shares of such Incorrect
proceeds; • The recommendations of the Finance Commission
• Statement 2 is Incorrect and Statement 3 is are implemented as under:-
Correct: the principles which should govern the o Those to be implemented by an order
grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of of the President:
the Consolidated Fund of India. The measures ▪ The recommendations
needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a relating to distribution of
State to supplement the resources of the Union Taxes and Duties and
Panchayats and the municipality in the State on the Grants-in-aid fall in this
basis of the recommendations made by the category.
Finance Commission of the State. o Those to be implemented by executive
• Statement 4 is correct: any other matter referred orders:
to the Commission by the President in the interests ▪ Other recommendations to be
of sound finance made by the Finance
Source: Commission, as per its Terms
https://fincomindia.nic.in/ShowContentOne.aspx?id= of Reference
8&Section=1 Source:
https://fincomindia.nic.in/ShowContentOne.aspx?id=
8&Section=1
Q.48) Ans: B

Exp: Q.50) Ans: D

• Statement 1 is Incorrect & Statement 2 is
Correct: As per the provisions contained in the
Finance Commission [Miscellaneous Provisions]
Act, 1951 and The Finance Commission (Salaries &
Allowances) Rules, 1951, the Chairman of the
Commission is selected from among persons who
have had experience in public affairs, and the four
other members are selected from among persons
who-
o are, or have been, or are qualified to
be appointed as Judges of a High
Court; or
o Have special knowledge of the
finances and accounts of Government;
or
o Have had wide experience in financial
matters and in administration; or
o Have special knowledge of economics
Exp:
• Disqualifications for being a member of the
Commission
• Statement 1 is Correct: a person shall be
disqualified for being appointed as, or for being, a
member of the Commission, --
o if he is of unsound mind;
o if he is an undischarged insolvent;
o if he has been convicted of an offence
involving moral turpitude;
o if he has such financial or other
interest as is likely to affect
prejudicially his functions as a member
of the Commission
• Statement 2 is Correct: Before appointing a
person to be a member of the Commission, the
President shall satisfy himself that that person will
have no such financial or other interest as is likely

DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 28


OnlyIAS Nothing Else
to affect prejudicially his functions as a member of
the commission
Source:
https://fincomindia.nic.in/ShowContent.aspx?uid1=2
&uid2=3&uid3=0&uid4=0
Q.51) Ans: D
Exp:
A/c to THE FINANCE COMMISSION (MISCELLANEOUS
PROVISIONS) ACT, 1951
• Statement 1 and Statement 2 are Correct:
Procedure and powers of the Commission
The Commission shall determine their procedure and
in the performance of their functions shall have all the
powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908), while trying a suit in
respect of the following matters, namely:--
o summoning and enforcing the
attendance of witnesses;
o requiring the production of any
document;
o requisitioning any public record from
any court or office
• Statement 3 is Correct: The Commission shall have
power to require any person to furnish information
on such points or matters as in the opinion of the
Commission may be useful for, or relevant to, any
matter under the consideration of the
Commission.
Source:
https://fincomindia.nic.in/ShowContent.aspx?uid1=2
&uid2=3&uid3=0&uid4=0
Q.52) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Incorrect: Removal of
member/chairperson of UPSC
o Misbehaving - after the Supreme
Court, on reference being made to it
by the President, has, on inquiry held
in accordance with the procedure
prescribed in that behalf under article
145, reported that the Chairman or
such other member, as the case may
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be, ought on any such ground to be
removed.
o is adjudged an insolvent; or
o engages during his term of office in any
paid employment outside the duties of
his office; or
o is, in the opinion of the President, unfit
to continue in office by reason of
infirmity of mind or body.
• Statement 2 is Correct: If the Chairman or any
other member of a Public Service Commission is or
becomes in any way concerned or interested in any
contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the
Government of India or the Government of a State
or participates in any way in the profit thereof or in
any benefit or emolument arising therefrom
otherwise than as a member and in common with
the other members of an incorporated company,
he shall,be deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour
Source: https://www.upsc.gov.in/about-
us/constitutional-provisions/article-317-removal-and-
suspension-member-public-service-commission
Q.53) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Incorrect & Statement 2 is correct:
In the case of the Union Commission or a Joint
Commission, the President and, in the case of a
State Commission, the Governor of the State may
by regulations
o determine the number of members of
the Commission and their conditions
of service; and
o make provision with respect to the
number of members of the staff of the
Commission and their conditions of
service:
• Provided that the conditions of service of a
member of a Public Service Commission shall not
be varied to his disadvantage after his
appointment.
• Statement 3 is correct: The expenses of the Union
or a State Public Service Commission, including any
salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in
respect of the members or staff of the Commission,
shall be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
or, as the case may be, the Consolidated Fund of
the State
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 29

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Source: https://www.upsc.gov.in/about-
us/constitutional-provisions
Q.54) Ans: C
Exp:
• On ceasing to hold office
o the Chairman of the Union Public Service
Commission shall be ineligible for further
employment either under the Government of
India or under the Government of a State;
• Statement 1 and statement 4 is correct:the
Chairman of a State Public Service Commission
shall be eligible for appointment as the Chairman
or any other member of the Union Public Service
Commission or as the Chairman of any other State
Public Service Commission, but not for any other
employment either under the Government of India
or under the Government of a State.
• Statement 2 is correct: a member other than the
Chairman of a State Public Service Commission
shall be eligible for appointment as the Chairman
or any other member of the Union Public Service
Commission or as the Chairman of that or any
other State Public Service Commission, but not for
any other employment either under the
Government of India or under the Government of
a State
• Statement 3 is incorrect: a member other than the
Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
shall be eligible for appointment as the Chairman
of the Union Public Service Commission or as the
Chairman of a State Public Service Commission, but
not for any other employment either under the
Government of India or under the Government of
a State
Source: https://www.upsc.gov.in/about-
us/constitutional-provisions
Q.55) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: An Act made by Parliament
or, as the case may be, the Legislature of a State
may provide for the exercise of additional
functions by the Union Public Service Commission
or the State Public Service Commission as respects
the services of the Union or the State and also as
respects the services of any local authority or other
body corporate constituted by law or of any public
institution.
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• Statement 2 is Correct: The Union Public Service
Commission or the State Public Service
Commission, as the case may be, shall be consulted
- on any claim for the award of a pension in respect
of injuries sustained by a person while serving
under the Government of India or the Government
of a State in a civil capacity, and any question as to
the amount of any such award
• Source: https://www.upsc.gov.in/about-
us/constitutional-provisions
Q.56) Ans: D
Exp:
• The modern-day role of the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India has developed through
the practice and traditions that were followed
during colonial British India
• Statement 1 is Correct: Sir Edward Drummond was
appointed as the first Auditor General of India in
November 1860 and his authority derived from the
Government of India Act, 1858
• Statement 2 is Correct: After a few more years, the
Montford Reforms of 1919 made the office of CAG
independent from the sovereign.
• Statement 3 is Correct: The powers of CAG were
reinforced by the Government of India Act, 1935 by
provisioning for Provincial Auditor-Generals in the
federal setup of British India. The Government of
India (Audit and Accounts) Order, 1936 laid down
the conditions of service of the Auditor General,
and also defined his duties and powers concerning
audits and reports
• Source:
https://www.google.com/amp/s/blog.ipleaders.in
/comptroller-auditor-general-india/amp/
Q.57) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Comptroller and
Auditor General (Duties, Powers and Conditions of
Service) Act 1971, made the office responsible for
accounting and auditing of both the Central and
the State governments in pursuance of the quasi-
federal nature of the country. However, in 1976,
the CAG was relieved from its accounting functions
• Statement 2 is Correct: Article 148 - The salary and
other conditions of the CAG’s services shall be
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 30

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
specified in the Second Schedule of the
Constitution until determined by the Parliament
Source:
https://www.google.com/amp/s/blog.ipleaders.in/co
mptroller-auditor-general-india/amp/
Q.58) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: The CAG is appointed by
the President of India by warrant under his hand
and seal
• Statement 2 is Incorrect : Section IV of the Third
Schedule of the Constitution lays down the form of
oath or affirmation for both the Judges of the
Supreme Court as well as the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India.
• Statement 3 is Correct: Article 150 says the
President of India shall prescribe to the CAG the
form in which the accounts of the Union and the
States shall be maintained and kept
• Source:
https://www.google.com/amp/s/blog.ipleaders.in
/comptroller-auditor-general-india/amp/
Q.59) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: The CAG is authorised to
audit the accounts and expenditures from the
Consolidated Fund of India, and of States and those
Union Territories which have legislative
assemblies.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: CAG also audits all
expenditures from the Contingency Fund of India
(Article 267) and Public Account of India (Clause 2
of Article 266) as well as those of the states
• Statement 3 is Correct: On request from the
President or Governor, CAG also audits the reports
of the local bodies
Source:
https://www.google.com/amp/s/blog.ipleaders.in/co
mptroller-auditor-general-india/amp/
Q.60) Ans: A
Exp:
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• Statement 1 is Incorrect: CAG derives its mandate
from Constitution and the CAG's (Duties, power
and conditions of service) Act 1971
• Statement 2 is Correct: The importance of Duties
and Powers stemming from the Article 149 of the
Constitution is manifested in following observation
of the apex court in a 2014 judgment: “…CAG,
therefore, is exercising constitutional powers and
duties in relation to the accounts, while the High
Court under Article 226 of the Constitution, so also
the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the
Constitution, is exercising judicial powers. Duties
and powers conferred by the Constitution on the
CAG under Article 149 cannot be taken away by the
Parliament, being the basic structure of our
Constitution, like Parliamentary democracy,
independence of judiciary, rule of law, judicial
review, unity and integrity of the country, secular
and federal character of the Constitution, and so
on.
Source:
https://www.google.com/amp/s/m.thewire.in/article/
law/courts-cag-and-the-process-of-conducting-an-
audit/amp
Q.61) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Incorrect: Originally, Article 338 of
the Constitution provided for the appointment of a
Special Officer for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and
Scheduled Tribes (STs) to investigate all matters
relating to the constitutional safeguards for the SCs
and STs and to report to the President on their
working.
o In 1978, the Government (through a
Resolution) set up a non-statutory
multi member Commission for SCs and
STs; the Office of Commissioner for SCs
and STs also continued to exist.
o In 1987, the Government (through
another Resolution) modified the
function of commission and renamed
it as the National Commssion for SCs
and STs
• Statement 2 is Correct: 89th Constitutional
Amendment Act of 2003 bifurcated the combined
National Commission for SCs and STs into two
separate bodies, namely, National Commission for
Scheduled Castes (under Article 338) and National
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 31

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Commission for Scheduled Tribes (under Article
338-A).
o The separate National Commission for
SCs came into existence in 2004
• Source: OnlyIAS polity Booklet
Q.62) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Incorrect: To identify and
distinguish these communities, the Chanda
Committee in the year 1960 had laid down 5
standards to include any community/caste in the
tribal group
• Statement 2 is Correct: According to the 2011
Census, the Scheduled Tribes account for 104
million representing 8.6% of the country’s
population
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: Ministry of social justice
and empowerment coordinate all activities related
to schedule caste while ministry of Tribal affairs
coordinates all activities related to schedule tribe
• Source: OnlyIAS polity Booklet
Q.63) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: The complaints should
disclose his full identity and give his full address
and should sign the representation.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: The complaint should be
directly addressed to the Chairperson/Vice-
Chairperson/Secretary, National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes, New Delhi or the heads of its
State Offices. Complaints should be legibly written
or typed and, where necessary, supported by
authenticated documents.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: No action will be taken
on matters which are sub judice. Hence sub judice
matters need not be referred to the Commission as
complaint(s). Cases pending in courts or cases in
which a court has already given its final verdict
need not be taken up afresh with the Commission.
Source: https://ncst.nic.in/content/procedure-inquiry
Q.64) Ans: C
Exp:
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• Statement a, b and d is incorrect: Functions of
National commission for scheduled Tribe
o To investigate and monitor matters
relating to the constitutional and other
legal safeguards for the STs
o Inquire specific complaints relating to
deprivation of rights of ST’s
o Participate and advice on the planning
process of socioeconomic
development of the STs and to
evaluate the progress of their
development under the Union or a
state
o To present to the President, annually
and at such other times as it may deem
fit, reports upon the working of those
safeguards
o To make recommendation for
effective implementation of
safeguards
o To discharge such other functions in
relation to the protection, welfare and
development an advancement of the
ST’s.
• Statement c is Correct: The President may, with
respect to any State or Union territory, and where
it is a state, after consultation with the Governor
thereof by public notification, specify the tribes or
tribal communities or parts of or groups within
tribes or tribal communities which shall, for the
purposes of this constitution, is deemed to be
Scheduled Tribe
Source: OnlyIAS polity Booklet
Q.65) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement a, b and c is incorrect: in accordance
with Clause (8) of Article 338 of the Constitution,
while investigating in a matter or in inquiring into
any complaint the Commission shall have all the
powers of civil court trying a suit and in particular
in respect of the following matters, namely:-
o summoning and enforcing the
attendance of any person from any
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 32

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
part of India and examining him on
oath;
o requiring the discovery and
production of any document;
o receiving evidence on affidavits;
o requisitioning any public record or
copy thereof from any court or office;
o issuing commissions for the
examination of witnesses and
documents;
o any other matter which the President
may, by rule, determine.
Source: https://indiankanoon.org/doc/50707649/
Q.66) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Incorrect: Article 338 B in the
Constitution, provides for a National Commission
for Backward Classes with a Chairperson, Vice-
Chairperson and three other members, all of
whom shall be appointed by the President of India.
Their tenure and conditions of service will also be
decided by the President through rules.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: Till 2018, the National
commission for Scheduled castes was also required
to discharge functions with regard to the other
backward classes (OBCs). It was relieved from this
responsibility by the 102nd Amendment Act of
2018.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Kalelkar Commission,
set up in 1953, was the first to identify backward
classes other than the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes at the national level.
Source: OnlyIAS polity Booklet
Q.67) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: In the case of the Supreme
Court, the Attorney General or the Solicitor
General, and in the case of High Courts, the
Advocate General, may bring in a motion before
the court for initiating a case of criminal contempt.
However, if the motion is brought by any other
person, the consent in writing of the Attorney
General or the Advocate General is required.
• Statement 2 is Correct : The AG’s consent is
mandatory when a private citizen wants to initiate
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a case of contempt of court against a person.
Before such a plea can be filed, the Attorney
General must sign off on the complaint,
determining if it requires the attention of the court
at all. However, when the court itself initiates a
contempt of court case, the AG’s consent is not
required. This is because the court is exercising its
inherent powers under the Constitution to punish
for contempt and such Constitutional powers
cannot be restricted because the AG declined to
grant consent
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: If the Attorney General
denies consent, the matter all but ends. The
complainant can, however, separately bring the
issue to the notice of the court and urge the court
to take suo motu (on its own motion) cognizance.
If the court does take suo motu cognizance, as it
did in the case of Prashant Bhushan, the consent of
the senior-most law officer is not required.
• Source:
https://www.google.com/amp/s/indianexpress.co
m/article/explained/consent-for-contempt-
attorney-general-for-india-k-k-venugopal-rachita-
taneja/lite/
Q.68) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is Correct: His Term of office not fixed
by the Constitution and Constitution has not
prescribed any procedure for his removal. He holds
office during the pleasure of the President. He
receives remuneration as President may
determine
• Statement 2 is Correct: He has the Right to speak
and take part in the proceedings of both the
houses of parliament, joint sitting, or any
committee proceedings. But he does not have the
right to vote
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: He can't defend an
accused person, only in criminal proceedings
without the permission of the Government of
India.
• Source: OnlyIAS polity Booklet
Q.69) Ans: D
Exp:
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 33

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
• Statement 1 is Correct: Originally, the Constitution
of India did not make any provision with respect to
the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
o States Reorganisation Commission
(1953–55) made a recommendation in
this regard.
• Statement 2 is Correct: The Seventh Constitutional
Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article
350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution
• Statement 3 is Correct: The Constitution does not
specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and
allowances, service conditions and procedure for
removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic
Minorities
Q.70) Ans: C
Exp:
• Article 148 of the constitution provides for an
independent office of the CAG. It is the supreme
audit institution of India.
• Statement 1 is Correct: He is appointed by the
President of India by a warrant under his hand and
seal. His Salary and other service conditions are
determined by the Parliament.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: No minister can
represent the CAG in parliament
Statement 3 is Correct: CAG can be removed by the
President on the same grounds and in the same
manner as a judge of the Supreme Court i.e he can be
removed by the President on the basis of a resolution
passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament
with special majority, either on the ground of proved
misbehaviour or incapacity
Q.71) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The subject personal
laws are mentioned in the Concurrent List of
the Constitution. Hence, Parliament does not
have exclusive jurisdiction over this domain.
The matters regarding the Uniform Civil Code
are mentioned under the Directive Principles
under Article 44 of the Constitution. Presently,
different personal laws govern the citizens of
different religious communities.
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• Statement 2 is correct: Article 25 of the
Constitution guarantees rights to individuals to
religious conscience and to freely profess,
practice, and propagate a religion of their
choice. It protects the rights of the individuals.
Article 26 of the Constitution deals with the
rights of the religious denominations or the
sections of individuals.
• Statement 3 is correct: It was in the S. R.
Bommai Case that the Supreme Court held that
Secular activities need to be separated from
religion. Religion is a matter of personal faith
and hence cannot be mixed with secular
activities.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-
court-notice-to-govt-on-plea-for-uniform-laws-of-
succession/article34039787.ece ; M. Laxmikanth.
Q.72) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: A law seeking
preferential treatment on domicile related
grounds cannot be enacted by the state
government. As per Article 16(3), such laws
can be enacted only by the Parliament. Hence,
laws seeking to provide local reservations can
be declared as unconstitutional on the above
grounds.
• Statement 2 is correct: Nagraj case (2006) was
important as the Supreme Court allowed
reservation to be extended to the SCs and STs
in case of promotions. However, it was
subjected to the below mentioned three
conditions: Presence of quantifiable data on
the backwardness of SCs and STs is available;
there is inadequate representation; and there
is no adverse impact on the overall efficiency
of the administration.
Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-
news/is-haryana-s-new-reservation-law-
constitutionally-tenable-101615180936227.html ; M.
Laxmikanth
Q.73) Ans: B
Exp:
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 34

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
• Option B is correct: IUCN or the International
Union for the Conservation of Nature is
composed of both the government and the
civil society organizations. It assesses the
global status of the natural world along with
the measures needed to safeguard them. It
maintains a red data book that mentions the
lists of the endangered species. It has been
classified into various groups depending upon
the extent of threat faced. These are Extinct,
Extinct in the wild, Critically Endangered,
Endangered, Vulnerable, Near Threatened,
Least Concern, Data Deficient. Extinct status is
accorded to species where it is known that
there is no living individual left. Extinct in the
Wild is accorded to those who are known to be
surviving only in the artificial environment, like
in captivity. The three categories of Critically
Endangered, Endangered, and Vulnerable are
grouped under the threatened category.
Critically Endangered organisms are known to
have less than 50 mature individuals.
Endangered species are those which have less
than 250 surviving individuals while the
Vulnerable species have less than 10,000 living
individuals.
• The classification of the above organisms is
done as under:
o Forest Elephants: Critically
Endangered
o Asian Elephants: Endangered
o Dugong: Vulnerable
o Olive Ridley Turtle: Vulnerable
Source:
https://www.iucn.org/news/species/202103/african-
elephant-species-now-endangered-and-critically-
endangered-iucn-red-list ; Shankar IAS.
Q.74) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Prime Minister
Swasthya Suraksha Nidhi (PMSSN) is a single
non-lapsable reserve fund that seeks to fund
the health-related expenditures. The fund is
maintained and administered by the Ministry
of Health and Family Welfare. It seeks to
provide funding to the Ayushmann Bharat- PM
Jan Arogya Yojana and the Health and Wellness
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Centres. It also funds the expenditures of the
National Health Mission.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: This is a fund
maintained under the Public Account of India.
The proceeds of the fund are catered to from
the Health and Education cess levied under the
Finance Act, 2007.
Source:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1703
736
Q.75) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Unlawful
Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 was enacted
to effectively prevent the terrorists and the
unlawful activities of the individuals and
associations. Cases under this Act can be
investigated both by the National Investigation
Agency and the state police.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: As per this Act, the
Central government is empowered to impose
a ban on an organization by declaring them as
unlawful. The ban can be done both on the
individuals as well as the organizations dealing
with terror related activities.
• Statement 3 is correct: A recent amendment
of the Act in 2019 extended the ban on both
the individuals and the organization by
declaring them as terrorists. Earlier only the
organizations could be banned by declaring
them as terrorist organizations but now even
individuals can be declared as terrorists under
the provisions of this Act.
Source:
https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/CTCR_Unl
awfulActivities_06092019.pdf
Q.76) Ans: B
Exp:
• Option B is correct: Port Anjouan is located in
the Comoros Islands near Madagascar. INS
Jalashwa recently arrived at this port. Port
Ehoala is located in the Madagascar and was
visited by INS Jalashwa. Mongla port is located
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 35

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
in Bangladesh and was visited by the first
Indian navy ship.
Source: Atlas
Q.77) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: A recent research has
indicated that heat waves in India have been
attributed to the Quasi-Resonant
Amplification. Quasi-Resonant Amplification
occurs due to the warming of the Arctic region.
It has been associated with global warming. It
has been observed that any increase in the
temperature of the Arctic has led to rise of
heat waves in India, even in the states of
Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Hence, Quasi-
Resonant Amplification is not associated with
the warming of temperature and tropical
latitudes. It is rather associated with the
warming of the Arctic region.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Instances of Heat
waves attributed to Quasi-Resonant
Amplification have been witnessed in India. A
number of extreme weather events of the past
have been directly or indirectly associated with
QRA, this includes, 2003 European Heatwave,
Pakistan floods of 2010, etc.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-
and-environment/arctic-warming-is-causing-heat-
waves-in-india-study/article34157092.ece
Q.78) Ans: C
Exp:
• Option 2, 3, and 4 is correct: Indian Oil
Corporation has entered a joint Venture with
the Israel based battery technology startup
Phinergy for the development of the
aluminum-air based technology system for the
development of the batteries for the electric
vehicles and the stationary storage systems.
Aluminium-air batteries make use of oxygen in
the air which reacts with the aluminium
hydroxide solution to oxide the aluminium and
produce electricity. Aluminium-air batteries
offer a number of advantages over the
Lithium-ion batteries. Aluminum air batteries
are cheaper and lighter and have greater
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energy density. It offers a greater range of
distance covered (400 km approx..) per
battery as against the Lithium-ion batteries. It
can be recycled and be put into industrial use.
The disadvantage of these batteries is that
they cannot be recharged.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/indian-
oil-corporation-phinergy-aluminium-batteries-
7235560/
Q.79) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: United Nations
General Assembly recently adopted the year
2023 as the international year of Millets.
Millets are the coarse grains and are a gluten-
free alternative. India is the largest producer of
Millets with a global share of production
amounting to around 40%.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Millets are classified
as the Major and the Minor millets in
accordance with the size of the grain. Major
millets like Jowar, Bajra, Ragi are essentially
grown during the Kharif season. Unlike rice
these are less water intensive and drought and
heat resistant crops. They can easily be found
in areas with less than 350 mm of rainfall.
• Statement 3 is correct: Rajasthan accounts for
the largest area under the cultivation of Millets
followed by Maharashtra and Karnataka.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/unga-
unanimously-adopts-india-sponsored-resolution-
declaring-2023-as-international-year-of-
millets/article33986118.ece
Q.80) Ans: D
Exp:
• Option D is correct: Ken-Betwa River linking
project is the first river linking project under
the National River Linking Project. It was
signed between the Union Minister of Jal
Shakti and the chief Ministers of Uttar Pradesh
and Madhya Pradesh. The projects aim to
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 36

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
transfer the waters of river Ken to Betwa,
which are both the tributaries of river Yamuna.
The implementation of the project would be
undertaken by a special purpose vehicle
created for this purpose. The construction of
Daudhan and Orr Dam have been envisaged in
this project in different phases.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/apex-
body-on-river-linking-in-pipeline/article30976264.ece
Q.81) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Indus Water Treaty
was signed in 1960 between India and
Pakistan and was brokered by the World Bank.
The treaty envisaged the creation of the
Permanent Indus Commission with
representatives from each country to ensure
the implementation of the treaty. It allocated
waters of the eastern rivers (Sutlej, Beas, and
Ravi) to India while the waters of the western
rivers (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab) were
allocated to Pakistan. The treaty also provided
for the building of canals, dams, etc. The
Tarbela Dam was envisaged on the Indus River
while the Mangla Dam on the Jhelum River.
• Statement 2 is correct: The waters of the
western rivers have been allocated to Pakistan,
yet India is allowed to develop the run off the
river projects on these rivers in accordance
with the technical specifications provided in
the agreement. India has undertaken the
construction of several such projects like the
Kishanganga Hydroelectric project on the river
Jhelum and the Ratle Hydroelectric project on
the river Chenab.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Indus River
System comprises the five rivers flowing in
India and Pakistan. They are Indus, Jhelum,
Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej arranged in the
North to South direction. Hence, Indus is the
northernmost while Sutlej is the
southernmost river of the system.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/talks-
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between-indus-commissioners-of-india-pakistan-
underway/article34138593.ece
Q.82) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Quad or the
Quadrilateral Security Dialogue is a grouping
of the USA, India, Japan, Australia with similar
geopolitical issues along the Indo-Pacific
region. It is not a military grouping like NATO
and hence is not mandated to militarily
support the member countries during a war.
The latest development in the Quad has been
the Summit level meeting in 2021. It centered
around issues regarding Vaccine, Climate
Change, and Critical and emerging
technologies.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The idea of Quad was
initiated in 2004 after the Indian Ocean
Tsunami when the four countries came
together. Even after the emergence of the idea
of the Indo Pacific region in 2007, the grouping
remained dormant till 2017. It was on the
sidelines of the East Asia Summit in 2017 in
the Philippines that the revival of the grouping
occurred. This was followed by the Quad
meeting in 2019 in Washington and the
summit level talks in 2021.
Source:
https://www.financialexpress.com/defence/quad-
summit-2021-why-is-china-rattled/2212544/
Q.83) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Shat al Arab is a river
in Iraq that is formed due to the confluence of
the Tigris and the Euphrates River. It drains
into the Persian Gulf and is not associated with
the Red Sea.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Sharm El Sheikh is a
town of Egypt and is located at the
southernmost tip of the Sinai Peninsula along
the coast of the Red Sea. It is not associated
with the Persian Gulf.
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 37

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• Statement 3 is correct: Port Said is a part of
Egypt. It is located in the Northern Part of
Egypt along the Mediterranean Sea.
• Statement 4 is correct: Muscat is located along
the northeastern part of Oman. It is the capital
of Oman. It lies on the Arabian Sea and is a part
of the Gulf of Oman. It is located remarkably
close to the strategic strait of Hormuz.
Source: Atlas
Q.84) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The idea of BRICS was
first mooted by Goldmann Sachs in 2001 and
the first official summit was organized in 2009
in Russia. In the 2010 summit South Africa was
added to the BRICS network which was initially
formed by Brazil, Russia, India, and China. At
the Fortaleza Summit in 2014, the creation of
the New Development Bank was done to
strengthen the financial and the economic
cooperation of the group. Hence, it was
formed after the addition of South Africa in
2010. The headquarters of the NDB is located
at Shanghai, China and is formed with equal
contribution from each partner.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Gulf Cooperation
Council (GCC) was established in 1981 among
Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia,
and UAE as a political, economic, regional
organization of the above countries based on
their common objectives, interests, and the
Islamic beliefs. Iran is a country bordering the
Persian Gulf. However, it is not a part of the
GCC.
Source:
https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1704
262 ; https://infobrics.org/
https://www.gcc-sg.org/en-us/Pages/default.aspx
Q.85) Ans: B
Exp:
• Option B is correct: Apatani, Zabo, Dighis,
Paar, Jampois are the various traditional
water management systems. They are found
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in different geographical locations and hence
are named differently. Apatani is associated
with the Eastern Himalayas. Zabo is linked to
the Northeastern Hill ranges. Dighis are the
water harvesting systems found in the Indo-
gangetic plains. Paar is associated with the
Thar Desert region. Jampois are related to the
Brahmaputra Valley.
Source: https://www.cseindia.org/traditional-water-
harvesting-systems-683
Q.86) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: National Bank for
Financing Infrastructure and Development
(NABFID) is a Developmental Financial
Institution that seeks to provide long term
finance to various sectors for infrastructure
development. It is set up as a corporate body
with initial central government shareholding of
100%. It would provide investment to the
infrastructure projects under the National
Infrastructure Pipeline. The chairperson of the
NABFID would be appointed by the Central
Government in consultation with the RBI.
Commercial banks are set up under the
Companies Act whereas NABFID is set up
under the specialized acts enacted for this
purpose.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: NABFID can raise
money in the form of loans and otherwise. It
can raise finance both in Indian and foreign
currencies. It can also issue various financial
instruments like the Bonds, debentures, etc.
for the purpose of its financing.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The aim of the
NABFID is not just to lend but also to invest or
attract investments in various sectors for the
development of infrastructure. It can finance
the projects situated not just within India but
also projects that are partly located in India.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/economy/
dfi-to-raise-3-lakh-cr-for-infra-spend-20k-cr-to-be-
infused-7231720/
Q.87) Ans: B
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 38

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: National Payments
Corporation of India or the NPCI is the
umbrella entity for settling all retail payments
and settlements systems of India. It has been
incorporated under the Payments and
Settlements Act, 2007. It is a not-for-profit
company established under the Companies
Act, 1956 (now 2013). It was an initiative of the
RBI and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
Several payment related platforms are
operated by the NPCI which includes the Rupay
cards, Unified Payment Interface, Bharat Bill
Payments, FASTag, National Automated
Clearing House, National Financial Switch,
Aadhar Enabled Payments, etc. It has not
incorporated as the Critical Payment
Infrastructure Company as such. However, it
was the Watal Committee that suggested the
classification of the NPCI as the Critical
Payment Infrastructure Company of India.
• Statement 2 is correct: Cyber Swachhta
Kendra is an initiative of the Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology to
create a secure cyberspace by detecting
Botnet infections. Hence, it is a Botnet
Cleaning and Malware Analysis Centre.
Source: https://www.cyberswachhtakendra.gov.in/
https://www.npci.org.in/who-we-are/about-us
Q.88) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Bond is a fixed
income instrument that is used by a borrower
to raise a loan. It can be issued by a corporation
or the government. It has a maturity date on
which the issuer pays the entire face value of
the bond to the investor. The coupon rate
refers to the rate of interest the issuer pays to
the investor. Generally, the term bond is used
to refer to the government bonds. Bond yield
refers to the return offered on the investment
in a bond. It is inversely proportional to the
Bond prices. When the demand for a bond is
higher, its price falls in the secondary market
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and hence its yield is increased and vice versa.
Greater yield of Bond compared to the stocks
of a Company shifts the investors to the Bond
market and hence the prices of stocks have to
be lowered to attract greater investors.
• Statement 2 is correct: Greater Bond yield of
the USA government bonds encourages the
investors to invest in them rather than other
countries with lower returns on investments.
Hence, any change in the bond yield of the USA
impacts investment in other countries.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Capital Gains tax is
charged only when there occurs a sale or
purchase of a capital asset. Hence, stocks or
shares that are continuously incurring profits
would not be subjected to the Capital Gains
Tax unless they are sold.
Source:
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/bond
s/explainer-what-rising-bond-yields-mean-for-
markets/articleshow/81602095.cms?from=mdr
Q.89) Ans: C
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Recently, NITI Ayog
and Rocky Mountain Institute of India came
up with the report titled “Mobilising Electric
Vehicle Financing in India”. The adoption of
Electric Vehicles would play an instrumental
role in the protection of the Environment. In
order to boost the demand for the Electric
Vehicles in India, there was a reduction in the
GST rate from 12 to 5%.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Vehicle Scrapping
Policy was announced by the Ministry of Road
Transport and Highways. As per the provisions
of these, Commercial vehicles need to be de-
registered after 15 years. The same time limit
for Private Vehicles is 20 years while that of
Government Vehicles is 15 years. It also
proposes incentives for the scrapping of the
old and unfit vehicles and setting up highly
specialized registered vehicle scrapping
facilities across the country.
Source:
https://www.timesnownews.com/auto/features/articl
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 39

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e/government-to-offer-subsidy-to-62000-electric-
cars-and-buses/719482
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/scrapp
age-policy-will-boost-auto-
sector/article34112091.ece
Q.90) Ans: D
Exp:
• Option A is incorrect: The National Food
Security Act, 2013 aims to provide subsidized
food grains to the eligible households. There is
a provision of 5 kg per month per person of
foodgrains for the priority households along
with the 35 kg foodgrains per month for the
households under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana.
As per the provisions of the Act, the Central
Issue price needs to be revised after every
three years. This has not been done yet and is
one of the reasons for the rising food subsidy
bill of the government.
• Option B is incorrect: The Act outlines the
responsibilities of not only the Central but also
the state governments. The identification and
the issue of license to the Fair Price shops is to
be done by the State Government.
• Option C is incorrect: Shanta Kumar
Committee in 2015 had called for the revision
of the list of beneficiaries to reduce the
number of beneficiaries covered. Increasing
population has put tremendous pressure on
the government’s subsidy bill and hence there
is a need to rationalize the scheme.
• Option D is correct: The rise of the food
subsidy bill is attributed to the difference in the
prices at which the purchase of grains at MSP
is done by the FCI (Food Corporation of India)
followed by its storage and distribution and
that of the Central Issue Price (CIP), price at
which these grains are provided for Public
Distribution System. The CIP is much lesser
than the cost incurred in its procurement,
transportation, and distribution leading to
higher food subsidy bill.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/census-
data-may-decide-food-subsidy/article34055061.ece
mrunal
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Q.91) Ans: B
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Global Hunger
Index is released by the Concern Worldwide
and Welthungerhilfe. It consists of four
indicators and three dimensions. In its 2020
edition, India has been ranked at 94th spot
lower than even Bangladesh and Pakistan. As
per the report,
o 14% of Indians lack enough calorie
food,
o around 35% of children are stunted,
o 17.3% of Indian children under the age
of 5 are wasted, and
o there exists 3.7% of under-five
mortality rates.
• Statement 2 is correct: World Happiness
report is released by the UN Sustainable
Development Solutions Network. The theme
of 2021 was the Effects of COVID 19 on
happiness. India was ranked at 139th spot out
of 149 countries. Bangladesh was ranked at
101st and showed better performance than
India.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/agricultur
e-mos-questions-global-hunger-index-reports-
methodology/article34107191.ece
https://www.livemint.com/news/india/india-ranks-
139-in-world-happiness-report-here-s-list-of-20-
happiest-countries-11616202779157.html
Q.92) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Large Hadron
Collider is the most powerful particle
accelerator located along the French and Swiss
border. It contains several powerful
superconducting magnets to accelerate the
matter as it passes through it. It is housed at
the complex of European Organization for
Nuclear Research or CERN. It announced the
discovery of the Higgs boson in 2012 and
mainly deals with the study of the fundamental
or elementary particles. Black Holes are
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 40

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studied by the Event Horizon Telescope and
not by the LHC.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The particles at the
LHC are made to accelerate at a speed
approximately equal to the speed of light. The
particles are accelerated at such a high speed
and to collide with each other. The change in
their properties or the nature of their
properties are hence studied.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: CERN is the one of
the largest centers of research that studies the
nature of the fundamental particles. It was
founded in 1954 and is located near Geneva.
India is an associate member state of CERN,
which has 23 member states. Japan, USA,
Russia, EU, and UNESCO have been accorded
the observer status.
Source:
https://home.cern/news/news/physics/intriguing-
new-result-lhcb-experiment-cern
https://home.cern/about/who-we-are/our-mission
Q.93) Ans: D
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Professor Velcheru
Narayana Rao was conferred with the Sahitya
Akademi Fellowship for his contribution to the
field of Telugu literature. He was born in
Koppaka near Eluru, Andhra Pradesh. His
important works include: Girls for sale:
kanyasulkam, etc.
• Statement 2 is correct: Indian Council for
Agricultural Research was awarded with the
King Bhumibol World Soil Day Award, 2020.
King Bhumibol Adulyade was the king of the
Chakri dynasty of Thailand. He was the longest
serving monarch of Thailand.
• Statement 3 is correct: Ayya Vaikunda
Swamikal was a great social reformer
belonging to 19th Century Kerala. He fought
against untouchability and idol worship and
founded the Samathwa Samajam.
• Statement 4 is correct: Lachit Borphukan was
the king of the Ahom dynasty of Assam who
defeated the Mughals in 1671 at the Battle of
Saraighat in the Brahmaputra valley.
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Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-
pradesh/kendra-sahitya-akademi-award-for-velcheru-
narayana-rao/article33945737.ece
https://www.icar.org.in/content/indian-council-
agricultural-research-won-king-bhumibol-world-soil-
day-award-2020
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1704
434
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-
states/pm-modi-slammed-for-calling-17th-century-
ahom-general-a-freedom-
fighter/article34066126.ece
Q.94) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Coronal Mass Ejections
(CMEs) is a huge cloud of solar plasma
equipped with magnetic field lines that are
blown away from the surface of the Sun
leading to strong solar flames. It is mostly
composed of particles like protons and
electrons that are radiated with strong
magnetic fields. This adversely impacts the
space weather, causes power outages, and the
failure of the satellites, etc.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: ARKTIKA-M is a
Russia’s monitoring satellite to monitor the
environment of the Arctic region. It would not
only look into the climate of the Arctic but
would also lead to huge opportunities for the
exploration of the natural resources in the
region. It does not cover the two polar regions
rather only covers the Arctic region.
Source:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1708
735
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/russia-
launches-satellite-to-monitor-climate-in-
arctic/article33959352.ece
Q.95) Ans: B
Exp:
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 41

OnlyIAS Nothing Else
• Statement 1 is correct: A supercomputer is a
fast-acting computer that exhibits faster
performance compared to other ordinary
computers. They work very quickly owing to
the parallel processing of information as
against the ordinary computers that perform
one task at a time and work in a serial manner.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The speed of
microprocessors is measured in FLOPS or the
floating operations per seconds and it
indicates the performance speed of the
computers. Bits or bytes refer to the memory
or storage information of the computer.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Japan’s Fugaku has
become the world’s fastest supercomputer
with a speed of around 415 petaflop. India’s
fastest supercomputer, PARAM Siddhi has the
speed of 210 petaflops which is around half of
Fugaku. India started the National
Supercomputing mission in 2015 to aid
research in the area. PARAM Siddhi, PARAM
Shivay, PARAM Shakti, PARAM Brahma are
the supercomputers developed under this
mission.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-
tech/technology/worlds-most-powerful-
supercomputer-is-ready-for-use/article34043150.ece
https://nsmindia.in/
Q.96) Ans: B
Exp:
• Options 1,3 and 4 are correct:
o The Ministry of AYUSH is presently
implementing the Centrally
Sponsored Scheme of National
AYUSH Mission (NAM). Under the
‘Medicinal Plants’ component of the
NAM scheme, The Govt. is supporting
market driven cultivation of
prioritized medicinal plants in
identified clusters/zones within
selected districts of States in a mission
mode throughout the country. As per
the scheme guidelines, the support is
provided for:
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▪ Cultivation of prioritized
medicinal plants on farmer’s
land.
▪ Establishment of nurseries
with backward linkages for
raising and supply of quality
planting material.
▪ Post-harvest management
with forward linkages.
▪ Primary processing,
marketing infrastructure etc.
o Under this scheme, subsidy at the rate
of 30%, 50% and 75% of the cost of its
cultivation is provided for cultivation
of 140 prioritized medicinal plants on
farmer’s land.
NEWS:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=170
4851
Q.97) Ans: A
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct:
o The raw silk production in the country
has shown an increasing trend during
the last five years.
o India has the unique distinction of
being the only country producing all
the four kinds of silk namely,
Mulberry, Eri, Muga, Tasar (Tropical
and Temperate both). Mulberry silk is
the most popular variety, which
contributes around 79% of the
country’s silk production.
• Statement 2 is incorrect:
o The Govt. of India through Central Silk
Board has been implementing a
Central Sector Scheme "Silk Samagra"
an Integrated Scheme for
Development of Silk Industry (ISDSI)
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 42

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during the years 2017-18 to 2020-21
for the overall development of Silk
industry in the Country with an aim &
objective to scale up production by
improving the quality and productivity
and to empower downtrodden, poor
& backward families through various
activities of sericulture in the country
o Central Silk Board (CSB) is a Statutory
body established in 1948 by an Act of
Parliament. It is working under the
administrative control of the Ministry
of Textiles, Government of India.
NEWS:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=170
6034
Q.98) Ans: B
Exp:
• Option B is correct:
• Dholavira is an archaeological site at
Khadirbet, Rann of Kutch, Gujrat. Also known
locally as Kotada timba, the site contains ruins
of an ancient Indus Valley
Civilization/Harappan city. Dholavira’s
location is on the Tropic of Cancer. It is one of
the five largest Harappan sites and most
prominent archaeological sites in India
belonging to the Indus Valley Civilization.
o Dholavira: A Harappan City’ has been
submitted for nomination as a World
Heritage Site in 2019-2020.
Additionally Nomination dossiers of
‘Santiniketan, India’ and ‘Sacred
Ensemble of Hoysalas’ have been
submitted to UNESCO for the year
2021-22 cycle.
NEWS: Declaration Of World Heritage Sites By
UNESCO (pib.gov.in)
SOURCE: Ruins on the Tropic of Cancer
Q.99) Ans: B
Exp:
• Options 1,2 and 5 are correct:
o The Organization of the Petroleum
Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a
permanent, intergovernmental
organization, created at the Baghdad
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Conference in 1960, by Iran, Iraq,
Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela.
It is headquartered in Vienna.
o It aims to manage the supply of oil in
an effort to set the price of oil in the
world market, in order to avoid
fluctuations that might affect the
economies of both producing and
purchasing countries.
o The Organization of the Petroleum
Exporting Countries Plus (OPEC+) is a
loosely affiliated entity consisting of
the 13 OPEC members and 10 of the
world's major non-OPEC oil-exporting
nations. OPEC+ aims to regulate the
supply of oil in order to set the price on
the world market.
o OPEC plus countries include
Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei,
Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman,
Russia, South Sudan and Sudan.
NEWS: ‘OPEC+ move to hit recovery’ - The Hindu
SOURCE: OPEC : Member Countries
Q.100) Ans: B
Exp:
Option B is correct:
• India has been placed among the top 10 most
affected countries by climate change, in the
Global Climate Risk Index 2021 published by
the Bonn-based environmental think tank
German watch. India ranked as the seventh
worst-hit country in terms of climate change in
2019.
• The Global Climate Risk Index 2021 is the 16th
edition of the annual report and has taken into
account the data available for 2019 and from
DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 43
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2000 to 2019. The index analyses and ranks to

what extent countries and regions have been
affected by impacts of climate-related extreme
weather events (storms, floods, heatwaves
etc.)

DAY 34_IDMP FULL LENGTH TEST 5 44