Test Booklet Series

A
Polity
50 Questions
Target UPSC

Polity test 1

Time Allowed: 60 Minutes Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

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 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
1 : Consider the following pairs
(Judgement) :: (Case)
1.Supreme Court said that Parliament can
amend the :: Shankari Prasad Case
Fundamental rights under article 368
2. Supreme court clarified that Basic
Structure doctrine would apply :: Waman
Rao Case
To constitutional amendments enacted
after April 24, 1973
3.In judging the validity of Constitutional
Amendment Act, one :: IR Coelho Case
have to be guided by the impact test i.e.
Right Test
4.The Supreme Court ruled that the
Parliament cannot take :: Champakam
Dorairajan Case
away or abridge any of the Fundamental
Rights, which
are ‘sacrosanct’ in nature.
How many of the statements given above
are incorrect?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
2 : Article 22 of the Indian Constitution
provides provisions related to protection
against arrest and detention. Which of the
following statements is true about Article
22?
1. The first part of Article 22 deals with
the cases of ordinary law so it applies to
civil arrest and arrest on failure to pay
income tax.
2.The 44th Amendment Act of 1978
allowed for detention of a person under a
preventive detention law for more than
three months without the opinion of an
advisory board.
3.In case of detention of a person under a
preventive detention law, the authority can
decline to disclose certain facts to the
person related to grounds of his arrest, if
the authority feels that such disclosure
may be against public interest.
4. Preventive detention could be used only
to prevent public disorder.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
3 : With reference to the Writs Consider
the Following Statements
1. Supreme Court can empower any other
court to issue writs.
2. The writ of Mandamus (‘we command’)
can be issued to enforce contractual
obligation
3. Prohibition is issued by a higher court to
a lower court or tribunal to prevent the
latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or
usurping a jurisdiction that it does not
possess.
4. In ADM Jabalpur vs Shivakant Shukla
also known as Habeas Corpus case,
Supreme Court ruled that a person's right
to not be unlawfully detained (i.e. habeas
corpus) cannot be suspended in the
interest of the State.
How many of the statements given above
are incorrect?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
Page 2
 D. All four
4 : Consider the following statements
1. Article 31A saves laws such as
agricultural land reforms, industry and
commerce from being challenged and
invalidated on the ground of contravention
of the fundamental rights conferred by
Article 14 and Article 19.
2. Article 31B saves the acts and
regulations included in the Ninth Schedule
from being challenged and invalidated on
the ground of contravention of any of the
fundamental rights.
3. Article 31C, as inserted by the 25th
Amendment Act of 1971, contain that No
law that seeks to implement the socialistic
directive principles specified in Article 39
or shall be void on the ground of
contravention of the fundamental rights
conferred by Article 14
or Article 19.
4. Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati
case ruled that there could not be any
blanket immunity from judicial review of
laws included in the Ninth Schedule.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
5 : With reference to the Indian
Constitution, consider the following
statements:
1. There is no theory of 'Equality of State
Rights' underlying the federal scheme in
our Constitution.
2. In our Constitution, there is no equality
of representation of the states in the
Council of States.
3. The Union of India consists of the
territories of the states, the UTs, and any
territory that may be acquired in the
future.
4. The concept of Independent Judiciary
goes against the principle of federalism as
enshrined in the constitution.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
6 : With reference to the concept of
Liberty, consider the following statements:
1. Liberty means the absence of restraints
on the activities of individuals.
2. Absolute liberty is provided for in the
Fundamental Rights of the Constitution.
3. The right to liberty is protected under
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
4. The concept of negative liberty focuses
on self-mastery and self-realization, while
positive liberty emphasizes on the absence
of external constraints
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
7 : With reference to the Indian legal
system, consider the following statements:
1. All pre-constitutional as well as post-
constitutional laws that are inconsistent
Page 3
with or in derogation of any of the
fundamental rights shall be void.
2. A constitutional amendment is not a law
and hence cannot be challenged in the
Supreme Court.
3. Rule by law is when the law is used as
an instrument of suppression, oppression
and social control in the course of
implementing a political agenda.
4. While the rule of law is declared a basic
feature of the Constitution, rule by law is
the antithesis of all that is represented by
rule of law.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
8 : With reference to the Territorial Extent
of Central and State Legislation, consider
the following statements:
1. The Parliament has the ability to make
laws for the whole or any part of the
territory of India without any restrictions
or exceptions.
2. A state legislature's laws are applicable
outside the state only if approved by the
President of India.
3. The Parliament's 'extraterritorial
legislation' is limited to Indian citizens and
does not apply to Indian companies
operating abroad.
4. The President's power to make
regulations for Union Territories extends
to all Union Territories, and these
regulations can neither repeal nor amend
any act of Parliament.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. None
9 : With reference to the Parliamentary
Legislation in the State List, consider the
following statements:
1. If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
by simple majority that it is necessary in
the national interest for Parliament to
make laws on a matter in the State List,
the Parliament becomes competent to
make laws on that matter.
2. During a National Emergency, the
Parliament acquires the power to legislate
on matters in the State List, and the laws
become inoperative on the expiration of six
months after the emergency has ceased to
operate.
3. When legislatures of two or more states
pass resolutions requesting the Parliament
to enact laws on a matter in the State List,
the state legislature retains the power to
amend or repeal that law.
4. During President's Rule, a law made by
the Parliament with respect to any matter
in the State List in relation to that state
becomes inoperative once the President's
Rule ends.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Page 4
10 : With reference to the Allocation of
Taxing Powers in India, consider the
following statements:
1. The Parliament's exclusive power to levy
taxes includes the imposition of gift tax,
wealth tax, and expenditure tax, however
these specific taxes are not enumerated in
the Union List.
2. The state legislature can impose taxes
on subjects not mentioned in any of the
three lists if it receives special permission
from the Parliament.
3. The 101st Amendment Act of 2016
conferred concurrent power upon
Parliament and State Legislatures to make
laws governing goods and services tax, but
this amendment did not alter the residuary
power of taxation vested in the Parliament.
4. The Concurrent List, despite not
containing any tax entries, allows for
shared legislative competence between the
Centre and the states in matters related to
the administration of particular taxes.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
11 : With reference to the adjudication of
inter-state water disputes in India,
consider the following statements:
1. Article 262 allows the Parliament to
enact laws for the adjudication of any
dispute or complaint with respect to the
use, distribution, and control of waters of
any inter-state river and river valley, and
to exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court and other courts in such disputes.
2. The River Boards Act (1956) was
enacted by the Parliament under the
provision of Article 262, to set up boards
in order to settle disputes with respect to
sharing waters of inter-state rivers.
3. The decision of the tribunal set up for
the adjudication of inter-state water
disputes under the Act is subject to appeal
in the High Court of the concerned states.
4. The need for an extra-judicial machinery
to settle inter-state water disputes is based
on the experience that legal rights or
interests in water supplies do not afford a
satisfactory basis for settling disputes
between states where public interests are
involved.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
12 : With reference to the Indian
Constitution and its amendments, consider
the following statements:
1. The 24th Constitution Amendment Act
of 1971 affirmed the power of the
Parliament to amend any part of the
Constitution, including the Fundamental
Rights, and made it mandatory for the
President to provide assent to for such
amendments.
2. The 61st Constitution Amendment Act of
1988 reduced the voting age for the Lok
Sabha and State Legislative Assembly
elections from 21 to 18 years, and the age
of candidacy from 30 to 25.
3. The 74th Constitution Amendment Act
of 1992 provided for the establishment of
Page 5
Municipalities in urban areas, including
the constitution of Wards Committees,
including the Scheduled Areas and tribal
areas.
4. The 97th Constitution Amendment Act
of 2011 introduced provisions related to
cooperatives, including the formation of a
State Co-operative Election Authority, but
it mandated that the maximum number of
directors of a co-operative society shall not
exceed 25.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
13 : With reference to the Motion of
Thanks on the President's Address,
consider the following statements:
1. Notices of amendments to the Motion of
Thanks can be tabled before the President
has delivered his Address.
2. Amendments to the Motion of Thanks
may refer only to matters contained in the
Address and cannot include matters that
the Address has failed to mention.
3. The Motion of Thanks must be passed in
both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha,
and the failure to do so does not have any
significant consequences for the
government.
4. The Speaker in the Lok Sabha and the
Chairman in the Rajya Sabha have the
authority to consider the appropriate form
of amendments to the Motion of Thanks.
How many of the statements given above
are incorrect?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
14 : With reference to the Law
Commissions in India, consider the
following statements:
1. The first Law Commission was
established in 1834 under the Charter Act
of 1833, marking the beginning of legal
reform in British India.
2. The second Law Commission,
constituted in 1853, focused on the
adaptation of Hindu and Muslim personal
laws to the British legal system, while the
third and fourth Law Commissions, in
1861 and 1879 respectively, emphasized
the codification of civil and criminal
procedural laws.
3. The First Law Commission of
Independent India was established in
1955, and it was chaired by the then Chief
Justice of India, Mr. M. C. Setalvad.
4. The Law Commissions have been
instrumental in recommending legal
reforms, and their recommendations are
legally binding on the government.
How many of the statements given above
are incorrect?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
15 : Consider the following statements
regarding the e-Courts Project in India:
1. The e-Courts Project was conceptualized
under the National e-Governance Plan and
initiated in 2007, with Phase I focusing on
ICT enablement of the District Courts and
Page 6
Phase II extending to the High Courts.
2. The 'National Policy and Action Plan for
Implementation of Information and
Communication Technology in Indian
Judiciary' was formulated by a committee
chaired by the Chief Justice of India,
providing a roadmap for the e-Courts
Project.
3. The e-Courts Project is a Pan-India
initiative, with funding provided by the
Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and
Justice, Government of India, and
implementation monitored by the e-
Committee of the Supreme Court.
4. The e-Courts Project aims to enable
electronic filing of cases, virtual court
proceedings, and online case status
tracking, with an additional focus on
integrating Alternative Dispute Resolution
(ADR) mechanisms within the digital
platform.
How many of the statements given above
are incorrect?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
16 : Consider the following statements:
1. The principle of the rule of law
empowers the judiciary to exercise
oversight over the executive branch,
particularly when it oversteps its
jurisdiction, thereby ensuring a system of
checks and balances.
2. Article 105 and Article 194 of the Indian
Constitution stand as exceptions to the
rule of law, conferring specific privileges
and immunities to Members of Parliament
and State Legislatures, respectively.
3. The rule of law is inherently linked to
the concept of equality, implying that all
individuals, regardless of their status, are
subject to the same legal framework.
4. The doctrine of the rule of law is
explicitly enshrined within the Indian
Constitution, forming the cornerstone of
the nation's legal system.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
17 : Which of the following is/are the
features of Federalism?
1. Different tiers of government have their
own jurisdiction as defined by
constitutional provisions.
2. The existence and authority of each tier
of government are constitutionally
guaranteed.
3. In India, the Finance Commission
constituted by the President of India
governs the financial relationship between
the Centre and the States.
4. Off-Budget borrowings mean all
borrowings not provided for in the Budget
but whose repayment liabilities also do not
fall on the Budget.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
18 : Which of the following statements
Page 7
is/are correct regarding the distinctions
between Articles 358 and 359 of the Indian
Constitution?
1. Article 358 is confined to Fundamental
Rights under Article 19, while Article 359
may extend to all those Fundamental
Rights whose enforcement is suspended by
the Presidential Order.
2. Article 358 operates only in case of
Internal Emergency, whereas Article 359
operates in both External and Internal
Emergency.
3. Article 358 suspends Article 19 for a
period specified by the president but
Article 359 suspends fundamental rights
for the entire duration of the emergency.
4. Article 358 extends to the entire
country, while Article 359 may extend to a
part of the country or the entire country.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
19 : The Right to Protest involves the
exercise of which of the following
fundamental rights:
1. Equality before Law
2. Freedom of Resistance
3. Freedom to assemble peacefully
4. Freedom of speech and expression
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
20 : How many of the following items have
been placed in the 11th schedule of the
Indian Constitution:
1. Agriculture
2. Implementation of Land Reforms
3. Primary & Secondary School Education
4. Public Distribution System
5. Marriage & Divorce
6. Public health, sanitation conservancy
and solid waste management.
Select the correct answer code:
A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. Only five
21 : Consider the following statements
regarding President's Rule in India:
1. Article 356 requires a governor's report
for the President to act, and Article 365
allows the President to act if a state fails to
comply with the Centre's direction.
2. President's Rule can be extended
beyond one year only if a National
Emergency is in operation, and the
Election Commission certifies that general
elections cannot be held.
3. During President's Rule, the President
may assume powers of the concerned state
high court and suspend its constitutional
provisions.
4. Laws enacted during President's Rule
become inoperative immediately after the
cessation of the President's Rule, and
cannot be altered by the state legislature.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
Page 8
 D. All four 3. It separated, for the first time,
provincial budgets from the Central
22 : Consider the following statements: budget and authorized the provincial
legislatures to enact their budgets.
1. The Nation celebrates 24th April of
every year as National Panchayati Raj Day How many of the statements given above
to mark the passing of the 73rd are correct?
Constitutional Amendment Act, which
came into force on this day in 1993. A. Only one
B. Only two
2. The Government of India celebrates C. All three
April 21 every year as 'Civil Services Day' D. None
in honor of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel's
address to the probationers of 24 : Consider the following statements
Administrative Services Officers on this regarding the Delimitation Commission
date in 1947. and the process of delimitation in India:

3. The National Science Day is celebrated 1. The Delimitation Commission is

on January 30th to commemorate the appointed by the Prime Minister of India.
discovery of the Raman Effect by Indian
physicist Sir C.V. Raman. 2. The last delimitation exercise that
changed the state-wise composition of the
4. The National Maritime Day is observed Lok Sabha was completed in 1996.
on April 5th to honor the maritime history
of India and the contribution of the 3. The 87th Amendment Act of 2003
shipping industry. provided for the delimitation of
constituencies on the basis of the 2001
How many of the statements given above census.
are correct?
4. The Delimitation Commission's orders
A. Only one can be challenged in court.
B. Only two
C. Only three How many of the statements given above
D. All four are correct?

23 : With regards to the Government of A. Only one

India Act of 1919, examine the following B. Only two
statements: C. Only three
D. All four
1. It introduced, for the first time,
bicameralism and direct elections in the 25 : The Digital Personal Data Protection
country. Act, 2023 (DPDP Act) in India has
introduced new regulations for digital
2. It tightened the central control over the personal data processing. Consider the
provinces by giving legislation over following statements:
provincial subjects to the central
legislature. 1. The DPDP Act will replace Section 43A
of the Information Technology Act and its
Page 9
corresponding rules, including the SPDI
Rules.
2. The DPDP Act mandates that Data
Fiduciaries must provide consent
mechanisms in English only.
3. The DPDP Act allows the Central
Government to classify 'significant data
fiduciaries' based on factors like data
volume and sensitivity. Non-compliance
with additional obligations for these
fiduciaries can result in penalties up to
INR 100 crore.
4. The DPDP Act applies to Data
Fiduciaries and Data Processors
processing digital personal data both
within and outside India, subject to certain
exemptions.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
26 : Which among the following deals with
Habeas Corpus
A. State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain
B. Additional district Magistrate of
Jabalpur v. Shiv Kant Shukla
C. Menaka Gandhi v. Union of India
D. Nandini Satpathy vs Dani (P.L.)
27 : Consider the following statements
regarding First Constitutional Amendment
Act
1. It empowered States to ‘make any
special provision for the advancement of
any socially and educationally backward
classes of citizens or for the Scheduled
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes’.
2. It allowed the State to enact laws
curbing citizens’ rights to freedom of
expression and to practice any trade,
occupation or business.
3. It also prevents States from making
laws permitting them to acquire any
citizen’s estate.
4. The amendment also added a ninth
schedule to the Constitution, listing a
number of State laws which cannot be
challenged in courts.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
28 : In the context of the disqualification
of legislators under the Representation of
People Act 1951, consider the following
statements:
1. Section 8(3) of the Representation of
People Act states that a person convicted
and sentenced to imprisonment for not
less than two years shall be disqualified
from the date of conviction.
2. The Supreme Court's judgment in Lily
Thomas vs Union of India (2013) struck
down Section 8 (4) of the Act, leading to
instant disqualification without a three-
month appeal period.
3. The President of India has the authority
to declare a sitting legislator disqualified
under Article 103.
4. The judgment in Lily Thomas has led to
a significant reduction in the criminal
proclivity of politicians.
Page 10
Which of the statements given above are 31 : Consider the following statement
correct? regarding Press Council of India:

A. Only one 1. It is a statutory body.

B. Only two
C. Only three 2. Recently Ranjana prakash Desai became
D. All four the second women chairperson of PCI.

29 : Consider the following statements: 3. Chairman is selected by Lok sabha

1. Charter act of 1853 provided that the
Company’s territories in India were held
by it ‘in trust of His Majesty, His heirs and
successors’.
2. Charter act of 1833 introduced local
representation in the Indian Legislative
council.
speaker, Rajya sabha chairman and a
member elected by PCI.
4. It also consists of 5 members from
parliament,three nominated by lok sabha
speaker and two nominated by chairman of
Rajya sabha.
How many of the above statements are
correct?

3. The viceroy during the Indian Council A. Only one

Act 1892 was Lansdowne. B. Only two
C. Only three
4. Through Morley minto reform members D. All of the above
of the legislative councils were allowed to
ask supplementary questions,move 32 : Consider the following statements
resolutions on the budgets. regarding constituent assembly:

How many of the above statements are 1. The demand for constituent assembly
correct? was finally accepted in principle by British
government in Cripps Mission.
A. Only one
B. Only two 2. The constituent assembly was
C. Only three constituted in November 1946 under the
D. All of the above scheme formulated by Cabinet Mission
plan.
30 : Consider the following statements:
“The act provides for slave constitution 3. The constituent assembly held its first
that attemps to strengthen and perpetuate meeting on December 9,1946.The meeting
the economic bondage of India” was attended by 211 members.

The above statement was said by INC with 4. It adopted the national flag on July
reference to which act? 22,1947.

A. Indian Council Act 1892

How many of the above statements are
B. Indian Council Act of 1909
correct?
C. Government of India Act 1919
D. Government of India Act 1935 A. Only one

Page 11
 B. Only two are incorrect?
C. Only three
D. All of the above A. Only one
B. Only two
33 : Consider the following features of C. All three
Pitt's India Act, 1784, select the correct D. None
one:
35 : Second schedule of the constitution
1. The Act established a Board of Control contains provisions relating to the
to guide and control the work of the Court emoulments,allowances,privileges of
of Directors and the Government of India. followings:
1. Cabinet Minister
2. The Act laid the foundation of a 2. Judges of Supreme court and High court
centralized administration. 3. CAG
4. Attorney General
3. The Act stated that the Presidencies of How many of the above are correct?
Madras and Bombay were independent of
the Presidency of Bengal in all matters of A. Only one
war and peace. B. Only two
C. Only three
4. The offices of the Governor General and D. All four
the Commander-in-Chief were to be united
36 : Consider the following pairs with
in the same person.
respect to addition to 8th Schedule
languages:
How many of the above statements are
Language Amendments
correct?
1. Sindhi : 21st amendment act
A. Only one 2. Bodo,dogiri : 71st amendment act
B. Only two Mithali,santahli
C. Only three 3. Konkani,Manipuri : 92nd amendment
D. All Four act
Nepali
34 : With reference to Indian How many pairs are correctly matched?
interpretation of Secularism, examine the
following statements: A. Only one
B. Only two
1. The State does not favor any particular C. All three
religious matter whatsoever. D. None of the above

37 : Consider the following statement

2. The state is not allowed make any
regarding preamble of the constitution:
discrimination on the basis of religion in
1. Like any other part of the Constitution,
matters of employment.
the Preamble was also enacted by
the Constituent Assembly; but, after the
3. All educational institutions are free to
rest of the Constitution was already
impart religious instruction of any religion.
enacted.
How many of the statements given above
2.’We the people’ is borrowed from U.S.A.
Page 12
3.The preamble Is based on the ‘objective direct the member to withdraw from the
resolution’drafted and moved by pandit house.
Nehru.
2.Rule 374 of lok sabha states that the
4.The preamble states that Indian brand of speaker can name a member who
socialism is ‘democratic socialism’ as disregards the chair’s authority or
highlighted by G.B PANT UNIVERSITY VS persistenly obstructs the house business.
STATE OF UP (2006)
How many of above statements are 3.Rule 374A of lok sabha states that if a
correct? member causes grave disorder by coming
into the well of the house or persistently
A. Only one obstructing business,they are
B. Only two automatically suspended.
C. Only three How many of the above statements are
D. All of the above correct?

38 : Consider the following statements A. Only one

regarding Directorate of Enforcement(ED): B. Only two
C. All three
1. ED is multidisciplinary organization D. None
mandated to investigate economic crimes
and violations of foreign exchange laws. 40 : Consider the following:

2. It works against the Department of 1. The State shall endeavour to promote

Revenue,Ministry of Finance. cottage industries in urban areas.

3. ED Director is appointed as per the 2. The State shall take steps to secure the
provisions of Central Vigilance participation of workers in the
Commission Act 2003. management of undertakings,
establishments or other organisations
4. Tenure of the director should not be less engaged in any industry.
than 3 years and any transfer has to be
approved by appointing committee chaired 3. The State shall endeavour to promote
by CVC. voluntary formation and functioning of co-
How many of the above statements are operative societies.
correct?
How many of the statements given above
A. Only one are covered under Directive Principles of
B. Only two State Policy?
C. Only three
D. All of the above A. Only one
B. Only two
39 : Consider the following statements C. All three
regarding rules of suspension of MPs from D. None
parliament:
1.Rule 373 of lok sabha states that if the 41 : Which of the following is/are common
speaker believes that the conduct of the to both ‘interest groups’ and ‘people’s
member is grossly disorderly,speaker may movements?
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1. Both attempt to influence politics
without directly taking part in electoral
competition.
2. Both have a loose organization, where
decision-making is informal and flexible.
3. Both are largely dependent on
spontaneous mass participation.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
42 : With reference to the representation
of people belonging to Scheduled Castes
(SCs)
and Scheduled Tribes (STs) while
implementing reservation in promotion in
India, consider the following statements:
1. The State is obligated to collect
quantifiable data showing the inadequacy
of representation of a section of people in
public employment.
2. Assessment on the inadequacy of
representation of the reserved categories
in promotional posts is left to the Central
Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
43 : Which of the following situations can
be considered 'proper' for the imposition
of President’s Rule in a state?
1. Maladministration in the state or
allegations of huge corruption
2. A government is deliberately acting
against the Constitution.
3. A constitutional direction of the Central
government is disregarded by the state
government
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
44 : Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha can detain an ordinary
bill for a maximum period of six months
whereas a State Legislative Council can
detain or delay the bill for a period of four
months.
2. A bill originating in the State Legislative
Council and rejected by the State
Legislative Assembly would require joint
setting.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
45 : Which of the following are the
methods of Parliamentary control over
public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement
before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of moneys from
Consolidated Fund of India only after
passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Setting the Monetary Policy Target.
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review
of programme of the Government against
macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure
by a Parliamentary Budget Office
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5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Mozambique?
Parliament
A. Only one
Select the correct answer using the codes B. Only two
given below: C. Only three
D. All
A. Only two
B. Only three 49 : With reference to the Cell-Free DNA
C. Only four (cfDNA), consider the following
D. All five statements:

46 : Which of the following countries have 1. It is released into the extracellular

agreed to share technology on “K9 Vajra” environment under different
to strengthen defence cooperation? circumstances, including cell death or
other cellular processes.
A. India and Russia
B. India and South Korea 2. The 'GEMINI' test utilizes cfDNA
C. India and Japan sequencing to detect lung cancer.
D. India and Israel
Which of the statements given above is/are
47 : MPOWER measure is related to: correct?

A. Alcohol A. 1 only
B. Tobacco B. 2 only
C. Both a and b C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither a nor b D. Neither 1 nor 2

48 : Consider the following countries: 50 : NIDHI Program, recently seen in

news is an initiative of which of the
Tanzania and Malawi following ministry?
Zambia and Zimbabwe
South Africa and Eswatini A. Ministry of Micro, Small and
Rwanda and Kenya Medium Enterprises
B. Ministry of Finance
How many countries are bordering C. Ministry of Science and Technology
D. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

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