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POLITY
1-SECTIONAL TEST
TIME: 25 Mninutes Total Marks: 50

Instruction to candidates
1. Do not write your name or put any other mark of identification anywhere in the OMR response Sheet. IF ANY
MARK OF IDENTIFICATION IS DISCOVERED ANYWHERE IN OMR RESPONSE SHEET, the OMR sheet will be
cancelled, and will not be evaluated.

2. This question Booklet contains the cover page and a total of 50 Multiple Choice Question of 1 mark each.

3. Space for rough work has been provide at the beginning and end. Available space on each page may also be
used for rough work.

4. There is negative marking in multiple choice question. For each wrong answer, 0.25 marks will be deducted.

5. USE/POSSESSION OF ELECTRONIC GADGETS LIKE MOBILE PHONE, iPHONE, iPAD, pager ETC, is strictly
PROHIBITED.

6. Candidate should check the serial order of question at the beginning of the test. If any question is found
missing in the serial order, it should be immediately brought to the notice of the invigilator. No page should be
turn out from this question booklet.

7. Answer must be marked in the OMR Response sheet which is provided separately. OMR response sheet must
be handed over to the invigilator before you leave the seat.

8. The OMR Response sheet should not be folded or wrinkled. The folded or wrinkled OMR/Response sheet will
not be evaluated.

9. Write your Roll Nuber in the the appropriate space (above) and on the OMR Response sheet. Any other details,
if asked for, should be written only in the space provided.

10. There are four options, if asked to each question marked A, B, C and D. select one of the most appropriate
options and fill up the corresponding oval/circle in the OMR response provided to you. The correct procedure for
filling up the OMR response sheet is mentioned below

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1. Which Amendment to the Constitution of India pertains to the

Goods and Services Tax?
(A) The Constitution (Ninety-Ninth Amendment) Act, 2014
(B) The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act,
2016
(C) The Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment)
Act. 2019
(D) The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act,
2019

2. What are the grounds for the proclamation of national emergency

in India?
(A) War, external aggression and internal disturbances.
(B) War, external aggression and armed rebellion.
(C) War, armed rebellion and natural calamities.
(D) External aggression, natural calamities and internal
Disturbances.

3. Under the Constitution of India, which of the following is NOT

correct regarding the Governor of a State?
(A) (S) he can recommend imposition of President's Rule in that
State
(B) (S) he has the power to issue ordinances when the State
Legislature is not in session
(C) (S)he has the power to reserve a Money Bill for the
Consideration of the President of India
(D) (S)he does not have the power to commute the sentence of
Any person convicted of any offence

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4. Who was the first Chief Justice of the High Court of Delhi?
(A) Justice S.K. Kapur (B) Justice K.S. Hegde
(C) Justice H.R. Khanna (D) Justice LD. Dua

5. Articles 15(6) and 16(6), providing for reservation in favour of

certain economically weaker sections of citizens, were inserted in
the Constitution of India through which of the following
amendments:
(A) The Constitution (One Hundred and Fifth Amendment) Act
2021
(B) The Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act
2019
(C) The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act.
2019
(D) The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment)
Act 2018

6. The allocation of seats in the Council of States is contained in which

Schedule to the Constitution of India?
(A) Third Schedule (B) Fourth Schedule
(C) Fifth Schedule (D) Sixth Schedule

7. Which of the following is NOT a ground mentioned under Article

16 of the Constitution of India?
(A) Race (B) Caste
(C) Sex (D) Origin

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8. Which of the following appointments is NOT made by the President

of India?
(A) Chief of the Army Staff
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(D) Chief Justice of India

9. X, a male, and Y, a female, married under the Special Marriage Act.

1954. A month after their marriage, Y was forcibly taken and kept at
a secret place by her family, who were unhappy with the marriage.
Aggrieved by the police inaction in tracing Y for the past three
months, X decides to file a writ petition before the High Court.
Select the appropriate writ which can be issued in this case:
(A) Writ of Quo warranto
(B) Writ of Habeas corpus
(C) Writ of Prohibition
(D) Writ of Certiorari

10. According to the Constitution of India, the executive power of the

Union shall be vested in:
(A) the President
(B) the Prime Minister
(C) the Union Council of Ministers
(D) the Union Home Minister

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11. An arrested person is required to be produced before the nearest

Magistrate:
(A) Immediately after the arrest
(B) Within 12 hours of such arrest
(C) Within 24 hours of such arrest
(D) Within 24 hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary
for the journey from the place of arrest to the court of the
Magistrate

12. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his
removal can be preferred by:
(A) Both Houses of Parliament in a joint session
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha

13. Who among the following was the Chairman of the 'Advisory
Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and
Excluded Areas of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(A) Rajendra Prasad (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) B.R. Ambedkar (D) Vallabhbhai Patel

14. Article 1 of the Constitution of India defines India as:

(A) Federal State (B) Unitary State
(C) Union of States (D) Quasi‐Federal State

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15. Union territory according to the Constitution of India means any

Union territory:
(A) As specified in the First Schedule and Sixth Schedule
(B) As specified in the First Schedule and Seventh Schedule
(C) As specified in the First Schedule, Seventh Schedule and
Tenth Schedule
(D) As specified in the First Schedule and includes any other
territory comprised within the territory of India but not
specified in that Schedule

16. Under Article 12 of the Constitution of India 'State' includes:

(A) The Government of India and the Parliament
(B) The Government of India and the Parliament and the
Legislature of each State
(C) The Government of India and the Parliament and the
Government and the Legislature of each State and all local
or other authorities within the territory of India or under the
control of the Government of India
(D) The Parliament and the Legislature of each State

17. Which among the following schedules of the Constitution of India

deals with the distribution of legislative power between the
Parliament and state legislatures?
(A) Schedule I (B) Schedule III
(C) Schedule V (D) Schedule VII

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18. Which of the following rights are a part of freedom of speech and
Expression guaranteed by the Constitution of India, 1950?

A. Exercise of freedom of speech and expression through the

medium of internet

B. Right to information

C. Right to broadcast

D. Right to remain silent In light of the above statements, choose

the correct answer from the options given below

(A) A, B and C only (B) B, C and D only

(C) A, B and D only (D) A, B, C and D

19. The enforcement of which of the following Fundamental Rights

guaranteed by the Constitution of India, 1950, cannot be suspended
due to the Proclamation of Emergency on account of war or
external aggression?
(A) Right to freedom of speech and expression
(B) Right to life and personal liberty
(C) Right to religion
(D) Right to equality

20. Criminal Procedure falls under which of the following lists of the
Indian Constitution?
(A) State List (B) Union List
(C) Concurrent List (D) List of States

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21. Who among the following was the shortest serving chief justice of
the Supreme Court of India?
(A) Kamal Narain Singh
(B) Madhukar Hiralal Kania
(C) Lalit Mohan Sharma
(D) Mohammad Hidayatullah

22. Which of the following statement(s) is not true about the role and
status of the Governor in India?

A. The Governor is elected by the State Legislature

B. The Governor is appointed by the President of India

C. A person who has completed the age of thirty years can be a

Governor.

D. The same person cannot be appointed as the Governor of two

or more states

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A, B and D only (B) A and D only

(C) A, C and D only (D) A and C only

23. Which Article of the Constitution of India was termed as its 'heart
and soul’ by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
(A) Article 32 (B) Article 21
(C) Article 14 (D) Article 246

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24. The electoral college that elects the President of India comprises
Of
(A) All members of both the Houses of Parliament
(B) Elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and of
State Legislative Assemblies of the states
(C) All members of both Houses of Parliament and State
Legislative Assemblies
(D) All members of both Houses of Parliament and State
Legislative Assemblies and Councils

25. The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of the Lok

Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is
Referred for the decision to:
(A) Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha
(B) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) The President of India
(D) A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha

26. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy in

the Constitution of India?
(A) Organization of village panchayats
(B) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(C) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of
enquiry and reform
(D) Protection of monuments and places and objects of national
importance

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27. Consider the following and identify the correct statement(s).

A. A President of India is not eligible for re‐election

B. Lok Sabha is the Upper House of Parliament

C. Total number of High Courts in India at present is 25

D. There is no constitutional provision for Deputy Prime‐Minister

in the Constitution of India

Choose the correct option(s) from the options given below

(A) A and B only (B) B and C only

(C) C and D only (D) D only

28. Exchange of Enclaves between India and Bangladesh was

Executed through
(A) 100 Constitutional Amendment Act
(B) 101 Constitutional Amendment Act
(C) 102 Constitutional Amendment Act
(D) 99 Constitutional Amendment Act

29. Supreme Court of India’s judgement in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy

(Retd.) and Anr. v Union of India and Ors is related to
(A) Right to Privacy (B) 2G Spectrum
(C) Coal gate Scam (D) Section 377 of IPC

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30. Article 44 of the Constitution of India is related to

(A) Uniform Civil Code for citizens
(B) Provision of early childhood care and education to children
below the age of 6 years
(C) The duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition
(D) Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry

31. Indian legal system confers citizenship in the following manner:

Choose the correct option:
A. By Birth
B. By Descent
C. By Naturalisation
D. By Registration
(A) A and B only (B) B and C only
(C) A, B and C only (D) All of these

32. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following

Fundamental rights cannot be suspended during national
Emergency?
(A) Article 19 and 21
(B) Article 14 and 21
(C) Article 14 and 19
(D) Article 20 and 21

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33. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 provides for special

Provisions for citizenship for migrants from the following
Countries:

A. Myanmar

B. Afghanistan

C. Bangladesh

D. Pakistan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(A) A, C and D only (B) B, C and D only

(C) A, B and C only (D) All of these

34. The pardoning power of the Governor of a state includes:

A. Power to pardon a sentence of life imprisonment

B. Power to grant pardon where the punishment or sentence is by

Court Martial

C. Power to remit a sentence.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A and C only (B) B and C only

(C) A only (D) All of these

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35. Who elects the representatives of the states in Rajya Sabha?

(A) Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
(B) All registered voters in India
(C) Elected Members of Parliament
(D) Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies and
Parliament

36. Which practices among the following constitute ‘corrupt practice’

In the Parliamentary election?
(A) Bribery
(B) Procuring assistance of the government servants
(C) Promoting the feeling of hatred and enmity between
Different classes of citizens on ground of religion, caste etc.
(D) All of these

37. What can be the maximum number of representatives of States

And Union Territories in the Council of States ?
(A) 238 (B) 240
(C) 245 (D) 250

38. Which Amendment of the Constitution of India reduced the

Voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
(A) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
(B) 69th Constitutional Amendment
(C) 61st Constitutional Amendment
(D) 83rd Constitutional Amendment

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39. The Election Commission of India does not have the power to
(A) Register a political party
(B) Re‐register a political party
(C) Conduct election to State Legislatures
(D) None of these

40. Which of the following option(s) are available for a party

Aggrieved by a decision of the Supreme Court of India?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

A. Curative Petition

B. Review Petition

C. Writ Petition

D. Public Interest Litigation

(A) A and B only (B) B, C and D only

(C) B and C only (D) All of these

41. Under Article 25 of the Constitution of India, the right to profess,

Practice and propagate religion is subject to the following
Restrictions:
(A) Public Interest (B) Morality
(C) Health (D) Other

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42. Provisions of Part III (Fundamental Rights) of the Constitution of

India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A and B only (B) B, C and D only

(C) B and C only (D) All of these

43. The provision relating to ex post facto law is embodied in

(A) Article 20 (1) (B) Article 20 (2)
(C) Article 20 (3) (D) Article 13 (2)

44. Which of the following terms was inserted in the Preamble of the
Constitution of India through the 42 Constitutional Amendments
Act?
(A) Sovereign (B) Democratic
(C) Secular (D) Unity

45. In India, the writ of prohibition may be issued, when there is

(A) Both an absence of jurisdiction or excess of jurisdiction &
Violation of principles of natural justice
(B) Violation of principles of natural justice
(C) An absence of jurisdiction or excess of jurisdiction
(D) A request to produce the body of the person

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46. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India, 1950 prescribes the

Forms of oaths or affirmations for constitutional functionaries?
(A) Sixth Schedule
(B) Second Schedule
(C) Fifth Schedule
(D) Third Schedule

47. Who declared a state of emergency in India under Article 352 of

The Constitution of India in the year 1975?
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Giani Zail Singh
(C) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(D) Sanjay Gandhi

48. Which of the following grounds can be invoked to restrict

Freedom of speech and expression according to the Constitution
Of India?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

A. Sovereignty and Integrity of India

B. Friendly relations with foreign States

C. Security of the State

D. Contempt of court

(A) A, B and D only (B) B, C and D only

(C) A, B and C only (D) All of these

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49. Who among the following has a casting vote over a bill in a joint
Parliamentary session?
(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Deputy Speaker of Rajya Sabha
(D) President of India

50. As per the Constitution of India the sovereignty of India lies with
(A) The Parliament of India
(B) The Supreme Court of India
(C) The People of India
(D) The Constitution of India

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