Test Bank for Organizational Behavior,

16/E By Stephen P. Robbins, Timothy

A. Judge
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CHAPTER 1: WHAT IS ORGANIZATIONAL BEHAVIOR?

1) ________ are defined as people who oversee the activities of others and who are responsible
for attaining goals in organizations.
A) Assistants
B) Managers
C) Secretaries
D) Interns
E) Apprentices
2) Sally Mitchell works as a manager at an environmental organization. She is currently working
on a global warming project and decides which tasks related to creating awareness about the issue
need to be done. In addition, she is also deciding which members of her team will work on
engaging with the public and which will work on lobbying with the government. She is also
assigning people as team members to ensure that tasks are undertaken on time. Which of the
following categories of functions is Mitchell undertaking?
A) planning
B) organizing
C) scrutinizing
D) controlling
E) envisioning
3) Johanna Reid, a campaign manager at a child rights organization, recently started working on
an illiteracy project. During the project, she needs to motivate team members to attain their
project milestones and direct them through different phases of the project. Which of the following
kinds of functions will these tasks be covered under?
A) planning
B) organizing
C) scrutinizing
D) evaluating
E) leading
4) Lesley Torres is a project manager for the campaign "Action against Deforestation in
Indonesia." She recently faced a glitch when the campaign could not be launched publicly
according to schedule. Torres monitored the schedule to find the cause of the delay before
speeding up the implementation process by allocating more members for the implementation
phase. By doing this, which of the following functions is she performing?
A) controlling
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B) planning
C) formulating
D) leading
E) organizing
5) Which of the following functions do managers undertake as part of planning functions?
A) defining an organization's goals
B) implementing strategies for achieving goals
C) executing plans to integrate activities
D) accomplishing goals of a project
E) employing strategies to coordinate tasks
6) According to Henry Mintzberg, a factory supervisor giving a group of high school students a
tour of the plant may be termed as a ________.
A) leader
B) figurehead
C) resource allocator
D) negotiator
E) disturbance handler
7) Ellen Ortiz works as a sales manager at a telecom firm. The company has recently launched a
new product in the market. Her work in the next few weeks involves sharing knowledge about the
product with her team members. She will also need to inspire them to reach their sales targets and
clarify any doubts about the new product. Which of the following roles is Ortiz playing?
A) leader
B) liaison
C) disseminator
D) spokesperson
E) negotiator
8) Regina George works as a campaign manager in a not-for-profit organization in Hampshire.
For the upcoming campaign against genetic engineering, she is networking with managers who
are working on the issue of food safety. Through her network of contacts, she strives to gain
information about the stakeholders in the food industry and other lobby groups. Which of the
following roles is George most likely to be playing according to Mintzberg's classification of
managerial roles?
A) figurehead
B) leader
C) liaison
D) entrepreneur
E) resource allocator
9) Annette Simpson works for a fashion house in Paris and is preparing for the company's
upcoming line of winter clothing. She is currently researching online to know what is in vogue
this season. In addition, she is also networking with contacts from the press and fashion magazine
editors to understand the changing tastes of consumers. Which of the following roles is Simpson
playing according to Mintzberg's classification of managerial roles?
A) figurehead
B) leader
C) symbol head
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D) monitor
E) spokesperson
10) According to Mintzberg's classification of managerial roles, the role of a(n) ________ is to
transmit information received from outsiders or from other employees to members of the
organization.
A) entrepreneur
B) resource allocator
C) spokesperson
D) leader
E) disseminator
CHAPTER: 2 DIVERSITY IN ORGANIZATIONS
1) Kimberly Ortiz strongly believes in working for a company which promotes diversity. She
believes that such organizations are respectful of differences and allow employees more exposure.
She recently attended an interview where she was told that the company follows policies which
focus on organizational diversity. However, when she finally joined the company, she had a
strong feeling that the company's claim was not true. Which of the following, if true, weakens
Kimberly's belief that the company does not encourage diversity?
A) Eighty-five percent of the top management positions in the company are held by men.
B) She is the only African-American member in the entire workforce.
C) The workforce is not dominated by any specific ethnic or racial group.
D) The previous company she worked for made a conscious effort to employ an equal number of
men and women.
E) Her team members believe that they are treated equally in spite of differences in performance.
2) ________ diversity refers to diversity in observable attributes such as race, ethnicity, sex, and
age.
A) Psychographic
B) Additive
C) Surface-level
D) Disjunctive
E) Conjunctive
3) Which of the following is true with respect to surface-level diversity?
A) It refers to psychographic characteristics of the members of a group.
B) People with surface-level diversity will also share deep-level diversity.
C) It indicates differences of values, emotions and personality traits between people.
D) It refers to differences in easily perceived characteristics, such as gender and race.
E) It represents a person's or group's thought processes and feelings.
4) Differences in ________ indicate surface-level diversity.
A) personality
B) values
C) style of work
D) ethnicity
E) attitudes
5) Which of the following most likely indicates surface-level similarity?
A) Tim and Jake are colleagues who take risks and are quick decision makers.
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B) The employees at GenSys prefer teamwork over individual assignments.
C) Nina and Chuck are colleagues who share similar views on corporate social responsibility.
D) Jane and Sara grew up in the same town and went to school together.
E) Hannah and Nate are both introspective and tend to be slow to reach decisions.
6) ________ diversity refers to diversity with respect to attributes that are less easy to observe
initially but that can be inferred after more direct experience.
A) Surface-level
B) Additive
C) Demographic
D) Deep-level
E) Conjunctive
7) Which of the following best represents deep-level similarity?
A) colleagues who both hail from the same neighborhood in Alabama
B) employees who are college graduates with a degree in business management
C) employees who speak Spanish and share similar religious values
D) employees who seek challenges in assignments and like to work collaboratively
E) employees in their mid-thirties with 10 years' work experience in the publishing industry
CHAPTER 3: ATTITUDES AND JOB SATISFACTION
1) ________ refers to evaluative statements or judgments concerning objects, people, or events.
A) Attitude
B) Behavior
C) Appearance
D) Demeanor
E) Performance
2) The statement, "A person who eats meat and then fights for animal rights demonstrates double
standards" is an evaluative statement. Such an opinion constitutes the ________ component of an
attitude.
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) reflective
D) behavioral
E) reactive
3) Which of the following statements represents the cognitive component of attitude?
A) I have decided to inform my supervisor that I will be quitting my job.
B) I intend to work during the weekend to meet the month's deadline.
C) I feel upset about having to work during Christmas.
D) It is disappointing to know that I did not get a good evaluation.
E) This job is not giving me an opportunity to explore my skills.
4) Abigail Jones is a sales executive at Orbit Bank in Brussels. She is the best performer on her
team and often gets the highest number of corporate accounts for the company. However, she
feels that she does not get sufficient credit for her hard work. During lunch, she says to her
colleague, "I have been getting the largest accounts for the bank for the past eight months. Yet,
my manager never acknowledges the kind of effort I put in to get these accounts." Which
component of attitude is being demonstrated by Jones?
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A) positive component
B) cognitive component
C) affective component
D) behavioral component
E) reflective component
5) Which of the following is an example of the affective component of an attitude?
A) believing that one achieved all objectives of a project
B) relying on the information of a company's annual report
C) perceiving whistle-blowing as the right thing to do
D) feeling hurt at being unfairly accused of a wrongdoing
E) deciding to fire an employee because of underperformance
6) Johanna Rouse feels disheartened because she was not selected for the campaign exchange
program in Amsterdam. Which component of an attitude does Rouse's feeling represent?
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) reflective
D) behavioral
E) reactive
7) Janice Hartley works as a writer at a fashion magazine in New York. She was recently asked by
her editor to write an article on "10 must-haves for the autumn season." Her editor has now sent
back the article saying it is not interesting enough to hold the attention of the reader. Janice is
upset and disappointed about the feedback. Which component of an attitude is represented in this
scenario?
A) positive component
B) cognitive component
C) affective component
D) behavioral component
E) evaluative component
8) Kimberley Mayfield recently evaluated her subordinate's progress report. She now plans to
inform her about the objectives she did not achieve and how she can perform better. By doing
this, Mayfield will be demonstrating the ________ component of an attitude.
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) reflective
D) behavioral
E) reactive
9) Which of the following statements is an example of the behavioral component of an attitude?
A) I have decided to apply for the position of a campaigner in the climate department.
B) I am thrilled to know that the human resource department is looking for a climate campaigner.
C) The position of a climate campaigner is challenging and interesting.
D) The position of a climate campaigner will allow me to explore my skills as a campaigner.
E) I think the position of a climate campaigner involves extensive travel.
10) Sarah Mayer works as a security officer and is in charge of keeping track of who is in the
office at any given time. She notices that some employees do not sign out of the office when they
go out for meals, which makes it difficult to keep track of attendance of employees. Even though
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Mayer has repeatedly asked the employees to sign out, they have not followed her advice. She
now decides to report the issue to her supervisor. Which of the following components of an
attitude is being demonstrated by Mayer?
A) affective
B) behavioral
C) positive
D) cognitive
E) knowledge
CHAPTER 4: EMOTIONS AND MOODS
1) Which of the following is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people
experience?
A) affect
B) knowledge
C) insight
D) attention
E) cognition
2) Which of the following is a characteristic of emotions?
A) Emotions are reactions to a person or event.
B) Emotions last for a longer time period than moods.
C) Emotions are never action-oriented in nature.
D) Emotions lack a contextual stimulus.
E) Emotions involve less intense feelings than moods.
3) Which of the following terms best describes an intense feeling directed at someone or
something?
A) perception
B) cognition
C) mood
D) reasoning
E) emotion
4) Ashley Madison works as a receptionist at a fashion magazine. One morning, her boss walks
into the office and yells at her, telling her that the front office is a mess and she needs to clean it
immediately. After her boss leaves the room, Madison goes to the front office and violently slams
trash into the bin. Which of the following best describes Madison's anger?
A) a recognition
B) an insight
C) a mood
D) an emotion
E) a perception
5) ________ refers to feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and that lack a contextual
stimulus.
A) Affect
B) Cognition
C) Mood
D) Thought
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E) Reaction
6) Robert Springer woke up in the morning and felt a sense of joy and peace as he got ready for
work. At work, though challenges came his way, he tackled them without getting stressed about
them. This feeling lasted for several days that week. What is one of the reasons that Springer's
feeling can be categorized as a mood and not as an emotion?
A) It is more intense than emotions.
B) It is brought about by a specific event.
C) It is prolonged in nature.
D) It is a positive feeling.
E) It is indicated by a facial expression.
7) When Ariana Winter is told that her dog has been killed by a car, she feels deeply saddened.
Her feelings are then overcome by a surge of anger at the car driver. However, minutes later, she
is able to laugh and talk about the good memories spent with her pet. What is one of the reasons
that Winter's reaction can be categorized as an emotion?
A) Its cause is general and ambiguous.
B) It lasted for a brief time period.
C) It is not action-oriented.
D) It is a negative feeling.
E) It is cognitive in nature.
8) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding moods?
A) Moods are always brought about by a specific event.
B) Moods last for a very short period of time, such as a few seconds.
C) As compared to emotions, moods are more likely to be clearly revealed by facial expressions.
D) Moods are more fleeting than emotions.
E) Moods are cognitive in nature.
9) Katherine Connor started her day with a cup of coffee while reading the newspaper. However,
something about the day makes her feel low. When she reaches the office, she feels upset and
distracted from work although she cannot pinpoint a reason for feeling this way. She continues to
feel upset and distracted through the rest of the day. Which of the following is she most likely to
be experiencing?
A) a response
B) a reaction
C) a counteraction
D) an attitude
E) a mood
10) Erin Corbett works at a software company and is in charge of the help desk. A short while
ago, she received a call from a discontented customer about a problem he is facing due to the
company's software. Though she tried to help the customer with the software, he refused to listen
to her. He continued yelling at her and finally banged the phone down. Corbett feels exasperated
after hanging up the phone and goes for a cup of coffee to calm herself down. What makes
Corbett's anger an emotion, rather than a mood?
A) The cause of her behavior is unclear.
B) The feeling of being angry is prolonged.
C) The anger has a contextual stimulus.
D) The response is void of action.
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E) The response is cognitive in nature.
8) Malcolm Industries recently hired a large number of workers for the company's new
construction factory in Colorado. During the hiring process, the management made a clear effort
to recruit physically strong individuals because the work at the factory involves manual labor. The
jobs need to be performed by individuals who have the energy and physical stamina to work for
long hours. Which of the following surface-level characteristics did the company most likely
concentrate on when selecting the new workers?
A) age
B) values
C) beliefs
D) religion
E) personality
9) A difference in ________ would indicate deep-level diversity.
A) gender
B) age
C) ethnicity
D) disability
E) values
10) ________ differences between people represent deep-level diversity.
A) Race
B) Age
C) Ethnicity
D) Gender
E) Personality
CHAPTER 5: PERSONALITY AND VALUES
1) According to Gordon Allport, ________ is defined as the dynamic organization within the
individual of those psychophysical systems that determine a person's unique adjustments to
his/her environment.
A) cognitive dissonance
B) heredity
C) personality
D) descent
E) genealogy
2) Who defined personality as the dynamic organization within the individual of those
psychophysical systems that determine a person's unique adjustments to his/her environment?
A) Leon Festinger
B) Dr. Sigmund Freud
C) Gordon Allport
D) Abraham Maslow
E) Ivan Pavlov
3) ________ is the sum total of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others.
A) Talent
B) Skill
C) Knowledge
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D) Heredity
E) Personality
4) Esther Lugo has gone for an interview at an advertising firm in Manhattan and has been asked
to complete a self-report survey to help interviewers understand if she is the right candidate for
the job. From the interview, they have found that she is extroverted, empathic, scrupulous, and
cooperative in nature, which are key characteristics needed for the job. These characteristics about
Lugo indicate her ________.
A) talent
B) skill
C) knowledge
D) genealogy
E) personality
5) Which of the following is the most common means of measuring personality?
A) in-depth interviews
B) self-report surveys
C) career portfolio
D) reference interviews
E) stress interviews
6) Which of the following is a drawback of self-report surveys?
A) They can hold only a limited number of questions.
B) They involve a large number of people in the evaluation process.
C) They may have biased results if the surveyor's judgment is biased.
D) They comprise a large number of complex statistical data.
E) They may result in the respondent lying to create a good impression.
7) In ________, a co-worker or another observer does an independent assessment of personality,
with or without the subject's knowledge.
A) observer-ratings surveys
B) paid surveys
C) knowledge surveys
D) deviation surveys
E) cadastral surveys
8) Tracy Winter works at a publishing firm in London and recently received an e-mail from the
human resource department of her company asking her to study the behavior of a colleague,
Cindy Camp, including her attention toward her work, without Camp’s knowledge. Winter now
needs to scrutinize Camp's behavior and notice if she is free from distractions and pays sufficient
attention to her tasks. Which of the following is Winter conducting?
A) observer-ratings survey
B) informational interview
C) knowledge survey
D) participant observation
E) focus group survey
9) Which of the following terms refers to factors such as one's biological, physiological, and
inherent psychological makeup determined at conception?
A) social identity
B) heredity
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C) behavioral contagion
D) self-concordance
E) social loafing
10) Which of the following statements is true about personality?
A) Personality is free from the influence of the environment.
B) Personality remains constant over time.
C) Personality can be measured solely through personal interviews.
D) Personality is influenced by hereditary factors.
E) Parents highly influence the development of their offspring's personality.
CHAPTER 6: PERCEPTION AND INDIVIDUAL DECISION MAKING
1) ________ is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions
in order to give meaning to their environment.
A) Sensation
B) Impression
C) Apprehension
D) Attribution
E) Perception
2) Which of the following statements is true regarding perception?
A) Perception of reality is independent of one's personality.
B) Our perception of a target is not affected by the context of the situation in which the perception
is made.
C) Our perception of reality can be different from the objective reality.
D) Our perception of reality is independent of our past experiences.
E) We form a perception of a target by looking at it in isolation.
3) When two people witness something at the same time and in the same situation yet interpret it
differently, factors that operate to shape their perceptions reside in the ________.
A) perceivers
B) target
C) timing
D) context
E) situation
4) David Myers is of the opinion that people who drive SUVs are rash drivers. He feels that
people driving SUVs do not respect road rules and always violate traffic regulations. What
personal factor is most likely to be affecting Myers' perception of SUV drivers?
A) his financial background
B) his expectations
C) his interest
D) his motive
E) his personality
5) Extremely attractive or unattractive individuals are most likely to be noticed in a group. Which
of the following statements best describes the reason behind this?
A) Our perception of reality depends on our past experiences.
B) Our perception of reality depends on our personality.
C) We don't look at targets in isolation.
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D) The time at which we see an object can influence our perception of the object.
E) Our motives and expectations affect our perception of a target.
6) During team meetings Amber Downing always notices that Rhona Law tends to ask
innumerable questions and suggest ideas at each discussion. However, Law stands out in the
meetings only because she is the only one making suggestions. If both of them were part of team
meetings where almost all members made suggestions and asked questions, Law would not have
drawn as much attention from Downing. Which of the following factors has most likely
influenced Downing's perception of Law?
A) expectation
B) interest
C) past experience
D) context
E) motive
7) Monica Walden feels that people who use plastic bags are insensitive toward the environment.
She believes that people have a certain obligation toward their environment and should take it
upon themselves to protect and preserve it. Which of the following factors has most likely
influenced Walden's perception of plastic bag users?
A) location
B) time
C) characteristic of the target
D) expectation
E) context
8) Which of the following is a factor present in a target which may affect a person's perception?
A) attitude
B) motive
C) interest
D) novelty
E) experience
9) Which of the following is a factor present in a situation which may affect a person's
perception?
A) similarity
B) size
C) expectation
D) time
E) experience
10) Which of the following is a factor present in a perceiver which may affect perception?
A) interest
B) similarity
C) sound
D) proximity
E) background
CHAPTER 7: MOTIVATION CONCEPTS
1) ________ is defined as the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and
persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.
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A) Leadership
B) Management
C) Learning
D) Emotional labor
E) Motivation
2) The ________ dimension of motivation measures how long a person can maintain effort.
A) direction
B) persistence
C) intensity
D) knowledge
E) experience
3) The ________ element of motivation describes how hard a person tries.
A) intelligence
B) experience
C) direction
D) intensity
E) persistence
4) Which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs deals with satisfying one's hunger, thirst, and other
bodily needs?
A) safety
B) physiological
C) social
D) esteem
E) psychological
5) Which of the following needs would most likely motivate Joanna?
A) social
B) esteem
C) physiological
D) self-actualization
E) safety
6) Which of the following needs would most likely motivate Josephine?
A) social
B) esteem
C) physiological
D) self-actualization
E) safety
7) Which of the following needs would most motivate Jonathan?
A) social
B) esteem
C) physiological
D) self-actualization
E) safety
8) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following is a lower-order need?
A) social
B) safety
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C) esteem
D) self-actualization
E) recognition
9) If we consider Maslow's hierarchy of needs in the context of Japan, Greece, and Mexico, where
uncertainty-avoidance characteristics are strong, then ________ needs would be on top of the
hierarchy.
A) self-actualization
B) security
C) social
D) esteem
E) growth
10) Which of the following needs in Maslow's hierarchy refers to the drive to become what one is
capable of becoming?
A) social
B) self-actualization
C) physiological
D) esteem
E) safety
CHAPTER 8: MOTIVATION: FROM CONCEPTS TO APPLICATIONS
1) ________ is not a benefit of flextime.
A) Reduced absenteeism
B) Decreased work/life balance
C) Increased productivity
D) Reduced tardiness
E) Increased autonomy
2) Job design is defined as the ________.
A) degree to which the job rewards competence
B) way the elements in a job are organized
C) degree to which the job contributes to profit margins
D) degree of decision-making power with the immediate superiors
E) way the job is evaluated in terms of its relative worth to other jobs
3) With reference to the job characteristics model, which of the following defines skill variety?
A) the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work
B) the degree to which work activities generate direct and clear information about performance
C) the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling and procedure
D) the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people
E) the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities tapping different abilities
4) With reference to the job characteristics model, which of the following defines task identity?
A) the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work
B) the degree to which work activities generate direct and clear information about performance
C) the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling and procedure
D) the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people
E) the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities
5) Adam Sears is an assembly line employee with Swenson Motors. Though Adam is popular
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among his supervisors and colleagues, Adam experiences low morale and lack of motivation. He
feels frustrated that his job is restricted to fixing nuts and bolts on the car parts. He fears that he
has no chances of advancing in his career as he cannot completely assemble a car. Which of the
following is true with regard to Adam?
A) Adam's job has high task complexity.
B) Adam's job has a high span of control.
C) Adam's job has low role definition.
D) Adam's job has low task identity.
E) Adam's job has high task significance.
6) According to the job characteristics model, task significance is the degree to which ________.
A) a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work
B) a job generates direct and clear information about performance
C) a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling work and determining its procedure
D) a job bears an impact on the lives or work of other people
E) a job requires a variety of different activities
7) Samantha Barnes is an emergency medical technician. Recently, during an emergency call, she
was able to resuscitate a man who had a cardiac arrest. Subsequently, she spent some time
calming the 12-year-old daughter of the patient and looked after her till the rest of the patient's
family arrived at the hospital. Based on this description, it can be concluded that Samantha's job is
high in ________.
A) task identity
B) feedback
C) extrinsic rewards
D) task significance
E) job rotation
8) According to the job characteristics model, autonomy is defined as the degree to which
________.
A) a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work
B) a job generates direct and clear information about performance
C) a job provides the worker freedom, independence, and discretion
D) a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people
E) a job requires a variety of different activities
9) According to the job characteristics model, ________ indicates the degree to which carrying
out work activities generates direct and clear information about your own performance.
A) task significance
B) autonomy
C) feedback
D) task identity
E) skill variety
10) Which of the following series of dimensions of the job characteristics model (JCM) combine
to create meaningful work?
A) autonomy, task identity, and feedback
B) skill variety, autonomy, and task significance
C) skill variety, autonomy, and feedback

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D) feedback, task identity, and task significance
E) skill variety, task identity, and task significance
CHAPTER 9: FOUNDATIONS OF GROUP BEHAVIOR
1) Which of the following is true with regard to groups?
A) A group is characterized by the independence of its members.
B) A group typically lacks definite roles and structures.
C) A group influences our emotional reactions.
D) An informal gathering cannot be considered a group.
E) The membership of a group does not affect how its members treat outsiders.
2) Which of the following is true regarding formal groups?
A) They are natural formations that arise in response to the need for social contact.
B) They lack clearly defined structures and roles for their members.
C) They have negligible impact on employee performance and behavior.
D) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law make up a formal group.
E) They are marked by stipulated behaviors in pursuit of organizational goals.
3) An informal group is characterized by the ________.
A) stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization
B) predetermined designation of tasks of members
C) pursuit of particular organizational goals
D) fulfillment of the need for social contact
E) creation of timelines and rationale
4) Which of the following differentiates between formal and informal groups?
A) The timeline of reference for formal groups is greater than that for informal groups.
B) The impact of formal groups on organizational performance is less than that of informal
groups.
C) Formal groups pursue the goal of social contact, while informal groups have definite
organizational goals to attain.
D) Formal groups are typically smaller in size when compared to informal groups.
E) Formal groups involve clearly defined tasks and roles, while informal groups are neither
formally structured nor organizationally determined.
5) Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a
part of is the territory of the ________ theory.
A) social exchange
B) expectancy
C) social identity
D) reinforcement
E) equity
6) Which of the following is true with regard to the social identity theory?
A) It proposes that members take personal pride in accomplishments but dissociate from the
group in the event of any offenses or failures.
B) It proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group
because their self-esteem is tied into the group's performance.
C) It proposes that people develop only one social identity in childhood that becomes more
defined and concrete in the course of their lives.
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D) It proposes that social identities can never be detrimental as they have no effect on how
members of an ingroup view members of an out-group.
E) It proposes that members of an ingroup are viewed as being homogeneous, while members of
an out-group are seen as being heterogeneous.
7) ________ is defined as the tendency to see members of the group of which we are a part of as
better than other people.
A) Ingroup homogeneity
B) Xenocentrism
C) Ingroup favoritism
D) Black sheep effect
E) Hindsight bias
8) At Milton farms, where a large part of the management comes from the same sociocultural
background, many employees of diverse ethical or cultural origins are hired only to ensure legal
compliance with laws relating to diversity at the workplace. The company's day-to-day
functioning leaves much to be desired in terms of promoting diversity. Recently, the owner's
cousin was promoted to the post of a branch manager while three suitable candidates hailing from
different cultures were blatantly overlooked. This is an example of ________.
A) social loafing
B) ingroup favoritism
C) groupthink
D) contrast bias
E) social exchange
9) Aaron Dias was working on the last shift for the day at All Needs, a retail store owned by an
Asian man, when he opened the cash register and stole some money thinking that nobody would
witness him stealing. However, one of the customers watched him steal the money and reported it
to the manager the next day, and Aaron was terminated. Subsequently, the manager became
extremely strict with all his Caucasian employees and was often heard abusing them by saying,
"You guys are all the same." This scenario depicts ________.
A) social loafing
B) ingroup favoritism
C) groupthink
D) contrast bias
E) social exchange
10) Similarity is a characteristic under the social identity theory that manifests itself in the
________.
A) tendency of ingroup members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they
are from other groups
B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater
group identification as well
C) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves
favorably
D) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit
into the world
E) tendency of ingroup members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of
someone else's culture over their own
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CHAPTER 10: UNDERSTANDING WORK TEAMS
1) The current popularity of teams can be attributed to the fact that ________.
A) they enable quicker accomplishment of goals than individuals
B) they represent a better way to use employee talents
C) they reduce the need for coordination and supervision
D) they aid in the performance of simple tasks that do not require diverse inputs
E) they strengthen the worth of individual teams players over the team
2) Which of the following statements best defines a work group?
A) A work group performs at a level greater than the sum of its inputs from individual members.
B) A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work that
requires joint effort.
C) A work group consists of members who work together and generate positive synergy through
coordinated effort.
D) A work group consists of members having complementary skills that are applied in a
coordinated fashion to the task at hand.
E) A work group involves individual and mutual accountability regarding results and outcomes.
3) Work groups are characterized by ________.
A) the emphasis on generating positive synergy
B) the goal of sharing information among members
C) the mutual and team-based accountability for results
D) the need to attain collective performance
E) the availability of complementary skill sets
4) The goal of work groups is ________.
A) generating positive synergy
B) improving collective performance
C) inculcating a climate of trust
D) sharing relevant information
E) enhancing team efficacy
5) Which of the following statements is true regarding a work team?
A) Work teams are rarely used in organizations today.
B) Work teams are generally less flexible than traditional departments.
C) Work teams generate positive synergy through coordinated effort.
D) Work teams are less responsive to changes in the internal and external environment of the
company.
E) Work teams involve members of random and varied skill sets.
6) A work team is characterized by ________.
A) the goal of sharing information
B) the presence of neutral to negative synergy
C) the availability of complementary skills among members
D) the individual accountability for outcomes and results
E) the mere accumulation of individual efforts
7) Which of the following accurately differentiates between work groups and work teams?
A) Work groups are used by top-management employees, while work teams are used by lower-
level workers.

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B) Work groups are used for functions relating to areas of the external environment, while work
teams are exclusively used for departmental problems and issues.
C) Work groups involve members who have complementary skills, while work teams use
employees who have random and varied skills.
D) Work teams generate a potential for an organization to generate greater outputs with no
increase in inputs, while work groups cannot perform this function.
E) Work teams represent the mere accumulation of individual efforts, while work groups generate
a positive synergy within the organization.
8) The extensive use of work teams benefits organizations by ________.
A) generating neutral synergy among all employees of the team
B) eliminating the need for mutual accountability for results
C) developing the various team member's skills such that they are random and varied
D) generating a potential for creating greater outputs without increasing inputs
E) ensuring that the mere accumulation of individual efforts is used for group work
9) A team consists of employees from the same department who meet for a few hours each week
to discuss ways of improving the work environment but they do not have the authority to
unilaterally implement any of their suggestions. This is most likely to be a(n) ________ team.
A) cross-functional
B) virtual
C) self-managed work
D) problem-solving
E) independent
10) Problem-solving teams can ________.
A) implement the recommended changes to resolve a problem
B) assume responsibility for the outcomes of a solution they implemented
C) provide recommendations after a discussion amongst department members
D) resolve problems of different departments in an organization simultaneously
E) combine the expertise of employees across different divisions and organizational levels
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