De Thi Thu Ban Goc Tam

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.

Question 1: What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
A. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.
B. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.
C. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears.
D. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night.
Question 2: What a pity! I did not take my camera.
A. If only I had taken my camera. B. My camera used to be taken.
C. I regret taking my camera. D. I wish I took my camera
Question 3: We asked some workers to redecorate the house last year.
A. We had the house redecorated last year.
B. We redecorated the house by ourselves last year.
C. The workers refused to redecorate the house last year.
D. The house was not redecorated by any workers last year.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 4: A. penalize B. athletic C. amateur D. synchronize
Question 5: A. provide B. precede C. mistake D. follow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 6: In remote communities, it's important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.
A. remake B. refill C. repeat D. empty
Question 7: Strongly advocating health foods, Jane doesn’t eat any chocolate.
A. advising B. impugning C. promoting D. supporting
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 8: In America, when a woman and a man are introduced, shaking hands is up to the woman.
A. replies on B. depends on C. waits on D. congratulates on
Question 9: Thanks to better healthcare, there are more and more centenarians nowadays.
A. people who live 100 years or more B. people who suffer from fatal diseases
C. children whose parents can’t afford their study D. children who die at birth
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions
Question 10: We wouldn’t share our opinions so quickly if there isn’t Internet connectivity.
A. opinions B. if C. isn’t D. wouldn’t share
Question 11: Having weekly family talks can be an important means of exploring sensitive family issues,
redefining sibling relationships, and to foster new familial bonds.
A. means B. sibling C. Having D. to foster
Question 12: The lifestyle of the people who live in each culture area reflect the geography of that area.
A. geography B. lifestyle C. reflect D. who
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 13: A. married B. returned C. obliged D. attended
Question 14: A. student B. university C. uniform D. customer
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 15 to 21.
In the past, both men and women were expected to be married at quite young ages. Marriages
were generally arranged by parents and family, with their children having little chance to say no in the
matter. In the past it was not surprising to find that a bride and groom had only just met on the day of their
engagement or marriage.
In modern Vietnam, this has changed completely as people choose their own marriage-partners based
on love, and in consideration primarily to their own needs and wants. Moreover, early marriage is quite illegal.
The traditional Vietnamese wedding is one of the most important of traditional Vietnamese occasions.
Regardless of westernization, many of the age-old customs practiced in a traditional Vietnamese wedding
Trang 1/4 - Mã đề thi 201
continue to be celebrated by both Vietnamese in Vietnam and overseas, often combining both western and
eastern elements. Besides the wedding ceremony, there is also an engagement ceremony which takes place
usually half a year or so before the wedding. The number of guests in attendance at these banquets is huge,
usually in the hundreds. Several special dishes are served. Guests are expected to bring gifts, often money,
which the groom and bride at one point in the banquet will go from table to table collecting.
Question 15: In the past, ________.
A. parents had no right to interfere their children's marriage
B. Vietnamese couples were free to make a decision on the marriage
C. Vietnamese marriage was decided by parents and family
D. getting married at an early age was not allowed
Question 16: With what is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The change in marriages in Vietnam. B. Marriages in modern Vietnam.
C. Traditional marriages in Vietnam. D. The traditional Vietnamese wedding.
Question 17: In former days, the fact that a bride and groom had only first met just on the day of their
engagement or marriage was ________.
A. surprising B. popular C. uncommon D. strange
Question 18: According to the passage, ________.
A. overseas Vietnamese people do not like to organize a traditional wedding
B. many of the age-old customs practised in a traditional Vietnamese wedding do not exist nowadays
C. there is an engagement ceremony which takes place usually half a year or so before the wedding
D. there are usually thousands of guests attending the wedding banquet
Question 19: Which sentence is referred about Vietnamese modern marriage, according to the passage?
A. All marriages are arranged by parents and family. B. Couples do not get married at quite young ages.
C. Most young people do not have their marriage based on love. D. Marriage is quite westernization.
Question 20: What does the word "which" in line 13 refer to?
A. Money and gifts. B. Gifts. C. Guests. D. Money.
Question 21: Which does NOT exist in a Vietnamese wedding party?
A. Firecrackers. B. Dishes. C. Gifts. D. Guests.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 22: Hartford is the capital of Connecticut. It is the second largest city in the state.
A. Hartford, the capital of Connecticut, is the second largest city in the state.
B. The capital of Connecticut, Hartford which is the second largest city in the state.
C. Hartford, the second largest city in the state, which is the capital of Connecticut.
D. Hartford, the capital of Connecticut, that is the second largest city in the state.
Question 23: He had just finished eating his breakfast. Then he fell down.
A. Hardly had he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down.
B. Hardly he had finished eating his breakfast when he fell down.
C. Hardly did he finish eating his breakfast when he fell down.
D. Hardly have he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Lora: “How did you feel when you first started work?” - Jane: “___________”
A. Not at all. B. I don’t think so.
C. A bit nervous. D. Thanks for asking me.
Question 25: Tim: “What are you going to do for the vacation?” - Tom: “____________”
A. That sounds great. B. How about you? What will you do?
C. I’m not sure, but I might go camping for a few days. D. I will take some tests.
You can usually tell when your friends are happy or angry by the looks on their faces or by their actions.
This is useful because reading their emotional expressions helps you to know how to respond to them. Emotions
have evolved to help us respond to important situations and to convey our intentions to others. But does raising the
eyebrows and rounding the mouth say the same thing in Minneapolis as it does in Madagascar? Much research on
emotional expressions has centered on such questions.

According to Paul Ekman, the leading researcher in this area, people speak and understand substantially the
same “facial language”. Studies by Ekman’s group have demonstrated that humans share a set of universal
emotional expressions that testify to the common biological heritage of the human species. Smiles, for example,
signal happiness and frowns indicate sadness on the faces of people in such far-flung places as Argentina, Japan,
Spain, Hungary, Poland, Sumatra,the United States, Vietnam, the jungles of New Guinea, and the Eskimo villages
north of Artic Circle. Ekman and his colleagues claim that people everywhere can recognize at least seven basic
emotions: sadness, fear, anger, disgust, contempt, happiness, and surprise. There are, however, huge differences
across cultures in both the context and intensity of emotional displays – the so-called display rules. In many Asian
cultures, for example, children are taught to control emotional responses, especially negative ones, while many
American children are encouraged to express their feelings more openly. Regardless of culture, however, emotions
usually show themselves, to some degree, in people’s behavior. From their first days of life, babies produce facial
expressions that communicate their feelings.
The ability to read facial expressions develops early, too. Very young children pay close attention to
facial expressions, and by age five, they nearly equal adults in their skill at reading emotions on people’s
faces. This evidence all points to a biological underpinning for our abilities to express and interpret a basic set
of human emotions. Moreover, as Charles Darwin pointed out over a century ago, some emotional expressions
seem to appear across species boundaries. Cross-cultural psychologists tell us that certain emotional responses
carry different meanings in different cultures. For example, what emotion do you suppose might be conveyed
by sticking out your tongue? For Americans, this might indicate disgust, while in China it can signify surprise.
Likewise, a grin on an American face may indicate joy, while on a Japanese face it may just as easily mean
embarrassment. Clearly, culture influences emotional expressions.
Question 26: According to the passage, we respond to others by______.
A. watching their actions B. observing their emotional expressions
C. observing their looks D. looking at their faces
Question 27: Many studies on emotional expressions try to answer the question whether ______.
A. raising the eyebrows has similar meaning to rounding the mouth
B. eyebrow raising means the same in Minneapolis and Madagascar
C. different cultures have similar emotional expressions
D. rounding the mouth has the same meaning in Minneapolis and Madagascar
Question 28: The word “evolved” in line 3 is closest in meaning to______.
A. reduced B. increased C. simplified D. developed
Question 29: Paul Ekman is mentioned in the passage as an example of______.
A. investigators on universal emotional expressions
B. researchers on universal language
C. researchers who can speak and understand many languages
D. communicators good at expressing emotions
Question 30: The biggest difference lies in_________.
A. how long negative emotions are displayed B. how intensive emotions are expressed
C. how emotional responses are controlled D. how often positive emotions are shown
Question 31: Unlike American children, Asian children are taught to_______.
A. display their emotions openly B. control their emotions
C. conceal their positive emotions D. change their behaviour
Question 32: The phrase “This evidence” in line 20 refers to________.
A. the fact that children are good at recognizing others’ emotions
B. human facial expressions
C. a biological underpinning for humans to express emotions
D. the fact that children can control their feelings
Question 33: The best title for the passage is_______.
A. Cultural universals in emotional expressions B. Ways to control emotional expressions
C. Review of research on emotional expressions D. Human habits of displaying emotions
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
BRINGING THE LEARNING OUTDOORS

Kindergarten is a fun place (34) ______ young children learn. In some special kindergartens, children
learn outside most of the day!
Some kindergartens are (35) ______ the forest. In these forest kindergartens, children play freely. They're
outside in all kinds of weather. At forest kindergartens, children learn by climbing trees and picking fruit. They
also learn about and (36) ______ animals. For example, they collect chicken eggs and feed baby mice.
Little Flower Kindergarten is in Dong Nai, Vietnam. At this school, children learn about farming. They
also learn that it is important (37) ______ healthy food. They grow vegetables in gardens - on the roof! They eat
the vegetables they grow in their lunches.
At Fuji Kindergarten in Tokyo, Japan, trees grow inside the building! The classroom windows and sliding
doors (38) ______ open to the outside most of the year. The roof is a big, wooden circle. Children love to play
and run on it. (Source: Discoveries magazine, April 2016)
Question 34: A. why B. which C. when D. where
Question 35: A. at B. on C. in D. by
Question 36: A. take care of B. take over C. take after D. take on
Question 37: A. to eat B. eating C. ate D. eaten
Question 38: A. make B. stay C. do D. be
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions from 39 to 50.
Question 39: Mr. Pike _____ for this company for more than thirty years, and he intends to stay here until he _______.
A. worked/ retires B. is working/ will retire
C. has worked/ retires D. works/ is retiring
Question 40: The noise of the typewriter really ______ me off. I just couldn’t concentrate.
A. set B. took C. pulled D. put
Question 41: ______ we save, ______ we can buy a new house.
A. More money/ the soon B. The much money/ the less soon
C. The more money/ the sooner D. More money/ sooner
Question 42: My father _____ an interest in collecting stamps some years ago and now he has a valuable
stamp collection.
A. kept in B. took up C. went over D. got on
Question 43: You _____ the washing. My sister could have done it for you.
A. couldn't have done B. hadn't to do C. mustn't have done D. needn't have done
Question 44: Mountain gorillas are endangered species _______ habitats are being destroyed.
A. which B. that C. why D. whose
Question 45: ______ she got the salary last week, she has complained that she is out of money.
A. In case B. Even though C. As D. Unless
Question 46: We believe that the conservation of natural resources and habitats should be part of technological
and economic ________.
A. strength B. development C. blossom D. increase
Question 47: Neither the mother nor the children ______ aware of the danger.
A. was B. has been C. is D. were
Question 48: The government has ______ measures to promote the development of the economy.
A. carried B. achieved C. taken D. made
Question 49: _____ not to come late, the applicant set out for his job interview quite early.
A. He was advised B. Advising C. Advised D. People advised him
Question 50: If we_____ earlier in the morning, we ______ at the village now.
A. had departed/ would arrive B. departed/ would have arrived
C. departed/ would arrived D. had departed/ would have arrived
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Question 1: As soon as he approached the house, the policeman stopped him.
A. Hardly had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him.
B. No sooner had he approached the house when the policeman stopped him.
C. Hardly he had approached the house when the policeman stopped him.
D. No sooner had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him.
Question 2: Anyone who misses more than fifty percent of the classes deserves to fail.
A. More than fifty percent is too much for one class.
B. Those who are absent more than half the time should fail.
C. Fifty percent of the classes have failed the exams.
D. People who fail must make up fifty percent of the class work.
Question 3: I did not come to your party due to the rain.
A. Suppose it did not rain, I would come to your party.
B. Even though it rained, I came to your party.
C. It was the rain that prevented me from coming to your party.
D. If it did not rain, I would come to your party.
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 4: A. purpose B. event C. medal D. spirit
Question 5: A. prisoner B. agency C. president D. disaster
Question 6: The proposal will go ahead despite strong objections from the public.
A. dislike B. support C. agreement D. disagreement
Question 7: Mathematics, a required subject in all schools, is divided into many branches.
A. strengthened B. assembled C. shortened D. separated
Question 8: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A. very rapidly B. from time to time C. again and again D. time after time
Question 9: Human beings are constantly contaminating their surrounding environment. Some places, for
example, are too dirty to live in.
A. polluting B. promoting C. destroying D. protecting
Question 10: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic part
of the education of every child.
A. history B. basic C. are D. child
Question 11: Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas where
many jobs are found.
A. urban areas B. lack C. are found D. financial
Question 12: It has been said that laser to be the most miraculous to cure patients.
A. the most B. has been said C. to be D. that
Question 13: A. knocked B. involved C. explained D. approved
Question 14: A. compose B. host C. program D. prove
One of the most famous concert halls in America is the Carnegie Hall in New York. Initially, it
was called simply the 'Music Hall', but three years after its opening it was renamed in honour of Andrew
Carnegie, the man who had provided much of the finance for its building.
The Hall officially opened on May 5, 1891. Since then the Hall has played host to the giants of
classical music, as well as those of jazz, pop, folk and rock music, and has also been used for political
rallies, religious services and lectures.
One of the most dramatic lectures given in the Hall took place during its first year. This began
simply as a talk accompanied by slides of paintings of sunsets and landscapes, which was what the
audience had been expecting. However, as the lecture progressed, the effects became more dramatic, with
thunder, rolling clouds and steam billowing over the audience's head while mechanical volcanoes
exploded on stage - all to the amazement and delight of the audience.
In 1927 the violinist Yehudi Menuhin made his appearance at the Carnegie Hall for the first time -
he was aged ten. In the afternoon before the performance, he was wandering around the Hall instead of
practising and was fascinated by an axe which he saw on the wall. The axe was for use in a fire but the
boy, not knowing this, asked a security guard what it was for. The guard made an impression with his
reply: "That's for chopping the heads off soloists who don't play well enough. Quite a few have already
been chopped off." Yehudi went rushing back to practise.
On one occasion another famous violinist and a pianist were giving a performance together when
the violinist got lost in the music. He anxiously looked to the pianist for help and whispered "Where are
we?” He received the less than helpful reply "In the Carnegie Hall".
Rock and roll made its first appearance at the Carnegie Hall in 1955 with Bill Haley and his Comets.
In 1964 the British invasion arrived when the Beatles played their first concert here. On the day of the
concert, cars came to a halt all over the city and the crowds surrounding the building were enormous.
Fortunately, in all the chaos nobody was seriously injured and the Hall escaped with only minor damage.
In the 1950s the building was threatened with demolition but a vigorous campaign to save it was led by the
conductor, Isaac Stern. In 1960 the Hall was purchased by the City of New York and a few years later it was
named a national landmark. Over the years the most famous musicians, singers and entertainers in the world
have appeared there - no doubt they will continue to do so for many years to come.
Question 15: Why was the audience surprised at the lecture in the first year?
A. People had not been expecting to see slides.
B. People thought that the special effects were frightening.
C. People had thought they were going to hear a straightforward lecture.
D. People had expected the lecture to be rather more dramatic.
Question 16: Why do you imagine Menuhin went to practice after speaking to the security guard?
A. He realized that he needed to practice. C. He wanted to find out what the axe was for.
B. Не thought the guard would attack him. D. Не believed what the guard had told him.
Question 17: Why was the pianist's answer unhelpful?
A. The pianist was not telling the truth. C. The violinist knew he was in the Carnegie Hall.
B. The violinist had lost his music. D. The pianist did not know where they were.
Question 18: The phrase “came to a halt” is closest in meaning to_____.
A. came to rest B. came to an end
C. came to nothing D. came to a conclusion
Question 19: What happened as a result of the Beatles going to Carnegie Hall?
A. A few people were seriously injured. С. Some people escaped from the Hall uninjured.
В. There were crowds in all parts of New York. D. There were traffic jams in New York.
Question 20: What happened in the 1950s?
A. The Hall was sold to the City of New York.
B. There was a possibility of the Hall being pulled down.
C. Isaac Stern stopped the demolition of the Hall.
D. There was a campaign to demolish the Hall.
Question 21: The word “vigorous” is closest in meaning to_____.
A. powerful B. fascinating C. impossible D. convincing
Question 22: What does the writer seem to think about the future of the Carnegie Hall?
A. It will continue to attract great stars. C. No one can tell what the future will bring.
B. The greatest entertainers in the world have appeared there. D. It will become a national landmark.
Question 23: They spent more money. They had to work harder.
A. The more they spent money, the more hard they had to work.
B. The more they spent money, the harder work they had to.
C. The more money they spent, the more harder they had to work.
D. The more money they spent, the harder they had to work.
Question 24: I don’t remember the man. You met him at the canteen last week.
A. I don’t remember the man whom you met at the canteen last week.

B. I don’t remember the man whose you met at the canteen last week.
C. I don’t remember the man whom you met him at the canteen last week.
D. I don’t remember the man that you met him at the canteen last week.
Question 25: Huy: “I would like some more tea.” - Dung : “___________”
A. Well, I’d rather have coffee. B. Certainly you are.
C. I’m sorry. I haven’t got any left. D. No. I’ve had enough.
Question 26: Nam: “Do you enjoy the movie yesterday?” - Mai: “_________”
A. Not really. I couldn’t follow the story. B. Yes, it’s warmer than today.
C. No, I dislike moving. D. Certainly, I’d be glad to.
Marian Anderson’s brilliant singing career began at age six when she sang spirituals at the Union Baptist
Church in her hometown of Philadelphia. She toured Europe in the 1920s, drawing vast acclaim. However, when
she returned to the United States she was still barred from performing on the American operatic stage. After she
was prevented from singing in Washington’s segregated Constitution Hall in 1939, Eleanor Roosevelt intervened
and arranged for Miss Anderson to perform at the Lincoln Memorial. A crowd of 75,000 people came to watch her
sing before the Memorial. Marian Anderson’s beautiful contralto voice broke down racial barriers, showing white
Americans that blacks had a profound contribution to make to America’s cultural life.
Eventually, in 1955, she became the first African-American singer to perform at New York’s
Metropolitan Opera. In her many years of touring, she had to endure a racism that forced her to enter concert
halls and hotels through service entrances. Her grace under this stress showed a moral perseverance that
paralleled that of the famous Martin Luther King, Jr.
Question 27: We can conclude from the passage that Marian Anderson first toured Europe instead of the
United States because_______.
A. she was paid more in Europe C. she was not allowed to perform in the United States
B. it was too expensive to tour in the United States D. there were better operatic facilities in Europe
Question 28: The word barred in line 3 could best be replaced by _____.
A. released B. prohibited C. overpowered D. purged
Question 29: The significance of Anderson's Lincoln Memorial performance was that_______.
A. her contralto voice was beautiful B. she was a black performer
C. she was too young D. 5,000 people came
Question 30: The phrase broke down racial barriers in the first paragraph means_______.
A. shattered obstacles B. disclosed opportunities
C. revealed inaccuracies D. analyzed destinations
Question 31: The word "eventually" in the second paragraph could best be replaced by_______.
A. in the long run B. at last C. sooner D. recently
Question 32: According to the passage, what did Marian Anderson have in common with Martin Luther King, Jr?
A. Moral perseverance. B. A performance at the Lincoln Memorial.
C. A clear strong voice. D. Singing in church.
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT true about Marian Anderson?
A. Her singing career started after she was ten years old.
B. She was a black singer.
C. She had contralto voice.
D. She was the first African-American singer who performed at New York’s Metropolitan Opera in 1955.
It’s quite rare to meet teenagers who don’t like sports. When you are young, you know how important (34)
______ to do physical exercise if you want to be healthy and strong, and for that reason you often concentrate on
just one sport with so (35) ______ enthusiasm that in the end you can’t live without it. The problem is, though, that
as you grow up you have less and less spare time. At your age you have to study harder if you want to get good
marks to go to university, with perhaps only one afternoon a week to do any sport. This happens just when you are

at the best (36) ______ for many sports, such as gymnastics and swimming. By the time you finish all your
studies you will probably be too old to be really good at sports like those, but if you spend enough time on (37)
______ while you are young, then one day you will find that you are very good at your sport but too old to study,
and you will find it (38) ______ to get a good job. Somehow, it doesn’t seem fair.
Question 34: A. you are B. it is C. this is D. things are
Question 35: A. many B. much C. great D. keen
Question 36: A. age B. stage C. period D. time
Question 37: A. sporting B. practice C. exercise D. training
Question 38: A. impossible B. unlikely C. improbable D. impractical
following questions.
Question 39: Only because she had to support her family ______ to leave school.
A. Alice decided B. that Alice decides C. did Alice decide D. so Alice decided
Question 40: By the end of the 21 century, the first car running on the sea water _____.
st
A. will have been finishing B. will finish C. will be finishing D. will have been finished
Question 41: The government has ______ laws to protect wildlife from overhunting and commercial trade.
A. enabled B. encouraged C. enacted D. enlarged
Question 42: What chemical is this? It is ______ a horrible smell.
A. giving down B. giving off C. giving up D. giving out
Question 43: An economic _______ is a time when there is very little economic activity, which causes a lot
of unemployment and poverty.
A. improvement B. development C. mission D. depression
Question 44: Marcela didn’t come to class yesterday. She ______ an accident.
A. might have B. should have had C. must have D. may have had
Question 45: The children were quite attracted by the tamer and his animals ______ were performing on the stage.
A. whom B. that C. who D. which
Question 46: Where have you been? – I was caught in the traffic; _______ I would have been here sooner.
A. anyway B. otherwise C. although D. however
Question 47: I recommend that the student ______ his composition as soon as possible.
A. should finish the writing B. finished writing C. finishes writing D. finish writing
Question 48: Though ______ in 1946, computers were sold commercially for the first time in the 1950s.
A. being built B. having been built C. built D. were built
Question 49: There's a rumor that the National Bank is going to______ the company I work for.
A. take on B. take out of C. take over D. take off
Question 50: Smoking is not permitted here, so you’d better ______ your cigarette.
A. extinguish B. to extinguish C. extinguishing D. extinguished
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Question 1: Under no circumstances should you leave her alone.
A. Whatever happens, do not leave her alone.
B. In certain circumstance, leaving her alone is a must.
C. Her loneliness is a circumstance you should take notice of.
D. Leave her alone if necessary.
Question 2: What you have been saying is beside the point.
A. What you have been saying is quite irrelevant.
B. You have been talking too much about the point.
C. What you have been saying is beyond my expectation.
D. You were honest to have said about the point like that.
Question 3: It is believed that a buried treasure was hidden in the tomb.
A. They believed that a buried treasure was hidden in the tomb.
B. A buried treasure is believed to hide in the tomb.
C. A buried treasure is believed that was hidden in the tomb.
D. A buried treasure is believed to have been hidden in the tomb.
EARTH DAY
Earth Day began as a protest. In 1963, former U.S Senator Gaylord Nelson was worried about our planet.
He knew that our world was getting dirty and many of our plants and animals were dying. He wanted people
to show that they were worried about the environment. This was in September, 1969. Senator Nelson wrote
letters to all of the colleges and put a special article in magazines. It was to tell about the special day he had
planned. Soon, the New York Times made an announcement that there would be a national day for the
environment.
On April 22, 1970, the first Earth Day was held. Gaylord Nelson did not expect Earth Day to be so popular.
However, nearly 20 million people attended. Since then, Earth Day has continued to change and grow. Later,
the United Nations decided that Earth Day should be celebrated every year.
Earth Day became a success because of the ordinary people who were concerned about the environment. In
1963, Gaylord Nelson was the only person who talked about the environment. But many people in
government now pay attention to the environment because of Earth Day.
Question 4: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. How Earth Day protected the environment.
B. What Gaylord Nelson said about the environment.
C. The environmental problems of the United Nations.
D. How Earth Day became a yearly national celebration.
Question 5: The word It in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. day B. environment C. announcement D. article
Question 6: Why does the author mention the number of people who attended Earth Day in paragraph 2?
A. To support the idea of celebrating Earth Day.
B. To suggest that more people should have attended.
C. To show that Earth Day was a success.
D. To show that Earth Day should be held again.
Question 7: The word then in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. the day the United Nations made Earth Day a holiday
B. the day The New York Times announced a national day
C. the day Gaylord Nelson announced the protest
D. the day Earth Day was first celebrated
Question 8: According to the passage, _______.
A. Earth Day attracted people’s concerns about the environment
B. no changes have been made to Earth Day since 1970
C. the first Earth Day celebration didn’t attract much attendance
D. it was announced that Earth Day would be celebrated nationwide in 1963
Question 9: The following are true according to the passage EXCEPT ______.
A. Earth Day was inspired by former U.S Senator Gaylord Nelson
B. Earth Day has been held annually since 1963
C. the letter written by Gaylord Nelson was about what would be Earth Day
D. Earth Day began because Gaylord Nelson worried about the environment
Question 10: It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. there were few environmental problems in 1963
B. Earth Day is celebrated on different days
C. the government did not take care of the environment before Earth Day
D. The United Nations joined in the first Earth Day
Question 11: Computer hardware and software have been enormously beneficial in the editing of
newspapers, magazines and journals.
A. slightly B. tremendously C. massively D. immensely

Question 12: One of the reasons why families break up is that parents are always critical of each other.
A. tired B. supportive C. thoughtless D. intolerant
Question 13: The venom of coral snakes is especially potent and the death rate among humans who have
been bitten is high.
A. powerful B. impure C. contagious D. abundant
Question 14: The very first American flag was hoisted in the skies over Boston on January 1, 1776, by the
American force there.
A. raised B. created C. found D. made
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Question 15: Not having written about the required topic, ______ a low mark.
A. the teacher gave B. my presentation was given
C. the teacher gave me D. I was given
Question 16: You look tired. ______ hard all day?
A. Are you working B. Have you been working
C. Did you work D. Do you work
Question 17: Pessimists say the whole will experience a period of economic ________.
A. suppressing B. impression C. depression D. repression
Question 18: Cars, instead of petrol, will________ on anything from electricity to methane gas.
A. drive B. move C. operate D. run
Question 19: A few months ago, I moved into a very small flat after _____ for years with my parents.
A. be living B. having lived C. being lived D. having been lived
Question 20: ______ is not clear to researchers.
A. Did dinosaurs became extinct B. Why did dinosaurs become extinct.
C. Dinosaurs became extinct D. Why dinosaurs became extinct
Question 21: That pop star, ________ name is on everyone’s lips, is organising an international charity.
A. of whom B. whom C. whose D. his
Question 22: Linda was shocked when I disagreed with her. She’s so used to getting her own ________.
A. mind B. way C. views D. opinion
Question 23: Tom was________ the page, looking for his name in print.
A. viewing B. examining C. noticing D. scanning
Question 24: Grandma broke________ in tears when we told her about Dad and Mum's divorce.
A. up B. forth C. down D. off
Question 25: Never be late for your interview; ______ you can’t get the job.
A. otherwise B. unless C. or so D. if not
Question 26: Tim looks so frightened and upset. He ______ something terrible.
A. should have experienced B. can have experienced
C. must have experienced D. must experience
Question 27: A. patient B. action C. nation D. question
Question 28: A. pail B. said C. laid D. paid
Question 29: Dylan: “I'm thinking of doing some shopping today. Can you recommend anywhere?"
~ Steward: "_______"
A. That’s OK. In that case, how about going to the Roman ruins down by the lake?
B. Well, you could try the local museum. That’s quite close to here.
C. Well, you could try Oxford Street. There are lots of big department stores there.
D. To be honest, I’m not really a big fan of department stores.
Question 30: Maria: “Do you mind if I switch the light off?” - Kate: “_______”

A. I’d rather you didn’t, if you don’t mind. B. Yes, please do it.
C. What if I don’t mind it? D. Yes, I mind it. I’m sorry.
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 31: A. permanent B. government C. represent D. monument
Question 32: A. destination B. economic C. presidential D. environment
Question 33: The first important requirements for you to become a mountain climber are your strong passion
and you have good health.
A. The first important B. are C. you have good health D. to become
Question 34: In his animated films, Walt Disney created animals that could talk and act like people while
retaining its animal traits.
A. its B. animals C. like D. and
Question 35: The people about who the novelist wrote were factory workers and their families.
A. their B. wrote C. who D. The
Question 36: We were walking towards our car. A police car suddenly drove up and stopped right in front of us.
A. Walking towards our car, a police car suddenly drove up and stopped right in front of us.
B. Just as we were walking towards our car, a police car drove up and stopped right in front of us.
C. Whenever we were walking towards our car, a police car suddenly drove up and stopped right in front of us.
D. As soon as we were walking towards our car, a police car suddenly drove up and stopped right in front of us.
Question 37: Sue and Brian met. Shortly after that, he announced they were getting married.
A. Right at the time Brian met Sue, he announced they were getting married.
B. Scarcely had Sue and Brian met when he announced they were getting married.
C. As soon as Sue and Brian were meeting, they announced they were getting married.
D. Until Sue and Brian met, they had announced they were getting married.
Just two months after the flight of Apollo 10, Apollo 11 astronauts made their historic landing on the
surface of the Moon. This momentous trip for humanity also provided scientists with an abundance of material
for study; from rock and soil samples brought back from the Moon, scientists have been able to determine
much about the composition of the Moon as well as to draw inferences about the development of the Moon
from its composition.
The Moon soil that came back on Apollo 11 contains small bits of rock and glass which were probably ground
from larger rocks when meteors impacted with the surface of the Moon. The bits of glass are spherical in shape and
constitute approximately half of the Moon soil. Scientists found no trace of animal or plant life in this soil.
In addition to the Moon soil, astronauts gathered two basic types of rocks from the surface of the Moon:
basalt and breccia. Basalt is a cooled and hardened volcanic lava common to the Earth. Since basalt is formed
under extremely high temperatures, the presence of this type of rock is an indication that the temperature of
the Moon was once extremely hot. Breccia, the other kind of rock brought back by the astronauts, was formed
during the impact of falling objects on the surface of the Moon. This second type of rock consists of small
pieces of rock compressed together by the force of impact. Gases such as hydrogen and helium were found in
some of the rock, and scientists believe that these gases were carried to the Moon by the solar wind, the
streams of gases that are constantly emitted by the Sun.
Question 38: The paragraph preceding the passage most likely discusses______.
A. astronaut training B. a different space trip
C. the inception of the Apollo space program D. previous moon landing
Question 39: What is the subject of this passage?
A. Basalt and breccia. B. The Apollo astronauts.
C. What the Moon is made of. D. Soil on the Moon.
Question 40: According to the passage, what does Moon soil consist of?
A. Streams of gases. B. Tiny pieces of stones and glass.
C. Hydrogen and helium. D. Large chunks of volcanic lava.
Question 41: Which of the following was NOT brought back by the astronauts?
A. Basalt. B. Breccia. C. Soil. D. Plant life.
Question 42: An indication is _______.
A. an exhibition B. a clue C. a denial D. a dictate
Question 43: According to the passage, breccia was formed ______.
A. when streams of gases hit the surface of the Moon
B. from the interaction of helium and hydrogen
C. when objects struck the Moon
D. from volcanic lava
Question 44: The word emitted is closest in meaning to ______.
A. sent out B. separated C. set off D. vaporized
Question 45: The author’s purpose in this passage is to _______.
A. explain some of the things learned from space flights
B. demonstrate the difference between basalt and breccia.
C. propose a new theory about the creation of Moon
D. describe some rock and soil samples
Selling a new product is a complex business, especially when the product could be (46) ______ as a luxury,
and many people are involved in the process of introducing it to the market.
Once the work of designing and manufacturing the product has been completed, it's (47) ______ the
salespeople to sell it and, hopefully, (48) ______ the company a fortune! Two words are mentioned in a
marketing (49) ______: buzz and hype. Each of these has an important part to play. Buzz is what salespeople
want to create through (50) ______ of mouth - potential customers talking about the new product, creating a
demand for it, building a sense of excitement about the launch and generating a positive market
acknowledgement. Hype, advertising created by the company itself, is the sales information the company puts
out to promote its wares.
Question 46: A. grouped B. classed C. graded D. clarified
Question 47: A. back through B. in for C. down by D. up to
Question 48: A. create B. turn C. make D. keep
Question 49: A. project B. movement C. campaign D. drive
Question 50: A. word B. phrase C. saying D. expression
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.
Clara Barton became known as “The Angel of the Battlefield” during the American Civil War. Born in
Oxford, Massachusetts in 1821, Clara Barton’s interest in helping soldiers on the battlefield began when
she was told army stories from her father. Another event that influenced her decision to help soldiers was
an accident her brother had. His injuries were cared for by Barton for 2 years. At the time, she was only
11 years old. Barton began teaching school at the age of 15. She taught for 18 years before she moved to
Washington, D.C. in 1854.
The civil war broke out 6 years later. Immediately, Barton started war service by helping the soldiers with
their needs. At the battle of Bull Run, Clara Barton received permission from the government to take care of the
sick and hurt. Barton did this with great empathy and kindness. She acknowledged each soldier as a person. Her
endurance and courage on the battlefield were admired by many. When the war ended in 1865, she used 4 years
of her life to assist the government in searching for soldiers who were missing during the war.
The search for missing soldiers and years of hard work made her feeble physically. In 1869, her
doctors recommended a trip to Europe for a rest. While she was on vacation, she became involved with
the International Red Cross, an organization set up by the Geneva Convention in 1864. Clara Barton
realized that the red Cross would be a big help to the United States. After she returned to the United
States, she worked very hard to create an American Red Cross. She talked to government leaders and let

American people know about the Red Cross. In 1881, the National Society of the Red Cross was finally
established with its headquarters in Washington, D.C. Clara Barton managed its activities for 23 years.
Barton never let her age stop her from helping people. At the age of 79, she helped flood victims in
Galveston, Texas. Barton finally resigned from the Red Cross in 1904. She was 92 years old and had truly
earned her title “The Angel of the Battlefield”.
Question 1: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of the young Clara Barton?
A. She helped her father when he was a soldier.
B. She helped her brother who hurt in an accident.
C. She suffered from an accident when she was 11.
D. She made a decision to live with her brother for 2 years.
Question 2: The phrase broke out in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to________.
A. began B. extended C. closed D. broke down
Question 3: The word this in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. taking care of the sick and hurt B. cooking for soldiers
C. receiving permission D. recognizing each soldier as a person
Question 4: The word acknowledged in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by________.
A. nursed B. believed C. recognized D. pleaded
Question 5: What can be inferred about the government?
A. It had respect for Clara Barton.
B. It showed Clara Barton great empathy and kindness.
C. It did not have the money to help Clara Barton.
D. It did not always agree with Clara Barton.
Question 6: What does the author mention about the American Red Cross?
A. The American people were not interested in the Red Cross.
B. It was disapproved again and again by the Geneva Convention.
C. Barton tried to have it set up in America.
D. It was first established in the United States.
Question 7: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Clara Barton helped wounded soldiers and she was the founder of the Red Cross.
B. Clara Barton became a nurse during the American Civil War.
C. Clara Barton worked for disaster victims until she was old.
D. Clara Barton was a kind and strong woman who helped people in need.
Question 8: What can be the best title of the reading passage?
A. The American Civil War B. The Angel of the Battlefield
C. The American Red Cross D. The International Red Cross
correct answer to each of the questions from 9 to 15.
Tsunamis are waves, but they are far different from the normal waves that occur every day in the
ocean. A normal wave is created by the pull of the moon’s gravity, but tsunamis are a series of great sea
waves that are created by a shock from underwater. The most common causes of tsunamis are underwater
earthquakes, landslides, or volcanic eruptions.
On Sunday, December 26, 2004, a 9.0-magnitude earthquake occurred under the Indian Ocean near the
west coast of the Indonesian island of Sumatra. It displaced a large amount of water, and sent shock
waves in every direction, resulting in a series of 30-foot waves traveling up to 500 miles per hour. These
high speeds cause the waves to be very destructive. They traveled unnoticed at first because they were not
visible on the surface, a common pattern in the occurrence of tsunamis.
Question 9: Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. Normal waves and tsunamis. B. How to predict a tsunami.
C. Characteristics of ocean waves. D. How a tsunami is caused.
Question 10: According to the passage, what can create a tsunami?
A. A large rock dropping in the ocean. B. Shocks that occur underwater.
C. The pull of the moon’s gravity. D. It is not known.
Question 11: The passage explains that normal waves differ from tsunamis in that _______.
A. tsunamis are caused by huge shocks underwater
B. tsunamis are much more destructive
C. normal waves never travel as fast as tsunamis
D. normal waves are much smaller than tsunamis
Question 12: What caused the tsunami of December 26, 2004?
A. A landslide. B. An earthquake.
C. The moon’s gravity. D. An underwater volcanic eruption.
Question 13: Why may people not notice a tsunami at first?
A. A tsunami may be too small to notice.
B. Tsunamis are invisible.
C. A tsunami may travel beneath the surface of the water.
D. Most of the time, people cannot see waves.
Question 14: The word they refers to ______.
A. waves B. speeds C. oceans D. disturbances
Question 15: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Tsunamis are unusual because they are not created by the pull of the moon’s gravity.
B. Tsunamis occur every day in the ocean.
C. Tsunamis may not be visible on the surface if the ocean is deep.
D. One of the most common causes of a tsunami is an underwater earthquake.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions
Question 16: As the old one, this new copier can perform its functions in half the time.
A. its functions B. can perform C. As D. in half the time
Question 17: The struggle for women’s rights were initiated in the 18 century during the Age of
th
Enlightenment.
A. for B. The C. during D. were initiated
Question 18: A lot of people stop smoking because they are afraid their heath will be affected and early death.
A. are B. smoking C. early death D. A lot of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. conventional B. reliable C. intellectual D. environment
Question 20: A. survive B. struggle C. enlarge D. occur
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 21: Kay: “I wouldn’t do that if I were you.” John: “___________”
A. I’d rather you didn’t. B. Wouldn’t you? Why?
C. Would you, really? D. It’s out of the question.
Question 22: “May I leave a message for Ms Davis?” - “__________”
A. I’m afraid she’s not here at the moment. B. She’s leaving a message to you now.
C. Yes, I’ll make sure she gets it. D. No, she’s not here now.
following questions.
Question 23: Standing on the tip of the cape, _______.
A. people have been seen a lighthouse far away B. lies a lighthouse in the middle of the sea
C. we can see the lighthouse in the distance D. a lighthouse can see from the distance
Question 24: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to______ what she missed when she was away.
A. cut down on B. put up with C. take up with D. catch up on
Question 25: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is, _________.
A. more heat it retains B. the heat it retains more
C. it retains the more heat D. the more heat it retains
Question 26: The strike was ______ owing to the last-minute agreement with the management.
A. put down B. called off C. broken up D. set back
Question 27: Did you apologise to Mary, _______?
A. whose dress you spilt coffee B. you spilt coffee on her dress
C. who you spilt coffee on her dress D. whose dress you spilt coffee on
Question 28: Lucy has just bought_________.
A. a beautiful brand-new Swiss watch B. a Swiss beautiful brand-new watch
C. a brand-new beautiful Swiss watch D. a Swiss brand-new beautiful watch
Question 29: This is the third time James _______ the volunteer program to the village.
A. joined B. joins C. has joined D. has been joining
Question 30: The pool should not be made so deep______ small children can be safe there.
A. so that B. though C. so as to D. if
Question 31: George won five medals at the competition. His parents ________ very proud of him.
A. must have been B. can’t be C. can’t have D. could have been
Question 32: When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for _____ fifteen minutes.
A. other B. others C. the others D. another
Question 33: We ______ on the beach now if we hadn’t missed the plane.
A. could be lying B. would have lain C. would lie D. might have lain
Question 34: In spite of her abilities, Laura has been _____ overlooked for promotion.
A. repeat B. repeatedly C. repetitive D. repetition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 35: Paul was absent so often. He failed the examination.
A. Paul's frequent absence cost him his chance of passing the examination.
B. Paul failed his examination although he was absent quite often.
C. Paul's failure in his examination accounted for his frequent absence.
D. Being absent so often caused Paul fail his examination.
Question 36: We’d better leave them a note. It’s possible they’ll arrive later.
A. We’d better leave them a note as they possibly arrive later.
B. We’d better leave them a note in case they arrive later.
C. They’ll probably arrive later so that we’d better leave them a note.
D. If they arrive late, we’d better leave them a note.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 37: A. slowly B. below C. allow D. tomorrow

Question 38: A. decided B. wanted C. noticed D. included
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 39 to 43.
One of the interesting things about Cuba is its educational (39)______. Like in many other
countries, schools are free. What is unusual is that schools combine study with manual work. Each school
has a plot of land (40)______ children work for a few hours each day. They (41)______ vegetables,
which they weed and water and later they harvest the crop. In this (42)______, they develop good
working habit and learn how important it is to produce. Usually, children do not like (43)______
vegetables such as spinach, Cuba children soon develop a taste for them. During the summer, older
children also go to the country to help the farmers with the crops.
In this system, the children spend part of their school time studying and the rest working in the
open air helping increase the nation’s production.
Question 39: A. system B. children C. secondary D. school
Question 40: A. who B. where C. which D. when
Question 41: A. eat B. do C. plant D. raise
Question 42: A. day B. time C. way D. is
Question 43: A. growing B. grow C. grown D. grew
Question 44: I hardly know the truth about Jean’s success in the institute.
A. It is difficult for Jean to be successful in the institute.
B. Jean’s success in the institute was not to be known.
C. Jean hardly become known and successful in the institute.
D. I do not know much about Jean’s success in the institute.
Question 45: Sam speaks Chinese well and his Japanese is good, too.
A. Not only Chinese but also Japanese Sam is good at.
B. Not only does Sam speak Chinese but also Japanese.
C. Sam is good at either Chinese or Japanese.
D. Sam not only speaks Chinese well but also is good at Japanese.
Question 46: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test.
A. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn’t finish the test.
C. Although she didn’t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
D. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 47: If you are at a lose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.
A. free B. reluctant C. confident D. occupied
Question 48: There is no excuse for your discourtesy. Think twice before you are going to say anything.
A. impoliteness B. bravery C. stubbornness D. politeness
Question 49: Travellers consider themselves superior to those who lead a more sedentary life.
A. powerful B. depressed C. motivated D. inactive
Question 50: These machines are older models and have to be operated by hand.
A. spiritually B. manually C. mechanically D. automatically
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to

each of the following questions.

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Question 37: A. slowly B. below C. allow D. tomorrow

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