Đề thi thử THPTQG lần 1 trường THPT Đông Thụy Anh Thái Bình

Đề thi thử THPTQG lần 1 trường THPT Đông Thụy Anh Thái Bình
Môn: Tiếng Anh

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. arrives B. studies C. maths D. learns
Question 2: A. admit B. advent C. admire D. advance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. detainee B. solidarity C. conservation D. judicious
Question 4: A. heuristics B. illegal C. parallel D. facility
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 5: With his father’s encourage and guidance, Mozart was introduced to music at an early age.
A. with B. encourage C. introduced to D. an early
Question 6: The ship was shaken in the stormy waves and many people got sick
A. shaken B. the stormy C. and D. got sick.
Question 7: It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.
A. It is believed B. in the near future C. be used to doing D. such as
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: The goal is to make higher education available to everyone who is willing and capable
_____________ his financial situation
A. in terms of B. with reference to C. owing to D. regardless of
Question 9: Jack and Linda ________ last week. They just weren't happy together.
A. ended up B. finished off C. broke into D. broke up
Question 10: Many young people have objected to ___________ marriage, which is decided by the parents
of the bride and groom
A. shared B. sacrificed C. agreed D. contractual
Question 11: I must warn you I am not used to _______so rudely.
A. speak to me B. be spoken to C. speak D. being spoken to
Question 12: Plenty __________evidence has come _______light to prove that he has been involved _____
smuggling.
A. of/ in / with B. of/ from /by C. with/ in / in D. of/ to / in
Question 13: It gets ______ to understand what the professor has explained
A. more difficult B. more difficult than
C. more and more difficult D. most difficult
Question 14: All his plans for starting his business fell _____.
A. away B. through C. down D. in
Question 15: The word "friendship" can be _______ applied to a wide variety of relationships.
A. lightly B. loosely C. sparingly D. slightly
Question 16: Since the end of the 20th century, English _____ the most widely used language around the
world.
A. had become B. became C. becomes D. has become
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: David is talking about Mr. West's early retirement.
- David: "Mr. West is going to retire next month."
-Kathy: " ______.”
A. Congratulations! B. Right, you'd probably be the next
C. Oh, I have no idea D. You don't say!
Question 18: Two friends Peter and Linda are talking about pets.
- Peter: "Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house."
-Linda: “______.”
A. Yes, I hope so B. I couldn't agree with you more.
C. No, dogs are very good, too D. Nothing more to say
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: When their rent increased from 200 to 400 a month, they protested against such a tremendous
increase.
A. difficult B. light C. huge D. tiring
Question 20: Although the student raised his hand, the teacher did not acknowledge his presence.
A. Communicate B. inquire C. recognize D. dismiss
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 21: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.
A. unintentional B. deliberate C. accidental D. unplanned
Question 22: The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now.
A. ignorant B. constant C. objective D. changeable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 23: "If I were you, I wouldn't read the job advertisement and position description carelessly."
Helen said.
A. Helen advised me on reading the job advertisement and position description carelessly.
B. Helen recommended that I take no notice of the job advertisement and position description. C. I was
blamed for not reading the job advertisement and position description carefully by Helen.
D. Helen advised me against reading the job advertisement and position description carelessly.
Question 24: I can't stand his talking foolishly when everybody talks about something in a serious way.
A. I don't mind his talking foolishly when everybody talks seriously.
B. I hate him talking foolishly when people talk seriously.
C. Everybody talks seriously when he talks foolishly.
D. I can't understand what he talks when people talk foolishly.
Question 25: He behaved so recklessly, so he would be disqualified from keeping his last job.
A. Without his reckless behavior, he would have lost his last job.
B. He didn't quit his job because he knew that he had behaved so recklessly.
C. If he hadn't behaved so recklessly, he hadn't quit his last job.
D. Had he not behaved so recklessly, he wouldn't have been fired from his last job.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 26: The holiday was so expensive. We could only afford five days.
A. A five-day holiday wasn't cheap, so we couldn't afford it.
B. The holiday was dirt cheap, so we could afford more than five days.
C. So expensive was a five-day holiday that we could hardly afford it.
D. It was such an expensive holiday that we could only afford five days.
Question 27: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
B. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
C. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
D. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Today the police are able to make use of all kinds of scientific and technological aids in their fight against
crime. This was not always the (28)_________, however.
In the early days of the British police force , during the nineteenth century , the police officer's whistle was his
(29) _______ way of calling for help if he got into difficulty. Gradually, in the twentieth century, things began to
(30) ______ .Those police officers lucky enough to be given a patrol car rather than a bicycle could also take
(31) ________ of radio communications.
In 1903, a new system for identifying people by their fingerprints was discovered. Although it soon proved to
be one of the most significant developments in crime investigation, a (32) ______ of the national fingerprint
collection could take days, if not weeks, until computers were introduced in the 1970s.
Question 28: A. event B. case C. instance D. condition
Question 29: A. mere B. whole C. pure D. main
Question 30: A. improve B. take C. make D. change
Question 31: A. profit B. advantage C. benefit D. service
Question 32: A. hunt B. look C. search D. seek
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a
place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city.
What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits. One benefit of
parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide - a key pollutant - and emit oxygen, which humans need to
breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical
car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called
the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of
the sun's heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city
landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural
areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used
for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could -
benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green
space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings
have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and
require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the
investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work.
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but
without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the
air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people
money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can
significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and
concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also
provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens
are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.
Question 33: Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that 'mitigate' belongs to which of the
following word groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. absorb, intake, consume D. allay, alleviate, reduce
Question 34: The author's tone in the passage is best described as ________.
A. informative B. descriptive C. argumentative D. passionate
Question 35: The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens EXCEPT ______.
A. improved air quality B. better food for city dwellers
C. increased space for private relaxation D. savings on heating and cooling costs
Question 36: Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that _______.
A. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
C. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
Question 37: Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main
difference between parks and rooftop gardens?
A. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
B. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
C. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
D. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
Question 38: According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they
____________.
A. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
B. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect
C. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
D. do not require the use of valuable urban land
Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program at
_______.
A. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens
B. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park
C. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer
D. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the rect
answer to each of the questions.
One of the most interesting authors of the twentieth century, J.R.R Tolkien, achieved fame through
his highly inventive trilogy, 'The Lord of the Rings'. Born in 1892, Tolkien received his education from
Oxford and then served in World War I. After the war, he became a professor of Anglo Saxon and English
language and literature at Oxford University. Although published in 1965, the three books that comprise 'The
Lord of the Rings' were written in intervals from 1936 to 1949. This was mainly due to Tolkien's
responsibilities as a professor and the outbreak of World War II. By the late 1960s, this fascinating trilogy
had become a sociological phenomenon as young people intently studied the mythology and legends created
by Tolkien.
The trilogy is remarkable not only for its highly developed account of historical fiction but also its
success as a modern heroic epic. The main plot describes the struggle between good and evil kingdom as
they try to acquire a magic ring that has the power to rule the world. The novels, which are set in a time
called Middle Earth, describe a detailed fantasy world. Established before humans populated the Earth,
Middle Earth was inhabited by good and evil creatures such as hobbits, elves, monsters, wizards, and some
humans. The characters and the setting of Middle Earth were modeled after mythological stories from
Greece and Northern Europe.
Although readers have scrutinized the texts for inner meaning and have tried to connect the trilogy
with Tolkien's real life experiences in England during World War II, he denied the connection. He claims
that the story began in his years as an undergraduate student and grew out of his desire to create mythology
and legends about elves and their language. Tolkien was a masterful fantasy novelist who used his extensive
knowledge of folklore to create a body of work that is still read and enjoyed throughout the world today.
Question 40: What is the setting of Tolkien's trilogy?
A. Modern-day Greece B. England in the 1800's
C. Oxford University D. Middle Earth
Question 41: The word "scrutinized" in the fourth paragraph could be replaced by _____.
A. examined B. denied C. criticized D. enjoyed
Question 42: What does this paragraph mainly discuss?
A. J.R.R Tolkien and his triology B. J.R.R Tolkien's work as a professor.
C. The popularity of J.R.R Tolkien D. All of J.R.R Tolkien's fantasy books
Question 43: When did Tolkien begin to create this trilogy?
A. When he was a student B. When he was a professor.
C. During World War II D. During World War I.
Question 44: The word "fascinating" in the second paragaraph could be replaced by _______.
A. thrilling B. terrifying
C. boring D. extremely interesting
Question 45: According to the passage, when did "The Lord of the Rings" trilogy become popular with
young people?
A. After World War II B. In the late 1960s
C. Between 1936 and 1946 D. In 1892
Question 46: What can we assume is NOT true about Middle Earth?
A. Middle Earth was a fictional world.
B. The good and evil kingdom fought for the power.
C. Middle Earth was based on European folktales.
D. People dominated Middle Earth.
Question 47: What does the word "trilogy" in the first paragraph mean?
A. A long novel B. A specific type of fantasy novel
C. An unrelated group of books D. A group of three literary books
Đề thi thử THPTQG_lần 3 trường THPT chuyên Thái Bình
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1: The players’ protests _____ no difference to the referee’s decision at all
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
Question 2: Peter, Harry and Chuck were the first, second and third _____ in the school cross-country race.
A. respectively B. actively C. responsively D. tremendously
Question 3: By using all the latest technology, the yacht-man managed to cross the Atlantic in _____ time
A. record B. lightning C. top D. quickest
Question 4: Why _____ Peter to the party? He is always making trouble
A. don’t we invite B. don't you invite C. not invite D. invite
Question 5: The speaker fails to get his message _____ to his audience
A. around B. in C. across D. out
Question 6: You are under no obligation _____ to accept this offer.
A. whatsoever B. eventually C. apart D. indeed
Question 7: There’s a lot more to Willie than one would think: still waters run _____.
A. deep B. deeply C. deepness D. depth
Question 8: The ideas _____ to nothing because I couldn’t afford to do it.
A. went B. came C. turned D. changed
Question 9: You can always _____ Ann to give you sound advice.
A. bank of B. bank for C. bank at D. bank on
Question 10: His emotional problems _____ from the attitudes he encountered as a child, I think.
A. stem B. flourish C. root D. sprout
Question 11: _____ no money would be wasted, we will use energy more efficiently.
A. so that B. in order that C. in order to D. A & B
Question 12: Interpreting is not a mechanical process of converting a sentence in language A into a sentence
in language B. _____, it is a complex art.
A. But B. In addition C. Rather D. However
Question 13: “Shall we eat out tonight?” – “_____.”
A. That’s understandable B. That’s a great idea.
C. It is very kind of you to invite me. D. You are very welcome.
Question 14: “You have a wonderful garden!” – “_____.”
A. I can’t believe it! B. It’s my pleasure. C. Yours is great too! D. Don’t mention it!
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15: A. permanent B. continue C. complete D. relationship
Question 16: A. endanger B. geometry C. opposite D. geography
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
Question 17: Nancy concurred with her boss about the new direction the company was taking.
A. disagreed B. agreed C. surrendered D. confessed
Question 18: “We strongly believe that he’s innocent of the crime. We do not think that he did it.”
A. clean B. guilty C. faultless D. crimeless
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions
Question 19: A. oases B. goose C. horse D. crisis
Question 20: A. capable B. angle C. danger D. ancient
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 21: Not until 1946 did the world chess governing body, FIDE, assert its control over international
championship play.
A. declare B. relinquish C. petition D. decrease
Question 22: All classifications of human societies and cultures are arbitrary.
A. useful B. haphazard C. insufficient D. ambiguous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 23: Refusal to give a breath sample to the police could lead to your arrest.
A. If you refused to be arrested, you have to give a breath sample.
B. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.
C. If a breath sample is not given, the police will refuse to arrest you.
D. The police could cause you to give a breath sample to decide whether to arrest you or not.
Question 24: The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problems.
C. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problems.
D. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problems.
Question 25: I spent a long time getting over the disappointment of losing the match.
A. It took me long to stop disappointing you
B. Getting over the disappointment took me a long time than the match.
C. Losing the match disappointed me too much.
D. It took me long to forget the disappointment of losing the match.
Question 26: They don’t let the workers use the office telephone for personal calls.
A. They don’t allow using the office telephone to call personal secretaries.
B. They don’t allow workers to use the office telephone.
C. the office telephone is used by workers personally.
D. They don’t let the office telephone be used for personal purpose by workers
Question 27: He said that listening to loud music through headphones for too long caused my headache.
A. listening to loud music through headphones for too long resulted from my headache.
B. My headache resulted in listening to loud music through headphones for too long.
C. listening to loud music through headphones for too long was said to cause my headache
D. My headache is said to cause by listening to loud music through headphones for too long
Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Some animal behaviorists argue that certain animals can remember past events, anticipate future ones,
make plans and choices, and coordinate activities within a group. These scientists, however, are cautious about
the extent to which animals can be credited with conscious processing. Explanations of animal behavior that
leave out any sort of consciousness at all and ascribe actions entirely to instinct leave many questions
unanswered. One example of such unexplained behavior: Honeybees communicate the sources of nectar to
one another by doing a dance in a figure-eight pattern. The orientation of the dance conveys the position of the
food relative to the sun's position in the sky, and the speed of the dance tells how far the food source is from
the hive. Most researchers assume that the ability to perform and encode the dance is innate and shows no
special intelligence. But in one study, when experimenters kept changing the site of the food source, each time
moving the food 25 percent farther from the previous site, foraging honeybees began to anticipate where the
food source would appear next. When the researchers arrived at the new location, they would find the bees
circling the spot, waiting for their food. No one has yet explained how bees, whose brains weigh four
ten-thousandths of an ounce, could have inferred the location of the new site. Other behaviors that may
indicate some cognition include tool use. Many animals, like the otter who uses a stone to crack mussel shells,
are capable of using objects in the natural environment as rudimentary tools. One researcher has found that
mother chimpanzees occasionally show their young how to use tools to open hard nuts. In one study,
chimpanzees compared two pairs of food wells containing chocolate chips. One pair might contain, say, five
chips and three chips, the other our chips and three chips. Allowed to choose which pair they wanted, the
chimpanzees almost always chose the one with the higher total, showing some sort of summing ability. Other
chimpanzees have learned to use numerals to label quantities of items and do simple sums.
Question 28: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Observations that suggest consciousness in animal behavior.
B. The use of food in studies of animal behavior.
C. The role of instinct in animal behavior.
D. Differences between the behavior of animals in their natural environments and in laboratory experiments.
Question 29: Which of the following is NOT discussed as an ability animals are thought to have?
A. Communicating emotions B. Remembering past experiences
C. Selecting among choices D. Anticipating events to come
Question 30: What did researchers discover in the study of honeybees discussed in paragraph 2?
A. Bees are able to travel at greater speeds than scientists thought.
B. The bees were able to determine in advance where scientists would place their food.
C. Changing the location of food caused bees to decrease their dance activity.
D. The bees could travel 25% farther than scientists expected.
Question 31: It can be inferred from the passage that brain size is assumed to ___________.
A. be an indicator of cognitive ability B. be related to food consumption
C. correspond to levels of activity D. vary among individuals within a species
Question 32: Why are otters and mussel shells included in the discussion in paragraph 3?
A. To provide that certain species demonstrate greater ability in tool use than other species.
B. To provide an example of tool use among animals.
C. To show that animals are very good at using objects in their habitat.
D. To provide an example of the use of weapons among animals.
Question 33: The word “rudimentary” is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. technical B. basic C. superior D. original
Question 34: Scientists concluded from the experiment with chimpanzees and chocolate chips that
chimpanzees __________.
A. prefer to work in pairs or groups
B. have difficulty selecting when given choices
C. lack abilities that other primates have
D. exhibit behavior that indicates certain mathematical abilities
correct word for each of the blanks
Television has changed the lifestyle of people in every industrialized country in the world. In the
United States, where sociologists have studied the effects, some interesting observations have been made. TV,
although not essential, has become a(n) (35) ______ part of most people’s lives. It has become a babysitter, an
initiator of conversations, a major transmitter of culture, and a keeper of traditions. Yet when what can be seen
on TV in one day is critically analyzed, it becomes evident that TV is not a teacher but a sustainer. The poor
quality of programs does not elevate people into greater (36) ______, but rather maintains and encourages the
status quo. The (37) ______ reason for the lack of quality in American TV is related to both the history of TV
development and the economics of TV. TV in America began with the radio. Radio companies and their
sponsors first experimented with TV. Therefore, the close relationship, which the advertisers had with radio
programs, but many actually produced the programs. Thus, (38) ______ from the capitalistic, profit- oriented
sector of American society, TV is primarily concerned with reflecting and attracting society (39) ______ than
innovating and experimenting with new ideas. Advertisers want to attract the largest viewing audience
possible; to do so requires that the programs be entertaining rather than challenging. TV in America today
remains, to a large extent, with the same organization and standards as it had thirty years ago. The hope for
some evolution and true achievement toward improving society will require a change in the entire system
Question 35: A. integral B. mixed C. fractional D. superior
Question 36: A. preconception B. knowledge C. understanding D. feeling
Question 37: A. adequate B. unknown C. inexplicable D. primary
Question 38: A. going B. leaving C. come from D. getting
Question 39: A. more B. rather than C. less D. better
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
In the very distant geological past, all animals were aquatic. The very first vertebrates or animals with
backbones, of which we have any fossil record, lived in water. These vertebrates, the fish, were adapted to
underwater living. Their streamlined bodies were covered with scales to reduce surface friction: they had
muscular tails so that they could swim swiftly in such a dense medium as water; and they were endowed with
gills for breathing underwater. Descendants of fish-type ancestors crossed the seashore barrier and
accommodated themselves to life on land. As amphibians, they possessed limbs instead of fins and lungs
instead of gills. But they never became completely free of the bonds that tied them to the water; even today
many amphibians return to the water to lay their eggs. Millions of years after the first clumsy amphibians
crawled over the land, newer types of land dwellers appeared, these animals give rise to the present-day
reptiles and mammals. They were completely converted for land dwelling, with bodies and biological
activities far different from those of fish. With these special adaptations, mammals have been able to colonize
the woods and meadows, the deserts and high mountains, often far removed from the sea.
Question 40: Of the animals with backbones, the first to appear were……
A. fish B. amphibians C. birds D. mammals
Question 41: Fish are suited to underwater life because of their………
A. Gills B. All of the answers C. Streamlines shapes D. Scales
Question 42: The passage suggests that the first amphibians used their limbs to……..
A. jump B. run C. swim D. crawl
Question 43: The word “descendants” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. Grandchildren B. Ancestors C. Descenders D. Offspring
Question 44: An example of an amphibian’s incomplete adaptation to land life is…….
A. need to keep its skin wet B. return to water to lay eggs
C. inability to breathe air. D. Scales-covered skin
Question 45: Animals found desert living possible only……….
A. when they were fully adapted to land B. after they could walk on two feet
C. when they became amphibious D. if they migrated to sea periodically
Question 46: The seashore was a barrier for descendants of fish-type because………
A. crossing it required bodily changes.
B. every attempt to cross it ended in death.
C. the land once rose much higher above the sea.
D. once they crossed, there was no return.
Question 47: The adaptation process described in the article was completed……
A. By the receding of the sea
B. Through biological changes
C. Over millions of years and Through biological changes
D. Over millions of years
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part needs correction in
Question 48: The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star
A. of whom B. parked C. in front of the bank D. famous pop star
Question 49: Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.
A. Neither B. arresting C. would reveal D. his group.
Question 50: The most visible remind of the close relationship between the United States and France is the
famous Statue of Liberty, which stands in New York habor.
A. remind B. between C. is D. which
Đề thi thử THPTQG_lần 2 trường THPT chuyên Hưng Yên
Question 1: - Jenny. “Is it alright if I use your bike?” .
- Peter. “_________”
A. Sure, go ahead B. I accept it C. Oh, forget it D. I don’t care
Question 2: Jean: “It was very kind of you to help me out, John”.
John : _________
A. You can say that again. B. Thanks a million.
C. That was the least I could do. D. I’m glad you like it.
The classic Neanderthals, who lived between about 70,000 and 30,000 years ago, shared a number of special
characteristics. Like any biological population, Neanderthals also showed variation in the degree to which
those characteristics were expressed. Generally, they were powerfully built, short and stocky, with the lower
parts of their arms and legs short in relation to the upper parts, as in modern peoples who live in cold
environments. Neanderthal skulls were distinctive, housing brains even larger on average than those of
modern humans, a feature that may have had more to do with their large, heavy bodies than with superior
intelligence. Seen from behind, Neanderthal skulls look almost spherical, but from the side they are long and
flattened often with a bulging back.
The Neanderthal face, dominated by a projecting and full nose, differed clearly from the faces of
other hominids; the middle parts appear to be pulled forward (or the sides pulled back), resulting in a rather
streamlined face shape. This peculiarity may have been related to the greater importance (in cultural
activities as well as food processing) of the front teeth, which are large and part of a row of teeth that lies
well forward in the head; it may reflect a reduction in importance of certain jaw muscles operating at the
sides of the face; or it may reflect an adaptation to cold. Whether it results from any or all of these three
factors or from other, undiscovered causes, this midfacial projection is so characteristic that it unfailingly
identifies a Neanderthal to the trained eye. Neanderthal teeth are much more difficult to characterize: the
front teeth are large, with strong roots, but the back teeth may be relatively small. This feature may have
been an adaptation to cope with heavy tooth wear.
Question 3: Which of the following explanations is not cited as a possible explanation of the Neanderthal’s
streamlined face shape?
A. The nose was set far back
B. Some jaw muscles had limited use
C. The front teeth were particularly important
D. The facial features were well adapted to the cold
Question 4: The paragraph following this passage most probably discusses
A. cave painting of prehistoric time B. flora and fauna of 70000 years ago
C. other features of the Neanderthal anatomy. D. difficulties in preserving fossils.
Question 5: Where in the passage does the author specifically stress the contrast between the Neanderthal
face and that of other biologically related population?
A. Lines 1-4 B. Line 18-20 C. Lines 7-9 D. Line 10-11
A. The effect of climate on human development
B. A comparison of various prehistoric populations
C. The eating habits of the Neanderthals
D. The physical characteristics of the Neanderthals
Question 7: The author describes the Neanderthals as being all of the following EXCEPT _________
A. short B. stocky C. strong D. swift
Question 8: In paragraph 2, the author uses the expression “heavy tooth wear” to imply that the
Neanderthals _________
A. used their teeth extensively B. regularly pulled our their teeth
C. used teeth for ornamentation D. had unusually heavy teeth
Question 9: Which of the following most likely accounts for the fact that the Neanderthal brain was larger
than that of the modern human?
A. The Neanderthal’s midfacial projection
B. The swelling behind the Neanderthal’s head
C. The relatively large size of the Neanderthal’s body.
D. The superior intelligence of the Neanderthal.
Question 10: The phrase “the trained eye” most likely refers to which of the following professionals?
A. A dentist B. An anthropologist C. A photographer D. An optometrist
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Throughout history people have always communicated with one another, not only by speech but also by
movements of the hands and body. It is, however, only (11)_____ the last few years that these aspects of
communication have been studied at all widely. This type of communication is known as body language or
non-verbal communication. People sometimes wonder (12)______you can learn how body language works.
It is of course possible to read books on the subject but you also need to without time observing people’s
movements. A railway station is a particular good place for such observation, as here people can be seen
openly expressing eagerness, sorrow, delight, impatience and many other human emotions by
(13)_________ of movement.
If you turn down the sound on your television set and try to understand (14)______is happening simply by
watching the picture you will learn even more about communication spending words. By turning the sound
back up every five (15)_________ or so, it is possible to check how accurate your understanding is.
Question 11: A. during B. for C. with D. on
Question 12: A. what B. whether C. how D. that
Question 13: A. health B. by means of C. posture D. gesture
Question 14: A. that B. which C. what D. who
Question 15: A. months B. minutes C. hours D. years
correct answer to each of the questions from 16 to 22.
Homing pigeons are placed in a training program from about the time they are twenty-eight days of
age. They are taught to enter the loft through a trap and to exercise above and around the loft, and gradually
they are taken away for short distances in wicker baskets and released. They are then expected to find their
way home in the shortest possible time. In their training flights or in actual races, the birds are taken to
prearranged distant points and released to find their way back to their own lofts. Once the birds are liberated,
their owners, who are standing by at the home lofts, anxiously watch the sky for the return of their entries.
Since time is of the essence, the speed with which the birds can be induced to enter the loft trap may make
the difference between gaining a win or a second place.
The head of a homing pigeon is comparatively small, but its brain is one quarter larger than that of
the ordinary pigeon. The homing pigeon is very intelligent and will persevere to the point of stubbornness;
some have been known to fly a hundred miles off course to avoid a storm.
Some homing pigeon experts claim that this bird is gifted with a form of built-in radar that helps it
find its own loft after hours of flight, for hidden under the head feathers are two very sensitive ears, while the
sharp, prominent eyes can see great distances in daytime.
Why do homing pigeons fly home? They are not unique in this inherent skill: it is found in most
migratory birds, in bees, ants, toads, and even turtles, which have been known to travel hundreds of miles to
return to their homes. But in the animal world, the homing pigeon alone can be trusted with its freedom and
trained to carry out the missions that people demand.
Question 16: In paragraph 2, when the author states that the owners “anxiously watch the sky” there is the
implication that the owners_______________
A. do not trust the rules set down by the judges
B. do not know whether the race began on time
C. are sending rada signals to their pigeons
D. want their pigeon to win the race
Question 17: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To protect homing pigeons against the threat of extinction
B. To encourage the owners of homing pigeons to set the birds free
C. To inform the reader about homing pigeons and their training
D. To convince the reader to buy a homing pigeon
Question 18: According to the passage, what happens to homing pigeons when they are about a month old?
A. They are kept in a trap
B. They get their wings clipped and marked
C. They enter their first race
D. They begin a training program
Question 19: In paragraph 4, the pronoun “it” refers to which of the following?
A. form B. bird C. radar D. loft
Question 20: Why does the author mention bees, ants, toads, and turtles in the last paragraph?
A. to describe some unusual kinds of pets
B. to interest the reader in learning about the animals
C. to compare their home-finding abilities with those of homing pigeons
D. to measure distances traveled by various animals
Question 21: The author mentions all of the following attributes that enable a homing pigeon to return home
EXCEPT_____________
A. air sacs B. sensitive ears C. good eyes D. instinct
Question 22: According to the passage, what is the difference between a homing pigeon and an ordinary
one?
A. the shape of the eyes B. the span of the swings
C. the texture of the feathers D. The size of the brain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 23: The security policy should have been carried out, but it wasn’t. That’s the fault of the
management.
A. It’s not the fault of the management if the security policy has not been carried out.
B. that the security policy has not been carried out is the fault of the management
C. The fault of the management is that they have carried out the security policy.
D. The management has carried out the security policy, but it turned out to be a fault.
Question 24: You can do any job. The only condition is that you have the right qualifications for it.
A. If you can do any job, you’ll have the right qualifications for it.
B. Unless you have the right qualifications for it, you can do any job.
C. You can do any job providing you have the right qualifications for it.
D. Because of having the right qualifications for any job, you can do it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 25: She’s an introvert. She tends to think a lot and not to say a lot
A. a thinker B. a researcher C. a wrongdoer D. an extrovert
Question 26: He always makes snap decisions and never thinks about their consequences.
A. careless B. cautions C. intelligent D. immediate
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Sandra has not rarely missed a play or concert since she was seventeen years old
A. not rarely B. a play C. since D. was seventeen years old
Question 28: Only after announcing the winner of the best picture in Oscar 2017 Warren Beatty realized
that he had read out the wrong film name.
A. announcing B. the
C. Warren Beatty realized D. raed
Question 29: As you use them , remember that this glossary is intended to be a guide and that nothing in it
is absolute
A. them B. intended to be C. in it D. absolute
Question 30: We can't decide until we hear all the advantages and disadvantages of the matter.
A. It’s not until all the advantages and disadvantages of the matter are heard can we decide.
B. Before we can come to a decision, we’ll need to hear all the pros and cons of the matter.
C. We’ll know the advantages and disadvantages of the matter after we’ve made a decision
D. Unless we hear all the advantages and disadvantages, we can make a decision.
Question 31: His sudden outburst in the office was surprising because he’s never seemed to lose control.
A. That he’s never seemed to lose control led to his sudden outburst in the office.
B. He always seemed very self-controlled, so I was amazed by his sudden outburst in the office
C. His sudden outburst in the office showed that he’s never seemed to lose control.
D. I was so amazed by his sudden outburst in the office that I seemed to lose control.
Question 32: There won’t be any improvement in our schools because they keep interfering
A. As they won’t keep interfering, there won’t be any improvement in our schools.
B. Since there isn't any improvement, they keep interfering in our schools.
C. Only when they stop interfering will see any improvement in our schools.
D. Only when do they stop interfering there will be any improvement in our schools.
Question 33: A. horse B. oases C. goose D. crisis
Question 34: A. ancient B. angle C. capable D. danger
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 35: The milk went ______because Tim forgot to put it back in the fridge.
A. off B. down C. under D. out
Question 36: Actors and pop stars are known for their extravagant spending habits and _________ end up
broke
A. them all B. many of whom C. many of them D. many of which
Question 37: The booklet is printed in big letters ______even the old and young to read with unaided eyes
A. with a view to B. in order for C. so that D. so as to
Question 38: Hurricanes ___________during this time of year.
A. almost never occur B. almost occur never C. never occur almost D. occur almost never
Question 39: We’ve lost everything. Still, there’s no point in complaining. We’ll just have to try and make
___________
A. no bones about it B. a splash C. the best of a bad job D. a clean sweep
Question 40: We suggest that she ____ the 10.30 train immediately.
A. take B. has to take C. might take D. may take
Question 41: I’d like to eat more of this cake, but it’s very __________
A. fattening B. fatty C. fat D. fattened
Question 42: Do you realize __________you take after your mother?
A. how far B. how many C. how much D. what extent
Question 43: Donald Trump has suggested he could grant legal status to millions of undocumented
immigrants who have not _____serious crimes in what could be a major policy shift.
A. committed B. took C. served D. done
Question 44: Can I help you, sir?” – “I’m looking for a ________table”
A. wooden round fashionable B. round wooden fashionable
C. wooden fashionable round D. fashionable round wooden
Question 45: We know everything about the newest member of our group; she was very _________
A. expensive B. secretive C. artistic D. reserved
Question 46: The_________of life forms on the earth makes zoology an interesting area of study.
A. size B. wealth C. diversity D. crowd
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 47: A. stability B. archeology C. eliminate D. magnificent
Question 48: A. attend B. apply C. appear D. visit
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 49: He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking.
A. frightens me B. moves me C. steers me D. irritates me
Question 50: I think we can safely say now that we have got our money back, we are home and dry
A. have not got wet B. have been successful
C. have got home dry D. have got to water
Đề thi thử THPTQG_lần 1 trường THPT Hòa Vang Đà Nẵng
Môn: Tiếng Anh
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.
The application (1)_________ for volunteers for the 15th Asian Games Doha 2006 is now closed.
Organizers have been flooded with interest and have now filled all available roles. Any further
(2)__________will have their details stored on file and will only be contacted in the event of any vacancies
unexpectedly arising.
Over 30,000 men and women, not only from Qatar, but also from the Gulf (3)__________and even further
afield, have volunteered to help out at Doha 2006 after more than two years of meetings and interviews. First
of all, a big “thank you” to everyone for your enthusiasm and commitment in volunteering to give up some
of your precious free time to become part of the Games of your Life. The (4)______ has been quite
overwhelming and has far exceeded expectations.
“It shows that the Qatar public has embraced the (5)_________of the Games”, says Khaled Helaly, manager
of the Doha 2006 Volunteers Programme
Question 1: A. growth B. development C. process D. progress
Question 2: A. applicant B. student C. competitor D. citizen
Question 3: A. Corner B. address C. section D. region
Question 4: A. response B. replace C. repeat D. rely
Question 5: A. spirit B. name C. value D. position
Question 6: The teacher said: “If you have any questions, don’t hesitate to ask me”.
A. He asked if his students had any questions.
B. He encouraged his students to ask questions.
C. He wanted to know if his students hesitated to ask questions.
D. He wanted his students to think twice before asking.
Question 7: You should give up smoking before it is too late.
A. It’s too late for you to give up smoking. B. It’s never late to stop smoking.
C. It’s high time for you to give up smoking. D. Your smoking is too late to stop.
Question 8: As he earned more money, Mike bought more clothes
A. When Mike earned a lot of money, he bought more and more clothes
B. The more money Mike earned, the better clothes he bought.
C. The most money Mike earned, the most clothes he bought.
D. The more money Mike earned, the more clothes he bought.
Question 9: A. loves B. kills C. meets D. needs
Question 10: A. headquarter B. appealing C. colleague D. peaceful
Question 11: A. appointment B. admission C. impression D. management
Question 12: A. apologize B. vulnerable C. rhinoceros D. enthusiast
Ever since humans have inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication.
Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a
language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters,
words and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have no resort to this form of expression. Many of these
symbols of the whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally: spelling,
however, can not.
Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink
can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking
the head indicates a negative reaction.
Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with fingertips),
signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn and instruct
people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also
express human thoughts and feelings.
Question 13: Which of the following best summarizes this passage?
A. Everybody uses only one form of communication
B. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication.
C. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners.
D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest.
Question 14: The word “these" is the first passage refers to_________.
A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute
C. thoughts and feelings D. sign language motions
Question 15: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT______________
A. the deaf and the mute use an oral form of communication
B. verbalization is the most common form of communication
C. there are many forms of communication in existence today
D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language
Question 16: Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among the blind people?
A. Body language B. Picture signs C. Braille D. Signal flags
Question 17: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11
Question 18: Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally
EXCEPT for____________
A. spelling B. ideas C. whole words D. expressions
Question 19: People need to communicate in order to__________
A. keep from reading with their fingertips B. create language barriers
C. express thoughts and feelings D. be picturesque and exact
Question 20: What is the best title for the passage?
A. The Importance of Sign Language B. Picturesque symbols of communication
C. Ways of expressing feelings D. Many forms of communication
Question 21: Do you know the worman? She is coming toward us.
A. Do you know the woman who comes toward us?
B. Do you know the wormanto come toward us?
C. Is the woman coming toward us who knows?
D. Do you know the worman coming toward us?
Question 22: Jack’s watch was ten minutes slow. That was why he was late for his interview
A. If Jack’s watch hadn’t been ten minutes slow, he wouldn’t be late for his interview
B. If Jack’s watch hadn’t been ten minutes slow, he wouldn’t have been late for his interview
C. If Jack hadn’t been late for his interview, his watch wouldn’t have been ten minutes slow
D. If Jack’s watch weren’t ten minutes slow, he wouldn’t be late for his interview
Question 23: During their five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.
A. going off B. going over C. going by D. going ahead
Question 24: Last Saturday, the representatives of three classes of my school took part in the annual final
English Competition organized by our English teacher.
A. delegates B. appointees C. ombudsmen D. agents
Question 25: These are all stars, professional teams composed of 22 players each.
A. stupid B. ugly C. amateurish D. ill
Question 26: In order to make sure that these rare animals do not disappear, efforts have been made to
protect endangered species
A. leave B. abandon C. shoot D. kick
correct answer to each of the questions from 27 to 33
Many people believe that watching television has resulted in lower reading standards in schools. However,
the link between television and printed books is not as simple as that. In many cases, television actually
encourages people to read; for example, when a book is turned into a TV series, its sales often go up.
One study of this link examined six-year-old children who were viewing a special series of 15-minute
programs at school. The series was designed to encourage love of books, as well as to develop the basic
mechanical skills of reading. Each program is an animated film of a children's book. The story is read aloud
and certain key phrases from the book appear on the screen, beneath the picture. Whenever a word is read, it
is also highlighted on the TV screen.
One finding was that watching these programs was very important to the children. If anything prevented
them from seeing a program, they were very disappointed. What's more, they wanted to read the books
which the different parts of the series were based on.
The programs also gave the children more confidence when looking at these books. As a result of their
familiarity with the stories, they would sit in pairs and read the stories aloud to each other. On each occasion,
the children showed great sympathy when discussing a character in a book because they themselves had
been moved when watching the character on television.
Question 27: When does television encourage people to read?
A. When children are watching an animated film on Triệu-vũ
B. When a book is made into a TV series
C. When there are no interesting programs on Triệu-vũ
D. When a book appears on the screen
Question 28: How did children feel when viewing a special series of 15-minute program at school?
A. They felt confident. B. They felt bored.
C. They felt disappointed D. They felt excited.
Question 29: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The ways of children reading books and watching
B. The simple link between television and books
C. The influence of television on reading books
D. The advantage of books over television
Question 30: What advantage did children have from this program?
A. They became more interested in watching Triệu-vũ
B. They became more sympathetic.
C. They made more friends.
D. They read books with more interest and confidence
Question 31: What kind of film is each program?
A. An animated film of a children's book B. A story film of a children's book
C. An educational film D. A documentary film of children's life
Question 32: Who were the subjects of the study?
A. all people B. Six-year-old children
C. All school children D. Adolescents
Question 33: The series was designed _____________
A. to examine children’s mind B. to promote the children’s love of books
C. to develop their listening skill D. to sale more books
Question 34: The computer isn't working – it broke ____________this morning.
A. out B. into C. down D. over
Question 35: According to official statistics, more than 60,000 blindness operations ________in Vietnam
each year.
A. are performed B. are operated C. are there D. offered
Question 36: ________must satisfy the requirement for admission to the university.
A. Applications B. Applicators C. Applicants D. Applying
Question 37: We are late because we got stuck in ___________traffic jam.
A. a B. an C. the D. none
Question 38: It’s your own fault. You _______them to go out on their own; they are still new here.
A. musn’t have allowed B. can't allow
C. shouldn’t allow D. shouldn’t have allowed
Question 39: ________we jog, __________we are.
A. The most/the healthiest B. the most/the healthiest
C. The more/the more healthy D. the more/the healthier
Question 40: ________she agreed, you wouldn’t have done it.
A. if B. Should C. Unless D. Had
Question 41: I’d rather you ________me the truth now.
A. tell B. talked C. told D. say
Question 42: Laura showed up for the meeting ____________I asked her not to be there.
A. because B. when C. until D. although
Question 43: Peter, ______________, finally arrived.
A. who we’ve been waiting for B. for whom we’d been waiting
C. whom we’d been waiting D. that we’d been waiting for
Question 44: They asked me __________in Los Angeles then..
A. whether was my father working B. if my father was working
C. whether my father had been working D. that you father was working
Question 45: You’d better ______your car_______immediately.
A. to have/serviced B. have/serviced C. have/service D. to have/service
Mark the letter A,B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
Question 46: You have just given on acquaintance a lift to the supermarket, then he/she asks you:
-Your friend. “Could you wait until I come back?”.
-You. “_________”
A. Thank you very much B. Yes, please do
C. I’d rather not. Sorry D. That would be great!
Question 47: On the street, two friends are talking about a place to have lunch. Anna: “yes, there’s a
wonderful restaurant right down the street from the school”.
Susan: _________
Anna: “Yes. And the food is good too”
A. Do they often go there? B. Is it, really like that
C. Do you like good food? D. Are the prices reasonable?
in each of the following questions
Question 48: No sooner had the wind stopped blowing when it started to rain heavily
A. had B. stopped blowing C. when D. heavily
Question 49: Celebrity is a person who works hard to become well-known and then wears dark glasses to
avoid recognize
A. Celebrity B. who works hard C. then D. recognize
Question 50: In spite of their size, multinational corporations often make products at lower costs than local
industries can.
A. In spite of B. multinational C. lower costs D. can
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1
SỞ GD&ĐT TP. HỒ CHÍ MINH MÔN ANH VĂN – KHỐI 12
TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
(50 câu trắc nghiệm)
Câu 1: A. marriage B. response C. maintain D. believe
Câu 2: A. obedient B. decision C. mischievous D. biologist
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following questions
Câu 3: The marathon, first staged in 1896, ______ the legendary feat of a Greek soldier who carried news of
victory from the battle at Marathon to Athens.
A. commemorates B. commemorated
C. was commemorated D. commemorating
Câu 4: Football is thought ___________ in the world.
A. to have played the most popular sport B. to be the most popular sport
C. to play the most popular sport D. to have been the most popular sport
Câu 5: The number of unemployed people __________ recently.
A. is increasing B. has increased C. have increased D. increase
Câu 6: I believe that he was concerned __________ all those matters which his wife mentioned.
A. upon B. over C. above D. with
Câu 7: I ________ very well with my roommate now. We never have arguments.
A. carry on B. go on C. put on D. get on
Câu 8: Can you tell me who is responsible _____________ checking passports?
A. to B. in C. for D. about
Câu 9: When my father was young, he ______ get up early to do gardening.
A. used to B. was used to C. got used to D. use to
Câu 10: The preparation_________ by the time the guest_________
A. have finished- arrived B. had been finished- arrived
C. had finished-were arriving D. have been finished- were arrived
Câu 11: If she had known how awful this job was going to be, she__________it.
A. wouldn't have accepted B. would have accepted
C. would accept D. wouldn't accept
Câu 12: Jack asked his sister ______.
A. where would she go the following day B. where you will go tomorrow
C. where you have gone tomorrow D. where she would go the following day
Câu 13: The mother told her son _______ so impolitely
A. didn't behave B. to behave C. not behave D. not to behave
Câu 14: Eugenie Clark has a wide __________ about cultures of many countries in the world
A. known B. knowing C. knowledge D. know
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in the following questions
Câu 15: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. arrive B. encounter C. happen D. clean
Câu 16: It was obvious to everyone that the child had been badly treated.
A. significant B. unclear C. evident D. frank
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Câu 17: Anne: “Make yourself at home”.
John: “ _______”
A. That’s very kind of you. Thank you B. Thanks! The same to you!
C. Not at all. Don’t mention it D. Yes, can I help you?
Câu 18: Kate: “Thank you for the lovely present. ” – Peter: “ ____________ ”
A. I’m pleased you like it B. Not at all
C. Go ahead D. come on
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Câu 19: A. carpet B. school C. facial D. contact
Câu 20: A. takes B. develops C. volumes D. laughs
Câu 21: The basic elements of public-opinion research are interviewers, questionnaires, tabulating equipment,
A B C
and to sample the population.
D
Câu 22: She asked why did Mathew look so embarrassed when he saw Carole.
A B C D
Câu 23: Higher education is very importance to national economies and it is also a source of trained and
A B
educated personnel for the whole country
C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Keeping your distance
Personal space is a term that refers (24) ………. the distance we like to keep between ourselves and
other people. When (25) …………. we do not know well gets too close we usually begin to feel uncomfortable.
If a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most common response is to move (26) ……… .
Some interesting (27) ……….. have been done in libraries. If strangers come too close, many people
get up and leave the building; others use different methods such as turning their back on the intruder.
Living in cities has made people develop new skills for dealing with situations where they are very close to
strangers. Most people on crowded trains try not to look at strangers; they avoid skin contact, and apologize if
hands touch by mistake. People use newspapers (28) …….. a barrier between themselves and other people, and
if they do not have one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking into anyone’s eyes.
Câu 24: A. from B. about C. to D. for
Câu 25: A. people B. anyone C. someone D. nobody
Câu 26: A. up B. away C. on D. in
Câu 27: A. survey B. questionnaires C. research D. studies
Câu 28: A. like B. alike C. as D. such as
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in the following questions
Câu 29: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.
A. divorced B. separated C. single D. married
Câu 30: In Western culture, it is polite to maintain eye contact during conversation.
A. irresponsible B. discourteous C. insecure D. informal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Câu 31: He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.
A. If only he had been able to finish his book.
B. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book.
Câu 32: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
B. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
C. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
D. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Câu 33: They believe a single gunman carried out the attack.
A. The attack’s is believed to have carried out a single gunman
B. A single gunman is believed to have carried out the attack
C. It is believed to be carried out the attack by a single gunman.
D. It is believed that the attack has been carried out by a single gunman.
Câu 34: "I'm sorry. I didn’t do the homework." said the boy.
A. The boy admitted not doing the homework.
B. The boy said that he was sorry and he wouldn’t do the homework.
C. The boy denied not doing the homework.
D. The boy refused to do the homework.
Câu 35: You can stay in the flat for free as long as you pay the bills.
A. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free.
B. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat.
C. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it.
D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions below.
FAMILY LIFE IN THE UNITED STATES
Family life in the United States is changing. Fifty or sixty years ago, the wife was called a
“housewife”. She cleaned, cooked, and cared for the children. The husband earned the money for the family. He
was usually out working all day. He came home tired in the evening, so he did not do much housework. And he
did not see the children very much, except on weekends.
These days, however, more and more women work outside the home. They cannot stay with the children
all day. They, too, come home tired in the evening. They do not want to spend the evening cooking dinner and
cleaning up. They do not have time to clean the house and do the laundry. So who is going to do the housework
now? Who is going to take care of the children?
Many families solve the problem of housework by sharing it. In these families, the husband and wife
agree to do different jobs around the house, or they take turns doing each job. For example, the husband always
cooks dinner and the wife always does the laundry. Or the wife cooks dinner on some nights and the
husband cooks dinner on other nights.
Then there is the question of the children. In the past, many families got help with child care from
grandparents. Now families usually do not live near their relatives. The grandparents are often too far away to
help in a regular way. More often, parents have to pay for child care help. The help may be a babysitter or a
day-care center. The problem with this kind of help is the high cost. It is possible only for couples with jobs that
pay well.
Parents may get another kind of help from the companies they work for. Many companies now let
people with children work part-time. That way, parents can spend more time with their children. Some
husbands may even stop working for a while to stay with the children. For these men there is a new word: they
are called “househusbands''. In the USA more and more men are becoming househusbands every year.
These changes in the home mean changes in the family. Fathers can learn to understand their
children better, and the children can get to know their fathers better. Husbands and wives may also find changes
in their marriage. They, too, may have a better understanding of each other.
Câu 36: Sixty years ago, most women ____________
A. went out to work B. had no children
C. did not do much housework D. were housewives
Câu 37: Nowadays, there are __________.
A. more women going out to work than before
B. more and more women staying with the children all day
C. more work outside the home than before
D. more housewives than before
Câu 38: The word “laundry” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________
A. tidying up B. cooking and washing up
C. washing and ironing D. shopping
Câu 39: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that__________.
A. couples with low-paid jobs can’t afford the cost of a babysitter or a day-care center
B. grandparents can help care the children in a regular way
C. all couples with jobs can pay for help from a babysitter or a day-care center
D. in the past, grandparents did not help the couples with child care
Câu 40: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to _______________
A. husbands who stop working to stay with the children
B. fathers who spend more time with their children
C. parents who work part-time
D. children who spend more time with fathers than mothers
Câu 41: The changes in the American home mentioned in this passage may ___________
A. help families B. not happen
C. cause problems for a marriage D. not change the children at all
Câu 42: This article is about ________
A. American men as house husbands B. housewives in America
C. how more American women are working D. how family life in America is changing
answer to each of the questions below.
Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than
speech. A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language.
Human beings have been writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they
have been talking for much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly.
Even today there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before
we learn to write; any human child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to
talk: a normal human being cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to
learn to write. In the past many intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and
even today many who speak languages with writing systems never learn to read or write, while some
who learn the rudiments of those skills do so only imperfectly.
To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter. One
advantage writing has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any
civilization must have. Thus, if speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized.
Câu 43: We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because ______.
A. writing is secondary to language
B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years
C. it has become very important in our culture
D. people have been writing since there have been human beings
Câu 44: The author of the passage argues that ______.
A. speech is more basic to language than writing
B. writing has become too important in today’s society
C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write
D. all languages should have a written form
Câu 45: According to the passage, writing ______.
A. is represented perfectly by speech B. represents speech, but not perfectly
C. developed from imperfect speech D. is imperfect, but less so than speech
Câu 46: Normal human beings ______.
A. learn to talk after learning to write B. learn t o write before learning to talk
C. learn to write and to talk at the same time D. learn to talk before learning to write
Câu 47: Learning to write is ______.
A. easy B. too difficult C. not easy D. very easy
Câu 48: In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of
______.
A. people who learn the rudiments of speech B. severely handicapped children
C. intelligent people who couldn’t write D. people who speak many languages
Câu 49: In the author’s judgment, ______.
A. writing has more advantages than speech
B. writing is more real than speech
C. speech conveys ideas less accurately than writing does
D. speech is essential but writing has important benefits
Câu 50: The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means ______.
A. “rudiments” B. “skill” C. “domination” D. “benefit”
----------- HẾT ------------

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................SBD……
SỞ GD & ĐT NGHỆ AN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1
TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ VIẾT THUẬT Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. employment B. company C. atmosphere D. customer
Question 2: A. listen B. follow C. offer D. precede
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. ancient B. vertical C. compose D. eradicate
Question 4: A. approached B. sacrificed C. unwrapped D. obliged
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
Question 5: The small white flowers are my favorite. They give off a wonderful honey smell
A. end B. stop C. release D. melt
Question 6: As a result of sophisticated technology, this device has several advantages over other products.
A. advanced B. traditional C. detrimental D. constructive
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 7: Dogs that are trained to lead the blind must be loyalty, intelligent and calm.
A. Dogs that B. trained C. the D. loyalty
Question 8: He told us about the hotel that he had stayed the previous summer.
A. told B. hotel that C. had D. previous summer
Question 9: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A. smoking B. effects C. on D. have been proved.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 10: Mary and Jane are classmates. They are talking about Mary’s new hairstyle. - Jane: What an
attractive hairstyle you have got, Mary! - Mary: _______
A. Well, I’m afraid not.B. Thank you for your compliment.
C. You can’t believe it!D. I can’t agree with you more.
Question 11: A mother is complaining to her son that his room gets dusty. - Mother: Haven’t you tidied up
your room yet? - Son: _______
A. I will, after I do all the exercises in my textbook.
B. I have my hands full with my tidying.
C. The more I tidy, the worse it gets.
D. Why don’t you give me a hand with cleaning?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 12: They never made us do anything we didn’t want to do.
A. We had never been made to do anything we didn’t want to do.
B. We were never made to do anything we didn’t want to do.
C. We were never allowed to do anything we wanted to do.
D. We were never made do anything we didn’t want to do.
Question 13: The worker only called off the strike after a new pay offer.
A. Not until a new pay was offered, the workers called off the strike.
B. The worker called off the strike only when a new pay offers.
C. A new pay was offered, which made the strike call off.
D. Not until a new pay was offered did the workers call off the strike.
Question 14: "Don't forget to give the book back to Mary", said he.
A. He advised me to give the book back to Mary.
B. He reminded me to forget to give the book back to Mary.
C. He reminded me to give the book back to Mary.
D. He advised me to forget to give the book back to Mary.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
Question 15: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.
A. Living in difficult conditions forced her to study very well.
B. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
C. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
D. Difficult as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
Question 16: He telephoned from a public call-box. He didn’t want the call to be traced to his own address
A. He telephoned from a public call-box in order the call could be traced to his own address.
B. He telephoned from a public call-box in order that the call could be traced to his own address.
C. He telephoned from a public call-box so that the call couldn’t be traced to his own address.
D. He telephoned from a public call-box so the call can’t be traced to his own address.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in each
Question 17: Henry hoped that his sons would someday take over his retail business and maintain the high
level of customer service and satisfaction that Henry valued so much.
A. eliminate B. continue C. uphold D. connect
Question 18: Tom Swayer became internationally famous for his novels.
A. well known B. celebrated C. unknown D. infamous.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
Although people drive in all countries, the rules can be quite different between nations and areas. For this
reason, you should always learn the laws before you decide to drive in a foreign country. If you are not
careful, you can get into trouble since the rules might be very different from what you are used to. For
example, you can find some big differences in laws related to the minimum driving age, the appropriate side
of the road to drive on, and mobile phone use while driving.
In the U.S., people who live in Alaska may obtain a learner’s permit (legal permission to drive while being
supervised) at the age of fourteen. This is quite different from the driving laws of Niger, where a person must
be at least twenty-three years old to drive. If you are inquisitive to know the minimum driving age in most
countries, the answer is eighteen. It may also surprise you to learn that not every country allows its citizens to
drive, although most of them do. For example, women are not allowed to drive in Saudi Arabia no matter how
old they are. Instead, they must have a male family member or hired male driver to travel by car.
Driving on the right or left side of the road also varies. For instance, in Great Britain, Cyprus, Australia, India,
and Malaysia people drive on the left. However, in the U.S., Mexico, France, and Canada people are required
to drive on the right. As a matter of fact, one country can have different driving rules for different areas.
People in Hong Kong drive on the left, while drivers in other parts of China use the right side of the road.
Other driving laws that are different between countries include those related to using mobile phones. In Japan,
using any kind of mobile phone device is illegal, even if you do not need to hold the phone with your hands.
However, in Argentina and Australia, drivers are allowed to talk on their mobile phones as long as they do not
use their hands.
You might also find it interesting to learn that some countries have very unusual laws. For example, in the
country of Cyprus, it is against the law to eat or drink anything while driving. Even more interesting is that in
Germany, there is a famous road called the Autobahn, where certain parts have no speed limit at all!
Question 19: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Females can drive a car in Saudi Arabia.
B. People in India drive on the right side of the road.
C. You can drive as fast as you want on all parts of the German Autobahn.
D. You are not allowed to hold your mobile phone and talk while you drive in Australia.
Question 20: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a main difference in driving laws in this passage?
A. Drink driving limit B. Legal driving age
C. Right or left hand traffic D. Safety calls
Question 21: According to the passage, it is illegal to eat or drink while driving in_______.
A. Cyprus B. Great Britain C. China D. Australia
Question 22: It is important to learn the laws before driving in a foreign country because_______.
A. It is fun to learn about other countries’ driving laws.
B. You can get into trouble when you are not used to another country’s rules.
C. You can have a car accident if you do not know the rules.
D. It helps you identify the appropriate side of the road to drive on.
Question 23: The word “inquisitive” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by _______.
A. indifferent B. concerned C. nosy D. curious
Question 24: The word “those” in paragraph 4 refers to_______.
A. drivers B. mobile phones C. driving laws D. countries
A. Driving in all countries shares a common purpose.
B. There are differences in laws related to driving among countries.
C. Countries have different ways to enact laws on driving.
D. People in different countries drive on different sides of the road.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 26: _______that Jane was able to retire at the age of 50.
A. Her business was successful B. So successful was her business
C. So successful her business was D. So was her successful business
Question 27: My supervisor is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work I _______ last week.
A. need to have done B. should have done C. must have done D. may have done
Question 28: I _______along the street when I suddenly heard footsteps behind me.
A. was walking B. am walking C. walk D. walked
Question 29: It is imperative that he _______ the school regulations.
A. would obey B. obey C. will obey D. obeys
Question 30: _______, the more terrible the terrorism will become.
A. The more powerful weapons are B. The more weapons are powerful
C. The weapons more powerful are D. Weapons are the more powerful
Question 31: Mr. Brown was obliged to pay damages to his neighbours in _______for the devastations his pet
dogs made in their garden.
A. penalty B. reparation C. reward D. compensation
Question 32: Don’t _______to conclusions, we don’t yet know all the relevant facts.
A. hurry B. rush C. run D. jump
Question 33: Losing my job was a great shock, but I think I’m _______ it.
A. seeing to B. putting up with C. standing for D. getting over
Question 34: The biggest company in our local area is _______the verge of bankruptcy.
A. on B. in C. at D. from
Question 35: Mark enjoys having fun by causing trouble. He’s a very _______ boy.
A. strong-willed B. mischievous C. obedient D. well-behaved
Question 36: He spent the entire night thinking and in the end _______a brilliant idea.
A. came up to B. catch up with C. came up with D. get through to
Question 37: His achievements were partly due to the____________ of his wife.
A. assist B. assistant C. assisted D. assistance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
TRANSPORT IN THE CITY
Transport plays an important role in our daily lives and in the quality of life in our city. Moreover, the
individual decisions we make when we choose how to (38)_______our destination can have an impact (39)
_____other people – longer traffic queues, worsening air quality, greater number of accidents and health
problems. Providing more transport options will create a transport system that is safe, clean and fair.
Increasing use of the car has led to greater (40) ____ of the impact it has and the real cost to us – for our
health, for the economy and for the environment. We want our city to become a successful, cosmopolitan city
by the sea, (41) _______people can enjoy a high quality of life in a pleasant environment. To (42)_______this
we need to make sure everyone has access to the services and facilities they need, through a choice of as many
different means of transport as possible.
Question 38: A. get B. reach C. arrive D. come
Question 39: A. on B. about C. of D. in
Question 40: A. interest B. awareness C. campaign D. transfer
Question 41: A. whom B. which C. where D. that
Question 42: A. decide B. consider C. use D. achieve
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
There is a strange paradox to the success of the Asian education model. On the one hand, class sizes are huge
by Western standards with between 30 and 40 students per class, in countries like Japan and Korea. On the
other hand, school children in developed Asian economies rank among the highest in the world for academic
achievement in the areas of science and mathematics, especially on standardised tests. Meanwhile, British
secondary school students fail to shine in conditions most educational researchers would say are far more
likely to help them succeed.
Classroom management seems to be easier in places like Korea, and perhaps lessons are more effective as a
direct consequence. After all, we are only too aware of the decline in discipline standards in our own school:
belligerent and disrespectful students appear to be the norm these days. Teachers in Britain seem powerless to
control what happens anymore. Surely this situation cannot create a very effective learning environment, so
perhaps the number of students is far less relevant than is the manner in which they conduct themselves.
But there are other factors to consider, too. There is the home environment. The traditional family unit still
remains relatively intact in Korea. Few children come from broken homes, so there is a sense of security,
safety and trust both at home and at school. In Britain meanwhile, one in every two marriages fails and
divorce rates are sky high. Perhaps children struggle to cope with unstable family conditions and their only
way to express their frustration is by misbehaving at school.
But while the Japanese, Korean and Asian models generally do seem to produce excellent results, the statistics
don’t tell the whole truth. You see, behind those great maths and science scores, there is a quite remarkable
work ethic. Asian students tend to put their education before literally everything else. They do very few
extracurricular activities and devote far more time to their studies than their British peers.
There has been a lot of attention and praise given to these Asian models and their “impressive” statistics of
late. And without question, some of this praise is justified, but it seems to be a case of two extremes in
operation here. At one end, there is the discipline and unbelievably hard work ethic of the Asian students –
success in education before all else. At the other end, British students at times appear careless and extremely
undisciplined by comparison, but at least they Do have the free time to enjoy their youth and explore their
interests. Is either system better outright? Or is it perhaps about time we stopped comparing and started trying
to combine the best bits of both, so that we can finally offer our students a balanced, worthwhile education
Question 43: The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to_______.
A. British students B. Asian students C. Korean students D. Japanese students
Question 44: British secondary school students_______.
A. have larger class sizes B. fail at school more than they succeed
C. do better on standardized tests D. enjoy better classroom conditions
Question 45: What can be implied from the writer’s opinion of the two educational systems discussed?
A. The Asian system is clearly better.
B. The British system is too strict.
C. Neither system is perfect.
D. Both systems are quite satisfactory for different reasons.
Question 46: The traditional family unit_______.
A. is more common in Korean than in Britain
B. is disappearing in Korean due to high divorce rates
C. is bad for children that come from broken homes
D. is unstable in Korean due to conditions in the home
Question 47: What does the writer mean when he says there is a “paradox” in the Asian education model?
A. There are too many students in each class.
B. You would expect larger classes to get poorer results but they do not.
C. Class sizes are much smaller in other parts of the world.
D. Asian students outperform their peers in other countries.
Question 48: What does the writer suggest might make lessons in Korean schools more successful than in
Britain?
A. Better teacher B. Better school Boards of Management
C. More effective lesson planning D. Better discipline
Question 49: The word “unstable ” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by_______.
A. unsteady B. unchangeable C. unpredictable D. unimportant
Question 50: According to the writer, Asian students_______.
A. focus too much on recreational activities
B. don’t have as good a work ethic as British ones
C. don’t allow themselves much time to relax and have fun
D. make a big deal of their good results
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1
TRƯỜNG THPT QUẢNG XƯƠNG 1 Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
(Đề thi có 07 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
1. The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the rain.
A. is beginning B. wooden C. surrounded D. because of
2. The amounts of oxygen and nitrogen in the air almost always remain stable, but the amount of water
vapor vary considerably.
A. vary B. almost always C. The amount of D. stable
3. Quinine, cinnamon, and other useful substances are all derived of the bark of trees.
A. are B. bark of trees C. derived of D. other useful substances
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the contributions of
women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed United States. Lacking the
right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an important force in history.
Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the
best contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters
showing she exercised great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United
States. But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During these centuries, women remained
invisible in history books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female
authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur historians.
Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection and use of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by keeping
records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local women's organizations
compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were
saved and stored. These sources from the core of the two greatest collections of women's history in the
United States one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the
Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials for later
Generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth Century, most
of the writing about women conformed to the "great women" theory of History, just as much of mainstream
American history concentrated on "great men." To demonstrate that women were making significant
contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else
important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as
reformers, activists working for women's right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the
great of ordinary woman. The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American
histories being published.
4. In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of nineteenth- century
"great women" EXCEPT ________.
A. reformers B. politicians
C. activists for women's rights D. authors
5. The word "they" in the 2nd paragraph refers to ________.
A. sources B. efforts C. authors D. counterparts
6. In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that ________.
A. even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored
B. poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women
C. only three women were able to get their writing published
D. a woman's status was changed by marriage
7. The word "representative" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to________.
A. satisfied B. typical C. distinctive D. supportive
8. In the 2 paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point out?
A. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
B. They were printed on poor-quality paper.
C. They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics.
D. They put too much emphasis on daily activities.
9. What use was made of the nineteenth-century women's history materials in the Schlesinger Library and
the Sophia Smith Collection?
A. They provided valuable information for twentieth- century historical researchers.
B. They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth century.
C. They were shared among women's colleges throughout the United States.
D. They were combined and published in a multi volume encyclopedia.
10. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The place of American women in written histories
B. The "great women" approach to history used by American historians
C. The keen sense of history shown by American women
D. The role of literature in early American histories
11. I would rather you wore something more formal to work.
A. I'd prefer you wearing something more formal to work.
B. I'd prefer you to wear something more formal to work.
C. I'd prefer you should wear something more formal to work.
D. I'd prefer you wear something more formal to work.
12. Had we left any later, we would have missed the train.
A. We didn't miss the train because it left late.
B. We left too late to catch the train.
C. Because the train was late, we missed it.
D. We almost missed the train.
13. "Why can't you do your work more carefully? " said Henry's boss.
A. Henry's boss criticized him for doing his job carelessly.
B. Henry's boss asked him not to do his job with care.
C. Henry's boss suggested doing the job more carefully.
D. Henry's boss warned him to do the job carefully.
14. A. lives B. plays C. works D. buys
15. A. picked B. worked C. naked D. booked
16. He felt tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain
B. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. As a result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
17. The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.
A. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday.
B. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday.
C. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months.
D. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
18. A. cosmetics B. fertility C. experience D. economics
19. A. informality B. appropriate C. situation D. entertainment
It is commonly believed that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been
said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The difference between schooling and
education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no limits. It
can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in the kitchen or on a tractor. It
includes both the formal learning that takes place in school and the whole universe of informal learning.
The agent (doer) of education can vary from respected grandparents to the people arguing about politics on
the radio, from a child to a famous scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite
often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is
known of other religions. People receive education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad,
inclusive term; it is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that
should be a necessary part of one’s entire life.
Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from
one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at about the same time, take the
assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The
pieces of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings
of governments, have been limited by the subjects being taught. For example, high school students know
that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their society or what
the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are clear and undoubted conditions surrounding the
formalized process of schooling.
20. In the passage, the expression "children interrupt their education to go to school" mostly implies
that________.
A. schooling prevents people discovering things
B. schooling takes place everywhere
C. all of life is an education
D. education is totally ruined by schooling
21. What does the writer mean by saying ''education quite often produces surprises"?
A. Educators often produce surprises.
B. Informal learning often brings about unexpected results.
C. Success of informal learning is predictable.
D. It's surprising that we know little about other religions.
22. Which of the following would the writer support?
A. Without formal education, people won't be able to read and write.
B. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
C. Schooling is of no use because students do similar things everyday.
D. Our education system needs to be changed as soon as possible.
23. According to the passage, the doers of education are ________.
A. only respected grandparents B. mostly famous scientists
C. mainly politicians D. almost all people
24. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Education and schooling are quite different experience.
B. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.
C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.
D. The best schools teach a variety of subjects.
25. The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. workings of governments B. newest film makers
C. political problems D. high school students
26. The word "all-inclusive" in the passage mostly means ________.
A. including everything or everyone B. going in many directions
C. involving many school subjects D. allowing no exceptions
27. This passage is mainly aimed at ________.
A. telling the difference between the meanings of two related words "schooling" and "education"
B. telling a story about excellent teachers
C. listing and discussing several educational problems
D. giving examples of different schools
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
28. When I mentioned the party, he was all ears.
A. using both ears B. listening neglectfully
C. listening attentively D. partially deaf
29. John wants to buy a new car, so he starts setting aside a small part of his monthly earnings.
A. spending on B. putting out C. using up D. saving up
HOW TO AVOID MISCOMMUNICATION IN THE WORKPLACE
As a small-business owner, you can avoid many problems simply by improving communication in
your office.
By clarifying everyone’s expectations and roles, you'll help to (30) ________ greater trust and
increased productivity among employees. Here are a few tips for doing so.
Practice active listening. The art of active listening includes (31) ________ close attention to what
another person is saying, then paraphrasing what you've heard and repeating it back. Concentrate (32)
________ the conversation at hand and avoid unwanted interruptions (cellphone calls, others walking into
your office, etc.). Take note of how your own experience and values may color your perception.
Pay attention to non-verbal cues. We don't communicate with words alone. Every conversation comes
with a host of non-verbal cues - facial expressions, body language, etc. - that may (33) ________ contradict
what we’re saying. Before addressing a staff member or (34)
________ a project conference, think carefully about your tone of voice, how you make eye contact, and
what your body is "saying." Be consistent throughout.
Be clear and to the point. Don't cloud instructions or requests with irrelevant details, such as problems
with past projects or issues with long-departed personnel. State what you need and what you expect. Ask,
"Does anyone have any questions?" Demonstrate that you prefer questions up-front as opposed to
misinterpretation later on.
30. A. set up B. establish C. create D. build
31. A. showing B. paying C. using D. spending
32. A. for B. to C. on D. in
33. A. intentional B. unintentional C. intentionally D. unintentionally
34. A. to lead B. being led C. leading D. lead
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
35. He was offered the job thanks to his ________ performance during his job interview.
A. impressive B. impressively C. compression D. impress
36. Someone who is ________ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in particular.
A. pessimist B. optimistic C. optimist D. pessimistic
37. The preparations ________ by the time the guests ________ .
A. have finished/arrived B. have been finished /arrived
C. had been finished/ arrived D. had finished /arrived
38. Asian ________, Mr. Pike is very worried about the increase of teenage crimes.
A. educational B. education C. educator D. educate
39. ________ turned out to be true.
A. Everything she had told us which B. Everything where she had told us
C. Everything she had told us D. That everything she told us
40. You'd better get someone ________ your living room.
A. redecorated B. to redecorate C. redecorating. D. redecorate
41. Can you take ________ of the shop while Mr. Green is away?
A. operation B. charge C. management D. running
42. They held a party to congratulate their son ________ his success to become an engineer.
A. in B. on C. with D. for
43. They always kept on good ________ with their next-door neighbors for the children's sake.
A. terms B. relations C. will D. relationship
44. They had invited over one hundred guests, ________.
A. not any of whom I knew B. I did not know any of whom
C. I knew none of who D. none of whom I knew
45. Please ________ and see us when you have time. You are always welcome.
A. come away B. come to C. come in D. come round
46. Not only ________ to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil.
A. seismology is used B. is seismology used
C. using seismology D. to use seismology
47. "What a great haircut, Lucy!"________-"________"
A. It's my pleasure. B. Oh, yes. That's right.
C. Thanks. It's very kind of you to do this D. Thank you. That's a nice compliment.
48. "A motorbike knocked Ted down". -"________"
A. How terrific! B. Poor him! C. What is it now? D. What a motorbike!
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
49. A trial must be fair and impartial.
A. apprehensive B. hostile C. biased D. unprejudiced
50. After her husband's tragic accident, she took up his position at the university.
A. incredible B. boring C. mysterious D. comic
--------- THE END ---------
SỞ GD & ĐT THANH HÓA ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN THỨ 2
TRƯỜNG THPT TRIỆU SƠN 1 Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1: A. overlooks B. beliefs C. towards D. rights
Question 2: A. warmth B. lethal C. threat D. breathe
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. category B. unbelievable C. popularity D. university
Question 4: A. begin B. visit C. open D. offer
Question 5: Nearly every region of the earth have been affected by human activity, particularly during this
past century
A. human activity B. Nearly C. have been D. affecte
Question 6: According my science professor, the atmosphere of the earth is being polluted by humans at an
ever- increasing rate
A. According my science professor B. by
C. of the earth D. ever- increasing
Question 7: It is important that you turned off the heater every morning before you leave for class
A. turned off B. before C. important D. leave for
Question 8: The weather was very nice, so he found________a raincoat with him.
A. it necessary taking B. it unnecessary taking
C. unnecessary to take D. it unnecessary to take
Question 9: Jack can speak two languages. One is English ________is Vietnamese.
A. Other B. The other C. Another D. Others
Question 10: Since drinking water is a ________resource, we should let children know how precious it is, and
teach them to conserve it.
A. limitless B. limited C. limiting D. limitation
Question 11: Many people________that natural resources will never be used up.
A. view B. consider C. consider D. regard
Question 12: My boss’s plane________at 10:15 tomorrow morning, but I cannot pick him up.
A. arrives B. is arriving C. will be arriving D. arrived
Question 13: If you________less last night, you________so bad today.
A. had drunk- would not have felt B. drank- would not feel
C. had drunk- would not feel D. would have drunk- would not feel
Question 14: The police have just found the man and his car________were swept away during the heavy
storm last week.
A. that B. which C. whose D. when
Question 15: The accident is said to have resulted from________driver’s careless driving and thick fog in that
morning.
A. a/ the B. the/# C. a/a D. the/ the
Question 16: Scientists have discovered a close________between smoking and several serious diseases
A. union B. connection C. action D. combination
Question 17: I’ll lend you the money and you________pay me back till next month.
A. needn’t B. mustn’t C. need D. must
Question 18: The man was said to________lung cancer.
A. die by B. die of C. die at D. die out
Question 19: ________long it takes, I will wait for you.
A. However B. But C. So D. Therefore
Question 20: Peter: “My mother’s much better now.” – Kyle: “________”.
A. Oh, I’m pleased to hear it B. Wonderful! Congratulation
C. Oh, really? The doctor must be very good D. Good news for you
Question 21: Tom: “Can I bring a friend to your party?” – Mary: “________”.
A. The more the merrier B. That’s right
C. you’re welcome D. Straight away
Question 22: No one likes Jame because he always looks down on them.
A. praises B. admires C. respects D. feels superior to
Question 23: Because we know nothing, in this view, we should treat all things with indifference and make
no judgments.
A. reconciling ourself to something B. becoming annoyed very easily
C. feeling totally different from other people D. showing interest in something
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 24: The Bali Tiger was declared extinct in 1937 due to hunting and habitat loss.
A. reserve B. generation
C. natural environment D. diversity
Question 25: The shoplifter immediately admitted to her crime to the security guard.
A. Agreed B. Pleased C. Denied D. confessed
Question 26: Due to the fact that the demand for tea was very high in the 19th century, its price increased
much.
A. It was not until the 19th century that the demand for tea started to increase.
B. It was its price which decreased the demand for tea in the 19th century.
C. In the 19th century the price for tea didn’t increase despite the demand.
D. The demand for tea was so high in the 19th century that its price increased much
Question 27: People say that he was a successful painter.
A. He is said to have been a successful painter
B. He is said to be a successful painter
C. It is said him to have been a successful painter.
D. It was said that he was a successful painter
Question 28: "It is a surprising gift. Thank you very much, Mary," said Mr. Pike.
A. Mr. Pike promised to give Mary a surprising gift.
B. Mr.Pike thanked Mary though he did not really like the gift.
C. Mr. Pike thanked Mary for the surprising gift.
D. Mr. Pike congratulated Mary on the surprising gift.
Question 29: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.
A. Living in difficult conditions forced she to study very well.
B. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
C. Although her living conditions were not good, she studied very well.
D. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
Question 30: His wife phoned him. She reminded him to bring along the document.
A. His wife phoned him in order to remind him to bring along the document.
B. His wife phoned him so that reminding him to bring along the document.
C. His wife phoned when she didn’t want him to bring along the document.
D. His wife phoned him though she didn’t remind him to bring along the document.
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
A tiny village school is soon to celebrate its 110 birthday - against all expectations. Five years ago it
seemed certain to close but parents and other villagers fought the local education authority and raised funds to
keep it (31)_______. It is now ending its first term as a school (32)_____by the village community and the
villagers are just proud of their achievement.
They were furious when education chiefs tried to make them send the village children to other schools
further away because the number of pupils at the village school was too (33)_____. The villagers started a
huge campaign to (34) _____money. They collected enough to hire a teacher and begin to help with school
cleaning, lunch supervision and lessons. Now the school is doing well and it seems (35)____ it will continue
to run in the future.
Question 31: A. open B. opened C. to opening D. for opening
Question 32: A. run B. running C. has run D. to run
Question 33: A. little B. less C. few D. small
Question 34: A. rise B. raise C. pay D. deal
Question 35: A. in case B. even though C. as if D. if only
correct answer to each of the questions
It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an education.
Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school.The
distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take
place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the
formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents of
education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child to a
distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces
surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other
religions.
People are engaged in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is
a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral part
of one's entire life.
Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from
one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take
assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices
of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of
government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high
school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in
their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions
surrounding the formalized process of schooling.
A. The best school teach a wide variety of subjects
B. Education and schooling are quite different experiences
C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework
D. The more years students go to school, the better their education is
Question 37: What does the author probably mean by using the expression children interrupt their
education to go to school?
A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.
B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.
C. Summer school makes the school year too long.
D. All of life is an education.
Question 38: The word chance in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. unplanned B. unusual C. lengthy D. lively
Question 39: The word an integral in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. an equitable B. a profitable C. a pleasant D. an essential
Question 40: The word they in the third paragraph refers to ______.
A. slices of reality B. similar textbooks C. boundaries D. seats
Question 41: The passage supports which of the following conclusions?
A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.
B. Education systems need to be radically reformed.
C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
D. Education involves many years of professional training.
Question 42: The writer seems to agree that...
A. Schooling is as important than education
B. Education is not as important as schooling
C. Schooling is unlimited and more informal
D. Education is more influential than schooling
Clara Barton became known as “The Angel of the Battlefield” during the American Civial War. Born
in Oxford, Massachusetts in 1821, Clara Barton’s interest in helping soldiers on the battlefield began when she
was told army stories from her father. Another event that influenced her decision to help soldiers was an
accident her brother had. His injuries were cared for by Barton for 2 years. At the time, she was only 11 years
old. Barton began teaching school at the age of 15. She taught for 18 years before she moved to Washington,
D.C. in 1854.
The civil war broke out 6 years later. Immediately, Barton started was service by helping the soldiers
with their needs. At the battle of Bull Run, Clara Barton received permission from the government to take care
of the sick and hurt. Barton did this with great empathy and kindness. She acknowledged each soldier as a
person. Her endurance and courage on the battlefield were admired by many. When the war ended in 1865,
she used 4 years of her life to assist the government in searching for soldiers who were missing during the war.
The search for missing soldiers and years of hard work made her feeble physically. In 1869, her
doctors recommended a trip to Europe for a rest. While she was on vacation, she became involved with the
International Red Cross, an organization set up by the Geneva Convention in 1864. Clara Barton realized that
the red Cross would be a big help to the United States. After she returned to the United States, she worked
very hard to create an American red Cross. She talked to government leaders and let American people know
about the Red Cross. In 1881, the National Society of the Red Cross was finally established with its
headquarters in Washington, D.C. Clara Barton managed its activities for 23 years.
Barton never let her age stop her from helping people. At the age of 79, she helped flood victims in
Galveston, Texas. Barton finally resigned from the Red Cross in 1904. She was 92 years old and had truly
earned her titled “The Angel of the Battlefield”.
Question 43: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of the young Clara Barton?
A. She helped her father when he was a soldier.
B. She suffered from an accident when she was 11.
C. She helped her brother who was hurt in an accident.
D. She made a decision to live with her brother for 2 years.
Question 44: The phrase broke out in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. extended B. broke down C. closed D. began
Question 45: The word this in the second paragraph refers to
A. recognized each soldier as a person B. cooked for soldiers
C. took care of the sick and hurt D. received permission
Question 46: The word acknowledged in the second paragraph could best be replaced by
A. nursed B. recognized C. pleaded D. believed
Question 47: What can be inferred about the government?
A. It did not always agree with Clara Barton.
B. It did not have the money to help Clara Barton.
C. It showed Clara Barton great empathy and kindness.
D. It had respect for Clara Barton.
Question 48: What does the author mention about the American Red Cross?
A. It was disapproved again and again by the Geneva Convention.
B. Barton tried to have it set up in America.
C. The American people were not interested in the Red Cross.
D. It was first established in the United States.
A. Clara Barton helped wounded soldiers and she was the founder of the Red Cross.
B. Clara Barton was a kind and strong woman who helped people in need.
C. Clara Barton became a nurse during the American Civil War.
D. Clara Barton worked for disaster victims until she was old.
Question 50: What can be the best title of the reading passage?
A. The Angel of the Battlefield B. The American Red Cross
C. The American Civil War D. The International Red Cross
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA
TRƯỜNG THPT THANH MIỆN
SHE STUDIES WHILE HE PLAYS: TRUE OF CHILDREN AND CHIMPS
[…]Chimpanzees in the wild like to snack on termites, and youngsters learn to fish for them by picking long
sticks and other (1)……..tools into the mounds that large groups of termites build. Researchers found that
(2)…………average female chimps in the Gombe National Park in Tanzania learnt how to do termite fishing
at the age of 31 months, more than two years earlier than the males.
The females seem to learn by watching mothers. Researcher Dr. Elisabeth V. Lonsdorf, director of field
conservation at the Lincoln Park Zoo in Chicago, said that it is (3)………….to find that, when a young male
and female are near a mound, ‘she’s really focusing on termite fishing and he’s spinning himself round
(4)………..circles’. Dr Landsdorf and colleagues are studying chimpanzees at the zoo with a new, specially
created termite mound, filled with mustard (5)…….than termites. […]
Question 1: A. relative B. similar C. close D. connected
Question 2: A. at B. by C. on D. for
Question 3: A. typical B. regular C. ordinary D. frequent
Question 4: A. in B. with C. to D. through
Question 5: A. other B. else C. instead D. rather
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial
problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s
inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend
that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop
Uncompromising as it is, the dessert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its
desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water – loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found:
the giants of the North America desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open,
it holds more swift – footed, running, and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its populations are largely
nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to
their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere in the world.
The secret of their adjustment lies in a combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like
mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most
of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only
by night. The surface of the sun – baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the
temperature is only 60 degrees.
(Source: ―Reading Challenge 2‖, Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen, Compass Publishing)
Question 6: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Life underground B. Animal life in a desert environment
C. Desert plants D. Man’s life in the desert
Question 7: The word “desiccating” means .
A. humidifying B. killing C. drying D. life threatening
Question 8: The phrase “ those forms” refers to all of the following EXCEPT .
A. water – loving animals B. moist – skinned animals
C. many large animals D. the bobcat
Question 9: The author states that one characteristic of animals that live in the desert is that they _____.
A. are less healthy than animals that live in different places
B. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
C. can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees
D. live in an accommodating environment
Question 10: Which of the following generalizations are supported by the passage?
A. All living things adjust to their environments.
B. Healthy animals live longer lives.
C. Water is the basis of life.
D. Desert life is colorful.
Question 11: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. large animals B. . the forest animals
C. water – loving animals D. the desert population.
Question 12: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals
EXCEPT________.
A. they dig home underground B. they are noisy and aggressive
C. they are ready to hunt after sunset D. they sleep during the day
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and-stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat,
rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution, it was noted that
troops played “baseball” in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York
Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikes –
you’re – out, batter out on a caught ball, three outs per inning , a nine man team. “The New York Game''
spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way of
satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At its inception it was played
by and for gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would appoint two captains who
would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and Thursday afternoons,
with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners
During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism (charging
admission), under the table payments to exceptional players, and gambling on the outcome of games. By
1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first - nine, and their”
muffins“ (the gentle duffers who once ran the game) . Beginning with the first openly all – salaried team
(Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete professionalization of
baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional baseball players in 1871. The
National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-minded investors in
joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s “Golden Age”. Profits
soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a weekly periodical “The
Sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck stands replaced open fields, and the
standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the
growing cities of the Midwest proclaimed itself the American League.
Question 13: What is the passage mainly about?
A. the origin of baseball.
B. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball
C. the commercialization of baseball.
D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century
Question 14: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. the “New York “spread rapidly because it was better formalized.
B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and commercialism
that develop in baseball.
C.the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity if
they did not want to mix with others or become a “muffin”.
D. business – minded investors were only interested in profits.
Question 15: The word “inception” in line 8 is closest in meaning to .
A. requirements B. rules C. insistence D. beginning
Question 16: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its
inception?
A. they didn’t play on weekend
B. the president would choose teams from among the members
C. a team might consist of 40 members
D. they might be called “duffers” if they didn’t make the first nine.
Question 17: According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true except .
A. commercialism became more prosperous B. the clubs are smaller
C. outstanding players got extra income D. people gambled on the outcome of game
Question 18: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?
A. profits soared
B. a weekly periodical news
C. wooden stadiums replaced open fields
D. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed.
Question 19: The word “itself” in line 24 refers to .
A. the Western League B. growing cities
C. the Midwest D. the American League
Question 20: The word “lavish “in line 11 is closest in meaning to .
A. very generous B. prolonged C. Grand D. extensive
Question 21: A. requests B. calculates C. questions D. attacks
Question 23: A. civic B. civic C. fertile D. determine
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 23: A. contribute B. dynamics C. imagine D. devastate
Question 24: A. habitat B. expansion C. endanger D. agreement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Tom said that he was trying to carry out some campaigns to protect
A B
environment and will encourage others to do so
C D
Question 26: My elder sisters, both of them were doctors, said they were too busy to pick me up.
A B C D
Question 27: Tropical rain forests are founded in a belt around the Equator of the Earth.
A B C D
Question 28: It is very difficult for her to prevent him for smoking in her house.
A B C D
Question 29: If we cannot save the forests in their original state, we must save enough to
A B C
preserve them as living burgeon ecosystem
D
Question 30: The students in class were made__________very hard
A. learning B. learnt C. to learn D. having learnt
Question 31: __________umbrella should not be used during__________thunderstorm.
A. a/a B. the/a C. an/a D. no article/ a
Question 32: I have had a toothache for one week but I still keep__________going to the dentist.
A. put on B. taking off C. take on D. putting off
Question 33: she hasn’t had a__________week. She seems to have done nothing at all.
A. productive B. enthusiastic C. economic D. extensive
Question 34: The police have not found the robbers yet and the bank robbery is still under__________.
A. provision B. investigation C. investigation D. division
Question 35: Fewer than 4000 mountain gorillas remain in the wild and now conservationists warn that the
animals are on__________of extinction.
A. the verge B. a risk C. a verge D. stake
Question 36: The university__________by private funds as well as by tuition income and grants.
A. supports B. is supported C. is supporting D. has supported
Question 37: She always complained______her parents how small her room was or how few clothes she had
A. with/ for B. with/about C. to/ about D. to/ for
Question 38: A native speaker of Spanish, for example, will______to learn than a native speaker of Chinese
A. find Portuguese much easier B. find that Portuguese is much easy
C. find Portuguese much easy D. find Portuguese is much easier
Question 39: I couldn’t help__________when I saw your face after making up.
A. to laugh B. for laughing C. laughing D. laughed
Question 40: When she__________at the new dress for half part an hour, she asked how much
it__________.
A. have looked/ cost B. had looked/ cost
C. has been looking/ costed D. looked/costs
Question 41: The richer she is__________selfish she becomes.
A. more B. the more C. most D. the most
Mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 42: Mary’s husband didn’t bat an eyelid when she took part in the marathon
A. wasn’t happy B. didn’t want to see
C. didn’t show surprise D. didn’t care
Question 43: The ages of the two children put together was equivalent to that of their father
A. different B. corresponding C. unequal D. temporary
Mark the letter A,B,C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 44: She has the daunting task of cooking for 20 people every day.
A. discourage B. make happy C. scare D. obvious
Question 45: A tremendous amount of work has gone into the project.
A. huge B. tiny C. gigantic D. large
Question 46: The students will win the scholarship from University of Cambridge. The students’ reports are
very valuable.
A. The students whose reports are very valuable will win the scholarship from University of Cambridge
B. The students’ reports which are very valuable will win the scholarship from University of Cambridge
C. The students whom have valuable reports will win the scholarship from University of Cambridge.
D. The students which reports are very valuable will win the scholarship from University of Cambridge.
Question 47: If my elder sister hadn’t opened the window at night, she would not have caught a cold
A. My elder sister opened the window at night, but she would not have caught a cold
B. My elder sister opened the window at night, so she did not catch a cold
C. My elder sister did not open the window at night, but she caught a cold
D. My elder sister opened the window at night, so she caught a cold
Question 48: People say that many villagers were helped after the flood.
A. It was said that many villagers have been helped after the flood.
B. It is said to have been helped after the flood.
C. Many villagers were said to have helped after the flood.
D. Many villagers are said to have been helped after the flood.
Question 49: The students will win the scholarship from University of Cambridge. The students’ reports are
very valuable.
A. The students whose reports are very valuable will win the scholarship from University of Cambridge
B. The students’ reports which are very valuable will win the scholarship from University of Cambridge
C. The students whom have valuable reports will win the scholarship from University of Cambridge.
D. The students which reports are very valuable will win the scholarship from University of Cambridge.
Question 50: The well is nearly empty because of drought. We often get water from the well.
A. The well from which we often get water is nearly empty because of drought
B. The well where we often get water from is nearly empty because of drought.
C. The well from where we often get water is nearly empty because of drought.
D. We often get water from the well, which is nearly empty because of drought.
SỞ GD-ĐT PHÚ YÊN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT –MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN CHU TRINH
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 1: A. telephone B. interpreter C. interpreter D. restaurant
Question 2: A. measure B. measure C. measure D. pleasure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. religious B. performance C. miserable D. including
Question 4: A. decoration B. temperament C. opportunity D. expectation
Question 5: My father used to giving me some good advice whenever I had a problem.
A B C D
Question 6: The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star.
A B C D
Question 7: Migrant workers live in substandard unsanitary, and dilapidated housing and
A B C
often are lacking medical care.
D
Question 8: _______ is the study of the Earth's physical features and the people, plants, and animals that live
in different regions of the world.
A. Science B. Geography C. History D. Technology
Question 9: As it was getting late, the boys decided to _______ the campfire and crept into their sleeping
bags.
A. put up B. put off C. put out D. put on
Question 10: You shouldn't _________to your teacher like that. It was very rude.
A. have talked B. talk C. have be talked D. talked
Question 11: We ________for three hours and are very tire
A. are walking B. have been walking C. were walking D. had been walking
Question 12: It is believed ________causes insomnia.
A. too much caffeine which B. that too much caffeine
C. it in too much caffeine D. too much caffeine that
Question 13: _______ non-verbal language is _______ important aspect of interpersonal communication.
A. θ/an B. A/ the C. the/θ D. The/a
Question 14: This small town developed _______ I had expected.
A. not fast as B. as much fast as C. slowly than D. much faster than
Question 15: Many people and organizations have been making every possible effort in order to save
________ species.
A. endangered B. dangerous C. fearful D. threatening
Question 16: The man asked me _______ in English.
A. what does this word mean B. what that word means
C. what did this word mean D. what that word meant
Question 17: The student took that course ________ he could improve his English.
A. in order to B. though C. so that D. unless
Question 18: An eyewitness described how ten people_______ in the fire.
A. had been killed B. had killed C. were killed D. had been being
Question 19: No one died in the accident, ________?
A. didn’t they B. did he C. didn’t he D. did they
Question 20: Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” -Susan: "_______.”
A. You’re welcome B. That would be great
C. I feel very bored D. I don't agree, I'm afraid
Question 21: - “ Can I use your motorbike this evening?” - “_________.”
A. Of course, you can B. Of course, you might
C. It’s my pleasure D. Do it if you can
Question 22: The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.
A. hints B. symptoms C. effects D. demonstrations
Question 23: I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. wonderful B. acceptable C. pretty high D. reasonable
Question 24: We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time.
A. slow down B. turn down C. put down D. lie down
Question 25: The machine has been out of order since last month.
A. under repair B. functioning well C. sold out D. refusing orders
Question 26: "Why don't you ask the teacher for help?" Peter asked me.
A. Peter advised me to ask the teacher for help.
B. Peter recommended me not to ask the teacher for help.
C. Peter told me the reason why I did not ask the teacher for help.
D. Peter suggested that he should ask the teacher for help.
Question 27: The Vietnamese students have to take an entrance exam _______.
A. in order that they should go to a college or university
B. for going to a college and university
C. so that they can go to a college or university
D. so as go to a college or university
Question 28: Without skillful surgery, he would not have survived the operation.
A. Had it been for skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
B. He wouldn't have survived the operation if he hadn't had skillful surgery.
C. But for skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
D. With skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
Question 29: She received three letters this morning. All of them were from Tony
A. All of the letters from Tony were received by her this morning
B. She received three letters this morning, all of which were from Tony
C. Three of the letters she received this morning were from Tony
D. All letters from Tony were received by her this morning
Question 30: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35:
All relationships go through difficult times. In the past, when married couples had problems they
usually didn’t (31) _________. They had to either (32) _________ with each other or continue to live together
in an unhappy relationship. Getting divorced wasn’t an option for most people due to economic and social
reasons. Some people believe that this wasn’t such a bad thing. They say that relationships require hard work
and (33) _________. “If a relationship is going to last a lifetime, you have to keep working at it,” says Doreen,
who is celebrating her fiftieth wedding anniversary this year. “It isn’t all roses and romance. No one is perfect
all of the time. These days young people give up when there’s the (34) _________ argument.” Experts agree
that communication is key. The most important thing is to keep talking. How many times have you heard
yourself say to somebody, “If only you’d listen!” or “I wish you wouldn’t do that!” The truth is, the (35)
______ couples talk, the better their relationship can be.
Question 31: A. grow up B. split up C. chat up D. make up
Question 32: A. get on B. go out C. get back D. fall out
Question 33: A. agreement B. argument C. achievement D. commitment
Question 34: A. smallest B. slightest C. most violent D. most controversial
Question 35: A. more B. fewer C. less D. least
A recent investigation by scientists at the U.S. Geological Survey shows that strange animal behavior
might help predict earthquakes. Investigators found such occurrences within a ten – kilometer radius of
the epicenter of a fairly recent quake. Some birds screeched and flew about wildly; dogs yelped and ran
around uncontrollably.
Scientists believed that animals can perceive environmental changes several hours or even days before
the mishap. Animals were noted as being restless for several weeks before a Tashkent, Uzbekistan,
earthquake. An hour before the disaster, domestic animals refused to go indoors, and dogs howled and barked
furiously. In 1960, an earthquake struck Agadir in Morocco. Survivors recall that stray animals, including
dogs, were seen streaming out of town before the earthquake. In a safari zoo near San Francisco, llamas would
not eat the evening before a 1979 quake, and they ran around wildly all night.
Unusual animal behavior preceding earthquakes has been noted for centuries. British Admiral Robert
Fitzroy reported huge flocks of screaming seabirds over Concepcion, Chile, in 1835. An hour and a half later,
dogs were seen fleeing, and ten minutes later the town was destroyed. Similar stories of chickens running
around in apparent states of panic, horses trembling, and dogs barking incessantly were recorded throughout
the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries by survivors of earthquakes destruction in India, Yugoslavia, Peru,
Mexico, and the United States.
In 1976, after monitoring bizarre animal behavior, the Chinese predicted a devastating earthquake.
Although hundreds of thousands of people were killed, the government was able to evacuate millions of other
people and thus keep the death toll at a lower level.
Question 36: What prediction may be made by observing animal behaviors?
A. An impending earthquake
B. The number of people who will die
C. The ten kilometer radius from the epicenter
D. The fact that an earthquake has occurred
Question 37: “devastating” means most nearly the same as
A. destructive B. voracious C. intense D. forthcoming
Question 38: The author implies that animals are aware of an impending earthquake because
A. of their superior intelligence
B. they have certain instinctive abilities to perceive that humans do not possess
C. they are generally closer to epicenter than the human observers
D. they react to other animal behavior
Question 39: The word “epicenter” is nearest in meaning to
A. stratosphere B. contour C. periphery D. core
Question 40: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
A. some animals may be able to sense an approaching earthquake
B. by observing animal behavior scientists perhaps can predict earthquake
C. the Chinese have successfully predicted an earthquake and saved many lives
D. only dogs and horses seem to possess the special perception that allows them to predict earthquakes
Question 41: The passage implies that if scientists can accurately predict earthquakes, there will be
A. fewer animals going crazy B. a lower death rate
C. fewer people evacuated D. fewer environmental changes
Question 42: The word “evacuate” is closest in meaning to
A. remove B. exile C. destroy D. emaciate
Noise is an unwanted sound and is among the most pervasive pollutants today. Noise from road traffic,
jet planes, jet skis, garbage trucks, construction equipment, manufacturing processes, lawn mowers, leaf
blowers, and boom boxes, to name a few, are among the unwanted sounds that are routinely broadcast into the
air.
The problem with noise is not only that it is unwanted, but also that it negatively affects human health
and well-being. Problems related to noise include hearing loss, stress, high blood pressure, sleep loss,
distraction and lost productivity, and a general reduction in the quality of life and opportunities for tranquility.
We experience noise in a number of ways. On some occasions, we can be both the cause and the victim
of noise, such as when we are operating noisy appliances or equipment. There are also instances when we
experience noise generated by others just as people experience second-hand smoke. While in both instances,
noises are equally damaging, second-hand noise is more troubling because it has negative impacts on us but is
put into the environment by others, without our consent.
The air into which second-hand noise is emitted and on which it travels is a “commons”, a public
good. It belongs to no one person or group, but to everyone. People, businesses, and organizations, therefore,
do not have unlimited rights to broadcast noise as they please, as if the effects of noise were limited only to
their private property. On the contrary, they have an obligation to use the commons in ways that are
compatible with or do not detract from other uses.
People, businesses, and organizations that disregard the obligation to not interfere with others' use and
enjoyment of the commons by producing noise pollution are, in many ways, acting like a bully in a school yar
Although perhaps unknowingly, they nevertheless disregard the rights of others and claim for themselves
rights that are not theirs.
We have organized to raise awareness of noise pollution and help communities take back the commons
from those acting like bullies. Our efforts include building a library of resources and tools concerning noise
pollution, establishing links to other groups that have similar collections, establishing networks among local
noise activists, assisting communities and activists who are working to reduce noise pollution, and monitoring
and advocating for stronger noise controls.
Question 43: It is stated in the passage that all of the following are things the noise comes from EXCEPT
________.
A. Television, radio B. Lawn mower, leaf blowers
C. Road traffic, garbage trucks D. Jet planes, watercraft
Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that the effects of noise pollution on the human body are that
________.
A. people get accustomed to ear and heart diseases
B. people focus mainly on hearing
C. people have difficulty falling asleep
D. people are sensitive about everything around them
Question 45: Which of the following is supposed to be a way to reduce noise pollution?
A. cooperation with other noise activists
B. fining people who break laws in noise regulation
C. construction of large projects along roads
D. prohibiting public transport during peak hours
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to ________.
A. the air B. a public good C. effect of noise D. second-hand noise
Question 47: It is mentioned in the passage that when we are operating noisy appliances or we experience
noise generated by others ________.
A. The noise is so troublesome if we make it or not.
B. We feel more comfortable if we don’t experience second-hand noise.
C. The noise have a strong influence on us, but not on others.
D. We just ignore the serious detriment if the noise is put into the environment by others.
Question 48: The word “disregard” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. ignore B. obey C. invade D. disturb
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Noise that is experienced by people who did not produce it is called second-hand noise.
B. People’s enjoyment of the commons by producing noise pollution is regarded as a bully.
C. Noise is one of the most common contaminants nowadays.
D. People intentionally make noise when they work.
Question 50: Which of the following best describes the author’s tone in the passage?
A. Incentive B. Explanatory C. Cynical D. Provocative
SỞ GD & ĐT THANH HÓA ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1
TRƯỜNG THPT TRIỆU SƠN 1 Môn: TIẾNG ANH – Chương trình chuẩn
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. stamped B. frightened C. walked D. watched
Question 2: A. ache B. child C. chair D. choose
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. delay B. father C. suggest D. repeat
Question 4: A. achievement B. argument C. confinement D. involvement
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 5: I'd prefer to do it on myself , because other people make me nervous.
A B C D
Question 6: They asked me how long did it take to get to Paris by train.
A B C D
Question 7: Hardly he had got downstairs when the phone stopped ringing yesterday afternoon.
A B C D
Question 8: It is interesting to take __________ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing.
A. in B. over C. up D. on
Question 9: We stopped for a rest after we __________ for two hours.
A. had been walking B. walked C. were walking D. have walked
Question 10: They congratulated me __________ the exams with high marks.
A. having passed B. on passing C. passed D. to pass
Question 11: I love that _______ antique car that always parked at the end of the street.
A. big really old green B. really old big green
C. really big green old D. really big old green
Question 12: Lots of houses __________ by the earthquake
A. are destroying B. destroyed C. were destroying D. were destroyed
Question 13: If I had noticed him, I _________ hello
A. would have said B. would say C. had said D. would said
Question 14: I couldn't use the pay phone _________I didn't have any coins with me.
A. so B. so that C. because D. although
Question 15: In England, English, Math and Science are_________subjects at school.
A. more B. store C. score D. core
Question 16: You should concentrate on what the__________is saying and try to answer all the
questions thoroughly
A. interview B. interviewer C. interviewee D. interviewed
Question 17: Last night’s concert did not__________our expectations.
A. catch up with B. stand in for C. come up to D. look up to
Question 18: A college is a public institution__________higher education to young men and women.
A. providing B. which provide C. to provide to D. provided to
Question 19: It is imperative____________ towards a solution to global warming before the weather
patterns of the world are disrupted irreparably.
A. the world would work B. that the world worked
C. that the world work D. the world to work
Question 20: Tom: “Your hairstyle is terrific!” Mary: “_________.”
A. I did it quite well! B. Why not so terrific?
C. Thanks. I’m glad you like it. D. You are doing well
Question 21: Tom:" Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night." - Mary:"_________"
A. I have nothing to tell you. B. Oh. Poor me!
C. Never mind! D. You was absent – minded
Question 22: Humans depend on species diversity to provide food, clean air and water, and fertile soil for
agriculture.
A. variety B. destruction C. contamination D. fertilizer
Question 23: The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer.
A. speed B. expect more C. do better D. treat better
Question 24: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week
A. fresh B. disobedient C. understanding D. obedient
Question 25: Polluted water and increased water temperatures have driven many species to the verge of
extinction
A. enriched B. Contaminated C. purified D. strengthened
Question 26: You damaged my bicycle, John.” said Margaret.
A. Margaret forbade John to damage her bicycle.
B. Margaret persuaded John to damage her bicycle.
C. John regretted damaging Margaret’s bicycle.
D. Margaret accused John of damaging her bicycle.
Question 27: People think that John stole the money.
A. It was not that John who stole the money.
B. John is thought to have stolen the money.
C. People think the money is stolen by John.
D. John is thought to steal the money
Question 28: “I must have my suit cleaned now,” he said
A. He said that he must have had his suit cleaned then.
B. He said that he had to have his suit cleaned then.
C. He said he must have his suit cleaned then.
D. He asked that he had to have his suit cleaned then
Question 29: She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the country.
A. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.
B. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines
C. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines
D. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines
Question 30: When I heard the phone ring, I answered it immediately
A. On hear the phone rang, I answered it immediately
B. On hear the phone ring, I answered it immediately
C. On hearing the phone ring, I answered it immediately
D. On hearing rang, I answered the phone immediately
Education is more important today than ever before. It gives them the specialized training they may
need to (31)_______ for a job or career. For example, a person must meet certain educational requirements
and obtain a license or certificate before he can practice law or medicine. Many fields, like computer
operation or police work, (32)_______ satisfactory completion of special training courses.
Education is also important (33)_______ it helps people get more out of life. It increases their
knowledge and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting
and enjoyable, such as the skills needed to participate in a sport, paint a picture, or play a musical instrument.
Such education becomes (34)_______ important as people gain more and more leisure time.
Education also helps people adjust to change. This habit has become necessary because social
changes today take place with increasing speed and affect the lives of more and more people. Education can
help a person understand these changes and provide him (35)____the skills for adjusting to them.
Question 31: A. do B. prepare C. make D. work
Question 32: A. requires B. requiring C. require D. to require
Question 33: A. therefore B. despite C. although D. because
Question 34: A. increased B. increasing C. increase D. increasingly
Question 35: A. with B. for C. in D. to
Scientists have discovered the bones of what may be the largest meat-eating dinosaur ever to walk the
earth. The discovery was made by a team of researchers from Argentina and North America in Patagonia, a
desert on the eastern slopes of the Andes in South America. Besides the interesting fact that the dinosaur was
huge and horrifying, it is even more astounding that the bones of a number of the dinosaurs were found
together. This discovery challenges the prior theory that the biggest meat-eaters lived as loners and instead
indicates that they may have lived and hunted in packs. The Tyrannosaurus Rex lived in North America and
was believed to hunt and live alone.
The newly discovered meat-eater appears to be related to the Giganotosaurus family, being as closely
related to it as a fox would be to a dog. It is actually not of the same family at all as the Tyrannosaurus Rex,
being as different from it as a cat is from a dog.
The fossilized remains indicate that the animals lived about 100 million years ago. With
needle-shaped noses and razor sharp teeth, they were larger than the Tyrannosaurus Rex, although their legs
were slightly shorter, and their jaws were designed to be better able to dissect their prey quickly and
precisely.
Question 36: The author states that the newly discovered dinosaur remains are evidence that it was the
author
A. carnivorous dinosaur B. dinosaur ever
C. South American dinosaur D. herbivorous dinosaur
Question 37: The word Besides in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. in spite of B. mostly C. in addition to D. although
Question 38: The word horrifying in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. frightening B. fast C. large D. interesting
Question 39: The author implies that the most interesting fact about the find is that this dinosaur
A. was found in the Andes B. had a powerful jaw and sharp teeth
C. was larger than Tyrannosaurus Rex D. lived and hunted with others
Question 40: The word it in the second paragraph refers to
A. Relationship B. dog
C. newly discovered meat-eater D. Giganotosaurus
Question 41: The author states that the newly discovered meat-eating dinosaur is
A. closely related to Tyrannosaurus Rex. B. not closely related to Tyrannosaurus Rex
C. not closely related to Giganotosaurus D. closely related to the large cat family
Question 42: The word prey in the last sentence of the passage is closest in meaning to
A. enemy B. victim C. dinosaurs D. attacker
Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school .The distinction
between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It
can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes
both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents
of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child
to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces
surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other
religions. People are engaged in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term.
It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral
part of one's entire life.
Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little
from one setting to the next. Throughout the country, children arrive at school at approximately the same
time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on.
The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings
of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high
A. The best school teach a wide variety of subjects
B. Education and schooling are quite different experiences
C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework
D. The more years students go to school, the better their education is
Question 44: The word “bounds” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. rules B. experience C. limits D. exceptions
Question 45: The word “chance” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. unplanned B. unusual C. lengthy D. lively
Question 46: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. boundaries B. similar textbooks C. slices of reality D. seats
Question 47: The phrase “For example,” in paragraph 3, introduces a sentence that gives examples of
_________.
A. similar textbooks B. the results of schooling
C. the workings of a government D. the boundaries of classroom subjects
A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant
B. Education systems need to be radically reformed
C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated
D. Education involves many years of professional training
Question 49: The passage is organized by __________.
A. listing and discussing several educational problems
B. giving examples of different kinds of schools
C. narrating a story about excellent teacher
D. contrasting the meanings of two related words
Question 50: The writer seems to agree that___________.
A. Education is more influential than schooling
B. Education is not as important as schooling
C. Schooling is unlimited and more informal
D. Schooling is as important than education
SỞ GD & ĐT TỈNH ĐẮK LẮK ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 1 THPT QUỐC GIA
(Đề thi có 50 câu /5 trang) Môn: Tiếng Anh
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
Question 1: A. meat B. breakfast C. heat D. beat
Question 2: A. picture B. mature C. future D. adventure
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from that of the others.
Question 3: A. improve B. farmer C. parents D. bumper
Question 4: A. gymnastic B. adjective C. difference D. frequently
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions
Question 5: He makes money by raising poultry and cattle.
A. spends B. produces C. earns D. creates
Question 6: She was born and grew up in a picturesque fishing village in Ha Long Bay.
A. dangerous B. pretty C. wealthy D. poor
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is opposite in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions
Question 7: A calculating machine can do calculations with lightning speed.
A. very quickly B. incorrectly C. perfectly D. very slowly
Question 8: Many people oppose corporal punishment when educating young children though several of
them are naughty.
A. appreciate B. agree with C. are in favor of D. disapprove of
Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage
from 9 to 13
Every child in Great Britain between the age of five and fifteen must (9) ______ school. There (10)
______ three main types of educational institutions: primary (elementary) schools, secondary schools and
universities.
State schools are free, and attendance is compulsory. Morning school begins at nine o’clock and lasts
until half past four. School is open five days a week.
(11) ______ Saturdays and Sundays there are no lessons. There are holidays at Christmas, Easter and in
summer. In London as in all cities there are two grades of state schools for those (12) ______ will go to
work at fifteen: primary schools for boys and girls between the ages of five and eleven, and secondary
schools for children from eleven to fifteen years.
The lessons are reading, writing, the English language, English literature, English history, geography,
(13) ______, nature study, drawing, painting, singing, woodwork and drill.
Question 9: A. attend B. come C. arrive D. go
Question 10: A. have B. has C. are D. is
Question 11: A. On B. At C. For D. In
Question 12: A. when B. where C. which D. who
Question 13: A. scientist B. scientifically C. science D. scientific
Question 14: Helen Killer, who was both blind and deafness, overcame her inabilities with the help of
A B C D
her teacher, Ann Sulivan
Question 15: Education, whether it happens at school or anywhere else, is a important part in our life.
A B C D
Question 16: I can’t go out tonight because I have too many work to do.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct one to complete each of the
following sentences
Question 17: A personal communicator helps you to ______ with other computers and with people around
the world.
A. demonstrate B. interact C. content D. transmit
Question 18: Peter: “Ann is in hospital.” Mary: “Yes, I know. ______ her tomorrow.”
A. I visit B. I’ll visit C. I’m going to visit D. I am visiting
Question 19: The children have every reason to be proud ______ their efforts.
A. at B. to C. in D. of
Question 20: As a famous person ______ many children admire, it is important for her to act responsibly.
A. whose B. which C. when D. whom
Question 21: A number of students ______ for a rise since last year
A. ask B. have asked C. has asked D. asked
Question 22: Our flight was delayed, but we finally ______ shortly after midnight.
A. took on B. put off C. took up D. took off
Question 23: I remember ______ the letter a few days before going on holiday.
A. received B. to have received C. to receive D. receiving
Question 24: Ba and his family had ______ to their home village.
A. a two-day trip B. a two-days trip C. a two-day trips D. two-day trips
Question 25: The film ______ by the time we ______ to the cinema.
A. had already started/got B. already started/ had gotten
C. had already started/had gotten D. has already started/ got
Question 26: The teacher ______ her to improve her drawing.
A. persisted B. insisted C. encouraged D. made
Question 27: I have been fascinated by______ since I was at secondary school.
A. photographer B. photography C. photograph D. photographic
Question 28: My parents ______ tomorrow to stay with me for a few days.
A. came B. have come C. come D. are coming
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following sentences
Question 29: Jane finds it difficult to drive on the left.
A. Jane is used to drive on the left
B. Jane is not used to drive on the left
C. Jane is not used to driving on the left
D. It’s difficult for Jane to driving on the left
Question 30: No one has told me about the change of plan.
A. I have not been told about the change of plan.
B. I have not told about the change of plan.
C. The change of plan has been told about
D. I have been told about the change of plan.
Question 31: We last went to the cinema two months ago.
A. We have been to the cinema for two months
B. We haven’t been to the cinema for two months
C. We didn’t want to go to the cinema anymore.
D. We didn’t go to the cinema for two months
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 32: Computer is a miraculous device. It is capable of doing almost anything you ask it to.
A. Computer can’t do anything you ask it to because it is a miraculous device.
B. Computer is unable to do almost anything you ask it to so it is a miraculous device.
C. Computer is a miraculous device since it is possible for doing anything you ask it to.
D. Computer is a miraculous device because it is impossible for doing almost anything you ask it to.
Question 33: The house is very beautiful. Its gate was painted blue.
A. The house, which is very beautiful, was painted blue.
B. The house, the gate of whom was painted blue, is very beautiful.
C. The house, the gate of which was painted blue, is very beautiful.
D. The house, the gate of that was painted blue, is very beautiful.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response complete each of
the following exchanges
Question 34: Which expression is used to start a conversation?
A. Well, it’s been nice meeting you B. How’s everything at school?
C. Catch you later. D. Sorry, I’ve got to go. Talk to you later.
Question 35: Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?”
Mary: “___________”
A. Neither. I’m going to lease one. B. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one
C. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you. D. Yes, I am.
answer to each of the questions
Most Americans look forward to their vacation. Most American employees receive an annual vacation
with pay, and it is traditional to use this time off for travel.
Travelling within the United States is very popular because foreign travel generally takes more time and
money. Every year about thirteen million people travel abroad. The most popular periods are during the
summer and the two-week school break on Christmas and New Year holidays. These periods are also the
most crowded and the most expensive time to travel, so people who can adjust their schedules sometimes
choose to travel in the autumn.
American tourists often travel by car. Most families own a car, and those who do not have a car can rent
one. Cars are usually the most economical way to travel, especially for families. It is also fairly fast and
convenient. Excellent highway with motels and restaurants nearby connect the nation’s major cities. They
enable tourists to travel at a speed of 55 to 66 miles an hour. Tourists that want to travel faster often fly to
their destination and then rent a car when they get there.
Question 36: According to the writer ________.
A. Americans have no vacations
B. Americans do not like travel.
C. it is impossible to have a day-off in the USA.
D. most Americans are fond of travelling
Question 37: How many people travel abroad every year?
A. 13 million people B. 66 million people C. 30 million people D. 55 million people
Question 38: Which of the following is not mentioned in the text?
A. Travelling on Christmas and New Year holidays take much money.
B. Most American employees use their vacation to travel every year.
C. Most families use cars as an economical way to travel.
D. American people always choose to travel in autumn
Question 39: There are many people travelling ______.
A. in the winter B. on Women’s Day
C. on Christmas and New Year D. on Thanksgiving
Question 40: _______ are the most popular means of transport in the USA.
A. Buses B. Cars C. Ships D. Planes
Question 41: The word “It” in line 8 refers to ______.
A. destination B. restaurant C. vacation D. car
Question 42: In the USA, __________.
A. the high ways are not in good condition.
B. tourists cannot rent a car
C. there are not any highways.
D. along the highways there are motels and restaurants available for tourists.
For the last few years, my children have been going to a summer camp in northern Greece called
Skouras Camp. They always seem to have a good time, so if you’ re wondering what to do with the kids for
three weeks this summer, you could do worse than send them to this beautiful camp on the shores of the
Aegean Sea. If your children, like mine, are keen on adventure, sports and good company, the Skouras Camp
will keep them busy all day doing the things they most enjoy. Skouras is an international camp with children
from all over the world. My children have made friends with children of their own age from Poland, China,
Demark and the United States. Naturally, they get lots of opportunities to practise their English as this is the
only language spoken. The camp is located in one of the most beautiful parts of Chalkidiki. It is huge
(120.000 square meters) and is just a stone’s throw away from the clear, blue Aegean Sea. It takes the
children just five minutes to walk to the golden sandy beach on foot. The programme is packed with exciting
activities such as horse riding and table tennis. Other sports include baseball, volleyball and athletics. The
Camp ends with a sports contest in the last week which all parents are invited to attend.
Question 43: All the children come to the Camp have to___________.
A. be only keen on adventure B. be at the same age.
C. speak English D. practise basketball.
Question 44: How many kinds of sports can be played in the Camp?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
Question 45: All the statements are true except___________.
A. The parents can attend their children's sports contest.
B. The children will be busy taking part in the Camp’s programmed activities.
C. The camp is quite far from the Aegean Sea.
D. The children will take more chances of English practise.
Question 46: The tone of the passage could best be described as___________.
A. supportive B. negative C. disbelieving D. humorous.
Question 47: What should be the best title for the passage?
A. Chalkidiki’s landscape – The Aegean Sea. B. An international summer camp.
C. Children’s summer activities. D. Advice on children caring in summer.
Question 48: How long does it take the children to walk to the golden sandy beach on foot?
A. 20 minutes B. an hour C. 5 minutes D. a day
Question 49: Where is the camp located?
A. in Poland B. in Greece C. in the United States D. Denmark
Question 50: The word contest in the last sentence could be replaced by___________.
A. competition B. runner C. competitor D. athlete
SỞ GD& ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ THI KSCL ÔN THI THPT QG LẦN 3
TRƯỜNG THPT PHẠM CÔNG BÌNH MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 12
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underline part differs
Question 1: A. looked B. laughed C. decided D. experienced
Question 2: A. break B. increase C. speak D. Cheat
Question 4: A. endanger B. geometry C. opposite D. Geography
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
Question 5: A secretary told me an important file had left in the lunch room just the other day.
A. had left B. the other day C. told D. just
Question 6: I didn’t feel like to go to church this morning because it was raining hard.
A. to go B. raining hard C. to church D. didn’t
Question 7: A cure for the common cold, causing by a virus, has not been found.
A. for B. a virus C. causing D. has not been found
Question 8: _________ he is old, he wants to travel around the world.
A. In spite of B. Although C. Despite D. Because
Question 9: ad I studied harder, I_________better in the last exam.
A. would do B. would have done C. had done D. wouldn’t have done
Question 10: The larger the apartment, the__________ the rent is.
A. expensive B. more expensive C. expensively D. most expensive
Question 11: Last week, our class went to Ha Long Bay for a picnic, __________ made us very happy
then.
A. which B. that C. it D. of which
Question 12: Many species of plants and animals are in_________ of extinction.
A. dangerous B. endangered C. danger D. dangerously
Question 13: The last person _________ the room must turn off the lights.
A. to leave B. who leave C. That leave D. all are correct
Question 14: It ________ me only five minutes to get to school.
A. cost B. took C. brought D. spent
Question 15: I will stand here and wait for you ________ you come back.
A. because B. though C. so D. until
Question 16: Let’s begin our discussion now, ________?
A. shall we B. will we C. don’t we D. won’t we
Question 17: I was doing my homework ________ the light went out.
A. after B. before C. while D. When
Question 18: Would you mind ________ me a favor and posting this letter for me?
A. making B. doing C. getting D. giving
Question 19: It is imperative that your facebook password ________ confidential.
A. need keeping B. need to keep C. needs to be kept D. needed keeping
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tom: “ Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.” -Mary: “________”
C. Never mind! D. You was absent – minded.
Question 21: Lan: "Happy birthday! This is a small present for you." - Nga: “_______"
A. What a pity! B. How terrible!
C. Have a good time! D. How beautiful it is! Thanks.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
Question 22: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of
the island.
A. fruits and vegetables B. flowers and trees
C. plants and animals D. mountains and forests
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 24: We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
A. uninterested B. unsure C. open D. slow
Question 25: The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing
the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war.
A. happiness B. worry and sadness C. pain and sorrow D. Loss
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
A. It took me long to stop disappointing you.
Question 28: “ If I were you, I would go to the doctor.” David said to Claudia.
A. David advised Claudia not to go to the doctor.
B. David told Claudia that he would go to see the doctor.
C. David advised Claudia to go to the doctor.
D. David told Claudia to become a doctor.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
Question 29: The old man is working in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
A. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory.
B. The old man whom is working in this factory I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
C. The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory.
D. The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
Question 30: The girl forgot to set the alarm clock. Therefore, she is in a hurry now.
A. The girl is not in a hurry now although she forgot to set the alarm clock.
B. The girl is not in a hurry now in spite of forgetting to set the alarm clock.
C. The girl forgot to set the alarm clock because she is in a hurry now.
D. The girl is in a hurry now because she forgot to set the alarm clock.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B ,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Organized football games began in 1863. In football, two (31)_____ of eleven players try to kick
or head the ball into the goal of the other team. The goal keeper, (32)_____tries to keep the ball out of the
goal, is the only player on the field who can touch the ball with his or her hands. The other players must
use their feet, heads and bodies to (33)_____ the ball.
Every four years, football teams around the world (34)_____ for the World Cup. The World Cup
competition started in 1930. Brazil is the home of many great football players, including the most famous
player of all, Pele’. With his fast dazzling speed, Pele’ played for many years in Brazil and then in New
York. People in more than 140 countries (35)_____ the world play football. It is definitely the world’s
most popular sport.
Question 31: A. champions B. teams C. groups D. players
Question 32: A. that B. who C. whom D. which
Question 33: A. hit B. control C. drive D. watch
Question 34: A. compete B. fight C. play D. battle
Question 35: A. on B. all over C. through D. Whole
correct answer to each of the questions that follow.
Becoming a teacher demands not only knowledge in an academic field but also a personal
commitment to lifelong learning, and enthusiasm for sharing knowledge with other people. To become
one of those noble educators in the USA, one has to satisfy several basic requirements.
First and foremost, it is a prerequisite to have a bachelor's degree in education. In the event that a
candidate already has a bachelor's degree in another field, a teacher preparation program is needed. But
that is not all. Almost every school in the USA understands that real classroom teaching experience is a
vital part of a teacher's training. Before taking over a class, a person typically needs to complete a training
program, including working as a supervised student teacher.
People who want to become university teachers need master's degrees. Getting a master's degree is
a necessity, but if it is gained too early, there may be concerns that the candidate lacks the real-world
experience to go with it. In fact, very few schools want to hire novices with little or no classroom
experience and even if they are accepted, they are usually ill-paid. One wise solution to the issue is for
future postgraduates to start working as teachers before going on to gain their master's degree.
Besides knowledge and experience, certain personal qualities are also required. A teacher should
be positive, prepared, focused, and most importantly, patient. Being a teacher involves being aware of the
fact that learning sometimes is hard work, even for the most motivated students. Also, teaching can at
times be tiring and frustrating, so teaching candidates have to practice being patient with themselves.
In short, as in other careers, teaching requires a combination of qualifications, experience, and
personal qualities. Teaching candidates meeting mandatory requirements are always in demand in the
USA.
Question 36: The text is mainly about ______________.
A. The importance of teachers.
B. The advantages and disadvantages of being a teacher in the USA.
C. The difference of teaching career.
D. the basic requirements of being a teacher in the USA.
Question 37: According to the text, future postgraduates should start working as teachers ______ .
A. After gaining their master's degree.
B. Before studying for their master's degree.
C. During the time they are studying for their master's degree.
D. Before studying for their bachelor's degree.
Question 38: The word “vital” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________ .
A. very useless B. very easy C. very important D. very interesting
Question 39: According to the text, teaching requires a combination of many things EXCEPT _____.
A. qualifications B. personal qualities C. experience D. appearance
Question 40: According to the text, the most important quality of a teacher is __________.
A. being patient B. being to work hard C. being prepared D. being a role model
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ____________.
A. postgraduates B. novices C. schools D. teachers
Question 42: According to the text, all of the following sentences are true EXCEPT _________.
A. Those who want to become university teachers need master's degrees.
B. A teachers needs to be aware of the fact that learning can sometimes be hard work.
C. A great number of schools in the USA want to hire novices with little or no classroom experience.
D. In the USA, before one takes over a class, a training program is typically necessary to be completed.
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season.
Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like
that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor
named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an
American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and
condensed milk became more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to
be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that
mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times
of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily
diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise
more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great
distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy
southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up
to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As
easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had
more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became
a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and
1930’s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that
were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many
families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve
more varied fare.
A. Causes of food spoilage.
B. Commercial production of ice.
C. Population movements in the nineteenth century.
D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet.
Question 44: The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to __________ .
A. a particular time of year B. a kind of weather
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring
Question 45: During the 1860’s, canned food products were _________ .
A. unavailable in rural areas B. available in limited quantities
C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet.
Question 46: The word” them” in line 12 refers to _________ .
A. refrigerator cars B. growers C. perishables D. distances
Question 47: The word” fixture” in line 16 is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. commonplace object B. substance
C. luxury item D. mechanical device
Question 48: The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice _________.
A. increased in cost B. occurred only in the summer
C. decreased in number D. were on an irregular schedule
Question 49: The word “ Nevertheless” in line 19 is closest meaning to _________ .
A. occasionally B. however C. therefore D. because
Question 50: Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying B. Chemical additives C. Canning D. Cold storage
SỞ GD – ĐT BẮC NINH ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG LỚP 12- LẦN 1
TRƯỜNG THPT THUẬN THÀNH SỐ 1 MÔN: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
Choose the word or phrase that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 1: Each of the members of the group were made to write a report every week.
A. were B. members C. to write D. week
Question 2: The harder he tried, the worst he danced before the large audience.
A. worst B. the C. before D. tried
Question 3: My father asked me where had I gone the night before.
A. the B. asked me C. had I D. before
Choose the option to indicate the correct answer for each of the following question
Question 4: John paid for $2 for his meal, …..he had thought it would cost.
A. less as B. not so much as C. not as much D. not so many as
Question 5: It is essential that he …..an extra job to increase his income
A. does B. will do C. do D. must do
Question 6: He failed in the election because he ….his opponent.
A. overestimated B. underestimated C. understated D. undercharged
Question 7: I am angry because you didn’t tell me the truth. I don’t like …………
A. deceiving B. to deceive C. to have deceived D. being deceived
Question 8: The United States consists of fifty states, …..has its own government.
A. they each B. each of which C. hence each D. each of that
Question 9: There is nothing they could do...leave the car at the roadside where it had broken down.
A. but B. unless C. instead of D. than
Question 10: Please, will you just tidy up your room, and stop ….excuses
A. making B. doing C. taking D. having
Question 11: This library card will give you free access ….in the Internet eight hours a day.
A. from B. on C. to D. in
Question 12: Tony would have forgotten the appointment if I hadn’t ……….him
A. reminded B. regarded C. remembered D. recommended
Question 13: Under no circumstances……in many areas where poisonous snakes are known to live
A. one should not climb rocks B. one should be climbing rocks
C. should one climb rocks D. should be climbing rocks
Question 14: Such relaxing days were few and far…..in her hectic life
A. off B. between C. beyond D. out
Choose the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges
Question 15: Brian was late for school
- Brian: “Sorry, I was late again this morning”
- Pete: “……….”
A. No problem B. Well, don’t let it happen again
C. Yes, I know D. It’s OK
Question 16: Jane has just finished up a cup of coffee and some sweets John offered.
- John: “………”
- Jane: “No, thank you, that’ll be all”
A. What would you like? B. Would you like anything else?
C. It’s very kind of you to help me D. What kind of food do you like?
Question 17: Alice: “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment”
Peter: “……”
A. it’s rubbish. We shouldn’t use it B. never mind
C. I can’t agree with you more D. you can say that again
Choose the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions
Question 18: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the
annual meeting in May.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D. encouragement
Question 19: The World Health Organisation was established on April 7th 1948.
A. made up B. set up C. built up D. put up
Choose the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions
Question 20: In most countries, compulsory military service doesn’t apply to women.
A. mandatory B. essential C. required D. optional
Question 21: Whenever the problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly
A. disappear B. arrive C. clean D. encounter
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to the given one

Question 22: Nobody at all came to the meeting.
A. Not many people came to the meeting
B. Not a single person came to the meeting
C. There was almost nobody at the meeting
D. Only a few people came to the meeting
Question 23: My mother had the house decorated
A. My mother had to decorate the house B. My mother has just decorated the house
C. The house was decorated by my mother D. My mother had someone decorate the house
Question 24: The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. It was not until midnight that the noise next door stopped
B. The noise next door stopped at midnight.
C. It was midnight that the noise next door stopped
D. Not until after midnight did the noise next door stopped
Choose the sentence that best combines each pair of the following sentences
Question 25: The holiday was so expensive. We could only afford five days.
A. It was such an expensive holiday that we could only afford five days
B. So expensive was a five-day holiday that we could hardly afford it.
C. The holiday was dirt cheap, so we could afford more than five days.
D. A five-day holiday wasn’t cheap, so we couldn’t afford it.
Question 26: The news was wonderful. As a consequence, we decided to have a celebration.
A. We decided to have a celebration so as to hear wonderful news
B. It was such a wonderful news that we decided to have a celebration
C. We decided to have a celebration so that we heard the news
D. It was such wonderful news that we decided to have a celebration
Choose the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
Human beings have a strong need to put their experiences and problems into words. That is
why everyone (27)…. a “friendly ear”- someone who is willing to listen to their troubles and joys. But
few people (28)….…what a complex skill listening is. To be a good listener requires great powers of
concentration, which can only be gained through practice.
There are two reasons why listening is often such hard (29)….…The first is simply that people
much prefer to speak. How often have you missed what someone has said because you were thinking
about what you were going to say (30)….…The second reason is that people speak too slowly. The
average speed is about 125 words per minute, (31)….…is not fast enough for the human brain. It
allows too much time for the concentration to fail, as the brain tries to keep itself busy with other,
irrelevant thoughts.
Question 27: A. approves B. attracts C. applauds D. appreciates
Question 28: A. relate B. detect C. believe D. realise
Question 29: A. task B. act C. job D. work
Question 30: A. in turn B. through answer C. by report D. in reply
Question 31: A. this B. that C. what D. which
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions

During the 19th century, women in the U. S organized and participated in a large number of
reform movements, including movements to reorganize the prison system, improve education, ban the
sale of alcohol, and most importantly to free slaves. Some women saw similarities in the social status
of women and slaves. Women like Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were feminists and
abolitionists who supported the rights of both women and blacks. A number of male abolitionists,
including William Lloyd Garrison and Wendell Phillips also supported the rights of women to speak
and participate equally with men in anti- slavery activities. Probably more than any other movement,
abolitionism offered women a previously denied entry into politics. They became involved primarily
in order to better their living conditions and the conditions of others.
When the Civil war ended in 1865, the 14th, and 15th, Amendments to the Constitution
adopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to blacks but not to women. Discouraged
but resolved, feminists influenced more and more women to demand the right to vote. In 1869, the
Wyoming Territory had yielded to demands by feminists, but eastern states resisted more stubbornly
than ever before. A woman's suffrage bill had been presented to every Congress since 1878 but it
continually failed to pass until 1920, when the 19th Amendment granted women the right to vote.
Question 32: The word" primarily" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to.............
A. somewhat B. above all C. always D. finally
Question 33: The word “ban” in line 2 most nearly means to .........
A. prohibit B. encourage C. limit D. publish
Question 34: When were women allowed to vote throughout the US?
A. After 1920 B. After 1878 C. After 1870 D. After 1866
Question 35: According to the passage, why did women become active in politics?
A. to support Elizabeth Cady Stanton
B. to amend the Declaration of Independence
C. to be elected to public office.
D. to improve the conditions of life that existed at the time.
Question 36: What does the 19th Amendment guarantee?
A. Citizenship for women B. Citizenship for blacks
C. Voting rights for women D. Voting rights for blacks
Question 37: What cannot be inferred from the passage?
A. The blacks were given the right to vote before women.
B. The abolitionists believed in anti- slavery activities.
C. A women's suffrage bill had been discussed in the Congress for 50 years.
D. The eastern states did not like the idea of women's right to vote.
Question 38: What is not among the reformation movements of women?
A. passing the laws B. reorganizing the prison
C. prohibiting the sale of alcohol D. freeing the slaves
A. The 14th and 15th Amendment B. The Wyoming Territory.
C. Abolitionists D. Women's suffrage
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions

Most languages have several levels of vocabulary that may be used by the same speakers. In
English, at least three have been identified and described.
Standard usage includes those words and expressions understood, used, and accepted by a
majority of the speakers of a language in any situation regardless of the level of formality. As such,
these words and expressions are well defined and listed in standard dictionaries. Colloquialisms, on the
other hand, are familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and
used in informal speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations. Almost
all idiomatic expressions are colloquial language. Slang, however, refers to words and expressions
understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as appropriate formal usage by the
majority. Colloquial expressions and even slang may be found in standard dictionaries but will be so
identified. Both colloquial usage and slang are more common in speech than in writing.
Colloquial speech often passes into standard speech. Some slang also passes into standard
speech, but other slang expressions enjoy momentary popularity followed by obscurity. In some cases,
the majority never accepts certain slang phrases but nevertheless retains them in their collective
memories. Every generation seems to require its own set of words to describe familiar objects and
events.
It has been pointed out by a number of linguists that three cultural conditions are necessary for
the creation of a large body of slang expressions. First, the introduction and acceptance of new objects
and situations in the society; second, a diverse population with a large number of subgroups; third,
association among the subgroups and the majority population.
Finally, it is worth nothing that the terms “standard”, “colloquial”, and “slang” exist only as
abstract levels for scholars who study language. Only a tiny number of the speakers of any language
will be aware that they are using colloquial or slang expressions. Most speakers of English will, during
appropriate situations, select and use all three types of expressioins.
Question 40: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. Idiomatic phrases B. Dictionary usage
C. Different types of vocabulary D. Standard speech
Question 41: Where in the passage does the author explain where colloquial language and slang are
most commonly used?
A. The last two sentences of paragraph 5 B. The last sentences of paragraph 2
C. The last sentences of paragraph 3 D. The first sentences of paragraph 2
Question 42: The word “them” refers to .....
A. the majority B. words C. slang phrases D. memories
Question 43: How is slang defined by the author?
A. Words and phrases understood by the majority but not found in standard dictionaries.
B. Words and phrases understood by a restricted group of speakers.
C. Words and phrases understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as formal usage.
D. Words and phrases accepted by the majority for formal usage.
Question 44: Which of the following is TRUE of standard usage?
A. It is limited to written language
B. It is only understood by the upper classes
C. It can be used in formal or informal settings
D. It is constantly changing
Question 45: The word “appropriate” is closest in meaning to ........
A. important B. old C. large D. correct
Question 46: The author mentions all of the following as requirements for slang expressions to be
created EXCEPT ___________.
A. new situations B. a number of linguists
C. interaction among diverse groups D. a new generation
Choose the word whose the underlined part differs from other three in pronunciation in each of
the following questions
Question 47: A. interviewed B. performed C. finished D. delivered
Question 48: A. chaotic B. chemist C. brochure D. anchor
Choose the word that differs from other three in the position of primary stress in each of the
following questions
Question 49: A. hospital B. inflation C. policy D. constantly
Question 50: A. garment B. comment C. cement D. even
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1
TRẦN QUANG DIÊU Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1: Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festivities.
A. along with B. her cousins C. are D. to attend
Question 2: A number of the American Indian languages spoken at the time of the European arrival in the
New World in the late fifteen century have become extinct.
A. A number of B. spoken C. at the time D. fifteen
Question 3: A smile can be observed, described, and reliably identify; it can also be elicited and
manipulated under experimental conditions.
A. A smile B. identify C. can also D. experimental
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B ,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks blanks.
Teaching English as a foreign language can be a great way to travel the world and earn money at the same
time. However, some graduates actually like the idea of (4) ............... a career in teaching English long-term,
and there are numerous courses at various (5) ............... of teaching, from the fast-track TEFL to a diploma
or masters.
To find the right course a good place to start is TEFL.com – an Internet site with lots of relevant information
and helpful advice, including a comprehensive list of institutions in the UK offering TEFL courses. The site
also offers a job search facility to assist qualified students (6) ............... finding work.
When deciding which course to take, the best bet is to look at what your needs are. If you want a career in
teaching English then definitely find one designed for that (7)..........., like an MA or diploma; but if you want
to travel around the world, then do a shorter course which will supply you with teaching skills.
Some countries, like Japan, will employ people without a teaching qualification as (8)............. as the teacher
is a native speaker of English. However, most countries do now expect a qualification.
Question 4: A. Pursuing B. chasing C. hunting D. tracking
Question 5: A. levels B. categories C. groups D. classes
Question 6: A. to B. for C. at D. in
Question 7: A. function B. refresh C. aim D. purpose
Question 8: A. soon B. far C. well D. long
Question 9: A. demolish B. terrorist C. dramatic D. substantial
Question 10: A. electronic B. equivalent C. proficiency D. petroleum
Question 11: The event, watched by millions of people all over the country, takes place annually.
A. regularly B. once every year C. sometimes D. smoothly
Question 12: The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer.
A. look down on B. give onto C. put up with D. take away
Question 13: An employer must be very careful in dealing with subordinates and documenting their files in
order to avoid complaint.
A. bosses B. coordinators C. outside help D. employees
Question 14: I have never experienced such discourtesy toward the guests as it occurs at the graduation
party.
A. rudeness B. politeness C. measurement D. encouragement
answer to each of the questions that follow.
In primary school, a child is in a comparatively simple setting and most of the time forms and relationships
with one familiar teacher. On entering secondary school, a new world opens up and frequently it is a much
more difficult world. The pupil soon learns to be less free in the way he speaks to teachers and even to his
fellow pupils. He begins to gradually lose the free and easy ways of the primary school, for he senses the
need for a more cautious approach in the secondary school where there are older pupils. Secondary staff and
pupils suffer from the pressures of academic work and seem to have less time to stop and talk. Teachers with
specialist roles may see hundreds of children in a week, and a pupil may be able to form relationships with
very few of the staff.
He has to decide which adults are approachable; good schools will make clear to every young person from
the first year what guidance and personal help is available - but whether the reality of life in the institution
actually encourages requests for help is another matter.
Adults often forget what a confusing picture school can offer to a child. He sees a great deal of movement, a
great number of people - often rather frightening - looking people - and realizes that an increasing number of
choices and decisions have to be made. As he progresses through the school the confusion may become less
but the choices and decisions required will increase. The school will rightly expect the pupil to take the first
steps to obtain the help he needs, for this is the pattern of adult of life for which he has to be prepared but all
the time the opportunities for personal and group advice must be presented in a way which makes them easy
to understand and within easy reach of pupils.
Question 15: According to the passage one of the problems for pupils entering secondary school is
that ...........
A. They are taught by many different teachers.
B. They do not attend lessons in every subject.
C. The teachers do not want to be friendly.
D. The teachers give most attention to the more academic pupils.
Question 16: The teachers at secondary school do not talk much to the pupils because ................
A. They want to keep a certain distance with the pupils.
B. They are too busy with their academic work.
C. The pupils are afraid of them.
D. It is the regulation of the school.
Question 17: In secondary schools every pupil having problems should................
A. Know how to ask for help.
B. Be freed from any pressure of academic work.
C. Be able to discuss his problems in class.
D. Be able to discuss his problems with any teacher.
Question 18: What will the school rightly expect the pupils to do?
A. They firstly obtain the help. B. They think carefully.
C. They understand well. D. They study hard.
Question 19: The word “adults” in the second paragraph has the nearest meaning with ...................
A. The pupils at secondary school. B. The secondary pupils’ parents
C. The staff at secondary school. D. The teachers and pupils at secondary school.
Question 20: How many pupils do teachers see in a week?
A. One pupil B. A few of pupils C. Hundreds of pupils D. Many pupils
Question 21: Who do the pupils make relationships with?
A. Few of the staff B. Other parents C. Other pupils D. A few of the staff
Question 22: In this passage about secondary schools, the author is mainly concerned about ................
A. Academic standards B. The role of specialist teachers.
C. The training of the individual teachers. D. The personal development of pupils.
Question 23: In spite of all our efforts, we failed in the final match.
A. We failed in the final match as a result of all our efforts.
B. Whatever efforts we had made, we failed in the final match.
C. Although we tried very hard, we failed in the final match.
D. We made all our efforts so that we could again succeed in the final match.
Question 24: I’ve got lots of .............. but only a few really good friends.
A. Acquaintances B. Neighbors C. Best mates D. Partners
Question 25: We don’t allow anyone to use their cell phones during the examination.
A. Nobody is allowed to use their cell phones during the examination.
B. Nobody is allowed using their cell phones during the examination.
C. Nobody isn’t allowed to use their cell phones during the examination.
D. Nobody isn’t allowed using their cell phones during the examination.
Question 26: If I .............. that there was a test yesterday, I would not be punished now.
A. Had known B. Have known C. Would known D. Knew
Question 27: Sarah: “Do you think Dad will want something to eat after he gets home from work?” Brian:
“..........................”
A. We’ll book a table at Sofia's. B. No. I’ll ring him back at ten.
C. I hope not. He’s sleeping. D. Of course not. He needs a steam bath.
Question 28: By the end of next month, Sarah .............. in government for 40 years.
A. Will be work B. Is working
C. Will work D. Will have been working
Question 29: Don’t be late for the interview, ............. people will think you are a disorganized person.
A. Unless B. lest C. so D. otherwise
Question 30: He behaved so recklessly, so he would be disqualified from keeping his last job.
A. Had he not behaved so recklessly, he wouldn’t have been fired from his last job.
B. Without his reckless behavior, he would have lost his last job.
C. If he hadn’t behaved so recklessly, he hadn’t quit his last job.
D. He didn’t quit his job because he knew that he had behaved so recklessly.
Question 31: Tim: “I don’t think I can do this one.” – John: “...................”
A. No way Oh, come on! B. Have a go!
C. I hope not. D. Not at all
Question 32: The Chinese .......... spaghetti dishes for a long time before Marco Polo brought it back to Italy.
A. Have made B. Made C. Had been making D. Have been making
Question 33: The marriage pattern of parents plays an extremely important role in .............. marriage roles
of children.
A. Socialist B. Socialism C. Socializing D. Social
Question 34: As soon as the suppliers arrive, they will be ............ to the starving people in the flooded areas.
A. Distributed B. Attributed C. Contributed D. Submitted
Question 35: The top tourist ................. in Vietnam, Ha Long Bay features thousands of islands, each topped
with thick jungle vegetation, forming a spectacular seascape of limestone pillars.
A. Attractiveness B. Attraction C. Attractive D. Attract
Question 36: Everyone likes .............. when they have got some success.
A. To be congratulated B. Being congratulated
C. To be congratulating D. To congratulate
Question 37: Vietnam exports a lot of rice. It is grown mainly in the south of the country.
A. Vietnam, which is grown mainly in the south of the country, exports a lot of rice.
B. Vietnam exports a lot of rice which grows mainly in the south of the country.
C. Vietnam exports a lot of rice, that is grown mainly in the south of the country.
D. Vietnam exports a lot of rice grown mainly in the south of the country.
Question 38: “Why didn’t you answer my phone last night?” he said.
A. He asked me why he hadn’t answered my phone last night.
B. He asked me why I hadn’t answered his phone the night before.
C. He asked me why I didn’t answer his phone the night before.
D. He asked me why I hadn’t answered his phone the night after.
Question 39: Remember to bring with you your school certificate and letters of ................from your teachers
or your previous employers when you come to the interview.
A. Recommendation B. assignment C. advertisement D. invitation
Question 40: The teachers asked a difficult question, but finally Ted .......... a good answer.
A. Came out for B. Came out with C. Came out to D. Came out of
Question 41: Many plant and animal species are now on the ............... of extinction.
A. Margin B. Verge C. Danger D. Border
Question 42: A. ocean B. cushion C. patient D. decision
Question 43: A. dedicate B. eliminate C. educate D. certificate
Although only a small percentage of the electromagnetic radiation that is emitted by the Sun is ultraviolet
(UV) radiation, the amount that is emitted would be enough to cause severe damage to most forms of life on
Earth were it all to reach the surface of the Earth. Fortunately, all of the Sun’s ultraviolet radiation does not
reach the Earth because of a layer of oxygen, called the ozone layer encircling the Earth in the stratosphere
at an altitude of about 15 miles above the Earth. The ozone layer absorbs much of the Sun’s ultraviolet
radiation and prevents it from reaching the Earth.
Ozone is a form of oxygen in which each molecule consists of three atoms (O3) instead of the two atoms
(O2) usually found in an oxygen molecule. Ozone forms in the stratosphere in a process that is initiated by
ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. UV radiation from the Sun splits oxygen molecules with two atoms into
free oxygen atoms, and each of these unattached oxygen atoms then joins up with an oxygen molecule to
form ozone. UV radiation is also capable of splitting up ozone molecules; thus, ozone is constantly forming,
splitting, and reforming in the stratosphere. When UV radiation is absorbed during the process of ozone
formation and reformation, it is unable to reach Earth and cause damage there.
Recently, however, the ozone layer over parts of the Earth has been diminishing. Chief among the culprits in
the case of the disappearing ozone, those that are really responsible, are the chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
CFCs meander up from Earth into the stratosphere, where they break down and release chlorine. The
released chlorine reacts with ozone in the stratosphere to form chlorine monoxide (CIO) and oxygen (O2).
The chlorine then becomes free to go through the cycle over and over again. One chlorine atom can, in fact,
destroy hundreds of thousands of ozone molecules in this repetitious cycle, and the effects of this destructive
process are now becoming evident.
Question 44: According to the passage, ultraviolet radiation from the Sun..............
A. is causing severe damage to the Earth's ozone layer
B. is only a fraction of the Sun's electromagnetic radiation
C. creates electromagnetic radiation
D. always reaches the Earth
Question 45: The word “encircling” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to…………….
A. attacking B. raising C. rotating D. surrounding
Question 46: It is stated in the passage that the ozone layer……………
A. enables ultraviolet radiation to reach the Earth
B. reflects ultraviolet radiation
C. shields the Earth from a lot of ultraviolet radiation
D. reaches down to the Earth
Question 47: The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to……………….
A. radiation B. process C. formation D. damage
Question 48: The word “culprits'' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Guilty parties B. Detectives C. Group members D. Leaders
Question 49: According to the passage, what happens after a chlorine molecule reacts with an ozone
molecule?
A. The ozone breaks down into three oxygen atoms.
B. Two different molecules are created.
C. The two molecules combine into one molecule.
D. Three distinct molecules result.
Question 50: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses……….........
A. the negative results of the cycle of ozone destruction
B. where chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) come from
C. the causes of the destruction of ozone molecules
D. how electromagnetic radiation is created
TRƯỜNG THPT PHƯƠNG XÁ ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Question 1: A. coexist B. notify C. prohibit D. frozen
Question 2: A. danger B. devastate C. parade D. rational
Question 3: A. enthusiast B. philosopher C. education D. enlightenment
Question 4: A. develop B. rearrange C. determine D. distinguish
Question 5: Average world temperatures have risen on half a degree Celsius since the mid-nineteenth
century.
A. world temperatures B. on C. a degree D. since
Question 6: John’s wisdom teeth were troubling him, so he went to a dental surgeon to
see about having them pull.
A. were troubling B. to see C. about D. them pull
Question 7: The early periods of aviation in the United States was marked by exhibition flights made by
individual fliers or by teams of performers at county fairs.
A. periods of aviation B. exhibition flights C. individual fliers D. teams of performers
Question 8: Alright, Johnny , it’s time you ______ to bed.
A. are going to go B. would go C. went D. will be going
Question 9: Tom refuses ___________Mark his address.
A. give B. giving C. to give D. gave
Question 10: My relative, ______ you met yesterday , is a talented pianist.
A. that B. whose C. whom D. A and C are correct
Question 11: Your fare , accommodation and meals , are all _____ in the price of this holiday.
A. composed B. collected C. enclosed D. included
Question 12: If you borrow my bike , don’t get it dirty, ______?
A. shall you B. will you C. do you D. can you
Question 13: You can go where you like _________ you come back bore dark.
A. although B. as long as C. or else D. despite
Question 14: I’m sure he wouldn’t mind if we_____ early.
A. arrive B. arriving C. arrived D. had arrived
Question 15: ______ he had to deliver the performance in front of the whole class.
A. No sooner had he finished his rehearsal than
B. No sooner than he had his rehearsal finished
C. No sooner than he had finished his rehearsal
D. No sooner he had finished his rehearsal than
Question 16: The living conditions in the rural areas of the country ______ during the past five years.
A. had been improved B. have been improved
C. had improved D. were improved
Question 17: _____colleges and____universities are the main institutions that provide tertiary education.
A. The / Ø B. Ø / the C. The/the D. Ø / Ø
Question 18: "Those eggs of different colors are so beautiful!". Yes, they_____ in Russia".
A. were painted B. were paint C. were painting D. painted
Question 19: If you_____ so busy, I would have shown you how to play.
A. aren’t B. weren’t C. hadn’t been D. wouldn’t be
Question 20: In the world of models, every model girl tries every trick in the book to stop others from
succeeding.
A. every available method B. all kinds of tricks
C. all styles of writing D. every story slot
Question 21: The natives were angry when foreigners came to their country and took over their land.
A. tourists B. locals C. members D. migrants
Question 22: Huy and Steve are classmates . They are talking about their sport hobby Huy: Don’t you like
watching football? Steve: ______________.
A. Yes, I don’t B. No, I do .I like it a lot
C. It’s nice D. Yes , I love it
Question 23: This afternoon Hoa is visiting her home town. Mark: “Don’t fail to send your family my
regards” Hoa: ________.
A. You’re welcome B. It’s my pleasure C. Good idea, thanks D. Thanks, I will
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 24: “I made a mess of the exam .But I think I should pass , as I only need 50%.
A. to make a big mistake B. to change your plan
C. to loose confiddence D. to do at one’s best
Question 25: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have
academic or personal problems.
A. discourage B. please C. sympathize D. satisfy
Question 26: The challenges facing the new committee leader are numerous.
A. There are numerous challenges facing the new committee leader.
B. The new committee leader was ready to take numerous challenges.
C. To succeed, the new committee leader had to face numerous challenges.
D. Numerous challenges are going to face with the new committee leader.
Question 27: It is not until a Vietnamese girl gets 18 years old that she is allowed to get married legally.
A. A Vietnamese girl is not allowed to get married legally only when she gets18 years old.
B. They never allow a Vietnamese girl to get married legally when she is 18 years old.
C. The legal allowance for a Vietnamese girl to get married will be issued in 18 years.
D. A Vietnamese girl is allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
Question 28: “Don’t leave the house until I get back, Jack” said his sister.
A. Jack’s sister told him not to leave the house when she got back.
B. Jack’s sister told him to stay at home till she got back.
C. Jack’s sister told him to stay at home when she got back.
D. Jack’s sister told him not to go out until she gets back.
Question 29: The driver in front stopped so suddenly.Therefore , the accident happened.
A. If the driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly , the accident wouldn’t happen.
B. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have happened.
C. If the driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened.
D. If the driver in front had stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened.
Question 30: A drug may affect several functions, even though it’s targeted at only one.
A. Despite various other uses, a drug usually has a function for a special effect.
B. A drug is taken for a specific purpose, but it may have a range of other effects.
C. The functions expected of a drug are various even if it is used for a specific disease.
D. However effective a drug may be, its functions have to be several.
The current global extinction rate is estimated at about 20,000 species per year, exponentially greater
than the background extinction rate. Many (31) _____ believe that we are in the middle of the greatest
mass extinction episode since the disappearance of the dinosaurs 65 million years ago.
From what is known about present-day populations and from (32) _____ theory, the change in either
the physical or the biological environment is the key to extinction. However, the vulnerability of a species
depends (33) _____ a wide variety of factors, such as its total population size, geographical distribution,
reproductive ability, ecological relations with other species, and genetic characteristics. For example, more
emphasis is put on the greater vulnerability of species that reproduce slowly as contrasted with those that
reproduce (34) _____. Other factors, such as food-plant specialization, may make many fast reproducers
more vulnerable than species that reproduce more slowly. No matter (35) _____ fast an insect species that
depends on a certain plan can reproduce; it will still go extinct if that plant's habitat is destroyed.
It has been estimated that about one half billion species have lived at one time or another, and today's
existing species are only 2% of those that have ever evolved. The other 98% have either died out or evolved
into something sufficiently different to be called a new species.
Question 31: A. biology B. biologists C. biological D. biologically
Question 32: A. evolve B. evolution C. evolutionary D. evolutionist
Question 33: A. in B. on C. at D. about
Question 34: A. cheerfully B. cheaply C. lastly D. rapidly
Question 35: A. how B. what C. when D. which
It is hard to get any agreement on the precise meaning of the term "social class". In everyday life,
people tend to have a different approach to those they consider their equals from which they assume with
people they consider higher or lower than themselves in social scale. The criteria we use to 'place' a new
acquaintance, however, are a complex mixture of factors. Dress, way of speaking, area of residence in a
given city or province, education and manners all play a part.
In ancient civilizations, the Sumerian, for example, which flourished in the lower Euphrates valley from
2000 to 5000 B.C. social differences were based on birth, status or rank, rather than on wealth. Four main
classes were recognized. These were the rulers, the priestly administrators, the freemen (such as craftsmen,
merchants or farmers) and the slaves.
In Greece, after the sixth-century B.C., there was a growing conflict between the peasants and the
aristocrats, and a gradual decrease in the power of the aristocracy when a kind of ‘middle class’ of traders
and skilled workers grew up. The population of Athens, for example, was divided into three main classes
which were politically and legally distinct. About one-third of the total population were slaves, who did not
count politically at all, a fact often forgotten by those who praise Athens as the nursery of democracy. The
next main group consisted of resident foreigners, the ‘metics’ who were freemen, though they too were
allowed no share in political life. The third group was the powerful body of ‘citizens”, who were themselves
divided into subclasses.
The medieval feudal system , which flourished in Europe from the ninth to the thirteenth century , gave
rise to a comparatively simple system based on birth. Under the King , there were two main classes – lords
and “vassals” , the latter with many subdivisions.
In the later Middle Ages, however, the development of a money economy and the growth of cities and
trade led to the rise of another class, the ‘burghers’ or city merchants and mayors. These were the
predecessors of the modern middle classes. Gradually high office and occupation assumed importance in
determining social position, as it became more and more possible for a person born to one station in life to
move to another. This change affected the towns more than the country areas, where remnants of feudalism
lasted much longer.
Question 36: According to the passage, we evaluate other people's social position by _____ .
A. questioning them in great details
B. their dress, manners, area of residence and other factors
C. finding out how much their salary is
D. the kind of job they do
Question 37: The four main classes of Sumerian civilization ________.
A. did not include slaves B. took little account of financial standing
C. took little account of status or rank D. were not clearly defined
Question 38: The decline of the Greek aristocracy's power in the sixth century B.C _____.
A. caused international conflicts in the area
B. lasted for only a short time
C. was assisted by a rise in the number of slaves
D. coincided with the rise of a new "middle class" of traders and peasants
Question 39: Athens is often praised as the nursery of democracy ________.
A. even though slaves were allowed to vote
B. because its three main classes were politically and legally distinct.
C. in spite of its heavy dependence on slave labor
D. because even very young children could vote
Question 40: The word "predecessors" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. supporters B. authorities C. descendants D. ancestors
Question 41: The word "remnants" in the third paragraph is most likely to correspond to ________.
A. remains B. opponents C. clothing D. garments
Question 42: The passage is mainly about ________.
A. the human history
B. the division of social classes in the ancient world
C. the social life in ancient Greece
D. the modern society
Simply being bilingual doesn’t qualify someone to interpret. Interpreting is not only a mechanical process of
converting one sentence in language A into the same sentence in language B. Rather, it’s a complex art in
which thoughts and idioms that have no obvious counterparts from tongue to tongue _ or words that have
several meanings must be quickly transformed in such a way that the message is clearly and accurately
expressed to the listener.
At one international conference, an American speaker said, “You can’t make a silk purse out of a
sows ear”, which meant nothing to the Spanish audience. The interpretation was, “A monkey in a silk dress
is still a monkey” _ an idiom the Spanish understood and that expressed the same idea.
There are 2 kinds of interpreters, simultaneous and consecutive. The former, sitting in a separated booth,
usually at a large multilingual conference, speaks to listeners wearing headphones, interpreting what a
foreign language speaker says actually a sentence behind. Consecutive interpreters are the ones most
international negotiations use. They are employed for smaller meetings without sound booths and
headphones. Consecutive interpretation also requires two-person teams. A foreign speaker says
his piece while the interpreter, using a special shorthand, takes notes and during a pause, tells the client
what was said.
Question 43: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To explain the scope of interpreting
B. To differentiate between simultaneous and consecutive interpreters.
C. To state the qualifications of an interpreter.
D. To point out the importance of an interpreter.
Question 44: The author implies that most people have the opinion that the skill of interpreting is ______.
A. simpler than it really is B. very complex and demanding
C. highly valued and admired D. based on principles of business
Question 45: The example “You can’t make a silk purse out of a sows ear” is used to________.
A. stress the importance of word for word translation
B. point out the difference in attributes of animals in English and Spanish
C. emphasize the need for translation of the meaning of what is said
D. show the differences in language A and language B
Question 46: A precondition of being a translator is ______.
A. being a linguist B. being bilingual
C. working well with people D. being able to use high-tech equipment
Question 47: Which of the following would a consecutive interpreter be used for?
A. A large meeting of many nations.
B. A translation of a foreign book.
C. A business transaction between 2 foreign speakers.
D. An interpretation of a major literary work.
Question 48: The word “converting” is closest in meaning to…...
A. understanding B. changing C. reading D. concluding
Question 49: The word “ the former” in the last paragraph refers to_____.
A. simultaneous interpreters B. the conference
C. consecutive interpreters. D. both A & B.
Question 50: What is a difference mentioned between a simultaneous interpreter and a consecutive
interpreter?
A. The money they are paid. B. The size of group with whom they work.
C. Their proficiency in the language. D. The type of dictionary they use.
SỞ GD & ĐT TỈNH BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 1 THPT QUỐC GIA
THPT THUẬN THÀNH 1 Môn: Tiếng Anh
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. cultural B. priority C. advantage D. occurrence
Question 2: A. diversity B. disastrous C. circulate D. alternative
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has the underlined part
pronounced differently from the rest.
Question 3: A. likes B. tightens C. heaps D. fuss
Question 4: A. demand B. deny C. deter D. debris
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 5: I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful
Question 6: Ralph Nader was the most prominent leader of the U.S consumer protection movement.
A. casual B. significant C. promiscuous D. aggressive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 7: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.
A. calm B. responsive C. uncomfortable D. miserable
Question 8: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.
A. large quantity B. small quantity C. excess D. sufficiency
word for each of the blanks.
When you wave to a friend, you are using sign language. When you smile at someone, you mean to be
(9) ______. When you put one finger in front of your (10) ______, you mean, "Be quiet." Yet, people in
different countries may use different sign languages. Once an Englishman was in Italy he could speak a little
Italian. One day while he was walking in the street, he felt (11) ______ and went into a restaurant. When the
waiter came, the Englishman opened his mouth, put his fingers into it and took them out again and moved his
lips. In this way, he meant to say, "Bring me something to eat." But the waiter brought him a lot of things to
(12) ______: first tea, then coffee, then milk, but no food. The Englishman was sorry that he was not able to
tell the waiter he was hungry. He was ready to leave the restaurant. When another man came in and put his
hands on his stomach. And this sign was (13) ______ enough for the waiter. In a few minutes, the waiter
brought him a large plate of bread and meat. At last, the Englishman had his meal in the same way.
Question 9: A. well B. friendly C. fine D. careful
Question 10: A. eyes B. legs C. mouth D. head
Question 11: A. hungry B. tired C. cold D. ill
Question 12: A. eat B. watch C. drink D. read
Question 13: A. quick B. big C. strong D. clear
Mark the letter A, B , C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to the following
situations.
Question 14: Ivan: I have stacks of homework to do.
Kyle: _________________ !
A. Congratulations B. Poor you C. Cheers D. Oh bother
Question 15: Tom: I'm going on holiday tomorrow. Jerry: _________ !
A. Congratulations B. Sorry to hear that C. Have a nice time D. Watch out
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 16: Both bowling and ice-skating was introduced by the Dutch who colonized the New World
A B C D
in the 1600's.
Question 17: There are a large supply of pens and notebooks in the storeroom to the left of the library
A B C D
entrance.
Question 18: There are many ways to preserve fruit, for example freezing, canning and to dry.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the option that best makes the sentence
meaningful.
Question 19: person’s choice / occupations / probably / most important / have / made.
A. A person’s choice of occupation is probably the most important one that has to be made.
B. A person’s choice about occupation is probably most important one to have made.
C. A person’s choice from occupation is probably the most important one has to be made.
D. A person’s choice among occupation is probably most important having made.
Question 20: my opinion / unfair / women / more duties / husbands.
A. According to my opinion it is unfair when women have more duties than their husbands.
B. My opinion is unfair for women to have more duties than their husbands.
C. In my opinion it is unfair that women have more duties than their husbands.
D. My opinion, which seems to be unfair, is that women should have more duties than their husbands.
answer to the following questions.
Algae is a primitive form of life, a single-celled or simple multiple-celled organism that is able to
conduct the process of photosynthesis. It is generally found in water but can also be found elsewhere,
growing on such surfaces as rocks or trees. The various types of algae are classified according to pigment.
Blue-green algae, or Cyanophyta, can grow at very high temperatures and under high-intensity light.
This type of algae is the oldest form of life with photosynthetic capabilities. Fossilized remains of blue-green
algae more than 3.4 billion years old have been found in parts of Africa.
Green algae, or Chlorophyta, is generally found in freshwater. It reproduces on the surfaces of enclosed
bodies of water such as ponds or lakes and has the appearance of a fuzzy green coating on the surface of the
water.
Brown algae, or Phaeophyta, grows in shallow, temperate water. This type of algae is the largest in size
and is most recognizable as a type of seaweed. Its long stalks can be enmeshed on the ocean floor, or it can
float freely on the ocean's surface.
Red algae, or Rhodophyta, is a small, delicate organism found in the deep waters of the subtropics. This
type of algae has an essential role in the formation of coral reefs: it secretes lime from the seawater to foster
the formation of limestone deposits.
Question 21: What is the author's main purpose?
A. To show what color algae is
B. To differentiate the various classifications of algae
C. To describe where algae is found
D. To clarify the appearance of different types of algae
Question 22: Which of the following is NOT true about algae?
A. All types have one cell only. B. It can be found out of water.
C. It can use photosynthesis. D. It is not a relatively new form
of life.
Question 23: The word "pigment" at the end of the first paragraph means________.
A. size B. shape C. composition
D. color
Question 24: Algae remnants found in Africa are________.
A. still flourishing B. photogenic C. extremely old D. red in color
Question 25: Green algae is generally found________.
A. on the ocean floor B. on top of the water
C. throughout ponds and lakes D. surrounding enclosed bodies of water
Question 26: Brown algae would most likely be found________.
A. on trees B. near green algae C. on rocks D. in the ocean
Question 27: According to the passage, red algae is________.
A. sturdy B. huge C. fragile D. found in shallow water
Question 28: It can be inferred from the passage that limestone deposits serve as the basis of________.
A. coral reefs B. red algae C. subtropical seawater D. secret passages
each of the following sentences.
Question 29: Their chances of success are small.
A. It’s very likely that they will succeed
B. They will definitely be successful
C. It’s not very likely that they will succeed
D. They won’t have any chances of being successful
Question 30: “Would you like something to drink?” he asked.
A. He asked me would like something to drink.
B. He wanted to invite me for something to drink.
C. He asked me if I wanted something to drink.
D. He offered me something to drink.
Question 31: Public education is so good in European countries that there is almost no demand for private
schools
A. Even the excellence of public education in Europe does not stop people from sending their children to
private schools.
B. Hardly anyone sends their children to private schools in Europe because state schools are excellent.
C. People still send their children to private schools in Europe although the public education system is
excellent.
D. In Europe, there is no reason for parents to send their children to private schools because state schools
are so good.
Mark the letter A, B , C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 32: The woman________ last week has been freed by the police.
A. arrested B. was arrested C. arresting D. who arrested.
Question 33: Why don't you raise your hand to________ the teacher's attention instead of shouting like this?
A. attract B. pull C. draw D. capture.
Question 34: She has just enrolled on a ___ course in cooking because she is getting married next month.
A. speedy B. quick C. fast D. crash.
Question 35: Many workers switch from the day________ to the night one with difficulties.
A. light B. shift C. hour D. period
Question 36: The Internet enables users of computers to ________ information in a variety of forms.
A. share B. divide C. cut D. tell
Question 37: Women in America have a lot of ________ freedom.
A. personal B. physical C. human D. technical
Question 38: The survey was to find out the young people’s attitudes________ love and marriage.
A. towards B. above C. beneath D. with
Question 39: John ________ the keys. I cannot see it anywhere.
A. should have taken B. could have taken
C. must have taken D. needn't have taken.
Question 40: I would really like to join you on a skiing trip but I can't do it until I________ my thesis.
A. will finish B. finished C. have finished D. will have finished.
Question 41: ________ he studied hard, he didn't pass his final exams.
A. Although B. No matter C. Because D. However.
Question 42: To be honest, Harry has________ than you have.
A. been more helpful considerably B. considerably been more helpful.
C. been considerably more helpful D. been more considerably helpful.
Question 43: My new glasses cost me ________ the pair that I bought last month.
A. more than three times B. three times as much as
C. as much three times as D. more three times than
answer to the following questions.
Sound moves from its source to the ear by wavelike fluctuations in air pressure, something like the crests
and troughs of ocean waves. One way to keep from hearing sound is to use ear plugs. Another way is to
cancel out the sound with an anti-sound. Using a noisemarker controlled by a microprocessor, engineers have
produced sound waves that are half a wavelength out of phase with those of the noise to be quieted-each crest
is matched to a trough, and vice versa. Once the researchers have recorded the offending sound, a
microprocessor calculates the amplitude and wavelength of sound that will cancel out the crests and troughs
of noise. It then produces an electric current that is amplified and fed to a loudspeaker, which produces
anti-sound and wipes out the noise. If the anti-sound goes out of synchronization, a microphone picks up the
leftover sound and sends it back to the microprocessor, which changes the phase of the anti- sound just
enough to cause complete silence.
The research team has concentrated on eliminating low-frequency noise from ship engines, which causes
fatigue that can impair the efficiency and alertness of the crew, and may mask the warning sounds of alarm
and fog signals.
Question 44. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To discuss a physical handicap B. To warn about a growing danger
C. To describe the structure of the ear D. To report on a new invention
Question 45. The passage compares sound to_________.
A. the rising and falling of water in the ocean B. the crests and valleys of mountain ranges
C. a flag waving in the air D. a machine for gauging air pressure
Question 46. The passage discusses a way to deal with an offensive noise by_________.
A. diverting people's attention from it B. masking it with a louder noise
C. canceling it out electronically D. removing its source
Question 47. The microprocessor described in the passage will probably be used for_________.
A. composing music B. repairing alarm systems
C. eliminating engine noises D. intensifying for warning sounds
Question 48. The researcher mentioned in the passage is concerned about unwanted noise because it can__
A. cause deafness B. create hazardous working conditions
C. influence ocean waves D. damage loudspeakers and sound equipment
Question 49. According to the passage, what group of people will probably first from the use of the
microprocessor?
A. Ship's crews B. Research engineers
C. People with insomnia D. Engine repair teams
Question 50. A paragraph following the passage would most probably discuss_________.
A. the nature of fog B. a way to improve alarm systems
C. other causes of fatigue D. other uses for the microprocessor
SỞ GD & ĐT BẮC GIANG ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 LẦN 1
TRƯỜNG THPT NGÔ SĨ LIÊN MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 12
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
from the rest.
Câu 1: A. recite B. reconcile C. refund D. reproduce
Câu 2: A. pitch B. watch C. butcher D. architect
Mark the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
Câu 3: A. photography B. minority C. heroic D. amateur
Câu 4: A. power B. permission C. permanent D. carpe
Câu 5: A. comfortable B. uncontrollable C. politician D. practicality
following sentences
Câu 6: They tell me about the film on TV last week.
A. when they watched B. which they watched it
C. which they watched D. whom they watched
Câu 7: It’s important to know about how developed countries have solved the urbanization problems
and ___________some solutions to those in Viet Nam.
A. think B. advise C. expect D. propose
Câu 8: Each of the guests _________ a bunch of flowers.
A. are given B. is given C. were given D. give
Câu 9: Let’s go to the beach this weekend, _______ ?
A. do we B. shall we C. will we D. don’t we
Câu 10: John ___________ a book when I saw him.
A. is reading B. reading C. read D. was reading
Câu 11: It is recommended that he _______ this course
A. took B. takes C. take D. taking
Câu 12: John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” - Anna: “_______!"
A. Better luck next time B. So poor
C. Congratulations D. That was nice of them
Câu 13: Japanese, Korean, Russian, Chinese, French and German will be taught at general schools in
Hanoi and HCM City before being _________ on a large scale throughout the country.
A. applied B. provided C. assessed D. investigated
Câu 14: Remember to take _______your shoes when you go into the temple.
A. up B. in C. with D. off
Câu 15: __________ you study harder, you won’t pass the examination.
A. Although B. Despite C. Unless D. I
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the
underlined words.
Câu 16: The conference is governed by its newly elected board.
A. watched B. chosen C. ruled D. advised
Câu 17: After a long lunch hour, business resumes as usual.
A. continues B. resurfaces C. delays D. responds
Câu 18: The people interviewed for the survey were randomly selected.
A. thoughtfully B. carefully C. indiscriminately D. carelessly
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined words.
Câu 19: It was necessary to divide the movie 'Roots' into five parts in order to show it on television.
A. adapt B. merge C. segment D. transact
Câu 20: With the final examinations coming very soon his anxiety was rising to almost unbearable
limits.
A. joy B. confidence C. studying D. apprehension
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage:
LOOK ON THE BRIGHT SIDE
Do you ever wish you were more optimistic, someone who always (21)_____ to be successful?
Having someone around who always fears the worst isn’t really a lot of (22)_____we all know someone
who sees a single cloud on a sunny day and says: “It looks like rain.” But if you catch yourself thinking
such things, it’s important to do something (23)_____ it. You can change your view of life, (24)_____ to
psychologists, it only takes a little effort, and you’ll find life more rewarding as a (25)______.
Optimism, they say, is partly about self-respect and confidence, but it’s also a more positive way of
looking at life and all it has to offer . Optimists are more (26)_______to start new projects and generally
more prepared to take risks.
Upbringing is obviously very important in forming your (27)_______ to the world. Some people
are brought up to (28)______too much on others and grow up forever blaming other people when
anything goes wrong. Most optimists, on the (29) _____hand, have been brought up not to regard failure
as the end of the world-they just (30)_____with their lives
Câu 21: A. waited B. counted C. expected D. felt
Câu 22: A. fun B. play C. enjoyment D. musement
Câu 23: A. about B. with C. over D. against
Câu 24: A. judging B. concerning C. according D. following
Câu 25: A. product B. purpose C. reason D. result
Câu 26: A. possible B. hopeful C. likely D. welcome
Câu 27: A. position B. opinion C. attitude D. view
Câu 28: A. depend B. believe C. trust D. hope
Câu 29: A. other B. far C. opposite D. next
Câu 30: A. get on B. get out C. get up D. get over
following sentences.
Câu 31: The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
A. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.
B. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do.
C. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.
D. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.
Câu 32: It is expected that tax increases will be announced in tomorrow’s budget statement.
A. Tax increases are expected to be announced in tomorrow’s budget statement.
B. It is expected that people will announce in tomorrow budget tax increases.
C. In tomorrow’s budget statement tax increases are expected to announce.
D. Hope that they will announce tax increases in tomorrow’s budget statement.
Câu 33: Fiona has been typing the report for an hour.
A. It took Fiona an hour to type the report.
B. It is an hour since Fiona started typing the report.
C. Fiona finished the report an hour ago.
D. Fiona will finish typing the report in an hour.
Câu 34: I can’t do the test because it is too difficult.
A. If the test isn’t too difficult, I can do it.
B. If the test weren’t too difficult, I could do it.
C. If the test weren’t too difficult, I can do it.
D. If the test hadn’t been too difficult, I could do it.
Câu 35: The children couldn't go swimming because the sea was too rough.
A. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
C. The sea was too rough to the children's swimming.
D. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
Choose the option among A, B, C, D which needs correcting to make a complete sentence.
Câu 36: The exam to become a lawyer is on far the most difficult he has taken.
A B C D
Câu 37: No one in our office wants to drive to work because of there are always traffic jams at rush
hour. A B C
D
Câu 38: Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festivities.
A B C D
Câu 39: The computer-based tests will test your ability to understand spoken English, to read
A B
nontechnical language, and writing correctly
C D
Câu 40: In 1960 John F. Kennedy became the youngest man ever to elect president of the US. A
B C D
correct answers
It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year.
In January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant
hoot. The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to
twenty-four inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange
courtship dance. He bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He
flutters from limb to limb and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of
food. They share the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though
keeping time to the beat of an inner drum. Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large
hollow in a tree or even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and
rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge,
or even on the bare ground. even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are
large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a
rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she
stoically settles herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious
charges from snow and cold. It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the
shell. As the young birds feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical
expressions. They clamor for food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits,
crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and
game birds all fall prey to the hungry family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to
search for their own food. The parent birds weary of family life by November and drive the young owls
away to establish hunting ranges of their own
Câu 41: What is the topic of this passage?
A. Mating rituals of great horned owls
B. Raising a family of great horned owls
C. Habits of young great horned owls
D. Nest building of great horned owls
Câu 42: The phrase "a resonant hoot" is closest in meaning to
A. a sound B. an offering of food C. an instrument D. a movement
Câu 43: It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls
A. happens in the fall
B. takes place on the ground
C. involves the male alone
D. is an active process
Câu 44: According to the passage, great horned owls
A. may inhabit a previously used nest
B. are discriminate nest builders
C. need big nests for their numerous eggs
D. build nests on tree limbs
Câu 45: According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl's job?
A. To build the nest
B. To initiate the courtship ritual
C. To sit on the nest
D. To feed the young
Câu 46: The phrase "precious charges" refers to
A. the hawks and crows B. other nesting owls
C. the nest D. the eggs
Câu 47: According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT
A. insects B. other small birds C. small mammals D. nuts and seeds
Câu 48: The word "they" refers to
A. the adult birds B. the wise old men C. the prey D. the young birds
Câu 49: What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young great horned owls?
A. They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets.
B. They probably don't see their young after November.
C. They don't eat while they are feeding their young.
D. They are sorry to see their young leave home.
Câu 50: The phrase "weary of" is closest in meaning to
A. become sad about B. support C. are attracted to D. tire of
SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1
Trường THPT Hàn Thuyên NĂM HỌC: 2016- 2017
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words whose underlined parts differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Câu 1: A. tomorrow B. slowly C. below D. allow
Câu 2: A. roofs B. cloths C. books D. clothes
Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words having stress
different from the other three in each of the following questions.
Câu 3: A. partnership B. romantic C. actually D. attitude
Câu 4: A. certain B. equal C. decide D. couple
Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
question
Câu 5: Where is Jimmy? - He is work. He is busy his monthly report.
A. in/ about B. to/ through C. at/with D. on/ for
Câu 6: Most children enjoy with their parents and siblings.
A. played B. play C. to play D. playing
Câu 7: It’s too late; you shouldn’t go. Don’t worry! We can for a night.
A. put you up B. put you through C. put you away D. put you aside
Câu 8: nonverbal language is important aspect of interpersonal communication.
A. - / am B. The / - C. A/ the D. The/ a
Câu 9: Tim asked Sarah English so far.
A. how long was she learning B. how long she has been learning
C.she had been learning how long D. how long she had been learning
Câu 10: John often says he boxing because it a cruel sport.
A.had not liked/ was B. not liked/ had been
C. does not like/ is D. did not like/ were
Câu 11: I do not think there is a real between men and women at home as well as in our society.
A.attitude B. equality C. value D. measurement
Câu 12: Most of us would agree that physical does not play a major part in how we react to the people
we meet.
A. attractiveness B. attract C. attractively D. attractive
Câu 13: You should more attention to what your teacher explanis.
A. make B. get C. set D. pay
Câu 14: I there once a long time ago and back since.
A. have gone/ was B. went/ have not been
C. go/ am not D. was going/ has not been
Câu 15: The more and positive you look, the better you will feel.
A.confident B. confide C. confident D. confidence
Câu 16: It’s hard work looking three children all day.
A.after B. to C. up D. through
Câu 17: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnmaese schools.
A.depended B. paid C. required D. divided
Câu 18: Bill, come and give me a hand with cooking.
A. attempt B. prepare C. be busy D. help
Câu 19: We should keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being.
A.revealed B. frequented C. lively D. accessible
Câu 20: I didn’t think his comments were very appropriate at the time.
A.unsuitable B. right C. exact D. correct
Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges
Câu 21: “ I like your coat, Helen.” -“ .”
A.Really, I’m not. B. Do you? C. I think so D. I’m sorry.
Câu 22: “ What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” -“ “
A.You are telling a lie. B. I don’t like your saying
C. Thank you very much. I’m afraid D. Thank you for your compliment.
Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
Câu 23: Had the announcement been made earlier, more people wouls have attended the lecture.
A. The lecture was held so late that a few people attended it.
B. More people came late to the lecture because of the late announcement.
C. The late announcement helped make the lecture well- attended.
D. Few people came to the lecture because the announcement was not made earlier.
Câu 24: She raised her hand high so that she could attract the teacher’s attention.
A. Because her teacher attracted her, she raised her hand again.
B. Though she raised her hand high, she couldn’t attract her teacher’s attention.
C. To attract her teacher’s attention, she raised her hand high.
D. She had such a high raising of hand that she failed to attract her teacher’s attention.
Câu 25: Anyone who misses more than fifty percent of the classes deserves to fail.
A. Those who are absent more than half the time should fail.
B. Fifty percent of classes have failed the exams.
C. More than fifty percent is too much for one class.
D. People who fail must make up fifty percent of the classwork.
Make the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentence in the following questions.
Câu 26: The old man is working in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
A. The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
B. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory.
D. The old man who is working in this factory I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
Câu 27: Mary doesn’t like sports. Her brother doesn’t, either.
A. Neither Mary nor her brother likes sports.
B. Either Mary or her brother likes sports.
C.Neither Mary nor her brother likes sports.
D. both Mary and her brother like sports.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
Câu 28: Body language is quiet and secret, but most powerful language of all.
A. Body language B. secret C. most D. of all
Câu 29: Stayed strong, family members have to be engaged in each other’s lives.
A.Stayed B. strong C. have D. be engaged
Câu 30: Once you can overcome your difficulty, the problem may well become a source of strengthen to your
marriage and your faith.
A.Once B. overcome C. may well become D. strengthen
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase thet best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Câu 31: A. taking B. shaking C. grasping D. hugging
Câu 32. A. small B. bit C. slight D. heavy
Câu 33. A. exchanged B. changed C. transferred D. converted
Câu 34. A. pair B. couple C. double D. both
Câu 35. A. enthusiast B. enthusiastic C. enthusiasm D. enthusiastically
answer to each of the following questions from 36 to 43.
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language,
communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through performance. A person
conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle
or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and
regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a
group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone
may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the participant’s
tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest,
fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the acute listener.
Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for
obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the
music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the
success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional
health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing,
or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of
that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the
listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of
presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free
and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic
qualities of the depressed.
Câu 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The function of the voice in performance
B. Communication styles
C. The connection between voice and personality
D. The production of speech
Câu 37: What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and
feelings over and above the words chosen" ?
A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
Câu 38: The word "Here" in line 9 refers to……………
A. At interpersonal levels B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen
Câu 39: Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" ?
A. As examples of public performance
B. As examples of basic styles of communication
C. To contrast them to singing
D. To introduce the idea of self-image
Câu 40: According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's………
A. general physical health B. personality
C. registered D. obtained
Câu 41: According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide…………
A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength
Câu 42: The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to……………
A. frequently B. exactly C. severely D. easily
Câu 43: According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. Lethargy B. Depression C. Boredom D. Anger
answer to each of the following question from 44 to 50.
The rules of etiquette in American restaurants depend upon a number of factors: the physical location of the
restaurant, e.g., rural or urban; the type of restaurant, e.g., informal or formal; and certain standards that are
more universal. In other words, some standards 5 of etiquette vary significantly while other standards apply
almost anywhere. Learning the proper etiquette in a particular type of restaurant in a particular area may
sometimes require instruction, but more commonly it simply requires sensitivity and experience. For example,
while it is acceptable to read a magazine in a coffee shop, it is 10 inappropriate to do the same in a more
luxurious setting. And, if you are eating in a very rustic setting it may be fine to tuck your napkin into your
shirt, but if you are in a sophisticated urban restaurant this behavior would demonstrate a lack of manners. It is
safe to say, however, that in virtually every restaurant it is unacceptable 15 to indiscriminately throw your food
on the floor. The conclusion we can most likely draw from the above is that while the types and locations of
restaurants determine etiquette appropriate to them, some rules apply to all restaurants.
Câu 44: What topic is this passage primarily concerned about?
A. instruction in proper etiquette B. rules of etiquette
C. variable and universal standards of etiquette D. the importance of good manners
Câu 45: According to the passage, which of the following is a universal rule of etiquette?
A. reading a magazine at a coffee shop B. not throwing food on the floor
C. eating in rustic settings D. tucking a napkin in your shirt
Câu 46: According to the passage, requires sensitivity and experience?
A. reading a magazine at a coffee shop B. not throwing food on the floor
C. eating in rustic settings D. tucking a napkin in your shirt
Câu 47: Which of the following words is most similar to the meaning of “rustic” ?
A. urban B. unsophisticated C. agricultural D. ancient
Câu 48: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “tuck” in line 11?
A. set B. put C. fold D. hold
Câu 49: The word “sophisticated” in line 12 could best be replaced by?
A. famous B. cultured C. expensive D. exclusive
Câu 50: What is the author’s main purpose in this passage?
A. to compare sophisticated and rustic restaurants
B. to assist people in learning sophisticated manners
C. to simplify rules of restaurant etiquette
D. to describe variations in restaurant manners
ĐỀ THI THỬ TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA
NĂM 2017 (Lần 1)
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ THƯỜNG KIỆT
------------------------------------------
( Đề thi có 04 trang )
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. motorbikes B. determines C. involves D. cultures
Question 2: A. contain B. feature C. picture D. culture
Question 3: A. overwhelming B. intellectual C. incredible D. optimistic
Question 4: A. academic B. inorganic C. understanding D. uncertainty
Question 5: Buying clothes are often a very time-consuming practice because those clothes that a person likes
A B C
are rarely the ones that fit him or her.
D
Question 6: The British national anthem, calling “ God Save the Queen”, was a traditional song in the 18th
A B C D
century.
Question 7: Maryland, even though a southern state, remained loyalty to The Union during the Civil War.
questions.
Question 8: Since the flood the number of homeless people ________dramatically.
A. are increasing B. had increased C. increase D. has increased
Question 9: While everybody else in our class prefers working in groups, Mina likes working……………..
A. on herself B. on her own C. of her own D. in herself
Question 10: ________, the young mother appeared visibly very happy after the birth of her child.
A. Tired as she was B. She was tired
C. As tired D. Despite tired
Question 11: Could you please tell me________?
A. where does my uncle's room B. where is my uncle’s room
C. where my uncle’s room is D. where my uncle's room
Question 12: Gordon wants to look his best at the wedding so he’s ________
A. make a suit B. having a suit made
C. to get made a suit D. having made a suit
Question 13: This book provides students ________ useful tips that help them to pass the coming exam.
A. at B. about C. for D. with
Question 14: Most ________ understand that disciplinary actions do not always work with students.
A. educate B. educating C. education D. educators
Question 15: She________me a very charming compliment on my painting.
A. showed B. paid C. made D. took
Question 16: ________the rise in unemployment, people still seem to be spending more.
A. Despite B. Although C. Because D. Because of
Question 17: He did not share his secrets with other people but he ________in her.
A. confessed B. concealed C. confided D. consented
Question 18: I can’t ________this noise any longer. I’m going to write a letter of complaint to the local
authority about this problem.
A. put up with B. take away from C. get back to D. make out of
Question 19: The new manager laid down very strict rules as soon as he had ________the position.
A. taken over B. come over C. taken up D. taken off
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
Question 20: - Marie: “ what a lovely house you have !”
- Phil : “
A. No problem. B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. I think so. D. Of course not, it’s not costly.
Question 21: - Duong : “ My first English test was not as good as I expected.”
- Thomas “ __________”
A. Good Heavens ! B. That’s brilliant enough !
C. It’s okay, don’t worry D. Never mind, better job next time !
Question 22: The air is naturally contaminated by foreign matter such as plant pollens and dust.
A. polluted B. occupied C. filled D. concentrated
Question 23: Over a long time, customs can erode. They are gradually replaced by newer customs.
A. grow stronger B. grow weaker C. develop rapidly D. disappear completely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 24: “ Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the
teacher said.
A. visible B. edible C. eligible D. inaudible
Question 25: The funny story told by the man amused all the children.
A. pleased B. entertained C. saddened D. frightened
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
Question 26: The gate was closed to stop the children running into the road.
A. The gate was closed so the children can’t run into the road.
B. The gate is closed so that the children don’t run into the road.
C. The gate was closed so that the children couldn’t run into the road.
D. The gate is closed so that the children couldn’t to run into the road.
Question 27: If it hadn’t been for the wind, the fire would never have spread so fast
A. Even without the wind, the fire would have spread just as fast.
B. It was the wind that caused the fire to spread at such a speed.
C. Had there been a wind, the wind would have spread even faster.
D. The force of the wind affected the way the fire spread.
Question 28: “ Don’t forget to hand in the report, Pete !” said Kate.
A. Kate reminded Pete of handing in the report.
B. Kate said that Pete Had forgotten to hand in the report.
C. Kate forgot to hand in the report to Pete.
D. Kate reminded Pete to hand in the report.
Question 29: Anne jogs every morning. It is very good for her health.
A. Anne jogs every morning and is very good for her health.
B. Anne jogs every morning, which is very good for her health.
C. Anne jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health.
D. Anne jogs every morning that it is very good for her health.
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created a weather pattern (31)_______ strongly affects the world.
When the water is warm, the amount of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding regions decreases. Australia
could (32)_______ experience a drought in many parts. On the other hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific
Ocean) is preparing for severe rainstorms. In Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the
rainy season weaker and makes the area much drier.
This happening is called El Nino and is used (33)_______ weather forecasters to make long-range
weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will bring unusual rain to the southwestern part of the United
States and make the central part of the country drier at the same time.
According to research, weather forecasters (34)_______ know about the coming weather with certainty.
Now everything has become completely different.
El Nino itself used to be predictable. It would occur every two to seven years. But now this weather
pattern is becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or cyclones occur. Scientists
are unsure of the reason for this (35)_______ on the global scale either.
Question 31: A. what B. when C. that D. whether
Question 32: A. even B. ever C. nevertheless D. however
Question 33: A. on B. by C. to D. at
Question 34: A. used to B. get used to C. are used to D. used to be
Question 35: A. change B. transfer C. transformation D. shift
Horace Pippin, as an African-American soldier during World War I, was wounded in his right arm. He
discovered, however, that by keeping his right wrist steady with his left hand, he could paint and draw. Pippin
was not trained, but his artistic sensitivity and intuitive feel for two-dimensional design and the arrangement of
colour and patterns made him one of the finest Primitive artists America has produced.
Pippin did a series of paintings on the abolitionist John Brown and one on his war experiences, but he
shied away from social issues for the most part and achieved his greatest success with scenes of the people and
places of his hometown of West Chester, Pennsylvania. His Domino Players, featuring four women gathered
around a wooden table in a simple kitchen setting, is an excellent example of his rural domestic scenes.
Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about primitive art?
A. It’s two-dimensional
B. Colours and patterns are important
C. Artists do not have to be trained for it
D. It is used mainly for painting portraits
Question 37: Horace Pippin discovered he could paint and draw
A. during Word War I
B. when he completed his training
C. when someone reminded him of his artistic sensitivity
D. by holding his right wrist steady with his left hand
Question 38: Where in the passage is the name of Pippin’s hometown mentioned?
A. Line 6 B. line 10 C. Line 4 D. line 11
Question 39: It may be inferred from the passage that Pippin
A. had a simple a simple upbringing B. was obsessed with the subject of abolition
C. was destroyed by his war experiences D. wanted nothing to do with his past
Question 40: The word “arrangement” in line 5 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. purpose B. feature C. mixture D. production
Question 41: With which of the following statements would the author agree?
A. Horace Pippin was a poorly trained ordinary artist
B. Primitive art is an excuse for lack of training and latent
C. Horace Pippin made an important contribution to American art
D. Horace Pippin placed too much emphasis on social issues in his work.
Question 42: The passage would most likely be required reading in which course?
A. Biology B. Drama C. Literature D. Art History
It is hard to think of a world without gas or electricity. Both are commonly used for lighting and heating
today. We now can instantly flick a lighter or strike a match to make a flame. But it was not long ago that there
were no such things as matches or lighters. To make fire, it was necessary to strike a piece of iron on flint for
sparks to ignite some tinder. If the tinder was damp, or the flint old, you had to borrow some fire from a
neighbor.
We do not know exactly when or how people first used fire. Perhaps, many ages ago, they found that sticks
would burn if they were dropped into some hole where melted lava from a volcano lay boiling. They brought
the lighted sticks back to make their fire in a cave. Or, they may have seen trees catch fire through being struck
by lightning, and used the trees to start their own fires.
Gradually people learned they could start a fire without traveling far to find flames. They rubbed two pieces
of wood together. This method was used for thousands of years.
When people became used to making fires with which to cook food and stay warm at night, they found that
certain resins or gums from trees burnt longer and brighter. They melted resins and dipped branches in the
liquid to make torches that lit their homes at night. Iron stands in which torches used to be fixed can still be seen
in old buildings of Europe.
There was no lighting in city streets until gas lamps, and then electric lamps were installed. Boys ran about
London at night carrying torches of burning material. They were called torch boys, or link boys, and earned a
living by guiding visitors to friends’ houses at night.
For centuries homes were lit by candles until oil was found. Even then, oil lamps were no more effective than
a cluster of candles. We read about the splendors and marvels of ancient palaces and castles, but we forget that
they must have been gloomy and murky places at night.
Question 43: What does “they” refer to?
A. people B. ages C. sticks D. trees
Question 44: According to the passage the first fire used by people was probably obtained ______.
A. from the sun’s heat through glass B. by rubbing wood together
C. from heat or fire caused by nature D. by striking iron against flint
Question 45: It is stated in the passage that torches for lighting were made from ______.
A. the wood of gum trees B. iron bars dipped in melted resins
C. wooden poles dipped in oil D. tree branches dipped in melted resins
Question 46: It is mentioned in the passage that before the electric lamp was invented
A. oil lamps and then candles were used
B. candles and oil lamps appeared about the same time
C. candles and then oil lamps were used
D. people did not use any form of lighting in their houses
Question 47: The word “splendors” in the passage could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. expensive objects B. places of scenic beauty
C. achievements D. the beautiful and impressive features
Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following sentence is NOT true?
A. We know exactly when and how people first used fire.
B. Before gas lamps and electric lamps appeared, streets were lit by torches.
C. We can make a fire by striking a piece of iron on the flint to ignite some tinder.
D. Matches and lighters were invented not long ago.
Question 49: The word “gloomy” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. nearly dark B. badly decorated
C. containing a lot of white D. mysterious
Question 50: What form of street lighting was used in London when link boys used to work there?
A. Gas lighting B. No lighting at all. C. Electric lighting. D. Oil lighting.
NGOC HAU HIGH SCHOOL
Full name:……………………………..Class:12………….. Date:……………….
THE FIRST TRIAL TEST INTO UNIVERSITY
School year: 2016 – 2017
Time allotted: 60 minutes
1. The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the rain.
A B C D
2. A turtle differs from other reptiles in that its body is encased in a protective shell of their own.
A B C D
3. It is a good idea to be careful in buying or purchasing magazines from salespersons who
A B C D
may come to your door.
4. No one has seen Linda since the day of the party.
A. Linda has not been seen since the day of the party.
B. Linda is nowhere to be seen at the party.
C. The party is going on without Linda.
D. No one has seen Linda for ages.
5. He talked about nothing except the weather.
A. He talked about everything including the weather.
B. His sole topic of conversation was the weather.
C. He had nothing to say about the weather.
D. He said he had no interest in the weather.
6. He doesn’t study hard, so he can fail the exam.
A. If he studies hard, he won’t fail the exam.
B. If he didn’t study hard, he wouldn’t fail the exam.
C. If he studied hard, he wouldn’t fail the exam.
D. If he hadn’t studied hard, he wouldn’t have failed the exam.
When you first apply for a job, you (7)………….not succeed in getting it. It’s always a good
(8)……………..to ask them to explain to you what prevent you from beating the other candidates. Don’t
complain about the situation, but ask them to advise you (9)……………….what you can do better next time.
Perhaps the interviewer disapproved of or disagree with something you said. Perhaps they just glanced at
your application and saw something that made it easy to choose between you and another candidate. Don’t
regard it as a failure, but recognize it as a chance to learn more. (10) ……………….you don’t worry too
much about it and continue to believe in yourself, you’ll eventually find the chance you’ve been waiting for.
Then, your family and friends will be able to (11)…………..you on your success.
7. A. might B. wouldn’t C. won’t D. must
8. A. means B. opinion C. idea D. method
9. A. about B. of C. over D. in
10. A. As far as B. By far C. So far D. As long as
11. A. encourage B. congratulate C. promote D. depend
12. Mrs Mai: “ ……………………” -> Mr. Brown: “ Thank you. We are proud of him.”
A. Your kid is naughty. B. Can we ask your child to take a photo?
C.Your child is just adorable. D. I can give your kid a lift to school.
13. Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they are going to have
date with each other later.
Laura: “ Well, it’s getting late. Maybe we could get together sometime.”
Ken: “………………………”
A. Nice to see you back. B. Take it easy.
C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call. D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning ti the
underlined word(s) in each off the following questions.
14. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A.absolutely B. relevantly C. comparatively D. almost
15. From an airplane, the grasslands of the western prairie appear almost as uniform as a placid sea.
A. noisy B. calm C. seedy D. fake
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning ti the underlined word(s) in each off the following questions.
16. The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.
A. busy B. comfortable C.free D. relaxed
17. in most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.
A. Optional B. mandatory C. beneficial D. constructive
The three phases of human memory are the sensory memory, the short-term memory, and the long- term
memory. This division of the memory into phases is based on the length of time of the memory.
Sensory memory is instantaneous memory. It is an image or memory that enters your mind only for a short
period of time; it comes and goes in under a second. The memory will not last longer than that unless the
information enters the short-term memory.
Information can be held in the short-term memory for about twenty seconds or as long as you are actively
using it. If you repeat a fact to yourself, that fact will stay in your short-term memory as long as you keep
repeating it. Once you stop repeating it, either it is forgotten or it moves into long term memory.
Long-term memory is the huge memory tank that can hold ideas and images for years and years. Information
can be added to your long-term memory when you actively try to put it there through memorization or when
an idea or image enters your mind on its own.
18. The best title for this passage would be……………………
A. The difference between sensory and short-term memory.
B. How long it takes to memorize.
C. The stages of human memory.
D. Human phases.
19. The three phases of memory discussed in the passage are differentiated according to……………
A. The location in the brain
B. The period of time it takes to remember something
C. How the senses are involved in the memory.
D. How long the memory lasts.
20. The expression “is based on” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by…………….
A. Is on the top of B. is at the foot of C. depends on D. is below
21. According to the passage, which type of memory is the shortest?
A. Sensory memory B. Active memory
C. Short-term memory D. Long-term memory
22. According to the passage, when will information stay in your short-term memory?
A. For as long as twenty minutes
B. As long as it is being used.
C. After you have repeated it many times.
D. When it has moved into long-term memory.
23. All of the following are TRUE about long – term memory EXCEPT that…………………
A. it has a very large capacity.
B. it can hold information.
C. it is possible to put information into it through memorization.
D. memorization is the only way that information can get there.
24. The expression “on its own” in the last sentence can be best replaced by “……………………..”
A. by itself B. in it own time C. with its possessions D. in only one way
25. It can be inferred from the passage that if a person remembers a piece of information for two days, this is
probably…………………
A. three phases of memory B. the sensory memory
C. the short-term memory D. the long-term memory
Mark the letter A, B, C , or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions
26. Not only……………….the exam but she also got a scholarship.
A. dis she pass B. she passed C. she has passed D. has she passed
27. he was the first person…………….the room.
A. entering B. to enter C. to be enter D. having entered
28. Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep…………….with rapidly changing
technology.
A. speed B. time C. fast D. pace
29. The climate of China is similar in many ways to…………………
A. that of the United States B. which of the United States
C. the United States D. this of the United States
30. Western women are more ……………… than Asian women.
A. depend B. independent C. independently D. dependence
31. The twins look so much alike that no one can……………them……………
A. take/ apart B. tell/ away C. tell/ apart D. take/ on
32. The teacher always………….that the students make an outline before writing a complete essay.
A. reports B. recommends C. tells D. says
33. I have no patience with gossip. What I told Bill was a secret. He………………it to you.
A. mustn’t read B. shouldn’t have repeated
C. mustn’t have repeated D. shouldn’t read
34. ………………..he was kidnapped by the Iraqi guerrillas yesterday has been confirmed.
A. That B. What C. If D. Unless
35. Air pollution poses a………………..to both human health and our environment.
A. jeopardy B. difficulty C. problem D. threat
36. The people who……………the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents.
A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted
37. The teacher had some exercise…………….at home yesterday so that he can correct them today.
A. be done B. to be done C. being done D. done
Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For
employees whose job involves sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the
location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when
the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A
recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although
the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business
Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting
become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many
managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large workforce scattered across the
country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby
complicating the manager’s responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the
opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that
they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting.
Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get
away from the office.
38. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. An overview of telecommuting. B. The failure of telecommuting.
C. The advantages of telecommuting. D. A definition of telecommuting.
39. How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than predicted in Business Week. B. More than 8 million.
C. Fewer than last year. D. Fewer than estimated in USA Today.
40. The phrase “of no consequence” means…………………
A. of no use B. irrelevant C. of no good D. unimportant
41. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT……………
A. the opportunities for advancement. B. the different system of supervision.
C. the lack of interaction with a group. D. The work place is in the home.
42. The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to…………………..
A. telecommuters B. systems C.executives D. responsibilities
43. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees
A. need regular interaction with their families.
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
44. The word “reluctant” in the third paragraph can best be replaced by
A. opposite B. willing C. hesitant D. typical
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
45. A. economics B. conquerable C. capability D. optimistic
46. A. enthusiastic B. durability C. civilization D. humanitarian
47. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air
48. The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice
D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.
49. A. thanked B. belonged C. cooked D. laughed
50. A. chemical B. approach C. achieve D. challenge
SỞ GD&ĐT TP. HỒ CHÍ MINH ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC LẦN 2
TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO MÔN ANH VĂN – KHỐI 12 (BAN A1+D)
Ngày thi: 14/11/2016
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
I-Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions
Câu 1: The soccer team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well
B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match.
D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
Câu 2: Lucy always reminds me of my youngest sister.
A. My youngest sister’s name is Lucy.
B. I always think of Lucy, my youngest sister.
C. Whenever I see Lucy, I think of my youngest sister.
D. It is Lucy who is my youngest sister.
Câu 3: They had such a fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
A. So fierce was their dog that nobody would visit them.
B. Their dog was fierce enough for anybody to visit them.
C. If their dog weren’t fierce, somebody would visit them.
D. So fierce a dog did they had that nobody would visit them.
Câu 4: They are my two sisters. They aren’t teachers like me.
A. They are my two sisters, that are teachers like me.
B. They are my two sisters, neither of whom are teachers like me.
C. They are my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.
D. Unlike me, neither of my two sisters aren’t teachers.
Câu 5: “Why don’t you participate in the volunteer work in summer?" said Sophie.
A. Sophie suggested my participating in the volunteer work in summer.
B. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer.
C. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.
D. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.
II-Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
Câu 6: The students are advised to concentrate on their studying.
A. remember B. pay attention to
C. be interested in D. resemble
Câu 7: In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.
A. mandatory B. superior C. beneficial D. constructive
III-Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Câu 8: Many people will be out of ________ if the factory is closed.
A. career B. job C. profession D. work
Câu 9: Neither Tom nor his brothers______ willing to help their mother with the housework.
A. is B. was C. are D. has been
Câu 10: Do you know the person _________ next to you in the evening class?
A. whose sitting B. whom sits C. sitting D. who sit
Câu 11: I can’t _________ of a word he is saying.
A. make sense B. grasp C. comprehend D. understand
Câu 12: Tony Blair is believed __________ for Liverpool last week.
A. having left B. to have left C. to leave D. leaving
Câu 13: _______ is increasing, which results from the economic crisis.
A. Employment B. Unemployed C. Unemployment D. Employ
Câu 14: Tom: “_____” Mike: “I won’t say no!”
A. How are things with you, Mike?
B. What about playing badminton this afternoon?
C. Mike, do you know where the scissors are?
D. What’s your favourite, tea or coffee?
Câu 15: In the US the first stage of compulsory education _______ as elementary education.
A. to be generally known B. s generally known
C. generally known D. is generally knowing
Câu 16: It is vital to create a good impression ______ your interviewer.
A. on B. with C. at D. for
Câu 17: Geometry is the branch of mathematics _______ the properties of time, curves, shapes, and
surfaces.
A. it is concerned with B. that concerned with
C. concerned with D. its concerned are
Câu 18: We should make full use _____ the Internet as it is an endless source of information.
A. of B. in C. with D. from
Câu 19: Cindy: "Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!" - Mary: - " ______________”
A. Never mention it. B. Thanks, Cindy. I had it done yesterday
C. Thanks, but I'm afraid. D. Yes, all right.
Câu 20: He didn’t know______ or stay until the end of the festival.
A. whether to go B. if that he should go
C. to go D. if to go
Câu 21: If_____, the Xmas tree would look more impressive.
A. done carefully B. being done carefully
C. it were careful done D. it were to be carefully done
IV-Read the following andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world's universities, came from
a very inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims landed
at Plymouth. Included in the Puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period were more
than 100 graduates of England's prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these university
graduates in the New World were determined that their sons would have the same educational
opportunities that they themselves had had. Because of this support in the colony for an institution of
higher learning, the General
The Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a college in October of 1636 and early the
following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was in an area called Newetowne,
which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of the present-day university.
When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of Charlestown,
died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to the fledgling college. In
spite of the fact that only half of the request was actually paid, the General Court named the college after
the minister in appreciation for what he had done. The amount of the request may not have been large,
particularly by today's standard, but it was more than the General Court had found it necessary to
appropriate in order to open the college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that in
addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshman class of four
students. Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire teaching
staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.
Câu 22: The main idea of this passage is that ______________ .
A. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts
B. What is today a great university started out small
C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
D. Harvard is one of the world's most prestigious universities.
Câu 23: The passage indicates that Harvard is _______________
A. one of the oldest universities in the world B. the oldest university in the world
C. one of the oldest universities in America D. the oldest university in America
Câu 24: It can be inferred from the passage that the Puritans who traveled to the
Massachusetts colony were _________________
A. rather rich B. Rather well educated
C. rather supportive of the English government D. rather undemocratic
Câu 25: The pronoun "they" in the second paragraph refers to _______________
A. son B. university graduates
C. Oxford and Cambridge universities D. educational opportunities
Câu 26: The "pounds" in the second paragraph are probably ______________
A. units of money B. college students C. types of books D. school campuses
Câu 27: Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A. What he died of B. Where he came from
C. Where he was buried D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard
Câu 28: The passage implies that __________________ .
A. Someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster
B. Henry Dunster was an ineffective president
C. Henry Dunster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty
D. The position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the early ears
Câu 29: The word "somewhat" in the last paragraph could best be replaced by _______
A. to and pro B. Back and forth C. side by side D. more or less
V-Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 30: A. engineering B. economics C. recommend D. curriculum
Câu 31: A. economy B. certificate C. graduate D. semester
VI-Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
Câu 32: My mother told me to watch the milk and don’t let it boil over.
A B C D
Câu 33: Fertilizer, which is added to the soil to replace or increase plant nutrients, include
A B C
animal and green manure, fish and bone meal and compost.
D
Câu 34: Foreign students who are doing a decision about which school to attend may not
A B C
know exactly where the choices are located.
D
VII-Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Câu 35: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work
A. calm B. miserable C. responsive D. uncomfortable
Câu 36: I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. Being courteous B. Being cheerful C. Being efficient D. Being late
VIII-Read the following andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
In early civilization, citizens were educated informally, usually within the family unit. Education
meant simply learning to live. As civilization became more complex, however, education became more
formal, structured, and comprehensive. Initial efforts of the ancient Chinese and Greek societies
concentrated solely on the education of males. The post-Babylonian Jews and Plato were exceptions to
this pattern. Plato was apparently the first significant advocate of the equality of the sexes. Women, in his
ideal state, would have the same rights and duties and the same educational opportunities as men. This
aspect of Platonic philosophy, however, had little or no effect on education for many centuries, and the
concept of a liberal education for men only, which had been espoused by Aristotle, prevailed.
In ancient Rome, the availability of an education was gradually extended to women, but they were
taught separately from men. The early Christians and medieval Europeans continued this trend, and
single-sex schools for the privileged through classes prevailed through the Reformation period. Gradually,
however, education for women, in a separate but equal basis to that provided for men, was becoming a
clear responsibility of society. Martin Luther appealed for civil support of schools for all children. At the
Council of Trent in the 16th century, the Roman Catholic Church encouraged the establishment of free
primary schools for children of all classes. The concept of universal primary education, regardless of sex,
had been born, but it was still in the realm of the single-sex school.
In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, co-education became a more widely applied principle of
educational philosophy. In Britain, Germany, and the Soviet Union the education of boys and girls in the
same classes became an accepted practice. Since World War II, Japan and the Scandinavian countries
have also adopted relatively universal co-educational systems. The greatest negative reaction to
co-education has been felt in the teaching systems of the Latin countries, where the sexes have usually
been separated at both primary and secondary levels, according to local conditions.
A number of studies have indicated that girls seem to perform better overall and in science in
particular. In single-sex classes, during the adolescent years, pressure to conform to stereotypical female
gender roles may disadvantage girls in traditionally male subjects, making them reluctant to volunteer for
experimental work while taking part in lessons. In Britain, academic league tables point to high standards
achieved in girls’ schools. Some educationalists, therefore, suggest segregation of the sexes as a good
thing, particularly in certain areas, and a number of schools are experimenting with the idea.
Câu 37: Ancient education generally focused its efforts on __________.
A. young people only B. on male learners C. both sexes D. female learners
Câu 38: Education in early times was mostly aimed at __________.
A. teaching skills B. learning new lifestyles
C. learning to live D. imparting survival skills
Câu 39: The first to support the equality of the sexes was __________
A. the Chinese B. the Jews C. Plato D. the Greek
Câu 40: The word “informally” in this context mostly refers to an education occurring __________.
A. in a department B. in classrooms C. ability D. outside the school
Câu 41: When education first reached women, they were __________.
A. separated from men B. locked up in a place with men
C. deprived of opportunities D. isolated from a normal life
Câu 42: When the concept of universal primary education was introduced, education __________.
A. was intended for all the sexes B. was intended for all the sexes
C. was given free to all D. focused on imparting skills
Câu 43: Co-education was negatively responded to in __________.
A. conservative countries B. Japan
C. South American countries D. the Scandinavian countries
IX-Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
Câu 44: A. interview B. minute C. question D. suitable
Câu 45: A. expand B. vacancy C. applicant D. category
X-Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 46 to 50.
Here are tips that help succeed in your job interview:
Always arrive early. If you do not know (46) _________ the organization is located, call for exact
directions (47) ____________ advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or unexpected
events. If you are running late, call right away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is
approximately 5 - 10 minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your resume one more time, to catch
your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter
with respect. Be (48) _________ to everyone as soon as you walk in the door.
Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First (49) ____________
are extremely important in the interview process. Women should (50)_________ wearing too much
jewelry or make up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It is also important that
you feel comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think
it is an informal environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed if you are
wearing a tailored suit.
Câu 46: A. when B. why C. where D. that
Câu 47: A. with B. in C. on D. for
Câu 48: A. happy B. pleasant C. disappointed D. excited
Câu 49: A. attendances B. attentions C. impressions D. pressures
Câu 50: A. avoid B. suggest C. enjoy D. mind
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2017
Trường THPT chuyên Nguyễn Huệ Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian: 60 phút
Question 1: A. subscribed B. launched C. inspired D. welcomed
Question 2: A. sour B. hour C. pour D. flour
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. conserve B. achieve C. employ D. waver
Question 4: A. perseverance B. application C. agriculture D. dedication
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 5: It is (A) recommended that (B) people (C) to take regular (D) exercise.
Question 6: (A) More than ten students (B) have failed the exam, (C) that surprised (D) the class teacher.
Question 7: The world is becoming more (A) industrialized and the number of animal (B) species that have
become (C) extinct (D) have increased.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: He is exhausted. He _______ around the whole afternoon trying to clean the house before the
guests arrive.
A. has been running B. has run C. be running D. was running
Question 9: Barack Obama is _______ President of _______ United States.
A. the/ the B. a/ ∅ C. the/ ∅ D. the/ an
Question 10: John would like to specialize _______ computer science.
A. of B. to C. in D. at
Question 11: _______ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. No longer has D. Not until had
Question 12: Many young people in rural areas don’t want to spend their lives on the farm like their _______
parents. So they leave their home villages to find well-paid jobs in the fast-growing industrial zones.
A. long-term B. up-to-date C. weather-beaten D. wide-ranging
Question 13: If she had known how awful this job was going to be, she _______it.
A. would accept B. wouldn't accept C. wouldn't have accepted D. would have accepted
Question 14: John asked me _______ that film the night before.
A. that I saw B. had I seen C. if I had seen D. if had I seen
Question 15: Remember that things such as language, food, traditions and clothing are simply expressions of
our cultural _______.
A. solidarity B. identity C. assimilation D. celebration
Question 16: Waste paper can be used again after being _______.
A. produced B. recycled C. wasted D. preserved
Question 17: - “Your parents must be proud of your results at school”. - “_______”
A. Sorry to hear that B. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging
C. Of course D. I am glad you like it.
Question 18: The government is aiming _______ 50 % reduction _______ unemployment.
A. to/in B. at/in C. at/of D. for/of
Question 19: No one enjoys _______ in public.
A. being made fun of B. to be made fun of
C. making fun of D. to make fun of
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following questions.
Question 20: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the
way to the post-office. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?”
- Passer-by: “_______”
A. No way, sorry. B. Just round the corner over there.
C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here.
Question 21: Lora has just bought a new skirt that she likes very much. Choose the most suitable response
to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- Jane: “You look great in that red skirt, Lora!”
- Lora: “_______”
A. No, I don't think so. B. Oh, you don't like it, do you?
C. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s. D. Thanks, my mum bought it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I’m becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my house
twice.
A. being considerate of things B. remembering to do right things
C. forgetful of one’s past D. often forgetting things
Question 23: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. Informative B. delighted C. exciting D. essential
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
Question 24: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do.
A. interested B. dissatisfied C. excited D. shocked
Question 25: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
A. gently B. cleverly C. reasonably D. brutally
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: However old and worn his clothes were, they look clean and of good quality.
A. His clothes looked clean and of good quality but they were old and worn.
B. His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality.
C. He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality.
D. No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn.
Question 27: In spite of his poverty, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause.
A. He could not devote his life to the revolutionary cause because of his poverty.
B. If he had not been so poor, he could have devoted his life to the revolutionary cause.
C. Poor as he was, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause.
D. He led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause, but he was so poor.
Question 28: I thought I should not stay at home yesterday.
A. I regretted staying at home yesterday. B. I regretted for staying at home yesterday.
C. I regret for staying at home yesterday. D. I regret to stay at home yesterday.
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 29: People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in the park.
A. People should either throw rubbish in the park or cut down the trees in the park.
B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
C. People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
D. People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park
Question 30: Most of the classmates couldn't come. He invited them to the birthday party.
A. Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn't come.
B. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn't come.
C. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn't come.
D. Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn't come.
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31to 35.
In Germany, it's important to be serious in a work situation. They don't mix work and play so you
shouldn't make jokes (31) _______ you do in the UK and USA when you first meet people. They
work in a very organized way and prefer to do one thing at a time. They don't like· interruptions or
(32)_______ changes of schedule. Punctuality is very important so you should arrive on time for
appointments. At the meeting, it's important to follow the agenda and not interrupt (33) _______ speaker. If
you give a presentation, you should focus (34) _______ facts and technical information and the quality of your
company's products. You should also prepare well, as they may ask a lot of questions. Colleagues normally use
the family names, and title - for example 'Doctor' or 'Professor', so you shouldn't use first names (35) _______
a person asks you to.
Question 31: A. while B. as if C. such as D. as
Question 32: A. sudden B. suddenly C. abruptly D. promptly
Question 33: A. other B. others C. another D. the other
Question 34: A. on B. to C. at D. in
Question 35: A. if only B. as C. unless D. since
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a
place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a
city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits.
One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which
humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of
carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have
long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt
absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass.
Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding
rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for
buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit
from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space:
rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been
planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require
complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the
investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work.
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but
without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air
with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money.
In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can
significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and
concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also
provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are
not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.
Question 36: Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the
following word groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
Question 37: Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that _______.
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
Question 38: Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main
difference between parks and rooftop gardens?
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
Question 39: The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except _______.
A. increased space for private relaxation B. savings on heating and cooling costs
C. better food for city dwellers D. improved air quality
Question 40: According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they
_______.
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
Question 41: The author’s tone in the passage is best described as _______
A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that
_______.
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer
One of the most interesting authors of the twentieth century, J.R.R Tolkien, achieved fame through his
highly inventive trilogy, The Lord of the Rings. Born in 1892, Tolkien received his education from
Oxford and then served in World War I. After the war, he became a professor of Anglo -Saxon and English
language and literature at Oxford University.
Although published in 1965, the three books that comprise the Lord of the Rings were written in
intervals from 1936 to 1949. This was mainly due to Tolkien's responsibilities as a professor and the outbreak
of World War II. By the late 1960s, this fascinating trilogy had become a sociological phenomenon as young
people intently studied the mythology and legends created by Tolkien.
The trilogy is remarkable not only for its highly developed account of historical fiction but also its
success as a modern heroic epic. The main plot describes the struggle between good and evil kingdom as
they try to acquire a magic ring that has the power to rule the world. The novels, which are set in a time
called Middle Earth, describes a detailed fantasy world. Established before humans populated the Earth,
Middle Earth was inhabited by good and evil creatures such as hobbits, elves, monsters, wizards, and some
humans. The characters and the setting of Middle Earth were modeled after mythological stories from
Greece and Northern Europe.
Although readers have scrutinized the texts for inner meaning and have tried to connect the trilogy
with Tolkien's real life experiences in England during World War II, he denied the connection. He claims that
the story began in his years as an undergraduate student and grew out of his desire to create mythology and
legends about elves and their language.
Tolkien was a masterful fantasy novelist who used his extensive knowledge of folklore to create a
body of work that is still read and enjoyed throughout the world today.
Question 43: What can we assume is NOT true about Middle Earth?
A. Middle Earth was based on European folktales B. Middle Earth was a fictional world
C. The good and evil kingdom fought for the power D. People dominated Middle Earth
Question 44: The word "scrutinized" in the fourth paragraph could be replaced by_______.
A. examined B. denied C. enjoyed D. criticized
Question 45: What does this paragraph mainly discuss?
A. J.R.R Tolkien's work as a professor B. All of J.R.R Tolkien's fantasy books
C. J.R.R Tolkien and his trilogy D. The popularity of J.R.R Tolkien
Question 46: According to the passage, when did "the Lord of the Rings" trilogy become popular with
young people?
A. In the late 1960s B. After World War II
C. In 1892 D. Between 1936 and 1946
Question 47: When did Tolkien begin to create this trilogy?
A. When he was a student B. During World War I
C. When he was a professor D. During World War II
Question 48: What does the word "trilogy" in the first paragraph mean?
A. A specific type of fantasy novel B. A long novel
C. A group of three literary books D. An unrelated group of books
Question 49: What is the setting of Tolkien's trilogy?
A. Modern - day Greece B. England in the 1800's
C. Oxford University D. Middle Earth
Question 50: The word "fascinating" in the second paragraph could be replaced by _______.
A. thrilling B. extremely interesting C. boring D. terrifying
TRƯỜNG THPT BÃI CHÁY KHẢO SÁT LẦN 1 THI THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề 001
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1: Charles was wearing ________at the party.
A. a funny wide yellow silk tie B. very funny wide yellow silk tie
C. a yellow silk funny tie D. a tie yellow silk funny
Question 2: The top tourist ________in Vietnam, Ha Long bay, features thousands of islands, each topped with
thick jungle vegetation, forming a spectacular seascape of limestone pillars.
A. attractive B. attraction C. attract D. attractiveness
Question 3: I asked him ________ he understood what I was saying.
A. if not B. if only C. even if D. if
Question 4: People ________ outlook on life is optimistic are usually happy people.
A. that B. whom C. who D. whose
Question 5: My dog ________ my cats eats twice a day.
A. as well as B. both C. or D. nor
Question 6: After they ________ all the food, they picked up their bags and left.
A. had eaten B. have eaten C. was eating D. ate
Question 7: The more electricity you use, ________.
A. the more money you made B. the more bill you are
C. the higher your bill is D. the best money you pay
Question 8: ________, he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. If he studied hardly last year B. Had he studied harder last year
C. Provided he studied hard last year D. Studying harder last year
Question 9: It is ________ of businessmen to shake hands in formal meetings.
A. familiar B. typical C. ordinary D. common
Question 10: The summer power outage shut the air conditioning ________ throughout the
whole neighborhood.
A. up B. in C. down D. out
Question 11: At present they are visiting all parts of the country. They are doing this ________.
A. in future B. for a short time C. now D. all the time
Question 12: The majority of Asian students reject the American ________ that marriage is a
partnership of equals.
A. look B. attitude C. thought D. view
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 13:
A. future B. prospect C. guidance D. involve
Question 14:
A. confidential B. relationship C. enthusiast D. endangerment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of
Question 15: Mary: “May I leave a message for Mrs. Davis?”
Thomas: “________”
A. I’m afraid she is not here at the moment. B. No, she’s not here now.
C. She’s leaving a message for you now. D. Yes, I’ll make sure she gets it.
Question 16: Dan: “It was very kind of you to help me out, Paul?”
Paul: “________”
A. I’m glad you like it B. Thanks a million.
C. That was the least I could do D. You can say that again.
Question 17: Military is compulsory in this country. Every man who reaches the age of 18 has to serve in the
army for two years.
A. required B. optional C. illegal D. unnecessary
Question 18: Because John defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.
A. failed to pay B. paid in full
C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 19: The medical science began with the Greek Hippocrates, who earned for himself the title of father
of Medicine.
A. the title B. The medical science C. the Greek D. for himself
Question 20: Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in your large, industrial cities
today.
A. are causing B. many problems C. with littering D. industrial cities
Question 21: It was suggested that your father gave up smoking for the sake of himself.
A. was suggested B. gave C. smoking D. himself.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 22:
A. international B. integration C. immigration D. operation
Question 23:
A. admit B. confide C. decide D. retire
Question 24: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. encounter B. arrive C. clean D. happen
Question 25: The overall aim of the book is to help bridge the gap between theory and practice, particularly in
language teaching.
A. reduce the differences B. minimize the limitations
C. construct a bridge D. increase the understanding
Esperanto is what is called a planned, or artificial language. It was created more than a century ago by
Polish eye doctor Ludwik Lazar Zamenhof. Zamenhof believed that a common language would help to alleviate
some of the misunderstandings among cultures.
In Zamenhof’s first attempt at a universal language, he tried to create a language that was as uncomplicated
as possible. This first language included words such as ab, ac, eb, be and ce. This did not result in a workable
language in that these monosyllabic, though short, were not easy to understand or to retain.
Next, Zamenhof tried a different way of constructing a simplified language. He made the words in his
language sound like words that people already knew, but he simplified the grammar tremendously. One
example of how he simplified the language can be seen in the suffixes: all nouns in this language end in o, as in
the noun amiko, which means “friend”, and all adjectives end in -a, as in the adjective bela, which means
“pretty. Another example of the simplified language can be seen in the prefix mal-, which makes a word
opposite in meaning, the word malamiko therefore means “enemy”, and the word malbela therefore means
“ugly” in Zamenhof’s language.
In 1887, Zamenhof wrote a description of this language and published it. He used a pen name, Dr.
Esperanto, when signing the book. He selected the name Esperanto because this word means “a person who
hopes” in his language. Esperanto clubs began popping up throughout Europe, and by 1950, Esperanto had
spread from Europe to America and Asia.
In 1905, the First World Congress of Esperanto took place in France, with approximately 700 attendees
from 20 different countries. Congresses were held annually for nine years, and 4,000 attendees were registered
for the Tenth World Esperanto Congress scheduled for 1914, when World War I erupted and forced its
cancellation.
Esperanto has had its ups and downs in the period since World War I. Today, years after it was introduced,
it is estimated that perhaps a quarter of a million people are fluent in it. This may seem like a large number, but
it is really quite small when compared with the billion English speakers and billion Mandarin Chinese speakers
in today’s world. Current advocates would like to see its use grow considerably and are taking steps to try to
make this happen.
Question 26: The topic of this passage is ________.
A. one man’s efforts to create a universal language
B. using language to communicate internationally
C. a language developed in the last few years
D. how language can be improved
Question 27: According to the passage, Zamenhof wanted to create a universal language
A. to build a name for himself B. to provide a more complex language
C. to create one world culture D. to resolve cultural differences
Question 28: The expression “popping up” could best be replaced by ________.
A. opening B. shouting C. hiding D. leaping
Question 29: According to passage, what happened to the Tenth World Esperanto Congress?
A. It had attendees from 20 countries B. It had 4,000 attendees
C. It never took place D. It was scheduled for 1915
Question 30: The expression “ups and downs” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. highs and lows B. floors and ceilings
C. take offs and landings D. tops and bottoms.
Question 31: Which paragraph describes the predecessor to Esperanto?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph
C. The third paragraph D. The fourth paragraph
Question 32: The passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on ________.
A. European history B. English grammar C. world government D. applied linguistics
Question 33: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses ________.
A. attempts to reconvene the World Congress of Esperanto in the 1920s.
B. how current supporters of Esperanto are encouraging its growth
C. the disadvantages of using an artificial language
D. another of Zamenhof’s accomplishments
The time when humans crossed the Arctic land bridge from Siberia to Alaska seems remote to us today, but
actually represents a late stage in prehistory of humans, an era when polished stone implements and bows and
arrows were already being used and dogs had already been domesticated.
When these early migrants arrived in North America, they found woods and plains dominated by three
types of American mammoths. Those elephants were distinguished from today’s elephants mainly by their
thick, shaggy coats and their huge, upward-curving tusks. They had arrived on the continent hundreds of
thousands of years before their human followers. The wooly mammoth in the North, the Columbian mammoth
in middle North America, and the imperial mammoth of the South together with their distant cousins the
mastodons, dominated the land. Here, as in the Old World, there is evidence that humans hunted these
elephants, as shown by numerous spear points found with mammoth remains.
Then, at the end of the Ice Age, when the last glaciers had retreated, there was a relatively sudden and
widespread extinction of elephants. In the New World, both mammoths and mastodons disappeared. In the Old
World, only Indian and African elephants survived.
Why did the huge, seemingly successful mammoths disappear? Were humans connected with their
extinction? Perhaps, but at the time, although they were hunters, humans were still widely scattered and not
very numerous. It is difficult to see how they could have prevailed over the mammoth to such an extent.
Question 34: With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Techniques used to hunt mammoths.
B. The relationship between man and mammoth in the New World.
C. The prehistory of humans.
D. Migration from Siberia to Alaska.
Question 35: It can be inferred that when humans crossed into the New World, they ________.
A. had previously hunted mammoths in Siberia.
B. had never seen mammoths before.
C. brought mammoths with them from the Old World.
D. soon learned to use dogs to hunt mammoths.
Question 36: The phrase “these early migrants” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. mammoths B. humans C. dogs D. mastodons
Question 37: The passage supports which of the following conclusions about mammoths?
A. Humans hunted them to extinction.
B. The freezing temperatures of the Ice Age destroyed their food supply.
C. The cause of their extinction is not definitely known.
D. Competition with mastodons caused them to become extinct.
Question 38: The word “implements” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. tools B. ornaments C. houses D. carvings
Question 39: Where were the imperial mammoths the dominant type of mammoth?
A. Alaska B. the central portion of North America
C. the southern part of North America D. South America
Question 40: Which of the following could best substitute for the word “remains” in paragraph 2?
A. bones B. drawings C. footprints D. spear points
Reference books are not designed to be read from the first page to the last but rather to be consulted to
answer the questions and provide both general and specific pieces of information.
One of the most (41) ________-used reference books is a dictionary, which provides information about
words. It lists meanings and spellings, (42)________how a word is pronounced, gives examples of how it is
used, may reveal its origins and also lists synonyms and antonyms. To help you find the words faster, there are
guide words at the top of each page showing the first and last words on the page and of course it (43) ________
to know the alphabet!
There may be numerous special sections at the back with facts about famous people and places, lists of
dates and scientific names, etc. There is usually a section at the front explaining how to use the dictionary,
which includes the special abbreviations or signs.
An atlas is also a reference book and (44) ________ charts, tables and geographical facts, as well as maps.
Political maps locate countries and cities, physical maps show the formation of the land with its mountains and
valleys, and economic maps show industries and agriculture. To find a specific place, you need to look in the
index at the back of the atlas and the exact position on the map. There are numerous map (45) ________ that
you need to know in order to be able to read a map-almost like a special language-and these are explained at the
front of the atlas.
Question 41: A. greatly B. widely C. mainly D. largely
Question 42: A. speaks B. tells C. says D. gives
Question 43: A. assists B. pays C. helps D. works
Question 44: A. contains B. composes C. includes D. consists
Question 45: A. marks B. signs C. signals D. symbols
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 46: The newspaper reports that James was awarded the first prize.
A. The first prize is reported to award to James
B. It is reported that James to be awarded the first prize.
C. It is reported that James wins the first prize.
D. James is reported to have been awarded the first prize.
Question 47: “No, I didn’t tell Jim our plan,” said Tom.
A. Tom denied to tell Jim their plan. B. Tom didn’t agree to tell Jim their plan.
C. Tom denied having told Jim their plan. D. Tom refused to tell Jim their plan.
Question 48: If only I had taken his advice.
A. I wish I followed his advice. B. I wish I have taken his advice.
C. I regret not having taken his advice. D. I regret not to take his advice.
Question 49: It’s no use trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
A. There’s no point to try to persuade Tom to change his mind.
B. It’s useful trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
C. It’s worth trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
D. It’s a waste of time trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
Question 50: Much as he loved her, he didn’t forgive her for what she had done.
A. He didn’t forgive her for what she had done as he loved her.
B. She didn’t love him as much as he loved her.
C. He didn’t forgive her for what she had done because she didn’t love him as much.
D. Although he loved her, he didn’t forgive her for what she had done.
--------- HẾT ---------
SỞ GD – ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ KSCL ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN I – LỚP 12
TRƯỜNG THPT YÊN LẠC ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Choose the option which has the CLOSEST/ OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined.
Question 1: Choose the option which has the CLOSEST meaning to the underlined.
My wife was so keen on the picture that she paid through her nose for it.
A. paid nothing B. turned a deaf ear
C. was offered D. paid much more than usual
Question 2: Choose the option which has the OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined.
People in Vietnam nod their head to show that they agree with something.
A. blink B. shake C. wave D. slump
Question 3: Choose the option which has the CLOSEST meaning to the underlined.
My hard-working students expected a good fortune to come in addition to their intelligence.
A. thoughtful B. diligent C. courteous D. bright
Question 4: Choose the option which has the OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined.
It‘s difficult to tell him to give in because he is so big-headed.
A. wise B. modest C. arrogant D. generous
Find the underlined words or phrases which is incorrect.
Question 5: An increased number of city dwellers has made the obsolete infrastructure worse and required
a lot of repairs in these days.
A. obsolete infrastructure B. has made
C. required D. repairs
Question 6: The elderly are concerning about the city‘s hygienic conditions, natural resource, and elite
class.
A. natural resource B. about C. hygienic conditions D. elite
Question 7: In conclusion, plenty of money should, to sum up, be invested to repair the kilometer-long
tube in near future.
A. plenty of B. near future C. kilometer-long D. to sum up
Rewriting the sentences in another way so that they have the same meaning as the given above.
Question 8: It was not until the sun was shining brightly that the little girl woke up.
A. No sooner is the sun shining brightly than the little girl woke up.
B. Not until the little girl woke up was the sun shining brightly.
C. Not until the sun was shining brightly did the little girl wake up.
D. As soon as the little girl woke up, the sun hadn't shone brightly yet.
Question 9: "What language do you find the most difficult to learn of all?" Nhung asked Ha.
A. Nhung asked Ha what language Ha found the most difficult to learn of all.
B. Nhung wanted to know what language they founded the most difficult to learn of all.
C. Nhung asked Ha what language did you find the most difficult to learn of all.
D. Nhung asked Ha what language you found the most difficult to learn of all.
Question 10: They reported that the teachers expected more.
A. The teachers were reported to have been expected of more.
B. The teachers were expected more.
C. The teachers were reported to have expected more.
D. The teachers were reported to expect more.
Choose the words with the different pronunciation or stress
Question 11: Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
A. designed B. factor C. recent D. distant
Question 12: Choose the word whose underlined letter(s) is/ are pronounced differently from the others.
A. performed B. impaired C. designed D. produced
Question 13: Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others.
A. injection B. diminish C. successful D. benefit
Question 14: Choose the word whose underlined letter(s) is/ are pronounced differently from the others.
A. destroys B. cells C. affects D. stipends
Complete the sentences with the given options.
Question 15: John proposed _______ Mary on a fine day at the crowded beach in their hometown.
A. that they married B. getting married C. to have married D. to marry
Question 16: He said he hadn‘t finished his letter yet .
A. by now B. until then C. until now D. so far
Question 17: The judge gave
A. him the special prize with good comments
B. him to the special prize with good comments
C. the special prize with good comments him
D. him for the special prize with good comments
Question 18: Her mother‘s dream __________a family doctor will be fulfilled in six years.
A. by B. with C. of D. at
Question 19: They__________their service up to now.
A. didn‘t do B. haven‘t done C. don‘t do D. aren‘t doing
Question 20: Body language is a potent form of ________communication.
A. verbal B. oral C. non-verbal D. tongue
Question 21: _eighty percent of the students in our school are eager to work with foreign teachers, aren‘t
they?
A. Most B. Most of C. Almost D. Mostly
Question 21: we work with her, we get confused because of her fast speaking pace.
A. So that B. Although C. Whenever D. Lest
Question 23: The local people insisted that the road_______50 cm more so that, in case of flood, they still
can travel on it.
A. should be raised B. should raise C. could be raised D. could rise
Question 24: John asked me ______in English.
A. what that word means B. what did this word mean
C. what does this word mean D. what that word meant
Question 25: According to Do Tan Long, an official of the Steering Center of Urban Flood Control
Program in Ho Chi Minh City, the rain could be "the most extreme downpour" Since the beginning of
……. rainy season.
A. the B. an C. ø D. a
Question 26: Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.
Hoa: ―Why aren't you taking part in our activities? ______" - Hai: ―Yes. I can. Certainly."
A. Could you please show me how to get to the nearest post office?
B. Shall I take your hat off?
C. Can I help you?
D. Can you help me with these decorations
Question 27: Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and _____
A. communication B. communicate C. communicative D. communicator
Question 28: ___________ the bad weather, their plan still goes ahead.
A. In terms of B. Regarded as C. In spite of D. Because of
Question 29: What do we call that _____ animal? - We call it an elephant.
A. long nose B. long-nosed C. nose long D. nose length
Question 30: Long is looking at Linh’s mark 10 in her paper and says to her.
Long: "_______" - Linh: "Thank you. That‘s a nice compliment."
A. What a mark 10! B. You are so skillful!
C. If only I had such a good mark D. No matter how good the mark is!
Read the following passage and choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
Tyler Perry
Perry had a rough childhood. He was physically and sexually abused growing up, got kicked out of high
school, and tried to commit suicide ___(31)___—once as a preteen and again at 22. At 23 he moved to
Atlanta and took ___(32)___ odd jobs as he started working on his stage career.
In 1992 he wrote, produced, and starred in his first theater ___(33)___, I Know I’ve Been Changed,
somewhat informed by his difficult upbringing. Perry put all his savings into the show and it failed
miserably; the run lasted just one weekend and only 30 people came to watch. He kept up with the
production, working more odd jobs and often slept in his car to get by. Six years later, Perry finally
___(34)___ through when, on its seventh run, the show became a success. He‘s since gone on to have an
extremely successful career ___(15)___ a director, writer, and actor. In fact, Perry was named Forbes’
highest paid man in the field.
Question 31: A. twice B. two C. second D. double
Question 32: A. up B. off C. in D. to
Question 33: A. producer B. productivity C. production D. productive
Question 34: A. went B. broke C. got D. put
Question 35: A. same B. as C. like D. as soon as
Read the text and answer the questions given by choosing one numbered option.
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.
The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language,
communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through performance. A
person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or
unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms
that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance.
When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At
interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may
believe them. Here, the participant‘s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or
antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually
discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly
specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived
from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality,
and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional
health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive,
outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade
or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front.
How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can
drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is
evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the
angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed.
Question 36: The word "Here" in line 9 refers to ______
A. interpersonal interaction B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen
A. The production of speech. B. The function of the voice in performance.
C. Communication styles. D. The connection between voice and personality.
Question 38: The word "evidenced" in line 22 is closest in meaning to ________
A. questioned B. repeated C. indicated D. exaggerated
Question 39: Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in line 14-15?
A. To introduce the idea of self-image
B. As examples of public performance
C. As examples of basic styles of communication
D. To contrast them to singing
Question 40: The word "derived" in line 13 is closest in meaning to_____
A. prepared B. registered C. discussed D. obtained
Question 41: According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide ________
A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength
Question 42: What does the author mean by staring that, "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas
and feelings over and above the words chosen" in lines 8- 9?
A. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
B. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are
C. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
Question 43: According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?
A. Lethargy B. Depression C. Boredom D. Anger
Question 44: According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's
______
A. general physical health B. personality
C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality
Question 45: The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. severely B. easily C. exactly D. frequently
Read the text and answer the questions given by choosing one numbered option.
If you want to give someone the nod in Bulgaria, you have to nod your head to say 'no' and shake it to
say "yes" – the exact opposite of what we do! In Belgium, pointing with your index finger or snapping
your fingers at someone is very rude.
In France, you shouldn‘t rest your feet on tables or chairs. Speaking to someone with your hands in
your pockets will only make matters worse. In the Middle East, you should never show the soles of your
feet or shoes to others as it will be seen as a grave insult. When eating, only use your right hand because
they use their left hands when going to the bathroom.
In Bangladesh, the 'thumbs-up' is a rude sign. In Myanmar, people greet each other by clapping, and
in India, whistling in public is considered rude.
In Japan, you should not blow your nose in public, but you can burp at the end of a meal to show that
you have enjoyed it. The 'OK' sign (thumb and index finger forming a circle) means "everything is good" in
the West, but in China it means nothing or zero. In Japan, it means money, and in the Middle East, it is a
rude gesture.
Burp: ợ hơi
Question 46: In the Middle East, people do not use their left hands for eating because they use their left
hands __________.
A. to put in their pockets B. when going to the bathroom
C. when preparing the meal D. to clean their tables and chairs
Question 47: It is mentioned in the passage that many gestures _______
A. are not used to communicate our feeling
B. can be used to greet each other in public
C. are used in greeting among men and women
D. may mean different things in different countries
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. In Belgium, snapping your fingers at someone is very rude.
B. In France, people shouldn‘t rest their feet on tables.
C. In Myanmar, people greet each other by clapping
D. In China, the 'OK' sign means money
Question 49: The word "others" in paragraph 3 refers to _____________
A. other people B. other shoes C. other soles D. other feet
Question 50: People nod their head to say no in ___________.
A. Belgium B. France C. Japan D. Bulgaria
THI THỬ LẦN 1 TRƯỜNG THPT YÊN LẠC 2
Question 1: The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the rain.
A. is beginning B. wooden C. surrounded D. because of
Question 2: The amounts of oxygen and nitrogen in the air almost always remain stable, but the amount of
water vapor vary considerably.
A. vary B. almost always C. The amount of D. stable
Question 3: Quinine, cinnamon, and other useful substances are all derived of the bark of trees.
A. are B. bark of trees
C. derived of D. other useful substances
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the contributions of
women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed United States. Lacking the right
to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an important force in history. Anne
Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best
contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she
exercised great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United States. But
little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During these centuries, women remained invisible in
history books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female authors
writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur historians. Their
writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection and use of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by keeping records
of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local women's organizations compiled
accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were saved and
stored. These sources from the core of the two greatest collections of women's history in the United States
one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the Sophia Smith
Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials for later Generations of
historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth Century, most of the
writing about women conformed to the "great women" theory of History, just as much of mainstream
American history concentrated on "great men." To demonstrate that women were making significant
contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else
important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as
reformers, activists working for women's right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the
greatness of ordinary women. The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the
American histories being published.
Question 4: In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of nineteenth-
century "great women" EXCEPT ________
A. reformers B. politicians C. activists for women's rights D. authors
Question 5: The word "they" in the 2nd paragraph refers to________
A. sources B. efforts C. authors D. counterparts
Question 6: In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that _______
A. even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored
B. poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women
C. only three women were able to get their writing published
D. a woman's status was changed by marriage
Question 7: The word "representative" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. satisfied B. typical C. distinctive D. supportive
Question 8: In the 2nd paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point out
A. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
B. They were printed on poor-quality paper.
C. They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics.
D. They put too much emphasis on daily activities.
Question 9: What use was made of the nineteenth-century women's history materials in the Schlesinger
Library and the Sophia Smith Collection?
A. They provided valuable information for twentieth- century historical researchers.
B. They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth century.
C. They were shared among women's colleges throughout the United States.
D. They were combined and published in a multivolume encyclopedia.
A. The place of American women in written histories
B. The "great women" approach to history used by American historians
C. The keen sense of history shown by American women
D. The role of literature in early American histories
Question 11: I would rather you wore something more formal to work.
A. I'd prefer you wearing something more formal to work.
B. I'd prefer you to wear something more formal to work.
C. I'd prefer you should wear something more formal to work.
D. I'd prefer you wear something more formal to work.
Question 12: Had we left any later, we would have missed the train.
A. We didn't miss the train because it left late.
B. We left too late to catch the train.
C. Because the train was late, we missed it.
D. We almost missed the train.
Question 13: “Why can't you do your work more carefully?" said Henry's boss.
A. Henry's boss criticized him for doing his job carelessly
B. Henry's boss asked him not to do his job with care.
C. Henry's boss suggested doing the job more carefully.
D. Henry's boss warned him to do the job carefully.
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 14: A. lives B. plays C. works D. buys
Question 15: A. picked B. worked C. naked D. booked
Question 16: He felt tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. Although he felt tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. As a result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Question 17: The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.
A. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday.
B. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday.
C. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months.
D. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.
Question 18: A. cosmetics B. fertility C. experience D. economics
Question 19: A. informality B. appropriate C. situation D. entertainment
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
It is commonly believed that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been
said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The difference between schooling and
education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no limits. It
can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in the kitchen or on a tractor. It
includes both the formal learning that takes place in school and the whole universe of informal learning. The
agent (doer) of education can vary from respected grandparents to the people arguing about politics on the
radio, from a child to a famous scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite
known of other religions. People receive education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad,
inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that
should be an integral part of one's entire life.
from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time,
take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The
slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of
government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high
Question 20: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Education and schooling are quite different experiences.
B. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.
C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.
D. The best schools teach a variety of subjects.
Question 21: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to ____________________
A. workings of governments B. newest filmmakers
C. political problems D. high school students
Question 22: The word "all-inclusive" in the passage mostly means __________________
A. including everything or everyone B. going in many directions
C. involving many school subjects D. allowing no exceptions
Question 23: This passage isThis passage is mainly aimed at ________________________.
A. telling the difference between the meanings of two related words "schooling" and "education"
B. telling a story about excellent teachers
C. listing and discussing several educational problems
D. giving examples of different schools
Question 24: In the passage, the expression "children interrupt their education to go to school" mostly
implies that
A. schooling prevents people discovering things
B. schooling takes place everywhere
C. all of life is an education
D. education is totally ruined by schooling
Question 25:
Câu 6. What does the writer mean by saying "education quite often produces surprises"?
A. Educators often produce surprises.
B. Informal learning often brings about unexpected result
C. Success of informal learning is predictable.
D. It's surprising that we know little about other religions
Question 26: Which of the following would the writer support?
A. Without formal education, people won't be able to read and write.
B. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
C. Schooling is of no use because students do similar things every day.
D. Our education system needs to be changed as soon as possible.
Question 27: According to the passage, the doers of education are __________________
A. only respected grandparents B. mostly famous scientists
C. mainly politicians D. almost all people
Question 28: When I mentioned the party, he was all ears
A. using both ears B. listening neglectfully
C. listening attentively D. partially deaf
Question 29: John wants to buy a new car, so he starts setting aside a small part of his monthly earnings
A. spending on B. putting out C. using up D. saving up
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from
HOW TO AVOID MISCOMMUNICATION IN THE WORKPLACE
As a small-business owner, you can avoid many problems simply by improving communication in your
office. By clarifying everyone's expectations and roles, you'll help to (30) _______greater trust and increased
productivity among employees. Here are a few tips for doing so.
Practice active listening. The art of active listening includes (31)_______ close attention to what another
person is saying, then paraphrasing what you've heard and repeating it back. Concentrate (32)_______ the
conversation at hand and avoid unwanted interruptions (cell phone calls, others walking into your office,
etc.). Take note of how your own experience and values may color your perception.
Pay attention to non-verbal cues. We don't communicate with words alone. Every conversation comes with a
host of non-verbal cues - facial expressions, body language, etc. - that may (33)_______ contradict what
we're saying. Before addressing a staff member or (34)_______ a project conference, think carefully about
your tone of voice, how you make eye contact, and what your body is "saying." Be consistent throughout.
Be clear and to the point. Don't cloud instructions or requests with irrelevant details, such as problems with
past projects or issues with long-departed personnel. State what you need and what you expect. Ask, "Does
anyone have any questions?" Demonstrate that you prefer questions up-front as opposed to misinterpretation
later on.
Question 30: A. set up B. establish C. create D. build
Question 31: A. showing B. paying C. using D. spending
Question 32: A. for B. to C. on D. in
Question 33: A. intentional B. unintentional C. intentionally D. unintentionally
Question 34: A. to lead B. being led C. leading D. lead
Question 35: He was offered the job thanks to his ________performance during his job interview.
A. impressive B. impressively C. impression D. impress
Question 36: Someone who is _______ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in particular.
A. pessimist B. optimistic C. optimist D. pessimistic
Question 37: The preparations _______ by the time the guests ________.
A. have finished / arrived B. have been finished / arrived
C. had been finished / arrived D. had finished / arrived
Question 38: As an _______, Mr. Pike is very worried about the increasing number of teenage crimes.
A. educational B. education C. educator D. educate
Question 39: ________turned out to be true.
A. Everything she had told us which B. Everything where she had told us
C. Everything she had told us D. That everything she told us
Question 40: You'd better get someone__________your living room.
A. redecorated B. to redecorate C. redecorating D. redecorate
Question 41: Can you take _______ of the shop while Mr. Green is away?
A. operation B. charge C. management D. running
Question 42: They held a party to congratulate their son _____ his success to become an engineer.
A. in B. on C. with D. for
Question 43: They always kept on good _____ with their next-door neighbors for the children's sake.
A. terms B. relations C. will D. relationship
Question 44: They had invited over one hundred guests, ________.
A. not any of whom I knew B. I did not know any of whom
C. I knew none of who D. none of whom I knew
Question 45: Please _________ and see us when you have time. You are always welcome.
A. come away B. come to C. come in D. come round
Question 46: Not only _________ to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil.
A. seismology is used B. is seismology used
C. using seismology D. to use seismology
Question 47: "What a great haircut, Lucy!" - " ______________"
A. It's my pleasure. B. Oh, yes. That's right.
C. Thanks. It's very kind of you to do this D. Thank you. That's a nice compliment.
Question 48: "A motorbike knocked Ted down" - " ______________"
A. How terrific! B. Poor him! C. What is it now? D. What a motorbike!
Question 49: A trial must be fair and impartial.
A. apprehensive B. hostile C. biased D. unprejudiced
Question 50: After her husband's tragic accident, she took up his position at the university.
A. unprejudiced B. boring C. mysterious D. comic
SỞ GD – ĐT VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ KSCL ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 3 – LỚP 12
TRƯỜNG THPT YÊN LẠC ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
Question 1: A. computer B. citizen C. economy D. technique
Question 2: A. consist B. consume C. concept D. conclude
Question 3: There were some rainy days, but it was a nice holiday___________.
A. in general B. by all means C. by no means D. in particular
Question 4: Some people say that in the future the whole world will experience a period of ___ depression.
A. economics B. economic C. economical D. economy
Question 5: If Mary had been invited, she ___________ to the party.
A. would come B. came C. will come D. would have come
Question 6: There are few employment prospects for ___________young people.
A. qualify B. qualification C. qualified D. unqualified
Question 7: Using the new software, ___ parents will be able to monitor their children’s use of __ Internet.
A. the – the B. Ø – the C. Ø – Ø D. the – Ø
Question 8: I recommended that she ___________ reduce her expenditure.
A. should B. must C. need D. would
Question 9: It was ___________ that I saw it several times.
A. so an interesting film B. such an interesting film
C. such film an interesting D. so interested a film
Question 10: ___________ hard I have ever worked, I do not get a good salary.
A. If B. Provided that C. Nevertheless D. However
Question 11: A species that faces___________ may become severely endangered or even extinct.
A. overpopulation B. overgrowth C. overbalance D. overexploitation
Question 12: It is important to have a close friend to___________ in.
A. confide B. contact C. confirm D. consult
Question 13: A skilled ___________ will help candidates feel relaxed.
A. interviewee B. interviewing C. interviewer D. interview
Question 14: What she said made me aware of my own ___________.
A. shortcomings B. shortages C. shortnesses D. shortenings
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
Question 15: Lan: “How long does it take to get to the town centre from here?”
Mai: “____________________________”
A. It costs fifteen cents by bus.
B. I’m driving to the town center this evening.
C. No more than fifteen minutes, if the traffic is light.
D. There’s a bus every thirty minutes.
Question 16: Tom: “Thanks for your help!” Jerry: “_______________”
A. All it is for you. B. It’s my pleasure. C. With all my heart. D. Never remind me.
Question 17: During the recession, many small companies were eradicated.
A. taken over B. wiped out C. run on D. set up
Question 18: It is really incredible that he is unaware of such basic facts.
A. difficult B. unbelievable C. imaginable D. disappointed
Question 19: The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.
A. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday.
B. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months.
C. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.
D. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday.
Question 20: I did not arrive in time. I was not able to see her off.
A. She had left because I was not on time.
B. I was not early enough to see her off.
C. I arrived very late to say goodbye to her.
D. I did not go there, so I could not see her off.
Question 21: I don’t like the way he refers to his problems obliquely.
A. directly B. politely C. impolitely D. indirectly
Question 22: They have not made any efforts to integrate with the local community.
A. separate B. put together C. cooperate D. connect
Of all modern instruments, the violin is apparently one of the simplest. It consists in essence of a
hollow, varnished wooden sound box, or resonator, and a long neck covered with a fingerboard, along
which four strings are stretched at high tension. The beauty of design, shape, and decoration is no accident,
the proportions of the instrument are determined entirely by acoustical considerations. Its simplicity of
appearance is deceptive. About 70 parts are involved in the construction of a violin. Its tone and its
outstanding range of expressiveness make it an ideal solo instrument. No less important, however, is its role
as an orchestral and chamber instrument In combination with the larger and deeper-sounding members of
the same family, the violins form the nucleus of the modern symphony orchestra.
The violin has been in existence since about 1550. Its importance as an instrument in its own right dates
from the early 1600’s, when it first became standard in Italian opera orchestras. Its stature as an orchestral
instrument was raised further when in 1626 Louis XIII of France established at his court the orchestra
known as Les vinq-quatre violons du Roy (The King's 24 Violins), which was to become widely famous
later in the century.
In its early history, the violin had a dull and rather quiet tone resulting from the fact that the strings were
thick and were attached to the body of the instrument very loosely. During the eighteenth and nineteenth
century exciting technical changes were inspired by such composer-violinists as Vivaldi and Tartini. Their
instrumental compositions demanded a fuller, clearer, and more brilliant tone that was produced by using
thinner strings and a far higher string tension. Small changes had to be made to the violin's internal
structure and to the fingerboard so that they could withstand the extra strain. Accordingly, a higher
standard of performance was achieved, in terms of both facility and interpretation. Left-hand technique was
considerably elaborated, and new fingering patterns on the fingerboard were developed for very high notes.
Question 23: The word “they” in the passage refers to___________.
A. internal structure and fingerboard B. thinner strings and a higher string tension
C. small changes D. Civaldi and Tartini
Question 24: The author mentions Vivaldi and Tartini in passages as examples of composers whose
music___________.
A. had to be adapted to the violin B. demanded more sophisticated violins
C. inspired more people to play the violin D. could be played by only their students
Question 25: According to the passage, which of the following contributes to a dull sound being produced
by a violin?
A. thick strings B. high string tension C. A long fingerboard D. a small body
Question 26: According to the passage, early violins were different from modern violins in that early
violins____________.
A. broke down more easily B. were heavier
C. were easier to play D. produced softer tones
Question 27: What is the main idea presented in paragraph 3?
A. The violin had reached the height of its popularity by the middle of the eighteenth century.
B. The violin has been modified to fit its evolving musical functions.
C. The technique of playing the violin has remained essentially the same since the 1600's.
D. The violin is probably the best known and most widely distributed musical instrument in the world.
Question 28: The word “strain” is the closest meaning to___________.
A. struggle B. strength C. stress D. strategy
Question 29: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as contributing to the ability to play
modern violin music EXCEPT___________.
A. different ways to use the fingers to play very high notes
B. use of rare wood for the fingerboard and neck
C. more complicated techniques for the left hand
D. minor alterations to the structure of the instrument
Question 30: The word "standard" is closest in meaning to___________.
A. practical B. unusual C. possible D. customary
Read the passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.
Private school is not controlled by the government and is not supported by taxes or other public funds. A
private school differs (31)__________ a public school, which operates with major support from
government funds. Private schools are operated by religious groups or by independent organizations. Most
private schools operate on a non-profit basis, although a few are run as businesses to make money for their
owners. Private schools are (32)__________ chiefly by tuition, grants from their sponsors or contributions.
Some private schools also have invested money whose income is used to fund the school. In most
countries, almost all schools were private until the early 1800’s. At that time, many government leaders
began to encourage development of public schools to promote national progress by making education
widely available to citizens. Today, the (33)________ of public and private schools differs greatly from one
country to another. In many developed countries, private schools offer a general focus on (34)________ for
college, a special focus on science, music or other subject areas; and religious instruction. The Roman
Catholic Church is one of the largest sponsors of private schools (35)________ the world.
Question 31: A. than B. that C. from D. more
Question 32: A. funded B. given C. raised D. fed
Question 33: A. amount B. digit C. number D. figure
Question 34: A. coming B. participation C. enter D. preparation
Question 35: A. out B. on C. all D. throughout
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
Question 36: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.
A. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.
B. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work.
C. If her were careful, we would finish the work.
D. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.
Question 37: People say that Cameron was the best director of his time.
A. Cameron is said to have been the best director of his time.
B. Cameron is said to be the best director of his time.
C. It was said that Cameron was the best director of his time.
D. Cameron was said to have been the best director of his time.
Question 38: I was offered to work for IBM, but I rejected it.
A. I rejected an offer to work for IBM. B. I was refused by IBM at work.
C. I turned down the offer to work for IBM. D. IBM refused my offer to work.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
Question 39: There are many reasons why a particular species may become endangering.
A. endangering B. may C. a D. reasons why
Question 40: There are some people in the government try to improve the lives of poor people.
A. to improve B. There are C. lives D. try
Question 41: If I had studied carefully, I wouldn’t make so many mistakes.
A. carefully B. had C. make D. so many
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
Question 42: A. environment B. optimistic C. electricity D. unexpected
Question 43: A. stable B. country C. border D. campaign
Insects' lives are very short and they have many enemies, but they must survive long enough to breed and
perpetuate their kind. The less insect-like they look, the better their chance of survival. To look "inedible"
by imitating plants is a way frequently used by insects to survive. Mammals rarely imitate plants, but many
fish and invertebrates do.
The stick caterpillar is well named. It is hardly distinguishable from a brown or green twig. This caterpillar
is quite common and can be found almost anywhere in North America. It is also called "measuring worm"
or "inchworm." It walks by arching its body, then stretching out and grasping the branch with its front feet
then looping its body again to bring the hind feet forward. When danger threatens, the stick caterpillar
stretches its body away from the branch at an angle and remains rigid and still, like a twig, until the danger
has passed.
Walking sticks, or stick insects, do not have to assume a rigid, twig-like pose to find protection; they look
like inedible twigs in any position. There are many kinds of walking sticks, ranging in size from the few
inches of the North American variety to some tropical species that may be over a foot long. When at rest
their front legs are stretched out, heightening their camouflage. Some of the tropical species are adorned
with spines or ridges, imitating the thorny bushes or trees in which they live.
Leaves also seem to be a favorite object for insects to imitate. Many butterflies can suddenly
disappear from view by folding their wings and sitting quietly among the plants that they resemble.
Question 44: Which of the following is the antonym of the word “inedible” in paragraph 3?
A. eatable B. colorful C. moving D. beautiful
Question 45: According to the passage, how does the stick caterpillar make itself look like a twig?
A. By laying its body flat against a branch B. By changing the color of its skin
C. By holding its body stiff and motionless D. By looping itself around a stick
Question 46: Which of the following does the word “enemies” in line 1 refer to?
A. extreme weather conditions B. creatures that eat insects
C. plants looking like insects D. insects looking like plants
Question 47: Which of the following best paraphrases the sentence in italics? The stick caterpillar is well
named.
A. The caterpillar has a good name.
B. The caterpillar is stuck to a popular name.
C. The caterpillar is named just like the way it looks.
D. The caterpillar is named after a well-known name.
Question 48: Which of the following are NOT mentioned in the passage as objects that are imitated as a
means of protection?
A. leaves B. flowers C. thorns D. sticks
Question 49: Which of the following is true of stick insects?
A. They make themselves look like other insects.
B. They change color to make themselves invisible.
C. They are camouflaged only when walking.
D. They resemble their surroundings all the time.
A. The feeding habits of insects.
B. Insects that are threatened with extinction.
C. How some insects imitate plants to survive.
D. Caterpillars that live in trees.
ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 1 THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
SỞ GD & ĐT VĨNH PHÚC
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
THPT NGÔ GIA TỰ
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 4 trang)
Question 1: A. formed B. naked C. recorded D. trusted
Question 2: A. busy B. answer C. person D. basic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. generation B. situation C. education D. examination
Question 4: A. approach B. leftovers C. supportive D. biologist
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 5: The (A) shopkeeper warned the boys don't (B) learn their (C) bicycles against (D) his windows.
Question 6: The (A) people who they (B) hadn't seen the weather forecast were (C) caught unaware (D) by
the hurricane.
Question 7: No longer satisfied (A) with the emphasis (B) of the Denishawn school, Martha has (C) moved
to the staff of (D) the Eastman school in 1925.
questions.
Question 8: Ann's encouraging words gave me ______________ to undertake the demanding task once
again.
A. a point B. an incentive C. a resolution D. a target
Question 9: I don’t suppose there is anyone there, _________?
A. do I B. isn't there C. is there D. don't I
Question 10: He wanted to know whose car I had borrowed _________
A. the last evening B. last night C. yesterday evening D. the previous night
Question 11: Are you taking_________ this semester?
A. house economics B. home economic
C. house economic D. home economics
Question 12: We should participate in the movements_________ the natural environment.
A. organizing to conserve B. organized to conserve
C. organized conserving D. which organize to conserve
Question 13: He does not________ his fellow-workers and there are often disagreements between them.
A. get on with B. put up with C. go on with D. take to
Question 14: My mother _________ the responsibility for running the household.
A. bears B. runs C. holds D. takes
Question 15: Sarah and I _________ reserved the rooms in the same hotel. She was really surprised to see
me there.
A. intentionally B. practically C. coincidentally D. deliberately
Question 16: Anna waved to us as a_________ that he saw us.
A. signal B. scene C. signature D. scenery
Question 17: Not until Kentucky’s Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972_________
A. when was its full extent realized B. the realization of its full extent
C. was its full extent realized D. that its full extent was realized
Question 18: Knocking on closed doors before entering can be a great way for children to practice
________ behaviors.
A. respecting B. respectful C. respected D. respective
Question 19: My sister and her husband ____________ over to my house for dinner tomorrow evening.
A. came B. come C. going to come D. are coming
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 20: John: ” Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”
Laura: “________________.”
A. Of course not. You bet. B. There is no doubt about it.
C. Well, that’s very surprising D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea
Question 21: Alice: “How about having a drive to the countryside this weekend?”
Mary: “________________. ”
A. That’s a good idea B. Not at all
C. No, thanks D. Let’s go
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The sales of drugs is controlled by law in most of countries
A. permitted B. restricted C. illegal D. binding
Question 23: Gradually more children were sent to the class as their parents realized that the young teacher
was trying her best to help their poor kids.
A. Weakly B. Progressively C. Slowly D. Firstly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 24: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
A. reasonably B. gently C. brutally D. cleverly
Question 25: About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most, like the
starfish and crabs, live in the ocean.
A. with ribs B. without backbones C. without ribs D. with backbones
Question 26: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
B. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.
C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
Question 27: "It can't be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom." said our manager.
A. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.
B. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom.
C. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.
D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.
Question 28: Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan. I spoke to him on the phone last night.
A. Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan to whom I spoke on the phone last night.
B. Mr. Smith, who is very interested in our plan, I spoke to on the phone last night.
C. Mr. Smith, who I spoke to on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.
D. Mr. Smith, to whom I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines of each
Question 29: You’d better take the keys. It’s possible I’ll come home late.
A. You’d better take the keys as I possibly come home late.
B. I’ll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys.
C. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys.
D. You’d better take the keys in case I come home late.
Question 30: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.
A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.
B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.
C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot.
D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.
Read the passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.
In a small village in North Yorkshire, there is a big old farmhouse ______(31) three families live
together. Alice and George and their three children, Joe and Pam and their two children, and Sue and her
baby daughter. The adults divide up the work between them. George does the cooking, Joe and Sue do
almost the housework. Pam looks after the shopping and ______(32) the repairs, and Alice takes care of the
garden.
Alice, George and Sue go out to work. Joe works at home ______(33) computer systems, and Pam,
who is a painter, looks after the baby during the day. Two of the children go to school in the village, but the
three oldest ones go by bus to the secondary school in the nearest town, ten miles away.
The three families get ______(34) well, and enjoy their way of life. There are a few difficulties, of
course. Their biggest worry at the moment is money- one of the cars needs replacing, and the roof needs
some expensive repairs. But this isn't too serious- the bank has agreed to a loan, which they expect to be able
to pay back in three years. And they all say they would much rather go on living in their old farmhouse
______(35) move to a luxury flat in a big city.
Question 31: A. that B. where C. in where D. which

Question 32: A. does B. makes C. prepares D. fulfils
Question 33: A. designs B. and design C. designing D. who designs
Question 34: A. on B. off C. with D. in
Question 35: A. then B. than C. to D. therefore
The Hindu culture celebrates marriage as a pure and pristine rite enabling two individuals to start
their journey of life together. It puts emphasis on the values of happiness, harmony and growth and could be
traced back from the Vedic times.
Months before the wedding ceremony, an engagement is held which is called "mangni". The couple
is blessed here with gifts, jewelry and clothes. Another important ritual is the "mehendi" which is a paste
made from the leaves of a henna plant. It is the traditional art of adorning the hands and the feet of the bride
with mehendi and the name of the groom is also hidden in the design.
On the day of marriage, the couple exchanges garlands as a gesture of acceptance of one another and
a pledge to respect one another as partners which is known as "jaimala". This is followed by "kanyadaan",
where the father of the bride places her hand in the groom's hand requesting him to accept her as an equal
partner.
Another ritual is the "havan" in which the couple invokes Agni, the god of Fire, to witness their
commitment to each other. Crushed sandalwood, herbs, sugar rice and oil are offered to the ceremonial fire.
The "gath bandhan" takes place where scarves of the bride and groom are tied together symbolizing their
eternal bonThis signifies their pledge before God to love each other and remain loyal. The couple then take
four "mangal pheras" or walk around the ceremonial fire, representing four goals in life: "Dharma", religious
and moral duties; "Artha", prosperity; "Kama" earthly pleasures; "Moksha", spiritual salvation.
The couple also takes seven steps together to begin their journey, called the "saptapadi". Then the
ritual of "sindoor" takes place where the groom applies a small dot of vermilion, a red powder to the bride's
forehead and welcomes her as his partner for life. This signifies the completion of the marriage. The parents
of the bride and the groom then give their blessings, "ashirwad" to the newlywed couple as they touch the
feet of their parents.
Question 36: What might be the most suitable title for this reading passage?
A. The Hindu culture B. The Hindu religion
C. The Hindu wedding D. The Hindu tradition
Question 37: What does the word magni stand for?
A. the wedding
B. the paste made from the leave of one another
C. the engagement
D. the gesture of acceptance of one another
Question 38: What do the Hindu people think about marriage?
A. It is entirely a spiritual traditional ritual allowing two individuals to live together.
B. It is a belief in the growth of a family newly formed by two individuals.
C. It is a wish of happiness and harmony to come to two individuals.
D. It is just a living-together announcement of two individuals.
Question 39: What can the word adorning be best replaced by?
A. decorating B. painting C. repairing D. dying
Question 40: What can the word invokes be best replaced by?
A. tells B. says C. prays D. talks
Question 41: Why does the couple exchange garlands?
A. to do a ritual
B. to show both their acceptance of and the swear to respect the partner.
C. to express their acceptance of one another and a wish of happiness.
D. to express their vow to respect each other for the whole life.
Question 42: When is the wedding ceremony completed?
A. When the parents of the bride and the groom give their blessings to the couple.
B. When the couple touches their parents' feet.
C. When the couple makes seven steps together.
D. When the groom applies a small dot of vermillion on the bride's forehead.
A Japanese construction company plans to create a huge independent city-state, akin to the legendary
Atlantis, in the middle of the Pacific Ocean. The city, dubbed “Marinnation”, would have about one million
inhabitants, two airports, and possibly even a space port. Marinnation, if built, would be a separate country
but could serve as a home for international organisations such as the United Nations and the World Bank.
Aside from the many political and social problems that would have to be solved, the engineering task
envisaged is monumental. The initial stage requires the building of a circular dam eighteen miles in diameter
attached to the sea bed in a relatively shallow place in international waters. Then, several hundred powerful
pumps, operating for more than a year, would suck out the sea water from within the dam. When empty and
dry, the area would have a city constructed on it. The actual land would be about 300 feet below the sea
level. According to designers, the hardest task from an engineering point of view would be to ensure that the
dam is leak proof and earthquake proof.
If all goes well, it is hoped that Marinnation could be ready for habitation at the end of the second
decade of the twenty-first century. Whether anyone would want to live in such an isolated and artificial
community, however, will remain an open question until that time.
Question 43: According to the text, Marrination, when built, will be a(an)__________ city.
A. underwater B. underground C. marine D. legendary
Question 44: The word ‘akin’ in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by __________.
A. likely B. close C. next D. similar
Question 45: Which of the following would NOT be a problem for the construction plan?
A. social B. political C. engineering D. financial
Question 46: Which of the following is NOT true according to the text?
A. Marinnation would have about one million inhabitants.
B. Marinnation will be built in a deep place in the Pacific Ocean.
C. Marinnation will be located in the middle of the Pacific Ocean.
D. Marinnation could be served as home for international organisations.
Question 47: The word ‘monumental’ in Paragraph 2 means __________.
A. important and difficult B. like a large monument
C. important and historic D. serving as a monument
Question 48: The phrase ‘suck out’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. draw out B. dry up C. take out D. pull out
Question 49: According to the text, people could come to live in the future city in the year __________.
A. 2002 B. 2012 C. 2010 D. 2020
Question 50: What does the author imply in the last sentence of the passage?
A. People will ask an open question about living in Marinnation.
B. The construction of Marinnation could never be completed in time.
C. People might not want to live in an isolated and artificial community.
D. People will ask how they can live in such an isolated and artificial city.
ĐÁP ÁN
Đề thi thử THPTQG lần 3 trường THPT Đồng Đậu
Question 1: A. looked B. laughed C. decided D. experienced
Question 2: A. break B. increase C. speak D. cheat
Question 4: A. endanger B. geometry C. opposite D. geography
Question 5: A secretary told me an important file had left in the lunch room just the other day.
A. told B. had left C. just D. the other
Question 6: I didn’t feel like to go to church this morning because it was raining hard
A. didn't B. to go C. to church D. raining hard
Question 7: A cure for the common cold, causing by a virus, has not been found.
A. for B. causing C. a virus D. has not been found.
Question 8: _________ he is old, he wants to travel around the world.
A. In spite of B. Although C. Despite D. Because
Question 9: Had I studied harder, I_________________better in the last exam.
A. would do B. would have done C. had done D. wouldn’t have done
Question 10: The larger the apartment, the __________________ the rent is.
A. expensive B. more expensive C. expensively D. most expensive
Question 11: Last week, our class went to Ha Long Bay for a picnic, ________ made us very happy then.
A. which B. that C. it D. of which
Question 12: Many species of plants and animals are in___________ of extinction.
A. dangerous B. endangered C. danger D. dangerously
Question 13: Would you mind ________ me a favor and posting this letter for me?
A. making B. doing C. getting D. giving
Question 14: It is imperative that your face book password ________ confidential.
A. need keeping B. need to keep C. needs to be kept D. needed keeping
Question 15: The last person ______ the room must turn off the lights.
A. to leave B. who leave C. That leave D. all are correct
Question 16: It ____ me only five minutes to get to school
A. cost B. took C. brought D. spent
Question 17: I will stand here and wait for you ______ you come back.
A. because B. thought C. so D. until
Question 18: Let’s begin our discussion now, ______?
A. shall we B. will we C. don’t we D. won’t we
Question 19: I was doing my homework ______ the light went out.
A. after B. before C. while D. when
each of the following exchanges .
Question 20: Tom: “ Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.” -Mary: “________”
C. Never mind! D. You was absent – minded.
Question 21: -Lan: "Happy birthday! This is a small present for you." - Nga: “__________”
A. What a pity! B. How terrible!
C. Have a good time! D. How beautiful it is! Thanks.
Question 22: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of the
island.
A. fruits and vegetables B. flowers and trees
C. plants and animals D. mountains and forests
Question 24: We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
A. uninterested B. unsure C. open D. slow
Question 25: The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings of
wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war.
A. happiness B. worry and sadness C. pain and sorrow D. Loss
A. It took me long to stop disappointing you.
Question 28: “If I were you, I would go to the doctor.” David said to Claudia.
A. David advised Claudia not to go to the doctor.
B. David told Claudia that he would go to see the doctor.
C. David advised Claudia to go to the doctor.
D. David told Claudia to become a doctor.
Question 29: The old man is working in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
A. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory.
B. The old man whom is working in this factory I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
D. The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
Question 30: The girl forgot to set the alarm clock. Therefore, she is in a hurry now.
A. The girl is not in a hurry now although she forgot to set the alarm clock.
B. The girl is not in a hurry now in spite of forgetting to set the alarm clock
C. The girl forgot to set the alarm clock because she is in a hurry now.
D. The girl is in a hurry now because she forgot to set the alarm clock.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B ,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Organized football games began in 1863. In football, two (1)_____ of eleven players try to kick or
head the ball into the goal of the other team. The goal keeper, (2)_____tries to keep the ball out of the goal,
is the only player on the field who can touch the ball with his or her hands. The other players must use their
feet, heads and bodies to (3)_____ the ball. Every four years, football teams around the world (4)_____ for
the World Cup. The World Cup competition started in 1930. Brazil is the home of many great football
players, including the most famous player of all, Pele’. With his fast dazzling speed, Pele’ played for many
years in Brazil and then in New York. People in more than 140 countries (5)_____ the world play football. It
is definitely the world’s most popular sport.
Question 31: A. champions B. teams C. groups D. players
Question 32: A. that B. who C. whom D. which
Question 33: A. hit B. control C. drive D. watch
Question 34: A. complete B. fight C. play D. battle
Question 35: A. on B. all over C. through D. whole
Becoming a teacher demands not only knowledge in an academic field but also a personal
commitment to lifelong learning, and enthusiasm for sharing knowledge with other people. To become one
of those noble educators in the USA, one has to satisfy several basic requirements.
First and foremost, it is a prerequisite to have a bachelor's degree in education. In the event that a
candidate already has a bachelor's degree in another field, a teacher preparation program is needed. But that
is not all. Almost every school in the USA understands that real classroom teaching experience is a vital part
of a teacher's training. Before taking over a class, a person typically needs to complete a training program,
including working as a supervised student teacher.
People who want to become university teachers need master's degrees. Getting a master's degree is a
necessity, but if it is gained too early, there may be concerns that the candidate lacks the real-world
experience to go with it. In fact, very few schools want to hire novices with little or no classroom experience
and even if they are accepted, they are usually ill-paid. One wise solution to the issue is for future post
graduates to start working as teachers before going on to gain their master's degree.
Besides knowledge and experience, certain personal qualities are also required. A teacher should be
positive, prepared, focused, and most importantly, patient. Being a teacher involves being aware of the fact
that learning sometimes be hard work, even for the most motivated students. Also, teaching can at times be
tiring and frustrating, so teaching candidates have to practice being patient with themselves. In short, as in
other careers, teaching requires a combination of qualifications, experience, and personal qualities. Teaching
candidates meeting mandatory requirements are always in demand in the USA.
Question 36: The text is mainly about ___________________.
A. the importance of teachers.
B. the advantages and disadvantages of being a teacher in the USA.
C. the difference of teaching career.
D. the basic requirements of being a teacher in the USA.
Question 37: According to the text, future post graduates should start working as teachers _______
A. after gaining their master's degree.
B. before studying for their master's degree
C. during the time they are studying for their master's degree.
D. before studying for their bachelor's degree.
Question 38: The word “vital” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______
A. very useless B. very easy C. very important D. very interesting
Question 39: According to the text, teaching requires a combination of many things EXCEPT _______.
A. qualifications B. personal qualities C. experience D. appearance
Question 40: According to the text, the most important quality of a teacher is _______.
A. being patient B. being to work hard C. being prepared D. being a role model
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. postgraduates B. novices C. schools D. teachers
Question 42: According to the text, all of the following sentences are true EXCEPT _____.
A. Those who want to become university teachers need master's degrees.
B. A teachers needs to be aware of the fact that learning can sometimes be hard work.
C. A great number of schools in the USA want to hire novices with little or no classroom experience.
D. In the USA, before one takes over a class, a training program is typically necessary to be completed.
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying,
smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh
milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas
Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail
Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became
more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880,
however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate.
Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets.
Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more
produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and
to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and
western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of
the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of
producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two
thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most
homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that
were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families
could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied
fare.
A. Causes of food spoilage.
B. Commercial production of ice.
C. Population movements in the nineteenth century.
D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet.
Question 44: The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to ________ .
A. a particular time of year B. a kind of weather
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring
Question 45: During the 1860’s, canned food products were _________ .
A. unavailable in rural areas B. available in limited quantities
C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet.
Question 46: The word” them” in line 12 refers to _________ .
A. refrigerator cars B. growers C. perishables D. distances
Question 47: The word” fixture” in line 16 is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. commonplace object B. substance
C. luxury item D. mechanical device
Question 48: The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice _________ .
A. increased in cost B. occurred only in the summer
C. decreased in number D. were on an irregular schedule
Question 49: The word “ Nevertheless” in line 19 is closest meaning to _________ .
A. occasionally B. however C. therefore D. therefore
Question 50: Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying B. Chemical additives C. Canning D. Cold storage
Đề thi thử THPTQG lần 2 trường THPT Lam Kinh Thanh Hóa
Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery has
been. Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was passed
through pipes and radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided
power. Exploded in a cylinder, it drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms
have not much adaptability. On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the
powerful voltages that drive our electric trains to the tiny current needed to work in a simple calculator, and
from the huge electric magnet in steel works that can lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all
are powered by electricity. An electric current can be made with equal ease to heat the huge mass of molten
metal in a furnace, or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee. Other than atomic energy, which has not as yet been
harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power in the world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task
for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and with incredible speed along wires or conductors that it can be
supplied instantly over vast distances. To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In
Australia, they use coal or water to drive this machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive
the turbines without polluting the atmosphere with smoke from coal. Atomic power is used in several
countries but there is always fear of an accident. A tragedy once occurred at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an
atomic power plant used to make electricity. The reactor leaked, which caused many deaths through
radiation. Now scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects to the
environment. They may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they hope to
trap sunlight more efficiently. We do use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the
capacity of the solar cells to create more current is necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be viable
and the world will rid itself of the toxic gasses given off by trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels.
Question 1: The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol in the first paragraph to
____________.
A. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy
B. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy
C. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity
D. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity
Question 2: Before electricity, what was sometimes passed through pipes to heat rooms?
A. petrol B. hot wind C. gas D. steam
Question 3: What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible?
A. It can be adapted to various uses. B. It can be made with ease.
C. It is used to drive motor engines D. It is cheap and easy to use.
Question 4: What do we call machines that make electricity?
A. electric magnets B. generators or turbines
C. pipes and radiators D. voltages
Question 5: The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia are ______.
A. wind and gas B. water and coal
C. sunlight and wind power D. atomic power and water
Question 6: The word they in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. harmful effects B. scientists C. the tides D. new ways
Question 7: Electric magnets are used in steel works to ________.
A. lift heavy weights up to ten tons B. boil a jug of water
C. test the steel for strength D. eat the molten steel
Question 8: The advantage of harnessing the power of the tides and of sunlight to generate electricity is that
they _______.
A. are more reliable B. do not require attention
C. are more adaptable D. do not pollute the environment
Question 9: “It is a surprising gift. Thank you very much, Mary.” said Mr.Pike.
A. Mr Pike promised to to give Mary a surprising gift
B. Mr Pike thanked Mary although she did not really like the gift.
C. Mr Pike thanked Mary for the surprising gift.
D. Mr Pike congratulated Mary on the surprising gift.
Question 10: Unless you come on time, we will go without you.
A. Come on time, we will go without you.
B. Without your coming on time, we will go.
C. Because of your punctuality, we will go without you.
D. Come on time or we will go without you.
Question 11: Most bosses cannot put up with irresponsibility.
A. Without responsibility,most bosses will not offer you a job.
B. Most bosses cannot tolerate irresponsibility.
C. Irresponsibility is what most bosses are trying to find
D. Irresponsibility is a must to please most bosses.
The UK Government ensures that all schools in the UK (12) _______ certain standards, and this includes
independent schools as well as those that are (13) _______ by the Government. All qualifications are
awarded by national agencies accredited by the Qualification and Curriculum Authority (QCA), so the
quality of the qualifications you will gain is guaranteed.
At many independent schools in England, you will be encouraged to take part in extracurricular activities to
develop your hobbies and learn new skills, and you may be encouraged to take graded music exams (14)
_______ by the Associated Board of the Royal Schools of Music. The exam grades gained from these are
widely accepted toward university entry requirements.
Independent schools do not usually offer vocationally focused qualifications but if you are (15) ____ in these
qualifications, you can find out more in the 'career-based and pre-university qualifications' section.
The (16) _______ you pay to attend independent school, include your course fees, accommodation and may
include some or all extracurricular activities.
Question 12: A. see B. look C. notice D. meet
Question 13: A. run B. indicated C. worked D. shown
Question 14: A. offered B. offering C. to offer D. offer
Question 15: A. interested B. excited C. concerned D. worried
Question 16: A. bills B. fees C. funds D. donations
Question 17: Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.
A. puts off B. approves of C. attends to D. looks for
Question 18: His career advancement was slow and he did not gain any promotion until he was 40, when
he won the position of the company’s Chief Executive.
A. rise B. decrease C. elevation D. progress
Question 19: He asked me if I had gone out last night or I had been tired.
A. asked B. had gone C. had been D. last night
Question 20: Our bodies send out messages constantly and sometimes we do not recognize that we are
using many non verbal language.
A. send out B. messages C. we do not recognize D. many
Question 21: No one came to see us since we bought these bloodbounds.
A. came B. us C. bought D. bloodbounds
Question 22: A. actually B. applicant C. parallel D. academic
Question 23: A. often B. fasten C. term D. castle
Question 24: A. interview B. community C. vocational D. idea
Question 25: A. national B. open C. college D. curriculum
Question 26: “Independent” school system in Britain is________.
A. fee-paying B. fare-paying C. scholarship-paying D. card-paying
Question 27: _______ should a young child be allowed to play with fireworks without adult supervision.
A. Always B. Under no circumstances
C. No sooner than D. Only when
Question 28: When Tet holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to _______ their houses.
A. do up B. do through C. do over D. do in
Question 29: I was in two________ about taking the flat because it is very good but the rent was rather
high.
A. heads B. minds C. ways D. hands
Question 30: Twenty workers are reported _______ in the explosion.
A. to injure B. to have injured C. to be injured D. to have been injured
Question 31: I suggest the room _________ before Christmas.
A. were decorated B. be decorated C. should decorate D. is decorated
Question 32: John lost the _________bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him
because of his carelessness .
A. beautiful Japanese blue new B. Japanese beautiful new blue
C. new beautiful blue Japanese D. beautiful new blue Japanese
Question 33: _________ high school, Nam attended a university in the city centre.
A. Having been finished B. Having finished
C. To have finished D. To finish
Question 34: Most _________are at senior level, requiring appropriate qualifications
A. degrees B. vacancies C. grades D. colleges
Question 35: Active: It is impossible to do this.
Passive: _______________________________.
A. This can’t have been done. B. This is unable to be done
C. This is impossible be done. D. This can’t be done.
Question 36: If you ___ less last night, you ____ so bad today.
A. drank – would not feel B. would have drunk – would not feel
C. had drunk – would not feel D. had drunk – would not have felt
Question 37: “Do you work in an office, Fred?” Fred:”__________”.
A. Yes I am. But I don’t like it. B. Yeah, but I’m out of work now.
C. No, I work as a bank clerk. D. Not anymore. I’m an English teacher now.
Question 38: John _________ this task yesterday morning, but I did it for him. He owns me a thank-you.
A. could have completed B. must have completed
C. should have completed D. may have completed
Question 39: I was offered a lamb or chicken, _____ lives in Ho Chi Minh City.
A. neither of which B. of that neither C. neither of that D. of which neither
Question 40: In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.
A. constructive B. mandatory C. superior D. beneficial
Question 41: “It is a really difficult matter to decide ow to solve now, I will need time to think it over”.
A. to sleep on it B. to make it better C. to make up for it D. to think out of time
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that can be arranged from
the words given in the following questions.
Question 42: Access / also / we / use / Internet / music / other / relaxation / and / download / movies / works
/ for / our / enjoyment / can / and / the .
A. We can also use the Internet to download music, movies and access and other works for our enjoyment
and relaxation.
B. We can also use the Internet to download music, movies and other works for our enjoyment and relaxation
and to access.
C. We can also use the Internet to access and download music, movies and other works for our enjoyment
and relaxation.
D. We can also use the Internet for our enjoyment and relaxation to access and download music, movies and
other works.
Question 43: Our / will / school / if / access / much / Internet / we /to /learn / the /better /has.
A. If our school has much access, we will learn better to the Internet.
B. If we learn better to the Internet, our school has much access.
C. If we will learn much better, our school has access to the Internet.
D. If our school has access to the Internet, we will learn much better.
Culture is a word in common use with complex meanings, and is derived, like the term broadcasting,
from the treatment and care of the soil and of what grows on it. It is directly related to cultivation and the
adjectives cultural and cultured are part of the same verbal complex. A person of culture has identifiable
attributes, among them a knowledge of and interest in the arts, literature, and music. Yet the word culture
does not refer solely to such knowledge and interest nor, indeed, to education. At least from the 19th century
onwards, under the influence of anthropologists and sociologists, the word culture has come to be used
generally both in the singular and the plural (cultures) to refer to a whole way of life of people, including
their customs, laws, conventions, and values.
Distinctions have consequently been drawn between primitive and advanced culture and cultures,
between elite and popular culture, between popular and mass culture, and most recently between national
and global cultures. Distinctions have been drawn between culture and civilization; the latter is a word
derived not, like culture or agriculture, from the soil, but from the city. The two words are sometimes treated
as synonymous. Yet this is misleading. While civilization and barbarism are pitted against each other in what
seems to be a perpetual behavioral pattern, the use of the word culture has been strongly influenced by
conceptions of evolution in the 19th century and of development in the 20th century. Cultures evolve or
develop. They are not static. They have twists and turns. Styles change. So do fashions. There are cultural
processes. What, for example, the word cultured means has changed substantially since the study of classical
(that is, Greek and Roman) literature, philosophy, and history ceased in the 20th century to be central to
school and university education. No single alternative focus emerged, although with computers has come
electronic culture, affecting kinds of study, and most recently digital culture. As cultures express themselves
in new forms not everything gets better or more civilized.
The multiplicity of meanings attached to the word made and will make it difficult to define. There is
no single, unproblematic definition, although many attempts have been made to establish one. The only
non-problematic definitions go back to agricultural meaning (for example, cereal culture or strawberry
culture) and medical meaning (for example, bacterial culture or penicillin culture). Since in anthropology
and sociology we also acknowledge culture clashes, culture shock, and counter-culture, the range of
reference is extremely wide.
Question 44: According to the passage, the word culture____.
A. is related to the preparation and use of land for farming
B. develops from Greek and Roman literature and history
C. derives from the same root as civilization does
D. comes from a source that has not been identified.
Question 45: It is stated in paragraph 1 that a cultured person_____.
A. has a job related to cultivation B. does a job relevant to education
C. takes care of the soil and what grows on it D. has knowledge of arts, literature, and music
Question 46: The author remarks that culture and civilization are the two words that_____.
A. are both related to agriculture and cultivation
B. share the same word formation pattern
C. do not develop from the same meaning D. have nearly the same meaning
Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that since the 20th century______.
A. classical literature, philosophy, and history have not been taught as core subjects
B. classical literature, philosophy, and history have been considered as core subjects
C. schools and universities have not taught classical literature, philosophy, and history
D. all schools and universities have taught classical literature, philosophy, and history
Question 48: The word “attributes” in paragraph 1 most likely means______.
A. fields B. qualities C. skills D. aspects
Question 49: The word “static” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by “_____”.
A. regular B. unchanged C. balanced D. dense
Question 50: Which of the following is NOT stated in the passage?
A. The word culture can be used to refer to a whole way of life of people.
B. The use of the word culture has been changed since the 19th century.
C. Anthropology and sociology have tried to limit the references to culture.
D. Distinctions have been drawn between culture and civilization
Đề thi thử THPTQG_lần 1 trường THPT Nguyễn Bỉnh Khiêm Quảng Nam
Question 1: Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world.
A. variety B. changes C. conservation D. conservation
Question 2: Dissemination of information is frequently carried out via satellite – through local or national
TV networks.
A. Dedication B. Compilation C. Condensing D. Dispersal
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
Question 3: They proposed making secondary education compulsory up to the age of 18.
A. unnecessary B. supportive C. unimportant D. optional
Question 4: Most of the school-leavers are sanguine about the idea of going to work and earning money.
A. fearsome B. expected C. excited D. pessimistic
Question 5: I didn’t know __________my answer was right or wrong.
A. as if B. whether C. unless D. that
Question 6: It was __________that we went camping in the mountain last weekend.
A. such nice weather B. so nice a weather C. too nice weather D. nice weather so
Question 7: After the fire, the government pledged to implement a program of ___________all over the
devastated national park.
A. reforestation B. rebuilding C. replenishment D. reconstruction
Question 8: Trilobites, a group of spineless animals, flourished in the oceans for several hundred million
years____________some 200 million years ago.
A. that were extinct B. and their extinction
C. became of their extinction D. until they became extinct
Question 9: A little farther down the street_________
A. is the inn I used to stay at B. there is an inn where I used to stay in
C. the inn is the place where I used to stay D. is there an inn in which I used to stay
Question 10: The students are expected to stick___________ their school’s regulation.
A. in B. at C. to D. by
Question 11: _________ programmers known as hackers often try to break into large computer systems.
A. mischief B. misbehaviour C. mischievous D. misunderstanding
Question 12: When he realized the police had spotted him, the man ________the exit as quickly as possible.
A. made off B. made for C. made out D. made up
Question 13: By the time you come here tomorrow, the work _____________
A. will have been finishing B. will be finishing
C. will have been finished D. will be finished
Question 14: The hall was very crowded with over a hundred people_________into it.
A. stuck B. packed C. pashed D. stuffed
Question 15: We are ________ a survey to find out what our customers think of their local bus service.
A. conducting B. researching C. corresponding D. investigating
Question 16: He was given a medal in ____________ of his service to the country.
A. gratitude B. recognition C. knowledge D. response
Question 18: A. suggestion B. solution C. information D. education
Question 19: A. involved B. maintained C. laughed D. formed
Question 20: A. industry B. sacrifice C. ancestor D. determine
Question 21: A. available B. kindergarten C. attractiveness D. contractual
Question 21: He is the only member of the game who’s identity has remained a secret
A. the only B. of C. who's D. has remained
Question 22: The teacher found a great deal of mistakes in his students’ writing.
A. the B. a great deal C. in D. students'
Question 23: The male lion is known for its long, thick mane, a feature that distinguishes from the female of
the species
A. known B. its long C. distinguishes D. female
Question 24: -Peter. “Can I get you something to drink?”
-Sarah. “_________”
A. Thank you. You’re welcome B. Yes, why not?
C. Yes, you can, of course D. I’d love some Coke, thanks
Question 25: Sam: “What a lovely house you have!”
Daisy: _________
A. Yes, I think so. B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. Of course. It’s not costly D. Never mind
Question 26: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.
A. John needn’t be here yesterday because he was ill.
B. Because of his illness, John shouldn’t have been here yesterday.
C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
Question 27: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was in imitation. It greatly
resembled the original.
A. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but not the experts.
B. It was obvious that only a person with a great talent could fake a painting so successfully.
C. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the experts
could judge it quite easily.
D. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it wasn’t genuine.
Question 28: “I will pay back the money, Linda”, said Helen.
A. Helen apologized to Linda for borrowing her money.
B. Helen offered to pay Linda the money back.
C. Helen suggested paying back Linda’s money.
D. Helen promised to pay back Linda’s money.
Question 29: Nobody has cleaned the room for two months.
A. The room for two months hasn’t been cleaned.
B. The room has been cleaned by nobody for two months.
C. The room hasn’t been cleaned for two months.
D. The room hasn’t been cleaned by somebody for two months.
Question 30: The purpose of any invention is to make our lives better, so good or bad; it depends on the way
by which we use these inventions.
A. Whether an invention is good or bad depends on the way by which we use it because the purpose of any
invention is to make our lives better.
B. We can use either good or bad inventions to make our lives better.
C. The purpose of any invention, whether good or bad, is to make our lives better. This depends on the way
by which we use these inventions
D. Good or bad as they are, all inventions have the same purpose to make our lives better.
Fungi are a group of organisms that, despite being plants, have no leaves or flowers. In fact, fungi do
not even share the green colour that most other plants display. Scientists estimate that there are over 1.5
million different species of fungi in the world. Though, to date, only 100.000 have been identified, leaving
many more that have not been found. One interesting feature of fungi is that they often interact with oilier
organisms in order to survive. These relationships are at times beneficial to both organisms. Other times, the
fungus benefits without causing harm to the other organism.
Many types of fungus have beneficial relationships with plants. Initially many gardeners would be
concerned to know that their plants were colonised by a fungus. This is because some fungi can cause plants
to die. In fact, the Irish potato famine was caused by a fungus that killed entire crops of potatoes. However,
many plants actually depend on certain types of fungi to help it stay healthy. Fungi are important to plants
because they help plants absorb more minerals from the soil than they could on their own. The reason for this
has to do with how fungi obtain food. Unlike green plants, fungi cannot make their own food. They must
absorb their food. When the fungi absorb minerals from the soil, they draw the nutrients closer to the roots
of the plants, so the plant is able to use them as well. The fungus also benefits from this relationship. Using
the minerals from the soil, as well as sunlight, the plants is able to produce sugars and other nutrients. Then
the fungus absorbs the nutrients from plant roots and uses them to survive.
Not all relationships are beneficial for both organisms: in some interactions, only the fungus benefits.
Still, for some fungus species, contact with other organisms is essential. And though the fungi do not provide
any benefits for the other organism, they do not harm it either. One example of this is a species called
Pilobolus. This fungus relies on other animals to help it reproduce. The Pilobolus grows in animal dung.
When it becomes mature, it shoots its spores away from the dung pile. The spores land in the grass where
cows graze. The spores are consumed by the animal but do not grow while inside the stomach. They travel
through the body of the animal until they are passed and deposited in another area, where they continue to
grow.
Question 31: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that___________
A. Many species of fungi have yet to be discovered
B. Fungi do harm to the organism they interact with
C. Fungi can have green or dull brown colors
D. There are 100,000 species of fungi left no identity
Question 32: The word "absorb" in the passage 2 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. consume B. get in C. deprive D. take in
Question 33: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is not true about fungus growing on or near
plants?
A. It can help maintain in the plant’s health B. It neither benefits nor harms the plant.
C. It is sometimes dangerous for plants. D. It grows near the roots of the plant.
Question 34: The word "them" in the passage 2 refers to_________.
A. minerals B. plant roots C. fungi D. nutrients
Question 35: The author discusses cows and horses in paragraph 3 in order to_________
A. illustrate how fungus can be harmful B. explain how a type of fungus reproduces
C. give examples of animals that eat fungi D. show that fungus can be found anywhere
Question 36: According to the passage 3, Pilobolus fungus___________
A. doesn’t benefit from its relationship with animals
B. needs other organisms in order to reproduce
C. matures inside the stomachs of cows and horses
D. causes horses and cows to become ill
Question 37: The word "graze" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. eat B. live C. view D. grow
Obesity
Health experts have warned that the currently soaring obesity levels in European children may create
health problems of epidemic proportions within the next three decades. Over the past ten years, obesity in
six-year olds (38)_________the number of obese fifteen-year olds has trebled. If present trends continue, by
2030 between 60 and 70 percent of Europeans will be overweight and 44 to 50 per cent will be obese. The
rise in weight-related diabetes, high blood pressure, heart (39)_________ and some forms of cancer will
place intolerable strains on health services (40)__________ steps are taken to address the problem. The
explosion in child obesity can be put (41)_________to the increasingly inactive lifestyles of modern
children. Many parents, worried lest their children, should come to harm from traffic or strangers, discourage
them from playing outdoors and instead provide ever more opportunities for sedentary entertainment in the
home. Nor should be the influence of the food industry be underestimated; it spends one thousand times
more on advertising fast food and convenience food in Europe and America (42)__________ the total budget
for promoting health in the same two regions
Question 38: A. has doubled B. double C. doubles D. doubled
Question 39: A. sickness B. disease C. illness D. rhythm
Question 40: A. if B. whether C. providing D. unless
Question 41: A. up B. out C. down D. back
Question 42: A. to B. than C. beside D. as
correct answer to each of the questions from.
Traditional methods of teaching no longer suffice in this technological world. Currently there are more than
100,000 computers in schoolrooms in the United States. Students mediocre and bright alike, from the first
stage through high school not only are not intimidated by my computers, but have become avid participants
in the computer epoch.
Kids operating computer implement their curriculum with great versatility. A music student can
program musical notes so that the computer will play Beethoven or the Beatles. For a biology class, the
computer can produce a picture of the intricate envisage human biology in a profound way. A nuclear reactor
is no longer an enigma to students who can see its workings in minute detail on a computer. In Wisconsi, the
Chippewa Indians are studying their ancient and almost forgotten language with the aid of a computer. More
commonly, the computer is used for drilling math and language concepts so that youngsters may learn at
their own speed without trying the patience of their human teachers. The simplest computers aid the
handicapped, who learn more rapidly from the computer than from humans. Once irksome, remedial drills
and exercises now on computer are conducive to learning because the machine responds to correct answers
with praise and to incorrect answers with frowns and even an occasional tear.
Adolescents have become so exhilarated by computers that they have developed their own jargon,
easily understood by their peers but leaving their disconcerted parents in the dark. They have shown so much
fervor for computer that they have formed computer clubs, beguile their leisure hours in computer stores, and
even attend computer camps. A Boy Scout can get a computer merit badge. One ingenious young student
devised a computer game for Atari will earn him $100,000 in royalties This is definitely the computer age.
Manufacturers of computers are presently getting tax write – offs for donating equipment to colleges and
universities and are pushing for legislation to obtain further deductions for contributions to elementary and
high school. Furthermore, the price of computer for home or office is being sold for less than $100. At that
price every class in the country will soon have computer kids.
Question 43: The expression “traditional methods of teaching” is the first sentence refers to ______
A. technological methods of teaching
B. teachers who punish students for not learning
C. teachers, textbooks and class drills
D. teaching the three Rs i.e reading, writing and arithmetic
Question 44: In order to operate a computer, a student does not have to be _______
A. in grade school B. versatile C. especially bright D. musical
Question 45: Today’s students with the aid of computer__________
A. try to confuse their parents B. have more trouble learning
C. can understand more complex concepts D. build nuclear reactors
Question 46: When the author says parents are “left in the dark”, he means that they ____________
A. didn’t pay the electric bill B. don’t understand
C. Have deficient eyesight D. go out at night
Question 47: Computers are used most for ______________
A. Boy Scout merit badges B. scientific subjects
C. language instruction D. drills and exercises
Question 48: According to the passage, one exceedingly clever student has_______________
A. overcome a handicap B. learned an Indian language
C. invented a video game D. played music on a computer
Question 49: It can be inferred from the passage that _____________
A. computers are difficult to operate
B. students today have to be smarter than their parents
C. computer make learning today easier than it was in the past
D. anyone who can operate a computer is an genius
Question 50: The price of a computer is now _____________
A. within the range of most schools’ budget B. too high for most schools
C. higher than ever before D. preventing school from buying computers
Đề thi thử THPTQG_lần 2 trường THPT Nguyễn Đình Chiểu Tiền Giang
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
Question 1: The telephone rang several times and then stop before I could answer it.
A. times B. then C. stop D. could
Question 2: The teacher asked him why hadn’t he done his homework, but he said nothing.
A. why B. hadn’t he done C. but D. said nothing
Question 3: A dangerously situation was created by the bad roads.
A. dangerously B. was C. created D. bad roads.
Question 4: George wouldn't have met Mary________ to his brother's graduation party.
A. had he not gone B. hadn’t he gone
C. if he has not gone D. if he shouldn't have gone
Question 5: Mary asked me whether I ________ the football match on TV the day before.
A. would watch. B. had watched C. have watched D. watch
Question 6: The Wildlife Fund helps to _______ endangered species.
A. reduce B. produce C. increase D. produce
Question 7: Is there ________ for everyone?
A. food and drink enough B. enough food and drink
C. enough of food and drink D. enough food and drink enough
Question 8: You should concentrate ________ what the interviewer is saying and make a real effort to
answer all the questions the interviewer asks.
A. on B. in C. at D. for
Question 9: I believe that judges should be independent _______ the government.
A. to B. from C. with D. of
Question 10: I have been looking _______ this book for months, and at last I have found it.
A. over B. up C. for D. at
Question 11: The computer has had an enormous _________ on the way we work.
A. alteration B. change C. impression D. influence
Question 12: His letter is full of mistakes. He ________ the mistakes carefully before sending it.
A. must have checked B. should have checked
C. can have checked D. could have checked
Question 13: Books are a wonderful ________ of knowledge and pleasure.
A. way B. information C. source D. type
Question 14: Many plants and animal species are now on the _______ of extinction.
A. danger B. border C. margin D. verge
Question 15: ______- is natural environment in which plant or animals live.
A. Ecology B. Habitat C. Extinction D. Biodiversity
Question 16: Tom: " Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night” . – Mary : “______________”
A. I have nothing to tell you. B. Oh, Poor me
C. Never mind! D. You were absent-minded.
Question 17: Annie: "Have a nice weekend", - Riat “________”
A. You have B. You will C. You too D. You are too
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
Question 18: A. interviewed B. performed C. finished D. delivered
Question 19: A. chemical B. approach C. achieve D. challenge
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
Question 20: When the alarm went off, everyone proceeded calmly to the emergency exits.
A. fell B. exploded C. called D. rang
Question 21: Childbearing is the women’s most wonderful role.
A. bring up a child B. giving birth to a baby
C. having no child D. educating a child
Question 22: The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. permanent B. guess C. complicated D. soak
Question 23: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to
study.
A. lost control of B. got in touch with C. put in charge of D. made room for.
Over the next 20 to 50 years, it will become harder to tell the (24) _____ between the human and
the machine. All, body parts will be replaceable. Computers will function like the human brain with the
ability to recognize feelings and respond in a feeling way. They will then produce fake people. We will then
be able to create a machine duplicate of ourselves so we will appear to be alive long after we are dead.
Maybe a few decades later, a way will be found to transfer our spirit, including our (25) _____ and
thoughts, to the new body. Then we can choose to live for as long as we want. It might be expensive. When
it becomes possible to do a spirit transfer, they will figure out (26) _____ to do them automatically. So we
will be able to reside within which ever duplicate we want, whenever we want.
Miniature robots will be built to travel through your blood stream and repair damage. Also, larger
robots will be used when you are sick. When you have an upset stomach, you will (27) _____ a very small
cherry tasting robot which will travel through your stomach taking video of the mess. It will be set up like a
video game, so you can control the exploring and the selection of images. Then you can replay the video to
help a doctor (28) _____ your illness, or to prove to your employer that you really, were sick.
Question 24: A. difference B. change C. variety D. appearance
Question 25: A. experience B. health C. actions D. memories
Question 26: A. what B. when C. how to do D. when
Question 27: A. swallow B. vomit C. chew D. drink
Question 28: A. notice B. observe C. watch D. diagnose
Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction
between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds.
It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It
includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning.
The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio,
from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite
known of other religions. People are engaged in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very
broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one
that should be an integral part of one's entire life.
from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same
time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so
on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the
workings of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subject being taught.
For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about
political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are
definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.
Question 29: What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children interrupt their
education to go to school” (lines 2-3) ?
A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.
B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.
C. Summer school makes the school year too long.
D. All of life is an education.
Question 30: The word “bounds” in line 5 is closest in meaning to
A. rules B. experience C. limits D. exceptions
Question 31: The word “ integral” in line 13 is closest in meaning to
A. equitable B. profitable C. pleasant D. essential
Question 32: The word “they” in line 17 refers to
A. slices of reality B. similar textbooks C. boundaries D. seats
Question 33: The phrase “For example,” line 19, introduces a sentence that gives examples of
A. similar textbooks B. the results of schooling
C. the workings of a government D. the boundaries of classroom subjects
A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.
B. Education systems need to be radically reformed
C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
D. Education involves many years of professional training.
Question 35: The passage is organized by
A. listing and discussing several educational problems
B. contrasting the meanings of two related words
C. narrating a story about excellent teachers
D. giving examples of different kinds of schools
Question 36: A. compete B. finish C. variety D. invent
Question 37: A. develop B. attractive C. advertise D. construction
Orchids are unique in having the most highly developed of all blossoms, in which the usual male and
female reproductive organs are fused in a single structure called the column. The column is designed so
that a single pollination will fertilize hundreds of thousands, and in some cases millions, of seeds, so
microscopic and light they are easily carried by the breeze. Surrounding the column are three sepals and
three petals, sometimes easily recognizable as such, often distorted into gorgeous, weird, but always
functional shapes. The most noticeable of the petals is called the labellum, or lip. It is often dramatically
marked as an unmistakable landing strip to attract the specific insect the orchid has chosen as its pollinator.
To lure their pollinators from afar, orchids use appropriately intriguing shapes, colors, and scents.
At least 50 different aromatic compounds have been analyzed in the orchid family, each blended to attract
one, or at most a few, species of insects or birds. Some orchids even change their scents to interest different
insects at different times.
Once the right insect has been attracted, some orchids present all sorts of one-way obstacle courses
to make sure it does not leave until pollen has been accurately placed or removed. By such ingenious
adaptations to specific pollinators, orchids have avoided the hazards of rampant crossbreeding in the wild,
assuring the survival of species as discrete identities. At the same time they have made themselves
irresistible to collectors.
A. Birds B. Insects C. Flowers D. Perfume
Question 39: The orchid is unique because of
A. the habitat in which it lives
B. the structure of its blossom
C. the variety of products that can be made from it
D. the length of its life
Question 40: The word "fused" in line 2 is closest in meaning to
A. combined B. hidden C. fertilized D. produced
Question 41: How many orchid seeds are typically pollinated at one time?
A. 200 B. 2,000 C. 20,000 D. 200,000
Question 42: Which of the following is a kind of petal?
A. The column B. The sepal C. The stem D. The labellum
Question 43: The “labellum” (line 7) is most comparable to
A. a microscope B. an obstacle course C. an airport runway D. a racetrack
Question 44: The word "their" in line 12 refers to
A. orchids B. birds C. insects D. species
Question 45: The word "discrete" in line 16 is closest in meaning to
A. complicated B. separate C. inoffensive D. functional
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
Question 46: “If I were you, I would rather go by train than by bus.”
A. She said that if she had been me, she would have gone by train than by bus.
B. She advised me to go by train rather than by bus
C. She meant going by train was more interesting than going by bus.
D. Wherever she went, she always travelled by train.
Question 47: Much as I admire her achievements
A. I don't really like her even though I admire her achievements.
B. I don't really like her because I don't admire her achievements.
C. Whatever her achievements, I don't really like her.
D. I like her achievements, so I admire her.
Question 48: He can hardly understand this matter because he is too young.
A. This matter is too hard to understand.
B. Hardly can he understand this matter because he is too young.
C. The matter is difficult but he can understand it.
D. He is young but he can understand this matter.
Question 49: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
C. His behavior was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.
D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behavior.
Question 50: Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately.
A. When you give up smoking immediately, you will affect your health with this harmful habit.
B. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits.
C. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit.
D. As smoking is an extremely harmful habit, you should give it up immediately.
Đề thi thử THPTQG_lần 1 trường THPT Lương Thế Vinh_Đồng Nai
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
Question 1: A. Whistle B. little C. gentle D. battle
Question 2: A. Wicked B. Sacred C. Beloved D. Helped
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. Integral B. Terrific C. Museum D. Cathedral
Question 4: A. Architectural B. cosmopolitan C. appreciative D. archeologist
Question 5: Most bothersome flies belong to the family Sarcophagidae and are popular known as flesh flies
because the larvae feed on flesh.
A. belong to B. popular known C. because D. feed on
Question 6: It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a
successful cure.
A. is diagnosed B. treated C. as early as possible D. to assure
Question 7: Rarely the Park Service allows dogs to visit the national parks except those kept on a leash at all
times.
A. the Park Service allows B. to visit
C. except those D. except those
Question 8: Snow and rain ______of nature.
A. are phenomenon B. are phenomena C. is phenomena D. is phenomenon
Question 9: It turned out that we _______rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.
A. hadn't B. should have C. mustn't D. needn't have
Question 10: It was a service ________I will be eternally grateful.
A. to which B. for which C. to whom D. for whom
Question 11: Mary didn’t mention _________about her progress report at work, but I’m sure she is.
A. concerning B. to concern C. being concerned D. to be concerned
Question 12: With the help of German experts, the factory produced _______cars in 2016 as the year before.
A. as twice many B. as many as twice C. as twice as many D. twice as many
Question 13: Making mistakes is all _______of growing up.
A. chalk and cheese B. top and bottom C. part and parcel D. odds and ends
Question 14: As the drug took ________, the patient became quieter.
A. force B. influence C. action D. effect
Question 15: The players’ protests _____no difference to the referee’s decision at all.
A. made B. did C. caused D. created
Question 16: I didn’t get home until after midnight last night. Otherwise, I ________your call.
A. returned B. had returned C. would return D. would have returned
Question 17: I object _________the way some people look down you just because you’re a foreigner.
A. at/on B. to/on C. to/at D. with/on
Question 18: The government is thinking of bringing ____a law to make it compulsory for cyclists to wear
crash helmets.
A. on B. up C. in D. round
Question 19: He talks about football for hours ________end.
A. at B. with C. on D. off
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
Question 20: - John: Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?
- Laura:___________ .
A. Yes, it’s an absurd idea. B. There’s no doubt about it.
C. Of course not. You bet. D. Well, that’s very surprising.
Question 21: - Jane: Tom’s the best singer in our school.
- Mary: _________.
A. Yes, tell me about it! B. That’s OK!
C. I can’t agree with you more! D. Yes, please.
Question 22: Public service announcements on radio and television are provided free charge to qualifying
agencies.
A. deliveries B. advertiser C. regulations D. statements
Question 23: Old Behrman, the main character in the short story The Last Leaf by William Sydney Porter, is
a simple, kind-hearted artist who always dreams of painting a masterpiece.
A. a good principle B. an expensive piece of painting
C. a large piece of painting D. an excellent work of art
Question 24: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.
A. deliberate B. unplanned C. accidental D. unintentional
Question 25: One of the reasons why families break up is that parents are always critical of each other.
A. unaware B. supportive C. intolerant D. tired
Question 26: Were it not for the money, this job wouldn’t be worthwhile.
A. This job offers a poor salary.
B. This job is rewarding at all.
C. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money.
D. Although the salary is poor, the job is worthwhile.
Question 27: Invitations were sent out as soon as the date of the conference was chosen.
A. Before sending out invitations, the date of the conference was chosen.
B. Choose the date of the conference before sending out invitations.
C. Hardly had the date of the conference been chosen when invitations were sent out.
D. After choosing the date of the conference, invitations were sent out.
Question 28: No matter how hard Fred tried to lose weight, he did not succeed.
A. However hard Fred tried, he could not lose weight.
B. Fred tried very hard to lose weight and succeeded.
C. It was hard for Fred to lose weight because he never succeeded.
D. It did not matter whether Fred could lose weight.
Question 29: I lent him some money. I wanted him to continue his study at college.
A. I lent him some money so as he will continue his study at college.
B. I lent him some money in order that he could continue his study at college.
C. I lent him some money so that to continue his study at college.
D. I lent him some money for him continue his study at college.
Question 30: Everyone was watching the little dog. They were greatly amused at it.
A. Everyone felt great and amused when the little dog was watching them.
B. The little dog was watching everyone with great amusement.
C. The little dog was greatly amused by the way everyone was watching it.
D. Everyone was greatly amused at the little dog they were watching.
TRAVEL BOOKS OF THE YEAR
The best travel books of this year fall into three main categories: purely informational, narrative, and what,
for (1)___________of a better term, I’ll call ‘anecdotal’. Between these broad categories, however, the
boundaries are (2) ________. One problem with putting travel writers into genres is that they are reluctant to
be pigeon-holed. Many of them see their role as a (3) _________of the documentary and the creative.
Some claim to be more novelists, employing some of the elements of fiction writing. Others regard
themselves as sociologists, exploring the customs and mores of other societies. At the end of the day, what
(4)_______ is how readable or useful the book is, and in many cases, how well it is presented. However, it is
quite clear that travel and books were (5) _________for each other.
Question 31: A. want B. absence C. shortage D. need
Question 32: A. misted B. blurred C. blended D. sketchy
Question 33: A. Merger B. Mixture C. Cross D. Compound
Question 34: A. counts B. reckons C. bears D. signifies
Question 35: A. given B. cut C. lent D. made
The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has made enormous
steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research
has shown that perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses are related to diet and forty percent of cancer is
related to the diet as well, especially cancer of the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to
contract certain illnesses because of the characteristic foods they consume.
That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers realized that
nitrates and nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meats) as well as other food additives caused
cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to
know which ingredients on the packaging labels of processed food are helpful or harmful.
The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and
because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows. Sometimes similar drugs are
administered to animals not for medicinal purposes, but for financial reasons. The farmers are simply trying
to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the Food and Drug
Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue.
A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we ingest.
Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to
food without our knowledge.
Question 36: How has science done a disservice to people?
A. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables.
B. It caused a lack of information concerning the value of food.
C. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our food.
D. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated.
Question 37: The word “ prone” is nearest in meaning to ________.
A. supine B. unlikely C. predisposed D. healthy
Question 38: What are nitrates used for?
A. They preserve flavor in packaged foods. B. They cause the animals to become fatter.
C. They are the objects of research. D. They preserve the color of meats.
Question 39: The word “ these” refers to ________.
A. researchers B. nitrates and nitrites C. meats D. colors
Question 40: The word “additives” is closest in meaning to______________ .
A. added substances B. benign substances C. dangerous substancesD. natural substances
Question 41: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT _________.
A. Researchers have known about the potential hazards of food additives for more than forty-five years.
B. Food may cause forty percent of the cancer in the world.
C. Drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons.
D. Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living animals.
Question 42: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Harmful and Harmless Substances in Food B. Improving Health through a Natural Diet
C. The Food You Eat Can Affect Your Health D. Avoiding Injurious Substances in Food
Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the ability to do
outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it is simply something a
person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great achievement can be developed. The
truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a child’s
ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and
opportunities. As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.”
Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins that were
separated shortly after birth and brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was based on
intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s environment. One case involving very intelligent twins was
quoted. One of the twins received a normal upbringing, and performed well. The other twin, however, was
brought up by extremely supportive parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities.
That twin, though starting out with the same degree of intelligence as the other, performed even better. This
case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the environment, the more
a child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link between intelligence and the
socioeconomic level of a child’s family. In other words, it does not matter how poor or how rich a family is,
as this does not affect intelligence.
Gifted people cannot be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One professor of
music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier than ordinary performers,
often because their parents had recognized their ability. These musicians then needed at least ten years’ hard
work and training in order to reach the level they were capable of attaining. People who want to have very
gifted children are given the following advice:
- Marry an intelligent person.
- Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
- Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.
- Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instruments is essential for a child who
wants to become an outstanding musician.
Question 43: The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires _________.
A. an expensive education B. good musical instruments
C. parental support and encouragement D. wealthy and loving parents
Question 44: The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to ____________ .
A. other people B. other scientists C. other children D. other geniuses
Question 45: When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that ___________.
A. ability depends mainly on intelligence and achievement
B. intelligence and development are irrelevant to ability
C. ability depends both on intelligence and on environment
D. different twins generally have different levels of ability
Question 46: Scientists chose twins for their study because _______.
A. each twin has the same environment as his/her twin
B. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing
C. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities
D. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence
Question 47: How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?
A. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured.
B. They practice playing their instruments for many years.
C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas.
D. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic.
Question 48: The remark: “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.” in the passage means
that in order to become a genius ________.
A. you need to have good health and good nourishment
B. you need intelligence and you need to develop it
C. you should try to move quickly and efficiently
D. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard
Question 49: The word “favorable” in the passage mostly means ___________.
A. “good for someone and making him/her likely to be successful”
B. "helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to other people”
C. “of high quality or an acceptable standard”
D. “under the control or in the power of somebody else”
Question 50: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ____________.
A. a child’s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents
B. to become successful, a child needs both native intelligence and development
C. studying different twins is a useful scientific procedure
D. educational development depends completely on economic well-being.
Đề thi thử THPTQG_lần 1 trường THPT chuyên Nguyễn Trãi - Bắc Ninh
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is similar in meaning to the one given
Question 1: It doesn’t matter how much you offer to pay, he won’t sell the antique vase
A. Although you offer to pay him a lot, he won’t sell the antique vase.
B. Despite a lot of money you offer to pay, he won’t sell the antique vase.
C. He won’t sell the antique vase if you offer to pay him a lot of money.
D. However much you offer to pay, he won’t sell the antique vase.
Question 2: The best way to make them work hard is to promise them reward.
A. Promise them a reward and they will work hard.
B. If you promise to reward, they will word hard.
C. Reward them and make them work hard.
D. If they work hard, you should promise to reward them.
Question 3: I am not certain, but there may be about twenty applicants for the job.
A. I am not sure if there are about twenty applicants for the job.
B. At a guess, there are about twenty applicants for the job
C. I guess that there are twenty applicants for the job
D. Twenty people are guessed to have applied for the job
Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combine the two sentences given
Question 4: I bought an Italian pair of shoes for $150. They went missing after two days.
A. I bought an Italian pair of shoes that went missing after two days.
B. The Italian pair of shoes that I bought for $150 went missing after two days.
C. The Italian pair of shoes, which I had bought for $150, went missing after two days.
D. My Italian pair of shoes that went missing after two days were bought for 150$.
Question 5: Ann paints landscape pictures. She finds it very pleasant.
A. Ann finds it pleasure to paint landscape pictures
B. Ann takes great pleasure in painting landscape pictures
C. Painting landscape pictures makes Ann feel pleasure
D. Ann feels pleasant in painting landscape pictures
Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each
of the following questions:
Question 6: Mr.Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. Inapplicable B. hostile C. amiable D. futile
Question 7: Henry has found a temporary job in a factory.
A. Genuine B. eternal C. permanent D. satisfactory
Choose A, B ,C or D to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each
sentence.
Question 8: Carpets from countries such as Persia and Afghanistan often fetch high prices in the United
States.
A. Artifacts B. Textile C. Pottery D. Rugs
Question 9: Though many scientific breakthroughs have resulted from mishaps it has taken brilliant thinkers
to recognize their potential.
A. Incidental B. misunderstandings C. accidents D. misfortunes
Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
If we believe that clothing has to do with covering the body, and costume with the choice of a
particular form of garment for a particular use, then we can say that clothing depend primarily on such
physical conditions as climate, health, and textile manufacture, whereas costume reflect social factors such as
religious beliefs, aesthetics, personal status, and the wish to be distinguished from or to emulate our fellows.
The ancient Greeks and the Chinese believed that we first covered our bodies for some physical reason
such as protecting ourselves from the weather elements. Ethnologists and psychologists have invoked
psychological reasons: modesty in the case of ancients, and taboo, magical influence and the desire to please
for the moderns.
In early history, costume must have fulfilled a function beyond that of simple utility, perhaps through some
magical significance, investing primitive man with the attributes of other creatures. Ornaments identified the
wearer with animals, gods, heroes or other men. This identification remains symbolic in more sophisticated
societies. We should bear in mind that the theater has its distant origins in sacred performances, and in all
periods children at play have worn disguises, so as to adapt gradually to adult life.
Costumes helped inspire fear or impose authority. For a chieftain, costume embodied attributes
expressing his power, while a warrior’s costume enhanced his physical superiority and suggested he was
superhuman. In more recent times, professional or administrative costume has been devised to distinguish the
wearer and express personal or delegated authority; this purpose is seen clearly in the judge’s robes and the
police officer’s uniform. Costume denotes power, and since power is usually equated with wealth, costume
came to be an expression of social caste and material prosperity. Military uniform denotes rank and is intended
to intimidate, to protect the body and to express membership in a group. At the bottom of the scale, there are
such compulsory costumes as the convict’s uniform. Finally, costume can possess a religious significance that
combines various elements: an actual or symbolic identification with a god, the desire to express this in
earthly life, and the desire to enhance the wearer’s position of respect.
Question 10: Psychological reasons for wearing garments include
A. protection from cold B. availability of materials
C. prevention of illness D. wishing to give pleasure
Question 11: Why does the author mention the police officer’s uniform?
A. To illustrate the aesthetic function of costume
B. To identify the wearer with a hero
C. To suggest that police are superhuman
D. To show how costume signifies authority
Question 12: The passage mainly discusses costumes in term of its
A. physical protection B. religious significance
C. social function D. beauty and attractiveness
Question 13: What is the purpose of the paragraph 1?
A. To describe the uses of costume
B. To contrast costume with the clothing
C. To trade the origins of costume
D. To point out that clothing developed before costume
Question 14: The word “scale” in line 23 refers to
A. symbolic identification B. ary rank
C. social position D. the balance
Question 15: Which of the following would most likely NOT be reflected in a person’s costume, as it is
defined in the passage?
A. Having a heart condition B. Playing in a baseball game
C. Working in a hospital D. Participating in a religious ceremony
Question 16: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that
A. The function of costume has become very sophisticated
B. Children like to identify with other creature by wearing costumes
C. Primitive people wore cloths only for sacred performances
D. Costume no longer fulfills a function beyond simple utility
correct work for each of the blanks.
Michael Faraday
During the last 400 years, most scientists have (17) ________on mathematics in their development of their
inventions or discoveries. However, one great British scientist, Michael Faraday, did not make
(18)__________of mathematics. Faraday, the son of a poor blacksmith, was born in London in 1791 and had
no (19) ______beyond reading and writing.
In 1812 Faraday was hired as a bottle washer by the great chemist Humphry Davy. Later, Faraday became a
greater scientist than Davy, making the last years of Davy's life embittered (20) __________ jealousy. Faraday
made the first (21)__________motor in 1821, a device that used electricity to produce movement.
Question 17: A. relied B. insisted C. based D. elaborated
Question 18: A. usage B. advantage C. use D. utilization
Question 19: A. instruction B. knowledge C. training D. schooling
Question 20: A. from B. with C. by D. at
Question 21: A. electric B. electrical C. electricity D. electrician's
Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 22: Drinking water excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the
enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. including C. made up of D. composed of
Question 23: She gave me a ____________box.
A. small square jewellery metal B. small metal square jewellery
C. small square metal jewellery D. small jewellery square metal
Question 24: Ben: Our team has just won the last football match Ann: __________
A. Good idea. Thanks for the news. B. Yes. I guess it’s very good.
C. Well, that’s very surprising! D. Yes, it’s our pleasure.
Question 25: She pays an enormous insurance premium on the family heirloom, her most _______
possession.
A. worthless B. valueless C. honourable D. treasured
Question 26: She____________her success to hard work.
A. described B. devoted C. blamed D. ascribed
Question 27: I refuse to believe a word of it; it’s a cock-and-___________story.
A. hen B. goose C. bull D. duck
Question 28: ________, I decided to stop trading with them.
A. Despite of the fact that they were the biggest dealer
B. Though being the biggest dealer
C. Being the biggest dealer
D. Even though they were the biggest dealer
Question 29: When Mr Spendthrift ran out of money, he his mother for help.
A. fell back on B. fell upon C. fell behind D. fell in with
Question 30: It’s funny you should say that. I’ve just had the thought.
A. like B. identical C. alike D. similar
Question 31: Newspaper publishers in the States have estimated reads a newspaper every day.
A. nearly 80 percentage of the adult population who
B. it is nearly 80 percent of the adult population
C. that nearly 80 percentage of the adult population
D. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population
Question 32: Ann: Ben: Thanks. I will write to you when I come to London.
A. God bless you! B. Have a nice trip! C. Better luck next time! D. Have a go!
Question 33: The dead man’s widow said he had had a/an that he would be killed in an accident.
A. knowledge B. xperience C. presentiment D. warning
Question 34: If you book in advance you will certainly have a better table at our restaurant.
A. mostly B. almost C. most D. the most
Question 35: Never_________him stand on the deserted station platform.
A. will I forget to see B. I will forget to see C. will I forget seeing D. I will forget seeing
Choose A, B, C or D t indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each
Question 36: A. enthusiasm B. generator C. mischievous D. reference
Question 37: A. perfect B. sincere C. mature D. technique
Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the word where underlined part is pronounced differently in each of the
Question 38: A. extinction B. exhibit C. exhaustion D. exist
Question 39: A. Amount B. Countable C. Country D. Around
Read the following passage and mark the latter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, that provides information
concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known surveys are the Gallup poll and the
Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during presidential campaigns knows these polls have become
an important part of political life in the United States.
North Americans are familiar with the many "person on the street" interviews on local television news
shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate indication of
public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a certain location. Thus,
such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending on
which area the newspeople select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are
willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey
must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the
population.
In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of questions. An
effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand it. It must also be specific
enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even questions that are less structured must be
carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of
information, but only if the sampling is done properly and the questions are worded accurately.
There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these forms of
survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate because people find it more
difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written questionnaire. In
addition, an interviewer can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject's underlying feelings and
reasons. However, questionnaires have the advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.
Question 40: According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street interviews is that they
A. are not based on a representative sampling B. are used only on television
C. are not carefully worded D. reflect political opinions
Question 41: It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated with
questionnaires is that
A. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires
B. questionnaires are often difficult to read
C. questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute
D. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions
Question 42: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey?
A. A high number of respondents
B. Carefully worded questions
C. An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings
D. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results
Question 43: The word "elicit" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. compose B. rule out C. predict D. bring
A. The history of surveys in North America
B. The principles of conducting surveys
C. Problems associated with interpreting surveys
D. The importance of polls in American political life
Question 45: According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that live
interviews
A. cost less
B. can produce more information
C. are easier to interpret
D. minimize the influence of the researcher
Question 46: Which of the following terms is defined in the passage? A. Survey (line 1) B. Public opinion
(line 8)
A. Survey (line 1) B. Public opinion (line 8)
C. Representative sampling (line 13) D. Response rate (line 22)
Question 47: The word "exercise" in line 15 is closest in meaning to
A. utilize B. consider C. design D. defend
Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 48: Although most species of small birds gather in groups at feeders provided by bird-watchers, the
bright red cardinals usually appears alone or with its mate.
A. at B. cardinals C. or D. its
Question 49: Henry David Thoreau was an American writer who is remembered for his faith in religious
significance of the nature
A. an B. is C. for D. the nature
Question 50: Proteins are made up of folded irregularly chains, the links of which are amino acids.
A. make up of B. folded irregularly C. the links D. which
Đề thi thử THPTQG môn Anh trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Quang Diêu - Đồng Tháp - lần 2
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underline part differs from
Question 1: A. speaks B. photographs C. sometimes D. soups
Question 2: A. arise B. arrange C. arrive D. area
the correct answer to each of the questions that follow.

There have been many famous detectives in literature. But one of the first – and certainly the most famous –
is Sherlock Holmes. Holmes was created by the British writer Sis Arthur Conan Doyle in the late nineteen
century.
Sherlock Holmes made his first appearance in the work A study in Scarlet, which was published in 1887.
Holmes instantly became a popular literary figure with the general populace, who demanded that Doyle write
more stories involving him. Doyle complied and eventually wound up writing fifty-six short stories and four
novels that featured Holmes. While he took a break of several years from creating stories about Holmes,
Doyle countinued to write Holmes stories until 1927. Among the most famous of all the works featuring
Holmes are The Hound of the Baskervilles, The Blue Carbuncle, and A Scandal in Bohemia.
One of the reasons that Sherlock Holmes was popular concerns the method he employs to solve his case:
logic. Together with his partner, Dr. Watson, Holmes uses his powers of observation to detect clues that can
help him solve the cases he accepts. Holmes has an incredibly sharp mind that enables him to determind who
the guilty party or what the problem is. Holmes also is a master of disguise, which he prove many times, and
he is skilled at boxing as well as sword fighting.
While Holmes often solves cases that are unrelated to one another, he has a nemesis with whom he comes
into both direct and indirect conflict in several stories. That person is Professor Moriarty, the leader of a
crime ring in London. In one of the stories, The Final Problem, Holmes and Moriarty fight one another and
fall to their deaths by plunging down a steep cliff near a waterfall. When he wrote that story, Doyle had tired
of Holmes and wanted to kill off the character. He then refrained from writing about Holmes for many
years, but public demand for more stories induced him to bring Holmes back from the dead and to continue
writing detective stories
Question 3: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Sis Arthur Conan Doyle: The Creator of Sherlock Holmes
B. The Most Famous Detectives in the World
C. Sherlock Holmes and Dr. Watson.
D. A Brief Biography of Sherlock Holmes
Question 4: What does the author say about Sis Arthur Conan Doyle?
A. He created more detective stories that any other writer.
B. He was a bestselling author during his life.
C. He wrote stories about Sherlock Holmes for decades.
D. He considered becoming a detective in his youth.
Question 5: Why does the author mention The Hound of the Baskervilles?
A. Dr. Watson makes his first appearance in that world.
B. The story is one that involves Professor Moriarty.
C. It was the first novel he wrote involving Sherlock Holmes.
D. It is the title of one of his well-known Sherlock Holmes stories.
Question 6: According to the passage, which is true about Sherlock Holmes?
A. He encouraged Dr. Watson to become more observant.
B. He often resorted to fighting during his investigations.
C. He was fluent in several foreign languages.
D. He relied upon logic to solve various mysteries.
Question 7: The word “nemesis” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. Peer B. Competitor C. Rival D. Partner
Question 8: The word “refrained from” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______.
A. postponed B. continued C. stopped D. resumed
Question 9: What does the author imply about Professor Moriarty?
A. There is an unknown reason why he engaged in a life of crime.
B. Critics consider him to be the greatest literary villain in history.
C. Sherlock Holmes and he are related to one another.
D. He fails to encounter Holmes in some stories he is involved in.
Question 10: Why did Doyle kill Sherlock Holmes in one of his stories?
A. It was too difficult for him to come up with new storylines.
B. Killing Holmes would help Doyle increase his sales.
C. He had no desire to write about Holmes anymore.
D. His fans demanded that Holmes be killed off.
Question 11: Readers are required to abide by the rules of the library and mind their manners.
A. memorize B. obey C. compose D. review
Question 12: The whole village was wiped out in the earthquake last night.
A. Cleaned well B. destroyed C. changed completely D. removed quickly
Question 13: My motorbike cannot start in the mornings. I think I will get the garage to repair it.
A. My motorbike I will get it repaired which cannot start in the mornings.
B. My motorbike cannot start in the mornings, so I will have it repaired.
C. My motorbike which I will get it repaired cannot start in the mornings.
D. My motorbike which I will have it repaired cannot start in the mornings.
Question 14: David was too tired to continue. He decided to stop walking.
A. David couldn’t continue walking because he was too tired.
B. David was too tired to carry out walking.
C. David couldn’t stop walking because he was too tired.
D. David can’t continue to walk when he’s tired.
Question 15: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both high.
B. The unemployment rate is as high as crime rate.
C. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
D. The higher unemployment rate is, the higher crime rate is.
Question 16: Tom said: “If I were you, I wouldn’t trust Peter.”
A. I trusted Peter and Tom did, too B. Tom wasn’t me and he trusted Peter.
C. Tom adviced me to not trust Peter. D. Whatever Tom said, I trusted Peter.
Question 17: I haven’t finished reading this book yet.
A. I have read this book before. B. I’m still reading this book.
C. I will read this book some day. D. The book I’m reading hasn’t finished.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B ,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks blanks.
Scott Newman wouldn’t be without his pocket-size TV ,which he mainly watches in bed . ‘I only watch
programmes which last about half an hour ,as any longer strains my eyes .I use the set for general
entertainment though it is also really good for (18) ______ up with current affairs .The main problem with
the set is that it’s not (19) ______ enough even when you use headphones. The reception is all right as long
as nothing moves in front of the aerial’. Scott admits to being a gadget man, but doesn’t regret (20______ the
set since he uses it nearly every day. Retired engineer Paul Hardcastle, has owned a pocket TV (21)______ a
number of years. ‘ I use it mostly in the bathroom. I wanted to use it outdoors, but the trouble is that in bright
light you can’t see the picture. I use rechargeable batteries as ordinary ones would cost too much. Paul
believes that this sort of TV could be improved if the (22______ was slightly bigger and it didn’t use up
batteries so quickly: he can only get half an hour’s viewing before the batteries go flat.
Question 18: A. holding B. keeping C. coming D. going
Question 19: A. high B. strong C. noisy D. loud
Question 20: A. bought B. buying C. to buy D. buy
Question 21: A. in B. over C. with D. for
Question 22: A. design B. screen C. face D. display
BASKETBALL
Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield, Massachusetts, Dr. James A
Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a physical education instructor at the International YMCA, now
Springfield College, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest in exercise among students during the
wintertime. The new England winters were fierce, and the students balked at participating in outdoor
activities. Naismith determined a fast-moving game that could be played indoors would fill a void after the
baseball and football seasons had ended.
First, he attempted to adapt outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, but he soon
found them unsuitable for confined areas. Finally, he determined that he would have to invent a game.
In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets at either end of the gymnasium at the school,
and, using a soccer ball and nine players on each side, organized the first basketball game. The early rules
allowed three points for each basket and made running with the ball violation. Every time a goal was made,
someone had to climb a ladder to retrieve the ball.
Nevertheless, the game became popular. In less than a year, basketball was being played in both the United
States and Canada. Five years later, a championship tournament was staged inNew York City, which was
won by the Brooklyn Central YMCA.
The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became standard in 1897 season. When
basketball was introduced as a demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games in St. Luis, it quickly spread
throughout the world. In 1906, a metal hoop was used for the first time to replace the basket, but the name
basketball has remained.
Question 23: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Dr. James Naismith B. The Olympic Games in St. Luis in 1904
C. The YMCA athletic program D. The development of basketball
Question 24: Why did Naismith decide to invent basketball?
A. He could not convince his students to play indoors.
B. He wanted his students to exercise during the winter.
C. He was tired of baseball and football.
D. He did not like soccer or rugby.
Question 25: Soccer and rugby are the example of ________.
A. confined areas B. outdoor games C. indoor play D. old peach baskets
Question 26: The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to________.
A. seasons B. areas C. indoors D. games
Question 27: The word "staged" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to________.
A. run B. replaced C. organized D. remained
Question 28: The author mentions all of the following as typical of the early game of basketball
EXCEPT__________.
A. nine players were on a team
B. three points were scored for every basket
C. Running with the ball was not a foul
D. the ball had to be retrieved from the basket after each score
Question 29: Which sentence is TRUE about the basketball game, according to the reading passage?
A. The name of basketball has been changed since 1906.
B. The basketball game became popular before 1891.
C. There were nine players on each side in 1904 season.
D. There were five players on each side in 1897.
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 30: They have not made any effort to intergrate with the local community.
A. Put together B. separate C. connect D. cooperate
Question 31: Experts hope that the vaccine will be mass-produced soon.
A. Produced with high cost B. Produced in great numbers
C. Produced cheaply D. Produced in small numbers
Question 32: According to the boss, John is the most _____ for the position of executive secretary.
A. caring B. suitable C. supportive D. comportable
Question 33: Don’t forget _____ goodbye to the interviewer before leaving the office.
A. saying B. telling C. to tell D. to say
Question 34: Global warming will result _____ crop failures and famines.
A. with B. from C. for D. in
Question 35: Many plant and animal species are thought to be on the _____ of extinction.
A. stage B. verge C. mood D. way
Question 36: You have to take the full course of your antibiotics even if you feel better, _____ your illness
will simply return.
A. otherwise B. so that C. such as D. whereas
Question 37: The driver is _____ for the safety of his passengers.
A. capable B. accused C. taking charge D. responsible
Question 38: For the first time in 70 years, _____ aspirin’s potential beyond reducing pain, fever and
inflammation.
A. researchers began understand B. researchers began to understand
C. researchers begin understanding D. researchers’ understanding of
Question 39: Mr. Timpson’s behavior and comments on occasions were inappropriate and fell below the
_____ standards.
A. acceptance B. accept C. acceptable D. accepting
Question 40: You can’t possibly say no to such a wonderful job offer. It’s too good to ____.
A. See through B. Take over C. Turn down D. Put up
Question 41: This book will _____ you with all the information you need.
A. provide B. give C. assign D. offer
Question 42: Generally speaking, men _____ in sports than women do.
A. Are more interested B. Look interested
C. Have great interest D. Take more interesting
Question 43: They talked for three days before finally _____ a decision.
A. doing B. arriving C. making D. coming
Question 44: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking with each other about their shopping.- Diana: “Look
at this catalog, Anne. I think I want to get this red blouse.”- Anne: “ _______”
A. Don’t you have one like this in blue? B. I’ll go myself, then.
C. That’s a long way to go, dear. D. No, thank you.
Question 45: Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah accepted.- Mary: “Shall
we eat out tonight?”- Sarah: “_______”
A. That’s a great idea. B. That’s acceptable.
C. See you next time. D. You are very welcome.
Question 46: A. certificate B. experience C. concentrate D. enthusiasm
Question 47: A. university B. secondary C. possible D. suitable
Question 48: Do you know the name of the man stands over there?
A. know B. of C. stands D. over there
Question 49: Below are some pieces of advice that can help you reduce the feeling of pressure and creating
a good impression on your interview.
A. Below are B. help you reduce C. and creating D. impression on
Question 50: John’s teeth were troubling him, so he went to a dental surgeon to see how to have them pull.
A. were troubling B. to see how C. them D. pull
Đề thi học kỳ 1 năm 2017_THPT Trực Ninh B_Nam Định
Môn: Tiếng Anh
each of the following questions
Question 1: We narrowly avoided an accident with a coach by managing to stop quickly
A. The gap we had left between us and the coach was too narrow to avoid an accident.
B. It was such a narrow road that we nearly had an accident with a coach.
C. If the coach hadn’t stopped so suddenly, we wouldn’t have had the accident.
D. We would have had a collision with a coach if we hadn’t come to a stop so swiftly.
Question 2: She started working as a teach for English ten years ago.
A. She had worked with a teacher of English for ten years.
B. She has been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
C. She had been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
D. She has worked with a teacher of English for ten years.
Question 3: “I would take the job if I were you”, said my friend.
A. My friend told me to take the job. B. My friend asked me to take the job.
C. My friend advised me to take the job. D. My friend ordered me to take the job.
As computer use becomes more common, the need for security is more important than ever. One
of the greatest security threats in the online world is computer hacking.
Computer hacking is the unauthorized access to a computer or network of computers. Hackers are people
who illegally enter systems. They may alter or delete information, steal private information, or spread
viruses that can damage or destroy files. But how exactly can a hacker get into a system to do these
things?
Most hackers use information called protocols that are built into computer software. These
protocols allow computer to interact with one another. Protocols are sort of like computer police officers.
When a computer connects to another system, the protocols check to see if the access is valid. The
protocols can also determine how much information can be shared between the two systems. Hackers can
manipulate the protocols to get unlimited access to a computer system.
In fact, just the act of entering a computer network is considered hacking. This is commonly
called passive hacking. Passive hackers get a rush from just being able to access a challenging system like
a bank of military network. Another kind of hacker tries to do damage to a system. After hacking into
systems, these hacker release viruses or alter, delete, or take information. Known as active hackers, they
are, by far, the more dangerous of the two.
The easiest way to protect a system is with a good password. Long and unusual passwords are
harder for hackers to guess. For even greater security, some online services use “password-plus”
systems. In this case, users first put in a password and then put in a second code that changes after the
user accesses the site. Users either have special cards or devices that show them the new code to use the
next time. Even if a hacker steals the password, they won’t have the code. Or if the hacker somehow gets
the code, they still don’t know the password.
Question 4: What is NOT considered hacking?
A. Turning on a private computer. B. Spreading viruses.
C. Illegally entering systems. D. Altering or deleting private information.
Question 5: How can hackers get access to a computer system?
A. Change security programs. B. Manipulate the protocols.
C. Spread viruses. D. Make a new password.
Question 6: The word “they” in the fourth paragraph refers to _________
A. computer systems. B. passive hackers. C. computer viruses. D. active hackers.
Question 7: Why are active hacker probably considered more dangerous than passive ones?
A. Active hackers are more skilled.
B. Passive hackers are caught more easily.
C. Passive hackers have more intense personalities.
D. Active hackers do damage.
Question 8: What does “plus” in “password-plus” in the passage probably mean?
A. fast B. long C. danger D. extra
Question 9: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Good ways to stop hackers. B. Hackers and computer security.
C. Famous hackers. D. Funny things hackers do.
Make the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges
Question 10: Two friend Tina and Mary are talking about Mary’s new shirt.
- Tina: “That’s a very nice skirt you’re wearing, Mary!”
- Mary: “____________”
A. I like you said so. B. It’s nice of you to say so.
C. Thanks, but I’m so afraid. D. That’s all night.
Question 11: Jenny is talking to Sunsan after school
A. We don’t have any film. B. Let’s take the seat.
C. I’ve seen the film already. D. You went to theatre.
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 12: A. threaten B. support C. award D. provoke
Question 13: A. memory B. interview C. confidence D. employment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITTE in meaning
Question 14: I find it hard to work at home because there are too many distractions
A. unawareness B. unconcern C. attention D. carelessness
Question 15: These machines are order models and have to be operated by hand.
A. manually B. mechanically C. automatically D. spiritually
Question 16: As children we were very close, but as we grew up we just drifted apart.
A. became less sympathetic B. became less serious
C. became less friendly D. became less childlike
Question 17: Magazines were the first visual medium before the advent of television
A. acceptance B. achievement C. arrival D. spiritually
Question 18: Her passion for helping people have motivated her to found her own charity organization
A. found B. for C. organization D. have motivated
Question 19: You should stop wasting your time and doing something useful instead
A. instead B. wasting C. and doing D. something
Question 20: Life that we know it is based on the element carbon
A. based on B. element C. it is D. that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or d on your answer sheet to indicate the
For more than six million American children, coming home after school means coming back to an
empty house.Some deal with the situation by watching TV. Some may hide. But all of them have
something in common. They spend part of each day alone. They are called “latchkey children”. They are
children who look after themselves while their parents work. And their bad condition has become a
subject of concern.
Lynette Long was one principal of an elementary school. She said, “We had a school rule against
wearing jewelry. A lot of kids had chains around their necks with keys attached. I was constantly telling
them to put the keys inside shirts. There were so many keys, it never came to my mind what they meant.
Slowly, she learned that they were house keys.
She and her husband began talking to the children who had keys. They learned of the effect
working couples and single parents were having on their children. Fear was the biggest problem faced by
children at home alone. One in three latchkey children the Longs talked to reported being frightened.
Many had nightmares and were worried about their own safety.
The most common way latchkey children deal with their fears is by hiding. They made hide in a
shower stall, under a bed or in a closet. The second is TV. They often turn the volume up. It’s hard to get
statistics on latchkey children, the Longs have learned. Most parents are slow to admit that they leave
their children alone.
A. Kids without parents B. Children’s activities
C. Lonely children D. Latchkey children
Question 22: The phrase “an empty house” in the passage mostly means ___________
A. a house with no furniture B. a house with nothing inside
C. a house with no people inside D. a house with too much space
Question 23: One thing that the children in the passage share is that ___________
A. they spend part of each day alone B. they are from single-parent families
C. they all wear jewelry D. they all watch TV
Question 24: “Latchkey children” in the passage means children who ___________
A. look after themselves while their parents are not at home
B. close doors with keys and watch TV by themselves
C. like to carry latches and keys with them everywhere
D. are locked inside houses with latches and keys
Question 25: Lynette Long learned of latchkey children’s problems by _________
A. delivering questionnaires B. visiting their homes
C. interviewing their parents D. talking to them
Question 26: Why did a lot of kids have chains around their necks with keys attached?
A. They would use the keys to enter their houses when they came home
B. They had to use the keys to open school doors
C. Schools didn’t allow them to wear jewelry, so they wore keys instead
D. They were fully grown and had become independent
Question 27: The main problem of latchkey children is that they _________
A. watch too much television during the day B. are also found middle-class families
C. suffer a lot from fear D. are growing in numbers
Question 28: What is the most common way for latchkey children to deal with fears?
A. Hiding somewhere B. Lying under a TV
C. Having a shower D. Talking to the Longs
Question 29: It’s difficult to find out the number of latchkey children because __________
A. most parents are reluctant to admit that they leave their children alone
B. they hide themselves in shower stalls or under beds
C. they do not give information about themselves for safety reasons
D. there are too many of them in the whole country
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlines part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 30: A. attitude B. nature C. ancient D. capable
Question 31: A. worships B. expands C. maintains D. believes
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered banks from 32 to 36.
School exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of tests we take. They find out (32) _____
much knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, isn’t it a fact
that some people who are very successful academically don’t have any common sense?
Intelligence is the speed at which we can understand and react to new situations and it is usually
tested by logic puzzles. (33) _____ scientists are now preparing advanced computer technology that will
be able to “read” our brains, for the present, tests are still the most popular ways of measuring
intelligence.
A person’s IQ is their intelligence (34) _____is measured by a special test. The most common IQ
tests are run by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By 1976 it had 1,300
members in Britain. Today there are 44,000 Britain and 100,000 worldwide, (35) _____ in the US.
People talking the tests are judged in relation to an average score of 100, and those (36) _____
score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at 2% of the population. Anyone from the age
of six can take the tests. All the questions are straightforward and most people can answer them if allowed
enough time. But that’s the problem – the whole point of the tests is that they’re against the clock.
Question 32: A. what B. how C. why D. which
Question 33: A. although B. because C. despite D. until
Question 34: A. how B. as C. so D. that
Question 35: A. enormously B. considerably C. highly D. mainly
Question 36: A. whom B. which C. that D. who
following questions
Question 37: Old people are often looked _____ by their children when they got older.
A. for B. up C. after D. into
Question 38: She didn’t get _____ very well with the roommate.
A. off B. on C. in D. through
Question 39: Kate asked Janet where _____ the previous Sunday.
A. has she been B. she had been C. had she been D. she has been
Question 40: The charity aims to _____ food and shelter for underprivileged in the remote areas of the
country
A. present B. assist C. provide D. offer
Question 41: Her mother is _____ nurse. She works at a large hospital
A. as B. a C. an D. the
Question 42: The woman sitting next to me on the plane was very nervous. She _____ before.
A. hasn’t flown B. hadn’t flown C. wasn’t trying D. didn’t try
Question 43: We need to promote a lifestyle that is _____ to the environment.
A. friendly B. friend C. friendship D. friendliness
Question 44: At school, children learn a lot of _____ such as maths, biology, history, geography and
English.
A. subjects B. topics C. lessons D. objects
Question 45: The child that we caught _____ was made to stand in the corner of the classroom.
A. misbehavior B. misbehave C. behaving D. misbehaving
Question 46: I can’t concentrate _____ my work, because of all the noise the builders are making.
A. to B. on C. in D. at
Question 47: Widespread forest destruction _____ in this particular area.
A. could have been B. must have seen C. ought to see D. can be seen
Question 48: Your last job was a tourist guide, _____ it?
A. isn't B. doesn't C. didn't D. wasn't
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that best combines each
Question 49: She wrote the text. She selected the illustration as well.
A. If she had written the text, she would have selected the illustration
B. In order to select the illustration, she had to write the text
C. She not only wrote the text but also selected the illustration
D. The text she wrote was not as good as illustration she selected
Question 50: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice
B. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice
C. Ingenious as may be the plan, it will never work in practice
D. The plan is as impractical as it ingenious
Đáp án
Đề thi thử THPT QG môn Anh trường THPT Chuyên Lê Quý Đôn - Quảng Trị - lần 1 -
năm 2017
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. weighed B. toughed C. laughed D. coughed
Question 2: A. choir B. soil C. noise D. choice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. canal B. limit C. mammal D. elbow
Question 4: A. informal B. supportive C. personnel D. apparent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: In studies (B) conducted on gazing behaviour, it (C) has been founded that
listeners gaze at speakers (D) more than speakers gaze at listeners.
A. In studies B. conducted on C. has been founded D. more than
Question 6: Kelly reacts (A) like (B) a true professional and (C) keeps smiling as if her
music is the only thing that matters (D) with her.
A. like B. a true professional C. keeps smiling D. with
Question 7: The village has 60 (A) historic buildings, (B) many of them were carefully (C)
transported from various locations to (D) help recreate the seaport as it used to be.
A. historic B. many of them C. transported from D. help recreate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
Question 8: Therapists are currently using mental imagery in the hope that
in the treatment of cancer.
A. it could use helpfully B. its proof to help
C. it might prove helpful D. its help to aid
Question 9: What you say is true, but you could have it more tactfully.
A. phrased B. talked C. observed D. remarked
Question 10: Researchers have discovered 2,000 types of new plants but also say
are at risk.
A. many B. much C. the other D. variety
Question 11: With only two days of____________negotiating time left, hope of progress was
quickly evaporating at the climate talks.
A. official B. office C. officially D. officious
Question 12: Generic medications are just as ______________, and much less expensive.
A. effective as brand-name products B. brand-name products effective
C. brand-name products as effective D. effectively brand-name products
Question 13: The report says that over five years up to 2013, the _____________of wild
bees fell across almost a quarter of the US as land was converted to grow corn for ethanol.
A. crowd B. diverse C. amount D. abundance
Question 14: The production of different kinds of artificial materials ____________ essential
to the conservation of our natural resources.
A. is B. have been C. are D. were
Question 15: For people to be able to survive in groups, individuals had to cooperate with
each other, rather than _________________.
A. act alone B. alone act C. act lonely D. lonely act
Question 16: I_____________dinner. Just as it was ready, Chris and Jane phoned to say that
they couldn’t come.
A. needn’t cook B. didn’t need to cook
C. needn’t have cooked D. didn’t need cooking
Question 17: I think you need to ______________your ideas more clearly so that the reader
doesn’t get confused.
A. dawn on B. set out C. get on with D. give in
Question 18: Susie and Fran _____________us last night, so I had to quickly defrost a pizza.
A. turned up B. dropped in on C. came across D. went through
Question 19: Elephants ____________ the ecosystems they live in, and make it possible for
a lot of other species to survive in those environments as well.
A. obtain B. remain C. maintain D. attain
Question 20: - Diana: “Do you like the advanced training course you are taking, Anne?” -
Anne: “ ______________”
A. No, thanks. B. No, not everyone.
C. By and large, yes. D. Not me, I’m still waiting.
Question 21: - “Hello. Could I speak to the manager, please?” – “___________________”
A. No, you can’t. B. Hello. But could you?
C. Yes, speaking. D. I’m answering you now.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: This special offer is exclusive to readers of this magazine.
A. presentable B. rewarding C. attractive D. limited
Question 23: The International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List is a
comprehensive catalogue of the conservation status of species.
A. complete B. rational C. understandable D. valuable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
Question 24: We have to take on extra staff to deal with the increased workload.
A. approach B. employ C. dismiss D. meet
Question 25: The president’s compassion for the refugees caused him to admit a very large
number of them.
A. hostility B. sympathy C. friendship D. respect
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
Question 26: We were late for the show by the time we had found a taxi.
A. The taxi was late, so we missed the start of the show.
B. We found a taxi in order not to be late for the show.
C. We eventually found a taxi to go to the show, which had already begun.
D. It took a long time to find a taxi but the show began later then expected.
Question 27: “ You should take more care of your health or you may regret it,” the doctor
said to her.
A. She might regret taking more care of her health, which was the doctor’s advice to her.
B. The doctor advised her to take more care of her health or she might regret it.
C. The doctor recommened her taking more care of her health so that she wouldn’t regret it.
D. It will be a good idea if she takes more care of her health, otherwise she might regret it.
Question 28: Now people believe that lifelong learning is the key to success. Today’s labour
market is competitive and demanding.
A. Competitive and demanding people believe that lifelong learning is the key to success in
today’s labour market.
B. Lifelong learning is believed to be the key to success in today’s competitive and
demanding labour market.
C. Today’s labour market is competitive and demanding because people believe that lifelong
learning is the key to success.
D. Believing that lifelong learning is the key to success, people now live in a competitive and
demanding labour market.
Question 29: He has been giving most of his money to charity. He hopes to ease the pain and
suffering of the disadvantaged.
A. Giving most of his money to charity, he hopes to ease the pain and suffering of the
disadvantaged.
B. Easing the pain and suffering of the disadvantaged made him give most of his money to
charity.
C. He has been giving most of his money to the disadvantaged to ease their pain and
suffering.
D. Hoping to ease the pain and suffering of the disadvantaged, he has given them most of his
money.
Question 30: You ask such a question because you didn’t pay enough attention.
A. Had it not been for your attention, you wouldn’t ask such a question.
B. Had it not been for your inattention, you wouldn’t ask such a question.
C. Had you paid enough attention, you wouldn’t have asked such a question.
D. Had you not paid enough attention, you wouldn’t ask such a question.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35.
A TECH TEEN
Randomkid.org is a website that gives children advice on how to raise funds for charity. This
site was the (31) __________of Talia Leman. Talia had been deeply affected by televised
scenes of the destructions caused by Hurricane Katrina when it (32) __________New
Orleans. Talia, who was 10 years old at the time, decided she had to do something to help.
Her mother offered to give her (33) __________in setting up a website intended to raised
money for victims of the disaster. The response (34) __________the site was incredible and
after one year, over $10 million had been donated. Talia’s success made her realise she could
use the site to help other children raise money for similar worthy (35) __________or
charities. She does not brag about her achievements, but she believes that children shouldn’t
be afraid to take on ambitious projects.
Question 31: A. brainchild B. brainstorm C. offspring D. inspiration
Question 32: A. knocked B. struck C. fought D. stroked
Question 33: A. a hand B. a head C. a leg D. an arm
Question 34: A. of B. for C. to D. with
Question 35: A. causes B. reasons C. courses D. actions
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Today, roller skating is easy and fun. But a long time ago, it wasn't easy at all. Before 1750,
the idea of skating didn’t exist. That changed because of a man named Joseph Merlin.
Merlin’s work was making musical instruments. In his spare time he liked to play the violin.
Joseph Merlin was a man of ideas and dreams. People called him a dreamer.
One day Merlin received an invitation to attend a fancy dress ball. He was very pleased and a
little excited. As the day of the party came near, Merlin began to think how to make a grand
entrance at the party. He had an idea. He thought he would get a lot of attention if he could
skate into the room.
Merlin tried different ways to make himself roll. Finally, he decided to put two wheels under
each shoe. These were the first roller skates. Merlin was very proud of his invention as he
dreamed of arriving at the party on wheels while playing the violin.
On the night of the party Merlin rolled into the room playing his violin. Everyone was
astonished to see him. There was just one problem. Merlin had no way to stop his roller
skates. He rolled on and on. Suddenly, he ran into a huge mirror that was hanging on the wall.
Down fell the mirror, breaking to pieces. Nobody forgot Merlin’s grand entrance for a long
time!
Question 36: The text is mainly about __________.
A. a strange man
B. an unusual party
C. how people enjoyed themselves in the 18th century
D. how roller skating began
Question 37: The word “astonished” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by__________.
A. amazed B. tired C. polite D. embarrassed
Question 38: Merlin put wheels under his shoes in order to __________
A. arrive at the party sooner B. show his skill in walking on wheels
C. test his invention D. impress the party guests
Question 39: The word “ball” in paragraph 2 probably means .
A. party B. round object C. match D. game
Question 40: People thought Merlin was a dreamer because he__________.
A. was a gifted musician B. often gave others surprises
C. invented the roller skates D. was full of imagination
Question 41: What is the main point the writer is trying to make in the last paragraph?
A. Merlin got himself into trouble.
B. Merlin succeeded beyond expectation.
C. The roller skates needed further improvement.
D. The party guests took Merlin for a fool.
Question 42: The word “These” in paragraph 3 refers to__________.
A. wheels B. shoes C. roller skates D. different ways
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Technology has utterly transformed our ability to communicate with each other. Linking to
each other both literally and figuratively, many of us connect through cell phones, email,
instant messaging, blogs, and networking web sites, yet we may be less connected to each
other than we think.
According to a study, Americans are becoming increasingly socially isolated. The study
reveals, for example, that one quarter of Americans say that they have no one to discuss
important personal issues with, and that the number of close friends that American have has
dropped from three to two. Meanwhile, the Boston Globe reports that this spreading isolation
is experienced more sharply among those with less education, people of color, and older
Americans. Unsurprisingly, those who are young, white, and well educated tend to have
stronger social networks.
From my own experience I have to say that I’ve never felt more connected, thanks to a web
of friends, family, and colleagues. One of my closest friends is someone I met through an
online discussion group who lives hundreds of miles away from me. We have met
face-to-face only twice, yet our regular electronic correspondence and cell phone calls
sustain our close friendship. And, speaking of blogging, my blog has introduced me to
people I would never have met otherwise and has led to enduring and important friendships.
On the other hand, I recently saw a scene unfold that proved to me how deeply
disconnected we as Americans have become. I had just wrapped up a presentation on
mediation at a family therapy center. As I was leaving, I noticed a mother and her teenage son
who had just completed their session with their family therapist. After making their next
appointment, they both took out their cell phones, placed calls, and began loud conversations
with whoever was on the other end. I walked out behind them to the parking lot to my car.
They both jumped into their SUV, and, as I saw them drive off, they were still talking on their
cell phones. But, alas, not to each other.
Question 43: Which of the following has nothing to do with the isolation among Americans?
A. Skin color B. Gender C. Education D. Age
Question 44: What can be said about the mother and son in the passage?
A. There was not much communication between them.
B. They came for therapy in the same car.
C. They were quite close to each other.
D. They preferred talking to each other on cell phones.
Question 45: The writer uses the phrase “On the other hand” in the last paragraph to .
A. show something similar B. give a different opinion
C. introduce a new idea D. prove that something is wrong
Question 46: The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. networks B. networks C. general people D. close friends
Question 47: What does the passage lead you to believe?
A. Technology plays a bigger role in American society.
B. Americans are more socially isolated today.
C. Americans don’t make good use of technology.
D. Americans are more socially connected today.
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Modern people link to each other through telecommunications.
B. Americans seem to have fewer and fewer close friends.
C. The writer has never met some of his important friends.
D. Users of SUV enjoy talking to each other on the cell phones.
Question 49: The word “sustain” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. make something continue to exist B. let someone suffer a lot
C. making something remain secure D. support someone emotionally
Question 50: The writer himself __________ .
A. has a wide range of friends because of technology
B. has a wide range of friends because of technology
C. can only find true friendship through the Internet
D. can’t make true friends in actual life
Đề thi thử THPT QG môn Anh sở GD&ĐT Vĩnh Phúc - lần 2 - năm 2017 ( có lời giải
chi tiết)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. allow B. tomorrow C. slowly D. below
Question 2: A. included B. wanted C. noticed D. decided
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. society B. elaborate C. incredible D. dedicate
Question 4: A. require B. digest C. reserve D. swallow
Question 5: Unlike the old one, this new copier can perform their functions in half the time
A. Unlike B. can perform C. their functions D. in half the time
Question 6: Science, with its invention and discoveries have revolutionized man’s life.
A. Science, with B. have C. revolutionized D. man’s life.
Question 7: Building thousands of years ago, the ancient palace is popular with modern
tourists.
A. Building B. ago C. the ancient D. popular with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of
Question 8: Population explosion seems to surpass the ability of the earth to ______ the
demand for food.
A. make B. need C. have D. meet
Question 9: ______ in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in
10 years.
A. That the number of tigers B. The number of tigers
C. For a number of tigers D. A number of tigers
Question 10: This is the third time James ______ the volunteer program to the village.
A. has joined B. has been joining C. joined D. joins
Question 11: George won five medals at the competition. His parents ______ very proud of
him.
A. shouldn’t have been B. must have been C. could have been D. mightn’t have been
Question 12: ______, he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. If he studied more B. Studying more
C. If he were studying more D. Had he studied more
Question 13: My parents will have celebrated 30 years of ______ by next week.
A. marry B. married C. marriageable D. marriage
Question 14: Poor management drove my father’s company to______ of collapse.
A. the foot B. the rim C. the brink D. the ring
Question 15: The weather is ______ nice that the children want to stay outside all day.
A. very B. too C. so D. enough
Question 16: The singer was ______ on the piano by her sister.
A. discarded B. accompanied C. performed D. played
Question 17: I am sorry I have no time at present to______ detail of our plan.
A. bring in B. take into C. go into D. come in
Question 18: He did not share his secrets with other people, but he ______ in her.
A. confessed B. concealed C. confided D. consented
Question 19: We bought some______ glasses.
A. German lovely old B. old lovely German C. lovely old German D. German old lovely
Question 20: - Long: “Do you fancy going to the movie this evening?” - Hoa: “______”
A. Not so bad. And you? B. I'm sorry. I don't know that.
C. Not at all. Go ahead! D. That would be nice!
Question 21: - Peter: “Why don’t you have some chicken soup first?” - John: “______”
A. Of course not. B. It’s so cold.
C. Not for me, thank you. D. I am full.
Question 22: The air is naturally contaminated by foreign matter such as plant pollens and
dust.
A. filled B. concentrated C. polluted D. occupied
Question 23: Shake a leg or you will miss the train.
A. Hurry up B. Slow down C. Watch out D. Put down
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
Question 24: People sometimes choose partners who compensate for their own
shortcomings.
A. strengths B. disadvantages C. weaknesses D. benefits
Question 25: You should pat yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in
the graduation exam.
A. praise yourself B. criticize yourself C. check up your back D. wear a backpack
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
Question 26: People know that English is an international language.
A. English is known to be an international language.
B. It is known English an international language.
C. It is known that English to be an international language.
D. English known is an international language.
Question 27: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her again.
B. I have not seen her for three years.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
Question 28: The coffee was not strong, so it didn’t keep us awake.
A. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake.
B. The coffee was very strong, but it couldn’t keep us awake.
C. We are kept awake because the coffee was strong.
D. The coffee was so hot that it didn’t keep us awake.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: The boy is called Duncan. He sits next to me in class.
A. The boy whose is called Duncan sits next to me in class.
B. The boy who sits next to me in class is called Duncan.
C. The boy whom sits next to me in class is called Duncan.
D. The boy to whom he sits next is called Duncan.
Question 30: Mike wrote the text. He selected the illustration as well.
A. If Mike had written the text, he would have selected the illustration.
B. In order to select the illustration, Mike had to write the text.
C. Mike not only wrote the text but also selected the illustration.
D. The text Mike wrote was not as good as the illustration he selected.
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to
35.
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at
college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and
Wildlife Service, (31) ________ she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, “Under the Sea Wind”, was published in 1941. It received
excellent reviews. In that year she also published “The Sea around us”, which (32) ________
a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface. Her imagery and language had a (33)
________ quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous
correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field.
In 1962, Carson published “Silent Spring”, a book that sparked considerable
controversy. It proved how much (34) ________ was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use
of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish,
and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted
personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were
faulty. (35) ________, her work was proved by a 1963 report of the President’s Science
Advisory Committee.
(Source: TOEFL Reading)
Question 31: A. where B. that C. whom D. which
Question 32: A. provided B. made C. produced D. put
Question 33: A. poetic B. poetry C. poet D. poem
Question 34: A. good B. harm C. wrong D. right
Question 35: A. however B. moreover C. although D. therefore
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
The period from the late 1930s to the middle 1940s is known as the Golden Age of comic
books. The modern comic book came about in the early 1930s in the United States as a
giveaway premium to promote the sales of a whole range of household products such as
cereal and cleansers. The comic books, which were printed in bright colors to attract the
attention of potential customers, proved so popular that some publishers decided to produce
comic books that would come out on a monthly basis and would sell for a dime each. Though
comic strips had been reproduced in publications prior to this time, the Famous Funnies
comic book, which was started in 1934, marked the first occasion that a serialized book of
comics was attempted.
Early comic books reprinted already existing comic strips and comics based on known
characters; however, publishers soon began introducing original characters developed
specially for comic books. Superman was introduced in Action Comics in 1938, and Batman
was introduced a year later. The tremendous success of these superhero comic books led to
the development of numerous comic books on a variety of topics, though superhero comic
books predominated. Astonishingly, by 1945 approximately 160 different comic books were
being published in the United States each month, and 90 percent of U.S children were said to
read comic books on a regular basis.
(Source: Preparation Course for the Toefl Test)
Question 36: What is the main focus of this passage?
A. The history of comic books B. How to produce comic books
C. Batman D. Superhero comics.
Question 37: The word “premium” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. introduction B. preparation C. publication D. importance
Question 38: The word “potential” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. continuing B. developing C. able D. possible
Question 39: The word “which” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. comic trips B. the Famous Funnies
C. serialized book of comics D. publications
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, Batman was introduced in ______.
A. 1938 B. 1939 C. 1940 D. 1940
Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. The modern comic book came about in the early 1930s in the United States.
B. The comic books were printed in bright colors.
C. Superman was introduced in Action Comics in 1938.
D. The Famous Funnies comic book was the first comic strips.
Question 42: Which of the following was published after Action Comics?
A. the Famous Funnies B. Superman C. Superhero D. Batman
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Life on Earth is in the throes of a new wave of mass extinction, unlike anything since the
demise of the dinosaurs. In the last 500 years, 844 species are known to have died out, and
up to 16,000 others are now known to be threatened. Conservationists argue that humans
have an ethical obligation to protect other species. Diversity and natural beauty are highly
prized by mankind, and that biodiversity is a vital resource: we rely on ecosystems to provide
food, oxygen and natural resources, recycle waste and fertilize soil for agriculture. The total
value of services provided to man by nature has been estimated at $33 trillion annually. Plants
and animals are also an essential source of new foods and medicines worldwide. Preserving
species could help protect us from disease.
Natural disasters and processes were behind the five major mass extinctions in geological
history, but the current “sixth extinction” is being caused by the success of one species-
humans. The six billion (and counting) people crowding the Earth, are driving out
biodiversity in a variety of ways. Humans began to destroy ecosystems a major way about
10,000 years ago with the development of agriculture.
But within the last 100,000 years, the hunting and burning practices of people, along with
climate change, drove many large mammals to extinction. However, the most common reason
for extinction is habitat loss. Ecosystems from wetlands to prairies and rain forests to coral
reefs are being cleared or degraded for crops, cattle, roads and development. Even
fragmenting habitats with roads or dams can make them more vulnerable.
(Source: Succeed in Cambridge CAE 10 Practice Tests)
Question 43: What is the main focus of this passage?
A. Our endangered wildlife B. Life on Earth
C. Biodiversity D. Ecosystem
Question 44: The word “died out” in paragrpah 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. destroyed B. used up C. been extinct D. polluted
Question 45: The word “Preserving” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. Destroying B. Conserving C. Continuing D. Keeping
Question 46: According to the passage, the “sixth extinction” is being caused by ______.
A. roads and dams B. climate change C. development D. human beings
Question 47: According to the reading passage, what is the main reason for extinction?
A. burning B. climate change C. habitat loss D. hunting
Question 48: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. habitats B. rainforests C. roads or dams D. mammals
Question 49: The following are true EXCEPT ______.
A. Within the last 100,000 years, the hunting and burning practices of people, along with
climate change, drove many large mammals to extinction
B. In the last 500 years, 844 species are known to have died out
C. In the last 500 years, up to 16,000 species are now known to be threatened
D. Humans began to destroy ecosystems a major way about 100,000 years ago with the
development of agriculture
Question 50: Why do plants and animals play an essential part in our life?
A. Because they provide us dinosaurs.
B. Because they provide us food and medicine.
C. Because they are threatened.
D. Because they are natural beauty.
Đề thi thử Ngoại Thương
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 1: A. Empty B. Deny C. Sleepy D. Hurry
Question 2: A. Scholar B. Character C. Charity D. Chemist
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. History B. Musician C. Computer D. Conclusion
Question 4: A. Career B. Agree C. Coffee D. Fourteen
Question 5: Some underground water is enough safe to drink, but all surface water must be
treated.
A. some B. enough safe C. but D. treated
Question 6: Stars in our universe vary in temperature, color, bright, size, and mass.
A. stars B. vary C. bright D. mass
Question 7: Neither Russia nor the United States have been able to discover a mutually
satisfactory plan for gradual disarmament.
A. nor B. have been able C. a mutually D. satisfactory plan
Question 8: Parsley is cultivated throughout much of the world.
A. seen B. cooked C. grown D. bought
Question 9: While some bacteria are beneficial, others are harmful in that they cause disease.
A. detrimental B. curative C. demanding D. dominant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 10: He was killed in a tragic accident at the age of 24.
A. boring B. comic C. unhappy D. mysterious
Question 11: He decided to make Hanoi his permanent home.
A. intermittent B. solitary C. frivolous D. temporary
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
Question 12: The planet Mercury _________round the Sun every eighty-eight days.
A. has travelled B. is travelling C. travelled D. travels
Question 13: There is _________horror movie on _________TV tonight.
A. a/the B. the/0 C. a/0 D. 0/0
Question 14: _______you start, _________you will finish.
A. The soon/the more quickly B. The sooner/the quicker
C. The sooner/the quickly D. The sooner/the more quickly
Question 15: We arrived __________Ho Chi Minh City _______9 p.m. ________a hot
summer day.
A. in/at/on B. at/in/in C. at/in/in D. on/of/on
Question 16: There is too ________bad news on TV tonight.
A. many B. much C. a few D. a little
Question 17: You should seriously consider ________a dancer. You are such a great
performer
A. becoming B. to become C. become D. will become
Question 18: The doctor recommended that the patient ________as soon as possible.
A. is operated B. operated C. would be operated D. be operated
Question 19: Not until now __________ popularly recognized that man is destroying the
environment.
A. has it become B. does it become C. it has become D. it becomes
Question 20: If I were you, I would take more ________in my work.
A. confidence B. pride C. dedication D. solution
Question 21: Her mother told her not to be too ________and advised her to try to do things
herself.
A. independent B. dependence C. depending D. dependent
Question 22: Jack has two elder brothers, __________are famous actors.
A. both of which B. both of who C. both of whom D. both of them
Question 23: Susan was alone in the house when the fire __________.
A. broke out B. broke down C. broke up D. broke away.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Lisa and Rachel are talking on the phone.
- Lisa: “Would you like to go to the cinema with me tonight?”
- Rachel: “ ________.”
A. Yes, I’d love to B. Yes, please C. No, thanks D. Sorry
Question 25: Henry is talking to his mother.
- Henry: “I’ve passed my driving test.”
- His mother: “___________.”
A. All right. B. That’s too bad C. That’s a good idea D. Congratulation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: He must have cancelled his e-mail account, as I can’t get hold of him.
A. I must have got his e-mail address wrong, because he’s not giving me any reply.
B. If no one is able to get in contact with him, he ought to get an e-mail account for himself.
C. Since I’m unable to get in contact with him, it seems certain that he’s closed his e-mail
account.
D. He may have closed his e-mail account, but I won’t know for sure until I get in touch with
him.
Question 27: Only customers with coupons may use the service.
A. The service is available for coupons only.
B. The service is restricted to customers in possession of coupons.
C. Only rich customers can use the service with coupons.
D. Only customers with coupons are service here.
Question 28: “You must do what you are told,” said the woman.
A. The woman said that I had to do what I was told.
B. The woman said that I must do what I was told.
C. The woman said I should have done what I was told.
D. The woman said I should do what I was told.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: The burglar might come back. You’d better change all the locks.
A. You’d better change all the locks or the burglar will come back.
B. You’d better change all the locks in case the burglar comes back.
C. If you don’t change all the locks, the burglar could come back.
D. The burglar will come back unless you change all the locks.
Question 30: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.
A. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot.
B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.
C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.
D. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31
to 35.
ON YOUR BIKE!
If you are getting (1)______ up wasting time looking for parking spaces, my advice to
you is to consider the bicycle as an alternate means of transport. Cycling is probably the
cheapest and healthiest way of getting (2)________ in our congested city centers. Although it
is convenient and environmentally desirable, it can be unattractive choice on a cold windy
morning. It is much easier to get onto a nice warm bus or jump into your car, but the sight of
cyclists as they weave their way in and out of the traffic may fill you with (3)_________ as
you sit waiting in yet another traffic jam. In spite of the fact that worsening pollution is
getting many people (4)___________ , causing more and more health problems, and while it
is fashionable to express one’s approval of the environmentally safe bicycle, it is hard to deny
the danger cyclists face in sharing the road with cars. Although cycling is not as risky as it
looks at first (5)__________ , there are more and more accidents involving cyclists
Question 31: A. fed B. tired C. irritated D. angry
Question 32: A. over B. through C. about D. on
Question 33: A. approval B. envy C. angry D.
Question 34: A. round B. over C. down D. together
Question 35: A. look B. point C. view D. sight
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Despite the fact that too much fat can be harmful, a moderate fat intake is actually
essential to the maintenance of good health. Some of the symptoms of fat deficiency include
flaking skin, emaciation, reduced functioning of the immune system, and fertility problems.
Recent studies have linked fat-free diets to increased stress and aggression, and note that
those who try to eliminate fat completely from their food intake may be at risk for developing
eating disorders: a small amount of fat in a meal will produce a feeling of satiety which lasts
much longer than the sensation of fullness produced by protein or carbohydrates. At least two
teaspoons of fat per day is needed in order for the digestive system to absorb vitamins A, D,
E and K, which are fat soluble. These vitamins are essential for healthy hair, skin, teeth, and
eyes. Without the ability to absorb these vitamins, children run the risk of developmental and
neurological disorders. Adults need these vitamins to manufacture fertility hormones.
Some types of fat actually help to reduce harmful cholesterol levels. Polyunsaturated
fats such as corn, soybean, and sesame oil, and monounsaturated fats like chicken fat and
olive oil, seem to lower blood cholesterol, while saturated fats – those found in red meat,
dairy products, and tropical oils – seem to raise the level of the kind of cholesterol that
accumulates as plaques on arterial walls. Paying attention to the type of fat consumed is just
as important as reducing total fat intake.
Question 36: What did the paragraph preceding this passage most likely discuss?
A. general health guidelines
B. methods of reducing one's percentage of dietary fat
C. moderate fat intake
D. health problems linked to fat consumption
Question 37: What is the author's main purpose in the passage?
A. To discuss some positive aspects of dietary fat.
B. To compare three kinds of cholesterol.
C. To prove that a low fat diet is inherently harmful.
D. To analyze recent studies linking fat intake to disease.
Question 38: All of the following are mentioned as signs of fat deficiency EXCEPT_______
A. flaky skin B. fertility problems C. a feeling of satiety D. reduced immunity
Question 39: According to this passage, the most harmful type of fat would be found
in________ .
A. ish and vegetables B. fried chicken in soybean oil
C. corn oil and olive oil D. steak and cheese
Question 40: The word “note” in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. suggest B. hope C. notice D. prove
Question 41: The word “those” in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. studies B. diets C. people D. scientists
Question 42: The word “accumulates” in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. builds up B. serves C. creates D. takes over
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Seeing adults – and children – who simply refuse to be unglued from their cellphones, no
matter where they happen to be, is very common. Cellphone users often seem to forget that
others share the same planet, and the talkers can be completely insensitive to those around
them – to the noticeable annoyance of non-cellphone users.
Cellphones have saved lives, increased business opportunities, and kept friendships going,
but they have also been known to destroy the magic of the movies, make everyone at a
restaurant turn around and stare, and bring many a meeting to an abrupt halt. People have
even been known to carry their mobile phones to funerals!
Your cellphone is undoubtedly very important to you because it keeps you in touch with the
hundreds of urgent things you have to do every day. If you are a frequent cellphone user, you
will insist that these gadgets are, after all, supposed to be anywhere – anytime phones. Isn’t
that why we call them mobile?
It is true that cellphones would not be of much use if you could not use them anywhere and
anytime. And that is exactly why most cellphones come with a host of features you can use to
ensure that disturbance to others is kept to a minimum. Even the most basic cellphones have a
range of ring settings, with some sufficiently soft-toned not to annoy those around you. Some
phones vibrate or flash a light to alert you, and some let out quiet little beeps. The voice mail
option allows you to switch off and still no miss any calls or messages at all. So enjoy the
benefits that cellphones bring, and at the same time, show consideration for others.
Question 43: The author seems to think that taking cellphones to funeral ________.
A. is fine because funeral is private B. helps people to keep in touch
C. is sometimes essential D. shows a lack of respect
Question 44: The author mention movies and restaurants in paragraph 2 as examples of
places where______________ .
A. everyone uses cellphones B. cellphones can be annoying
C. people have time to talk on cellphones D. cellphones are not permitted
Question 45: According to this passage, people who do not use cellphones __________.
A. do not permit their children to use cellphones either
B. are sensitive to the needs of others
C. are not disturbed by others’ use of them
D. may be irritated by the noise created by cellphone users
Question 46: Which feature allows cellphone users to be considerate of other people’s
needs?
A. Soft ringing or a flashing light indicates incoming calls.
B. Calls can be received at any time.
C. The phone can be taken anywhere.
D. You can leave messages on other people’s cellphones.
Question 47: The author thinks cellphones should be________ .
A. used freely by children and adults
B. used as little as possible
C. available for use at all times, with certain restrictions
D. available for use at all times
Question 48: According to the passage, what is the main advantage of cellphones?
A. They have different ring settings.
B. You can leave messages on them.
C. They are widely used in business.
D. They can be used in many different places and at any time.
Question 49: Cellphones are beneficial because__________ .
A. they can be used while eating out
B. they can be used during meetings
C. people bring them everywhere.
D. they enable people to manage their busy schedules.
Question 50: What is the main point of this passage?
A. Cellphones are an essential part of modern life.
B. Cellphones can be adjusted to minimize disturbance to other people.
C. Cellphones have great advantages, but users should be considerate.
D. People should not use cellphones unless it is necessary.
Đề thi thử THPT QG môn Anh trường THPT Chuyên ĐH Vinh - lần 3 - năm 2017
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. resistance B. essential C. instant D. informant
Question 2: A. mineral B. miniature C. minor D. minimum
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges
Question 3: Lucy is going to do some shopping. Ann offers to help her. Ann: “ Would you
like me to get you a taxi?” Lucy: “ ___________________”
A. That would be delightful. Thanks. B. Well, let’s see.
C. Yes, I see. D. Yes, please if it’s no bother.
Question 4: Jeanne and Mike are talking about Bonnie. Jeanne: “_______ .”
Mike: “ Really? What did he say?”
A. Can you call Bonnie tomorrow?
B. I ran into Bonnie on the way to work.
C. Is Bonnie the one who won the lottery?
D. Bonnie just went to California for a holiday.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
Question 5: Sometimes it takes me about three hours finishing my round.
A. Sometimes B. me C. hours D. finishing
Question 6: The economy of Maine is based to a great extent in its forest, which over 80
percent of its surface area.
A. economy of B. to a C. in its D. percent of
Question 7: Little have people done to alleviate the sea pollution caused by the facories in
central Vietnam, haven’t they?
A. have people done B. caused C. in central D. haven’t they
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the question.
Shyness may not seem to be a serious complaint, but for some who suffer from it, it can
become unbearable. Even talking to a small group of people you know can seem like an
ordeal- it can feel as if you’ve been asked to give a speech on a topic you know very little
about to a number of experts. You start to feel hot and shaky, your heart beats faster, your
knees feel weak, you begin to stutter and the whole experience seems to last forever.
The fact of the matter is that shyness is something we often recognize in others: “blushing” is
one of the more visible signs, for example. Yet we don’t judge someone harshly because of
this. But shyness does mean that you are harder to approach, so you become more (14)
isolated. As one shy person put it, “It’s like being in a prison, and it’s very hard to break out.”
Experts on the subject have come up with various possible solutions, and one has been
singled out as being the key to success- namely, finding an interest in common with the other
people. Spending a lot of time on the sidelines watching other people and envying them
because they are much more outgoing doesn’t help; remembering that some of those people
you most envy are probably shy themselves, does. The secret is how you deal with it. And
experts have come up with four things you can do today to help. Firstly, you can start by
listening to other people. You will find yourself getting interested in what they’re talking
about and asking questions- and before you know it, you’ll be having a conversation.
Secondly, you could try asking neighbors if you can walk their dog. Like children, pets can
be excellent icebreakers for conversations with passers-by. Thirdly, try joining a class to learn
something like tap-dancing or flamenco, where people are likely to laugh a lot. You’ll feel
relaxed, and also you’ll be much too busy concentrating on what you are doing to feel shy.
Lastly, try telling yourself that it doesn’t matter if you say or do something silly. Most people
make a fool of themselves every so often- and it’s not the end of the world if you do!
Question 8: One of the symptoms of shyness in a stressful situation is____
A. pain in the knees B. an increased heart rate
C. sweating a lot D. excessive talkativeness
Question 9: Why do shy people become more reserved?
A. Other people lack the patience to talk to them.
B. They dread being judged by others
C. Their social unease makes them more difficult to talk to.
D. They see that others are shy too.
Question 10: The word “blushing” in paragraph 2 is closet meaning to _______
A. smiling B. going red C. going green D. sweating
Question 11: What do experts believe is the essential measure to be taken?
A. Discovering shared interests with others.
B. Comparing yourself to other people.
C. Studying others’ behavior in social situations.
D. Finding out what makes other people shy.
Question 12: How can listening to others prove helpful in combating shyness?
A. It’s the first step to getting into conversation.
B. People will see you care about their interest.
C. You develop useful psychological skills.
D. It’s a visible sign of becoming less shy.
Question 13: It’s suggested in the text that a shy person should_____
A. take up social hobby B. learn to laugh more
C. learn to relax D. help other people in the community
Question 14: Shy people should realize that everybody_________
A. says stupid things sometimes B. makes jokes sometimes
C. is self-conscious D. is foolish
Question 15: The major aim of the author of the text is to________
A. offer useful hints on how shy people can help themselves.
B. present recent findings about the nature of shyness.
C. give important advice on how to deal with shy people.
D. raise the reader’s interest in shyness as a social problem.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each of pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 16: The company director decided to raise the workers’ wages. He did not want
them to leave.
A. The company director decided to raise the workers’ wages in order not to want them to
leave.
B. The company director decided to raise the workers’ wages though he wanted them to leave.
C. The company director decided to raise the workers’ wages so that he did not want them to
leave.
D. The company director decided to raise the workers’ wages because he did not want them to
leave.
Question 17: Tuition fees were increased. There were many objections from students and
parents.
A. There were many objections from students and parents, so tuition fees were increased.
B. Tuition fees were increased because there were many objections from students and parents.
C. Tuition fees were increased despite the fact that there were many objections from students
and parents.
D. There were many objections from students and parents while so tuition fees were
increased.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
Question 18: We had better leave him a note because it is possible they will arrive late.
A. We had better leave him a note in case they may arrive late.
B. We had better leave him a note in case they will arrive late.
C. We had better leave him a note in case they are likely to arrive late.
D. We had better leave him a note in case they arrive late.
Question 19: “ It would be a good idea that we should try to get local support for new
motorway”, said Joe.
A. Joe suggested that they try to get local support for new motorway.
B. Joe claimed we should try to get local support for new motorway.
C. Joe suggested that they try getting local support for new motorway.
D. Joe wanted to know why they shouldn’t try getting local support for new motorway.
Question 20: The rate of inflation has fallen steadily during recent months.
A. There has been a steady decline of the rate of inflation during recent months.
B. There is a steady decline of the rate of inflation during recent months.
C. There is a steady decline of the rate in inflation during recent months.
D. There has been a steady decline in the rate of inflation during recent months.
Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blnaks.
A book has just been published to help parents to deal with their children's naughty behavior
at home. The author, Dr James Bruno, says that the first positive discipline technique is for
parents to remain (21)_____ because nervous parents don't get good results. Parents who
often (22)____ their temper find that their children stop taking any notice of them. When
parents yell at their children to make them (23)____ an order, children often act as if they did
not hear them,The second challenge is to know how to correct bad behavior in an effective
way. (24)_____ children by preventing them from watching their favorite TV program is not
an ideal solution. Nor is telling them off when their friends are present. Dr Bruno believes
parents should (25)____ clear rules for children to follow. If children refuse to follow these,
they know they will be disciplined
Question 21: A. quite B. calm C. still D. silent
Question 22: A. break B. leave C. forget D. lose
Question 23: A. hear B. comply C. obey D. accept
Question 24: A. Hurting B. Harming C. Punishing D. Damaging
Question 25: A. install B. design C. draw D. establish
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the question.
Picture a society where learning can happen at any time, in any place and can be completed
without ever going to class. This is could be new wave of education and the internet
technology now exists to support such a system. The virtual classroom is here. If you are
interested in English or Civil Engineering, then head to the University and click yourself a
degree. Well, maybe it’s not that easy, but you would be on the right track. The flexibility of
studying at your own pace, and the money you save with online courses, are two of the main
attractions.
The web is a powerful educational tool. Some feel that virtual classrooms will isolate
students from each other, which will result in problems developing interpersonal relationships
and that these skills are much more important than computer skills. Should teachers teach
kids how to behave in society, how to respect others and how to co-operate, or should kids
have already learned this from their parents? No one is saying that social skills aren’t
important, however, virtual classrooms are far more than just computer skills. Some strongly
believe that education can be taught via the web and social skills can be gained from joining
sports teams, summer camps, or just by hanging out! Others argue that this virtual classroom
may place pressure on students: to become computer literate or be left behind in life. Is this
undue pressure or reality? Maybe being left behind in life is a little dramatic, but the reality is
that the computer age is here. Whether you want to pay for your new jeans with your debit
card, or check to see if the library has the book you want, you’re going to need some
computer skills.
The development of flexible, inquiring minds has rarely been the main concern in the design
of educational systems. After all, if you have over thirty inquiring minds and only one
teacher, flexibility could be a problem. It seems that developing students’ proper social
behavior has always exceeded the concern to develop students’ creativity. Computer
technology can make individualized attention a real possibility. At the Institute for the
Learning Sciences, systems are being developed to allow people to try out things in simulated
worlds. This technology will allow for the individual creative growth in students.
The web will provide amazing opportunities for the education of our society. Anyone with a
computer and internet access can peruse effectively unlimited amounts of knowledge and
programs, designed to help them learn and understand. The teachers and parents involved
with these programs will be given the job of making sure that students lead well-balanced
lives that combine Web-education and positive social interaction with their friends and
neighbors. Imagine that your recreation room has now become your classroom, and your
parents seem to be doing as much homework as you are! So, be prepared as the virtual
classroom may find its way to a computer screen near you!
Question 26: What is the author’s overall attitude towards a virtual classroom?
A. He is enthusiastic B. He is indifferent C. He ‘s disapproving D. He is skeptical
Question 27: Why are people attracted to online education?
A. Because it is cheap and flexible B. Because it is unlimited and fast
C. Because it is fashionable and new D. Because it is powerful and easy
Question 28: What do the opponents of online education maintain?
A. Student’s academic performance will suffer
B. The virtual classroom will place a burden on students
C. Students cannot ignore the reality of the computer age
D. The virtual classroom will result in dramatic changes
Question 29: The word “computer literate” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to____?
A. computer based B. unable to use computer
C. computerized D. able to use computer
Question 30: What do the advocates of online education maintain?
A. It develops computer skills B. It increase student’s social skills
C. It will boost student’s creativity D. It complements education at home
Question 31: Why does the author mention “over thirty inquiring minds and only one
teacher” in paragraph 3?
A. To prove that teachers feel no special concern for developing student’s flexibility
B. To prove that individualized attention is hardly possible in a traditional classroom
C. To prove that inquiring minds have been the main concern of the education system
D. To prove that teachers overestimate that value of student’s social behavior
Question 32: What role are parents supposed to play in the web-based education of society?
A. They will have to control the virtual and real-life activities of their kids.
B. They will have to home assignments together with their kids
C. They will have to help their kids get access to the virtual classroom
D. They will have to balance social activities and learning of their kids
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
Question 33: The change in the upcoming high school communication requires a great deal
of and budget.
A. preparing B. prepared C. preparation D. prepare
Question 34: Only three of students in my class are girls, are all boys.
A. the other B. others C. other student D. the others
Question 35: The guests having checked in our hotel have the pleasant manner I have seen.
A. lessen B. little C. least D. less
Question 36: the water clear but also prevent the river from overflowing.
A. Not only keep the hippo’s habits B. Not only the hippo’s eating habits keep
C. The hippo’s eating habits not ony keep D. Keep not only the hippo’s eating habits
Question 37: The philosopher theories I am writing went insane before he died.
A. in which B. about whose C. with whom D. for whom
Question 38: Had you up before the journey, we wouldn’t have lost half an hour looking for
a petrol station in an unknown city.
A. remembered fill B. remembered to fill C. remembered filling D. remember filling
Question 39: Rebecca on our conversation to tell us that James had just been rushed into
hospital.
A. broke up B. got ahead C. faced up D. cut in
Question 40: Drivers must go to garages to periodically to_____.
A. get their cars to serviced B. their cars be serviced
C. get their cars serviced D. service their cars
Question 41: When you use the Internet, you have so much information at your_________.
A. fingers B. hands C. fingertips D. thumbs
Question 42: I can’t believe that you _______ all the three exercises! You just started five
minutes ago.
A. finished B. have been finishing C. are finishing D. have finished
Question 43: Is it a compulsion that the scheme ____ next Friday?
A. carry out B. will carry out C. carried out D. be carried out
Question 44: I saw him talking out something pointed in a ____ box.
A. yellow small plastic B. small yellow plastic
C. small plastic yellow D. plastic small yellow
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicated the word that differs from the
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. atmosphere B. computer C. variety D. exhausted
Question 2: A. campus B. mountain C. perform D. equal
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicated the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underline part in each of the following questions.
Question 47: We have to husband our resources to make sure we make it through these hard
times
A. spend B. manage C. use up D. marry
Question 48: His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as violinist. He has
won a lot prizes.
A. disadvantage B. barrier C. obstacle D. advantage
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in the following question.
Question 49: TV commercials that sell household products have often accused of
reinforcing stereotypes of social roles.
A. modifying B. strengthening C. contrasting D. exposing
Question 50: The new cowboy film catches the fancy of the children.
A. satisfies B. attracts C. amuses D. surprises

Đề thi thử THPTQG lần 1 trường THPT Đông Thụy Anh Thái Bình

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Đề thi thử THPTQG lần 1 trường THPT Đông Thụy Anh Thái Bình

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Đề thi thử THPTQG lần 1 trường THPT Đông Thụy Anh Thái Bình

Môn: Tiếng Anh

----------- HẾT ------------

Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to the given one

Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions

Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 31: A. that B. where C. in where D. which

Question 23: A. often B. fasten C. term D. castle

Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

the correct answer to each of the questions that follow.

You might also like