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Time : 3 hrs. VineetLoomba.com AITS - 5 Max. Marks: 360

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Topics covered in various subjects :

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Physics : Electrostatics and Current Electricity

Chemistry : Solid State, Solutions, Chemical Kinetics, Electrochemistry; Surface Chemistry

Mathematics :
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Determinants and Matrices, Vector Algebra, Three Dimensional Geometry, Mathematical
Reasoning, Statistics, Probability (XI & XII)
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Instructions:

(i) Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

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(ii) The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

(iii) There are three parts in the question paper. Distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for
each correct response.

Part A – PHYSICS (120 marks) – Questions No.1 to 30 consist FOUR (4) marks each for each correct
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response.

Part B – CHEMISTRY (120 marks) – Questions No.31 to 60 consist FOUR (4) marks each for each correct
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response.

Part C – MATHEMATICS (120 marks) – Questions No.61 to 90 consist FOUR (4) marks each for each
correct response.
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(iv) One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
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(v) Pattern of the Question: Section – I : Multiple Type Objective Questions (Straight Single Choice Multiple
Type Questions); Section – II: Assertion – Reason Type Questions; Section – III: Comprehension
Type Questions : (One Comprehension Type Question should have 3 questions - Multiple Concept Ques-
tions); Section – IV: Straight Objective Questions: (Straight Single Choice - Multiple Concept Questions
and/or Difficulty/Lengthy calculations & Application based questions)
Class (XII) 2

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Prepared By:
Er. Vineet Loomba (IIT Roorkee)
 Class (XII)
All India Test Series 3

PHYSICS
SECTION - I C
Straight Single Choice Multiple Type Questions /
Application Based Single Choice Questions A B
This section contains 16 multiple choice questions numbered
1 to 16. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct. D
(1) Capacitance across AB is greater than
Choose the correct answer : capacitance across CD
1. Parallel plates of capacitor are given, surface charge (2) Capacitance across AB is less than capacitance
densities  and –. Pressure on one plate due to across CD
other is
(3) Capacitance across AB is 1.5 C
2 2 5C
(1) 2 (2)  (4) Capacitance across CD is
0 0 6
  7. Figure shows two concentric thin spherical conducting
(3) 2 (4) 

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shells of radius r and 2 r. Each sphere is given
0 0
charge 4 q and A is earthed. Find net charge on A
2. Three charges q, 2q and –3q are kept on the corners
of an equilateral triangle such that distance of each
charge from centroid is r. Then

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2r r
(1) Charges are in stable equilibrium A B

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(2) Electric field at centre of triangle is zero
(3) Electric potential at the centre is zero
(4) Electrostatic potential energy of the system is (1) –2 q (2) –4 q
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positive
(3) 4 q (4) Zero
3. Electric field in a region is given by E  2 x i , where
2
8. If switch S is opened, then final charges appearing on
E is in V m–1 and x coordinate in metre. If electric capacitors 1 and 2 are
potential at origin is –200 V, then what is potential at S
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x = 3 m?
(1) –182 V (2) –218 V 1 2
(3) 182 V (4) 218 V 4 F 4 F
4. There are two metallic spheres of radius r1 and r2
having charges +q1 and +q2. If they are connected by 10 V
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a metal wire, then

(1) 40 C, 0 (2) 20 C, 20 C
(1) Charge flows from sphere 1 to 2
(3) 40 C, 40 C (4) 2.5 C, 2.5 C
(2) Potential of 1 is more than that of 2
9. If charge flowing through a section in time t is
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(3) Electric potential energy of the system will q = 4t3, then current flowing at time t
decrease
(1) 12 t2 (2) 4 t2
(4) Electric potential energy of the system remains
(3) t4 (4) 2 t3
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constant
5. There is a capacitor of capacitance C and charge on 10. In a conductor electric field is 100 Vm–1 and current
the two plates q and –q. If separation between the density is 25 × 105 Am –2. The resistivity of the
plates is doubled after removing battery, then conductor is
(1) 25 × 107 m (2) 25 × 103 m
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(1) Capacitance is doubled

(2) Charge on plates is doubled (3) 2.5 × 10–3 m (4) 4 × 10–5 m
(3) Electric field between the plates is doubled 11. Reading of ammeter and voltmeter is
(4) Electric potential difference between the plates is
doubled
6. Each capacitor is of capacitance C. Then

Prepared By:
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Class (XII)
All India Test Series
4
2V two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-
2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has four
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
A 1 V answer. You have to select the correct choice.
17. Statement-1 : If the potential difference across a
1 segment of wire is zero the current through it must be
(1) 0 A, 2 V (2) 0 A, 1 V zero.
and
(3) 2 A, 0 V (4) 1 A, 0 V
Statement-2 : Ohm's law is V = IR.
12. An ideal battery of zero internal resistance is able to
maintain a constant (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation f or
(1) Current (2) Resistance Statement-1
(3) Power (4) Potential difference (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
13. In the given current distribution the value of i is Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
4A (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
12 A (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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i
18. Consider the circuit shown in figure.
3A
15 A
R

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(1) 1 A (2) 2 A A R R B
(3) 3 A (4) 4 A
14. An ammeter of resistance 10  can read a maximum
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current of 50 mA. If it is to be used as voltmeter of
R
Statement-1 : The equivalent resistance of the
3R
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range 100 V. Then resistance to be connected in network between AB is .
series 5
and
(1) 2000  (2) 1000 
(3) 1990  (4) 990  Statement-2 : Potential diff erence across two
resistance is zero.
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15. A potentiometer is used for the comparison of emf of

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
two cells E1 and E2. For cell E1 null point is obtained
Statement-2 is a correct explanation f or
at distance 240 cm and for cell E2 null point is
Statement-1
obtained at distance 360 cm. Then the ratio of their
emf’s will be (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
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2 1 Statement-1
(1) (2)
3 3
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
1 1
(3) (4) (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
2 4
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16. The heater coil is cut in two equal parts of equal 19. Statement-1 : Work done in moving a charge on the
length and one of them is used in the heater for equipotential surface is zero.
same potential difference. The power dissipated will and
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become Statement-2 : Electric lines cuts the equipotential

1 surfaces perpendicularly.
(1) times
2 (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
1 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-
(2) times 1
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3
(3) 2 times (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(4) 3 times Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
SECTION - II (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Assertion – Reason Type Questions (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Directions : Questions number 17 to 21 are Assertion- 20. A parallel plate capacitor is first charged by a battery
Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains and then battery is disconnected.

Prepared By:
Er. Vineet Loomba (IIT Roorkee) Vineetloomba.com
 All India Test Series
Class (XII) 5
Statement-1 : If the separation between the plates
increases then its energy increases. Q 3Q
(1) 4 0 mr (2) 4 0 mr
and
Statement-2 : If the separation between the plates
increases then its capacitance decreases. 3Q 2Q
(3) (4)
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; 4 0 mr 30 mr
Statement-2 is a correct explanation f or
Statement-1 24. The displacement of centre of mass of A and B until
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; the separation between A and B becomes half of
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for initial value is
Statement-1
r r
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (1) towards leftt (2) towards right
4 4
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
21. Statement-1 : On increasing temperature resistance r
of metallic conductor increases. (3) towards leftt (4) Zero
3
and

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Statement-2 : On increasing temperature, relaxation SECTION - IV
time decreases. Straight Objective Questions
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Directions : Question No. 25 to 30 are based on the

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Statement-2 is a correct explanation f or following Multiple concept questions and/or difficulty/
Statement-1 lengthy calculations & application based questions.

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(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
25. A ring having charge per unit length  is located in
the horizontal plane. When a point charge Q 0 is
placed at the centre then the increase in tension in
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(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False the ring is
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

SECTION - III
Q0
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Comprehension Type Questions R

Directions : Question No. 22 to 24 are based on the

following paragraph.
Q0  Q0 
+Q –Q (1) 4 R 2 (2) 4 R
0 0
A B
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r Q0  Q0 
Two very small balls A and B having charge +Q and –Q (3) 2 R 2 (4) 2 R
0 0
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and masses 2m and m respectively are placed on a smooth

suface as shown in figure. Initially the charged particles are 26. At t = 0, the switch Sw is closed. The time constant
of the circuit is
separated by distance r. Now the particles are released in
order to move freely
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SW R C
22. The acceleration of centre of mass of balls, when the
E 2R
separation between the balls becomes half of initial R
value, is
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2RC
2KQ2 KQ2 (1) RC (2)
(1) (2) 3
rm mr
5RC 3RC
(3) (4)
3 5
KQ2
(3) (4) Zero 27. The electric current through resistance 3R shown in
2mr
figure is
23. Relative velocity of balls when the separation
between the balls becomes half of initial value, is

Prepared By:
Er. Vineet Loomba (IIT Roorkee) Vineetloomba.com
Class (XII)
All India Test Series 6
3R
2 1
6R
R 2
R
A B
R
E 1 2

4R (1) 1  (2) 10 
E E 10
(1) (2) (3) 4  (4) 
11R 9R 7
3E 4E 30. In the circuit shown in figure, the potentials of
(3) (4)
11R 11R different points have been marked. The potential of
28. In the circuit shown in the figure current I through the point O is
resistance R is 2V

R R R I

m
10 V 4
2R 2R R
E 2 O
1

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E E
(1) (2) 4V
2R 4R

(3)
E
8R
(4)
E
16R
29. The equivalent resistance of the network shown in
.c (1)
18
7
38
V (2)
28
7
48
V
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(3) V (4) V
figure about AB is 7 7
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All India Test Series

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Prepared By:
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Er. VineetLoomba
Loomba(IIT
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Roorkee) Vineetloomba.com
 Class (XII)
All India Test Series
7

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I (4) A positive or a negative fractional number
Straight Single Choice Multiple Type Questions / 36. When Zn converts from its molten state to its solid
Application Based Single Choice Questions state it has HCP structure, then fend out nearest
This section contains 16 multiple choice questions numbered neighbour of Zn atom
31 to 46. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (1) 6 (2) 8
Choose the correct answer : (3) 4 (4) 12
31. The unit cell of a binary alloy composed of A and B 37. A solution with negative deviation among the following
metals, has a ccp structure with A atom occupying
is
the corners and B atoms occupying centers of each
face of the cube. If during the crystallization of this (1) Ethanol + water
alloy in the unit cell two A atoms are missed, the
overall composition per unit cell is (2) Chlorobenzene + Bromobenzene

(1) AB6 (2) AB3 (3) Chloroform + Acetone

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(3) AB8 (4) A6B24 (4) Benzene + Toluene

32. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 6.909 38. What mass of urea needs to be dissolved in 100g of

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min–1. Therefore, the time required in minutes for the water in order to decrease the vapour pressure of water
participation of 75% of the initial reaction is by 25%?

(1)
2
3
log 2 (2)
2
3
log 4
.c (1) 111.1 g

(3) 89 g
(2) 52 g

(4) 152 g
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39. The activation energy for the reaction
3 3
(3) log 2 (4) log 4 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
2 2
is 209.5 kJ/mole at 581 K. The fraction of molecules
33. At 300 K two pure liquids A and B have vapour pressures of reactants having energy equal to or greater than
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respectively 150 mm Hg and 100 mm Hg. In an activation energy would be

equimolar liquid mixture of A and B, the mole fraction (1) 1.462 × 1024 (2) 1.462 × 10–19
of B in the vapour mixture at this temperature is
(3) 1.462 ×1028 (4) 1.462 × 10–34
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.5 40. Smoke is a colloidal solution of a
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(3) 0.8 (4) 0.4 (1) Solid in a gas (2) Liquid in a gas
(3) Gas in a solid (4) Gas in a gas
34. One Faraday of electricity is passed separately
through one litre of one molar aqueous solution of (i) 41. A reaction was found to be second order with respect
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AgNO3 (ii) SnCl 4 and (iii) CuSO 4. The number of to the concentration of carbon monoxide. If the
concentration of carbon monooxide is doubled, with
moles of Ag, Sn and Cu deposited at cathode are
everything else kept the same, the rate of reaction
respectively will
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(1) 1.0, 0.25, 0.5 (2) 1.0, 0.5, 0.25 CO(g) + Cl2(g)  COCl2(g)

(3) 0.5, 1.0, 0.25 (4) 0.25, 0.5, 0.25 (1) Triple
(2) Increase by factor of 4
35. In the Freundlich Adsorption isotherm equation,
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(3) Double
x 1 (4) Remain unchanged
log = logk + logp, the value of n is
m n
42. Total volume of atoms present in a face centred cubic
unit cell of a metal is (r is atomic radius)
(1) Any value from 0 to 1

(2) A negative integer 24 3 12 3

(1) r (2) r
3 3
(3) A positive integer

Prepared By:
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Class (XII)
All India Test Series 8
Statement-2 : Ecell at different concentration can be
16 3 20 3
(3) r (4) r calculated by Nernst's equation.
3 3
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
43. The chief impurity present in red bauxite is
Statement-2 is a correct explanation f or
(1) SiO2 (2) Fe2O3
Statement-1
(3) K2SO4 (4) Tl2O3
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
44. Which of the following is obtained when one alpha
particle is emitted from nucleus of radioactive Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
element? Statement-1
(1) Isotopes (2) Isobars (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(3) Isotones (4) Isodiaphers
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
45. Coordiantion no. of Zn2+ in zinc blend is
49. Statement-1 : Vapour pressure of a solution never can
(1) 4 (2) 5
be more than vapour pressure of the pure solvent
(3) 6 (4) 8
and
46. A solution of w g of urea in 500 g of water is cooled

to –0.5oC. 128 g of ice separate out. What is the
value of w?
(kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
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Statement-2 : Vapour pressure of a solution is
contributed by both the components

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(1) 4 g (2) 6 g (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-
(3) 5 g (4) 8 g
1
SECTION - II
Assertion – Reason Type Questions .c (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
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Statement-1
Directions : Questions number 47 to 51 are Assertion-
Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-
2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has four (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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alternative choices, only one of which is the correct

answer. You have to select the correct choice. 50. Statement-1 : The hexagonal close packing is more
efficient than square close packing.
47. Statement-1 : If NaCl is doped with 10–5
mole% SnCl2
then concentration of cation vacancies will be
and
1 × 10–5 mole%
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and Statement-2 : In hexagonal close packing, more space

is occupied by spheres.
Statement-2 : Each mole of SnCl2 replaces 2 moles
of NaCl (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
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(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation f or

Statement-2 is a correct explanation f or Statement-1
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
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(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
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Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
48. Statement-1 : Ecell for the half cell
51. Statement-1 : In an aqueous solution of benzoic acid,
MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e–  Mn+2 + H2O the vant Hoff factor is greater than 1.
Changes with change of concentration of MnO4– and
and
Mn+2 but remains same with change in pH.
and Statement-2 : Benzoic acid dimerises as follows

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 Class (XII) All India Test Series 9
– +
  expressed as
O H O
C6H5 C C C6H5 (1) 6 R (2) 18 R
O H+ O– (3) 24 R (4) 75 R
 
SECTION - IV
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation f or Straight Objective Question
Statement-1 Directions : Question No. 55 to 60 are based on (Straight
Single Choice - Multiple Concept Questions and/or
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Diff iculty/Lengthy calculations & Application based
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for questions)
Statement-1 55. Which of the following graph represents zero order
reaction?
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

SECTION - III (1) t1/2 (2) t1/2

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Comprehension Type Questions
Directions : Question No. 52 to 54 are based on the
following paragraph. [A0] [A0]

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FeCl3 on reaction with K4[Fe(CN)6] in aqueous solution gives
a blue colour. These two solutions are separated by a
(3) t1/2 (4) t1/2
semipermeable membrane as shown in the figure.
Semipermeable membrane
.c 1
[A0]
1
[A0]
2
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0.25 M 0.02 M
K4[Fe(CN)6] FeCl3 M
56. The equivalent conductance of solution of a
32
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weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mho cm2 and at infinite

dilution 400 mho cm2. The dissociation constant of
Both the solution are sufficiently dilute and osmosis will take
this acid is
place as there is a difference in concentration of the
solutions. Imagine the experiment is carried out at 27oC. (1) 1.25 × 10–6
The osmotic flow will take place in one direction and not in
both. (2) 6.25 × 10–4
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52. Which of the following observations, may be recorded (3) 1.25 × 10–4
after a while?
(4) 1.25 × 10–5
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(1) No change in colour in either of the components

57. Ni/Ni 2+(1.0 M) || Au3+(1.0 M)|Au, where Eo for Ni2+/
(2) Blue colour appears in compartment A Ni is –0.25 V and Eo for Au3+/Au is 0.150 V. The emf
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(3) Blue colour appears in compartment B of the cell is

(4) Blue colour appears in both A and B (1) +1.25 V (2) –1.75 V

53. In the given experiments, with passage of time the (3) +1.75 V (4) 0.4 V
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concentrations are expected to change as

58. In Na2O having antifluorite structure
(1) Concentration of FeCl3 decreases
(1) Oxide ions hav e a cubic close packed
(2) Concentration of K4[Fe(CN)6] increases arrangement and Na + occupy all the eight
(3) Concentration of FeCl3 increases tetrahedral voids

(4) Concentration of both remain unchanged (2) Oxide ions hav e a cubic close packed
arrangement and Na+ occupy all the octahedral
54. The osmotic pressure () of FeCl3 solution can be voids
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Class (XII)
All India Test Series 10
(3) Na+ ions have a cubic close packed arrangement
and O2– occupy all the octahedral voids

(4) Na+ ions have a cubic close arrangement and

O2– occupy all the tetrahedral voids
59. A + 2B  AB2



Mechanism: A + B 
 AB (Fast)
AB + B  AB2 (Slow)
If concentration of B increases upto two times, then
change in rate of reaction with respect to initial rate
is
(1) Same (2) Two times

1
(3) Four times (4) times
2

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60. Correct among the following

(1) In electrochemical cell cathode is positive

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(2) In electrochemical cell cathode is negative

(3) Cathode is always negative

(4) Cathode is always positive

.c
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 Class (XII)
All India Test Series 11

MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I    
66. Let a, b, c be three vectors such that | b |  2 ,
Straight Single Choice Multiple Type Questions /
   
Application Based Single Choice Questions | c |  3 and a.b  0 , a.c  0 the angle between b
This section contains 16 multiple choice questions numbered    
and c is 60°, then the value of [a b c ] is
61 to 76. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(1) 3 (2) 3
61. The numerical value of
(3) 3 3 (4) 9
5 5 5
(3 x  3 x )2 (4 x  4 x )2 (5 x  5 x )2 is 67. If x, y, z are three integers in A.P., lying between 1
(3 x  3  x )2 (4 x  4  x )2 (5 x  5  x )2 and 9 and x51, x41, z31 are three digit numbers,
then the value of
(1) 0 (2) 1
5 4 3

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(3) –1 (4) Dependent on x
x 51 y 41 z31 is
62. If x y z

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1 x x 1 (1) xyz (2) x + y + z
f (x)  2x x( x  1) x ( x  1) ,  x  R ,
3 x( x  1) x ( x  1)( x  2) x( x 2  1)

then the value of f(1) + f(2) + ..... + f(10) is

.c (3) 12 (4) 0

68. If A is the matrix of order 3 × 3 such that

| (adj(adj(adjA))) |  | A |k , then the value of k is
ba
(1) 55 (2) 0 (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 10 (4) 100 (3) 16 (4) 8
    
om

63. The value of [a b c  (a  b )] , where [ , ] denotes   

69. Let a, b, c be three giv en vectors along three
scalare triple product is concurrent edges of a parallelepiped such that
   
(1) a.b [a b c ]  4 , then the volume of the parallelepiped
where three concurrent edges are three concurrent
  
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(2) | a  b || c | diagonals of three faces of the given parallelepiped

is
(3) 1
(1) 8 (2) 16
et

(4) 0
(3) 4 (4) 2
  
64. If a  iˆ  ˆj  kˆ , b  2iˆ  3 jˆ  kˆ , c is a vector such
ne

    a b c 
that | c |  4 , then the maximum value of [a b c ] is  
70. If  = abc and A   b c a  such that AAT  I ,
c a b
 
(1) 4 6 (2) 2 6
then a, b and c are the roots of the equation
vi

(3) 2 3 (4) 4 3
(1) x3 +  = 0
65. If the plane x + 3y + 4z = 12 cuts the x, y and z axes (2) x3 ± x2 +  = 0
at A, B and C, then the volume of the tetrahedron
OABC is, (where O is the origin) (3) x3 ± 3x2 +  = 0

(1) 12 (2) 24 (4) x3 ± x2 –  = 0

(3) 6 (4) 18 71. The number of different matrices which can be formed

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 Class (XII) All India Test Series 12
using 12 is different real numbers is 72 × ()!, then
1
the value of  is (4)
3
(1) 12 (2) 11
76. If , ,  are the roots of x3 + bx + c = 0, then the value
(3) 10 (4) 9 of the determinant
      
72. If r  m(a  b )  n(b  c )  p(c  a ) and
1  1 1
   1 1 1  1 is
[a b c ]  , then (m + n + p) is
8 1 1 1 

   
(1) r .(a  b  c ) (1) b2 – 2c

    (2) 3bc
(2) 8r .(a  b  c )
(3) b – c
   
(3) 4r .(a  b  c ) (4) b + c

m
    SECTION - II
(4) 16r .(a  b  c )
Assertion – Reason Type Questions
73. The angle of inclination of any two diagonals of a

o
Directions : Questions number 77 to 81 are Assertion-
cube is
Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains

1  1 
(1) cos  
3
(2) cos  
3
.c
1  2 
two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-
2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has four
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
ba
1  1  1  3 
(3) cos   (4) cos   a 1 1
 3 4
77. Statement-1 : If the value of the determinant 1 b 1
74. The equation of the plane which meets the axes in 1 1 c
om

A, B and C, given that the centroid of the triangle is positive, then abc > –8.

ABC is the point (a, b, c) is x  y  z   , then the and

a b c
Statement-2 : A.M. > G.M.
value of 3 + 1000 is
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
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(1) 1729 (2) 1216 Statement-2 is a correct explanation f or

Statement-1
(3) 1027 (4) 1064
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
et

75. Three digit number of the form xyz is randomly Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
selected from all possible three digit numbers. Then Statement-1
the probability that the selected number xyz satisfy x
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
ne

< y and y > z is

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
4
(1)        
15 78. Statement-1 : If {(a  b )  (a  b  c )}.(a  2b  c ) =
  
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k [a b c ] , then k = 3.
3
(2)
10 and
     
Statement-2 : [a b c ]  [a b c ] , where , 
1
(3) and  are real constants.
2
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation f or

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 Class (XII)
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

79. Statement-1 : If A  (tan  )iˆ  ˆj  kˆ ,
 
B  iˆ  (tan ) jˆ  kˆ , C  iˆ  ˆj  (tan  )kˆ and
  
 +  +  = 180°, then the value of ( A  B ).C is 2.
and
 In a determinant, if by putting x = a its r-rows become
Statement-2 : If A  a1iˆ  a2 jˆ  a3 kˆ ,
 
B  b1iˆ  b2 jˆ  b3 kˆ , C  c1iˆ  c2 ˆj  c3 kˆ , then
All India Test Series 13
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation f or
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type Questions
Directions : Question No. 82 to 84 are based on the
following paragraph.
identical, then (x – a)r – 1 is a factor of the determinant.

m
1 a a2
a1 a2 a3 1 b b 2 is equal to
   82.
( A  B ).C  b1 b2 b3 1 c c2
.

o
c1 c2 c3
(1) (a – b)(b – c)(c – a) (2) (a – b)(b – c)(a – c)
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

1
.c
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-
1
(3) (a + b)(b + c)(c + a) (4) (a + b + c)abc

a a3
ba
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; 83. 1 b b3 is equal to
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for 1 c c3
Statement-1
(1) (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)(a + b + c)
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(2) (a – b)(b – c)(a – c)
om

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

   (3) (a + b)(b + c)(c + a)
80. Statement-1 : If a, b, c are three non-coplanar, non-
(4) (ab + bc + ca)(a + b + c)
zero vectors, then
           
and (a.a )b  c  (a.b )c  a  (a.c )a  b  [b c a ]a . 1 1 1
2 2
84. a b c 2 is equal to
lo

and
a3 b3 c 3
  
Statement-2 : If the vectors a, b, c are non-coplanar (1) (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)(a2 + b2 + c2)
        (2) (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)(a + b + c)2
et

s.t. [a b c ]  5 , then the value of [a  b b  c c  a ] is

20. (3) (a – b)(b – c)(c – a).abc
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (4) (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)(ab + bc + ca)
ne

Statement-2 is a correct explanation f or

Statement-1 SECTION - IV
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Straight Objective Question
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 Directions : Question No. 85 to 90 are based on (Straight
vi

Single Choice - Multiple Concept Questions and/or

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Diff iculty/Lengthy calculations & Application based
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True questions)
81. Statement-1 : ( p  q )   p  q is a tautology..
cosec 1 0
and 1 3
85. If 1 2cosec 1  (  3 ) ,
2
Statement-2 : ( p  q )  r  ( p  r )  ( p   r ) is a 0 1 2cosec
tautology.

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Class (XII) All India Test Series 14
then the minimum value of  +  is 88. A variable plane is at a constant distance p from the
(1) 1 (2) –1 origin meets the axes in A, B, C. The locus of the
centroid of the tetrahedron OABC is
(3) 2 (4) 4
1 1 1 
   , then the value of 2 is
a 2
bc ac  c 2 x 2 y 2 z2 p2
2 2
86. If a  ab b ac   2a 2 b2 c 2 ,   R  , (1) 27 (2) 28
ab b2  bc c2
(3) 29 (4) 210
then the value of 5 + 18 is 89. A number n from first hundred natural number is
(1) 40 (2) 50 selected randomly. The probability that nn is a perfect
square is
(3) 80 (4) 34
   11 1
87. If a, b, c are non-coplanar unit vectors such that (1) (2)
20 2
   1   
a  (b  c )  (b  c ) , then the angle between a 51 1

m
2 (3) (4)
100 10

and b is    
90. Let u, v and w be vectors such that u  v  w  0 . If

o
3    
(1) (2) | u |  3 , | v |  4 and | w |  5 , then the value of
4 4    

(3)

2
(4) 
.c u.v  v .w  w .u  100 is
(1) 100
(3) 125
(2) 75
(4) 50
ba
om
lo
et
ne

All India Test Series

vi

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Test Date ....................................................................

o
A B C D A B C D
.c
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
ba
1. 16. 31. 46. 61. 76.

2. 17. 32. 47. 62. 77.

3. 18. 33. 48. 63. 78.

om

4. 19. 34. 49. 64. 79.

5. 20. 35. 50. 65. 80.

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6. 21. 36. 51. 66. 81.

7. 22. 37. 52. 67. 82.

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8. 23. 38. 53. 68. 83.

9. 24. 39. 54. 69. 84.

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10. 25. 40. 55. 70. 85.

11. 26. 41. 56. 71. 86.

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12. 27. 42. 57. 72. 87.

13. 28. 43. 58. 73. 88.

14. 29. 44. 59. 74. 89.

15. 30. 45. 60. 75. 90.