Practise-Book - Reading - Set1 PDF

OFFICIAL OET PREPARATION MATERIALS
Practice Book Set 1

All professions
READING
ISBN: 978-0-9807653-0-4 © Copyright Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment.
This work is copyright. Apart from any use permitted under the Copyright Act 1968, no part
may be reproduced by any process without prior written permission from Cambridge Boxhill
Language Assessment. For information in regards to OET visit the OET website:
www.occupationalenglishtest.org
First published January 2010
2nd edition November 2014
3rd edition May 2015
Contents
How to use the Reading Practice Booklet 01
An overview of OET (Occupational English Test) 03
History of the test 05
Description of OET 06
How the test is scored 08
Reading Section 1: What is the Reading sub-test? 09
Reading Section 2: Test-takers’ guide to Part A of the Reading sub-test 10
Reading Section 3: Test-takers’ guide to Part B of the Reading sub-test 12
Reading Section 4: How can I further prepare for Part B of the Reading sub-test? 13
Reading Section 5: Full Practice Test: Part A and Part B 15
Reading Section 6: Practice Test: Part A and B - Answer Keys 33

- Junior Sports Injuries 33
- Going blind in Australia 35
- Exercise, fitness and health 37
Reading Section 7: Part A - Study guide 39
Reading Section 8: Sample Test: Part A - Text Booklet 47

Sample Test: Part A - Answer Booklet 51
Sample Test: Part A - Answer Key 55
Reading Section 9: Further Practice 57
Reading Section 10: Resources 59

How to use the Reading Practice Booklet
Option 1
Read Sections 1 to 4 page 09 - 13
Do the Part A and B - Full Practice Test page 15 - 32
Check your answers and revise using the Part A - Study guide page 33 - 45
Do the Part A - Additional Sample Test page 47 - 54
Option 2
Read the Test-takers’ guide to Part A of the Reading sub-test page 10 - 11
Do the Practice Test (Part A) page 15 - 21
Check your answers and revise using the Part A - Study guide page 33 - 34, 39 - 45
Read the Test-takers’ guide to Part B of the Reading sub-test page 12 - 13
Do the Practice Test (Part B) page 23 - 32
Check your answers page 35 - 38
Do the Part A - Additional Sample Test page 47 - 54
www.occupationalenglishtest.org 1
An overview of OET (Occupational English Test)
OET assesses the language proficiency of healthcare professionals When and where is OET available?
who wish to register and practise in an English-speaking
environment. It is designed to meet the specific English language OET is available up to twelve times a year, at more than 40 test
needs of the healthcare sector. venues in 25 countries.
OET tests candidates from the following 12 health professions: What is in the test?
Dentistry, Dietetics, Medicine, Nursing, Occupational Therapy, OET is an in-depth and thorough assessment of all areas of language
Optometry, Pharmacy, Physiotherapy, Podiatry, Radiography, Speech ability – with an emphasis on communication in medical and health
Pathology and Veterinary Science. Nursing, Medicine and Dentistry professional settings.
currently provide the largest numbers of candidates.
The test consists of four sub-tests:
The test is now owned by Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment
Pty Ltd (CBLA), a joint venture between Cambridge English Language • Listening
Assessment and Box Hill Institute in Australia. • Reading
• Writing
Who recognises OET? • Speaking
OET is recognised by over 20 regulatory healthcare bodies and
councils at state and national level in Australia, New Zealand and The Writing and Speaking sub-tests are specific to each profession,
Singapore. while the Listening and Reading sub-tests are common to all
professions.
OET is one of only two English language tests recognised by the
Department of Immigration and Border Protection (DIBP)* for a
number of skilled immigration visas.
* T his information is accurate as of December 2013. The Department of Immigration and Border
Protection (DIBP) used to be the Department of Immigration and Citizenship (DIAC).
Sub-test (duration) Content Shows candidates can:
Listening 2 tasks follow and understand a range of health-related spoken materials such as
(50 minutes) Common to all 12 professions patient consultations and lectures.
Reading 2 tasks read and understand different types of text on health-related subjects.
(60 minutes) Common to all 12 professions
Writing 1 task write a letter in a clear and accurate way which is relevant for the reader.
(45 minutes) Specific to each profession
Speaking 2 tasks effectively communicate in a real-life context through the use of role plays.
(20 minutes) Specific to each profession
Results Registration procedures
OET Statements of Results include a separate grade for each sub- For registration details visit: www.occupationalenglishtest.org
test, ranging from A (highest) to E (lowest). There is no overall
grade for OET. Here you’ll find all the information and instructions you need
to apply for OET online for the first time, including test fees, ID,
payment and photo guidelines.
High-quality, secure language assessment Our ID procedures have DIBP approval, ensuring confidence in
CBLA is committed to the highest standards of quality, security and candidate identity.
integrity for OET – from test development, test delivery and results
processing, through to post-examination review and evaluation.
Special provision
Fair and consistent delivery of OET is ensured by secure technology
and the continual training and monitoring of assessors, as well as Candidates with special needs may apply in advance for
test centre management and facilities. special provision. CBLA makes all reasonable arrangements
to accommodate special visual or auditory needs, including
The Writing and Speaking sub-tests are developed in consultation enlargement of print texts and special auditory equipment.
with practising healthcare professionals and educators to ensure
test materials simulate real-life clinical situations, such as
explaining a diagnosis and writing referral letters. Preparation materials
The Listening and Reading sub-tests are developed by the Language Resources can be accessed from the OET website, including:
Testing Research Centre (LTRC) at the University of Melbourne.
• sample papers
• suggested reading material
Assessment • a list of preparation training providers*
All sub-tests are assessed at the OET Centre by trained expert

assessors. Assessment procedures routinely include double * T his list is for information only – we do not endorse any particular training
marking and statistical analysis to ensure that candidate results program.
are accurate and fair.
Each of the four sub-tests is assessed in a specific way. Read more

about OET assessment procedures at:
4 www.occupationalenglishtest.org
History of the test
Occupational English Test was designed by Professor Tim reviewed and analysed in the literature since the 1980s. McNamara
McNamara of the University of Melbourne under contract to the (1996)1 gives a full account of the development of the test and
Australian Federal Government. associated validation research.
As part of the annual intake of refugees and immigrants, hundreds The initial development of the test specifications involved:
of overseas-trained health practitioners were entering Australia by
a. extensive consultation with expert informants, including
the mid to late 1980s. The majority were medical practitioners, but a
clinical educators, ESL teachers offering language support in
number of other health professional groups were also represented.
clinical settings, and overseas-trained professionals who were
The process of registration to practise in most health professions completing or had completed a clinical bridging program.
in Australia included three stages of assessment: English language
b. literature search.
proficiency, a multiple choice test of profession-specific clinical
knowledge and a performance-based test of clinical competence. c. direct observation of the workplace.
Dissatisfaction with the results of existing language tests led to
the development of thoroughly researched specifications for a
communicative, contextualised test. OET has been frequently
Stages of Test Development (presentation by Prof Tim McNamara, August 2007)2
1. McNamara, T. [1996] Measuring Second Language Performance. London: Longman.

2. McNamara, T. [2007] Stages of Test Development. OET Forum.
Description of OET
Test format
OET assesses listening, reading, writing and speaking.
There is a separate sub-test for each skill area. The Listening and Reading sub-tests are designed to assess the ability to understand spoken
and written English in contexts related to general health and medicine. The sub-tests for Listening and Reading are common to all professions.
The Writing and Speaking sub-tests are specific to each profession and are designed to assess the ability to use English appropriately in a
relevant professional context.
Listening sub-test
The Listening sub-test consists of two parts: a recorded, simulated professional-patient
consultation with note-taking questions (Part A), and a recorded talk or lecture on a
health-related topic with short-answer/note-taking questions (Part B), each about
15 minutes of recorded speech. A set of questions is attached to each section and
candidates write their answers while listening. The original recording is edited with
pauses to allow candidates time to write their answers.
The format for Part A (the consultation) requires candidates to produce case notes
under relevant headings and to write as much relevant information as possible. Part B
(the lecture) requires candidates to complete a range of open-ended and fixed-choice
listening tasks.
Reading sub-test
The Reading sub-test consists of two parts:
Part A is a summary reading task. This requires candidates to skim and scan 3-4 short
texts (a total of about 650 words) related to a single topic and to complete a summary
paragraph by filling in the missing words. Candidates are required to write responses
for 25-35 gaps in total, within a strictly monitored time limit of 15 minutes.
Part A is designed to test the reader’s ability to source information from multiple texts,
to synthesise information in a meaningful way and to assess skimming and scanning
ability within a time limit.
In Part B candidates are required to read two passages (600-800 words each) on
general medical topics and answer 8-10 multiple-choice questions for each text (a total
of 16-20 questions) – within a time limit of 45 minutes.
Part B is designed to test the reader’s ability to read in greater detail both general and
specific information for comprehension.
Writing sub-test
The Writing sub-test usually consists of a scenario presented to the candidate,
which requires the production of a letter of referral to another professional. The letter
must record treatment offered to date and the issues to be addressed by the other
professional. The letter must take account of the stimulus material presented.
The body of the letter must consist of approximately 180-200 words and be set out
in an appropriate format. For certain professions, other professional writing tasks of
equivalent difficulty may also be set, e.g., responding in writing to a complaint, or
providing written information to a specified audience in the form of a letter.
Speaking sub-test
The production of contextualised professional language is achieved by requiring
the candidate to engage with an interlocutor who plays the role of a patient or a
patient’s carer. The candidate must respond as a professional consultant to two
different scenarios played out with the interlocutor. These exchanges are recorded for
subsequent assessment. The recording also includes a short ‘warm-up’ that is part of
the Speaking sub-test, though this material is not assessed.
How the test is scored
You will receive a Statement of Results which shows your grade for
each of the four sub-tests, from A (highest) to E (lowest). Each of the
four sub-tests is assessed in a specific way.
Writing and Speaking Listening and Reading

Your performances on the Writing and Speaking sub-tests are each Your answer booklets for the Listening sub-test and for Reading
rated by at least two trained Assessors at the OET Centre. Audio Part A are marked by trained Assessors at the OET Centre. Answer
files and scripts are assigned to Assessors at random to avoid any booklets are assigned at random to avoid any conflict of interest.
conflict of interest. Your test-day Interlocutor is not involved in the Your answer sheet for Reading Part B is computer scanned and
assessment process. automatically scored.
Writing and Speaking Assessors are monitored for accuracy and Listening and Reading Assessors use a detailed marking guide
consistency, and the scores they award are adjusted to take into which sets out which answers receive marks and how the marks
account any leniency or severity. If two Assessors award different are counted. Assessors use this guide to decide for each question
scores to your performance, your script and/or audio file will be whether you have provided enough correct information to be given
referred to at least one other senior Assessor not previously involved the mark or marks available. Assessors are monitored for accuracy
in your assessment. and consistency, and the data entry of scores is also double-checked
for accuracy.
For the Writing sub-test, each Assessor scores your performance
according to five criteria: Overall Task Fulfilment, Appropriateness of There is no set score-to-grade conversion for the Listening and
Language, Comprehension of Stimulus, Linguistic Features (Grammar Reading sub-tests because there are inevitably minor differences
and Cohesion), and Presentation Features (Spelling, Punctuation, in the difficulty level across tests. The grade boundaries for each
and Layout). The five criteria are equally weighted. Grade B for Writing version of the test are set so that all candidates’ results relate to
requires a high level of performance on all five criteria. the same scale of achievement. Grade B for Listening and grade B
for Reading both require the use of a range of skills, including the
For the Speaking sub-test, each Assessor scores your performance ability to understand main ideas, factual information, opinions and
according to five criteria: Overall Communicative Effectiveness, attitudes, and to follow the development of ideas.
Intelligibility, Fluency, Appropriateness, and Resources of Grammar
and Expression. The five criteria are equally weighted. Grade B for
Speaking requires a high level of performance on all five criteria.
READING SECTION 1
What is the Reading sub-test?

The Reading sub-test consists of two parts:
Reading Part A
• Part A is a Summary reading task.
• This requires test-takers to skim and scan 3-4 short texts (a total of about 650 words) related to a single topic and to complete a
summary paragraph by filling in the missing words.
• Test-takers are required to read the texts and write responses for 25-35 gaps in total, within a strictly monitored time limit of 15
minutes.
• Part A is designed to test the reader’s ability to source information from multiple texts, to synthesise information in a meaningful way
and to assess skimming and scanning ability under a time limit.
Reading Part B
• In Part B test-takers are required to read two passages (600-800 words each) on general medical topics and answer 8-10 multiple
choice questions for each text (a total of 16-20 questions) – within a time limit of 45 minutes.
• Part B is designed to test the reader’s ability to read longer texts in detail for comprehension.
What will you do on test day?

• On the day of the test you will complete the Reading test in two parts. First you will be given Part A Text Booklet and Part A Answer
Booklet. You will have exactly 15 minutes to read the texts and write your answers to the summary. At the end of 15 minutes, both
booklets will be collected from you.
• The supervisor will then give you Part B Text Booklet and Part B Answer sheet. He/she will explain to you how to fill in the Answer sheet.
You then have 45 minutes to read the 2 texts and answer the questions by filling in your Answer sheet.
READING SECTION 2
Test takers’ guide to Part A of the

Reading sub-test
Part A
Before you attempt Part A of the Practice test, consider some important tips below.
Do
• Write at least 1 word, or up to 3 words for each answer.
• Make sure you write your response in the same numbered box as the ‘gap’ in the summary passage. Sometimes the numbered boxes in
the Answers column may not line up across the page with the same numbered gaps as they appear in the Summary column.
• If you miss an answer, make sure you move on to the correctly corresponding numbered item before writing anything further. For
example, don’t write your answer for the gap for item 15 in the box for item 14 in the Answers column.
• Use correct spelling. Responses that are not spelt correctly will not receive any marks. American and British English spelling variations
are accepted, e.g., color or colour.
• Use words with similar meaning to words in the texts if you can’t find a word(s) directly from the texts. These words are known
as synonyms.
• If you are required to write down numbers or figures you can write either the full form (e.g., three, one hundred or one million) or the
number form (e.g., 3, 100, or 1,000,000).
• Use the headings of the four texts in the text booklet to help you understand which text to use to complete different parts of the
summary passage.
• Use words surrounding the gap for the missing word(s) in the summary passage to help you predict what kind of information is
missing and to anticipate the type of missing word(s) you need to write.
• Read the instructions carefully. Have the Text booklet open in front of you so that all texts are visible at the same time. Have the Answer
Booklet slightly to the side so that you can write your responses as you read the texts.
• You may write your answers in either pen or pencil for Part A.
Don’t
• Write more than 3 words for each answer OR no words at all! You will not be penalised for leaving a blank space but you might be
rewarded for a correct guess!
• Waste valuable time using an eraser to correct a mistake if you make one. You may, for example, accidentally include an extra word that
goes over the allowable three words or write the wrong word in the wrong space. Simply cross out any words you don’t want the person
marking your paper to accept; this takes a lot less time and you will not be penalised.
• Write in the summary column, i.e., do not write directly onto the small gaps in the actual text of the summary passage within the
Summary column. You will waste valuable time if you then try to transfer your responses across to the Answers column. The person
marking your paper is trained to only accept responses written down in the Answers column of Part A - Answer Booklet.
• Begin Part A by simply reading all texts from beginning to end as this will waste valuable time. Use the summary passage to guide
you to which text to read first.
• Just directly copy the words as they appear in the original texts in the Text Booklet. Instead think about the grammatical correctness of
the words you choose as they relate to the language used in the summary passage.
• Change the meaning of the summary. Be careful not to choose a word(s) that might be grammatically correct for the summary passage
but which might mean something different than the ideas in the original text.
• Use abbreviations. Use the correctly spelt full form of the words you select.
General
• Have a spare pen and pencil ready just in case.
• Fill in the booklet cover page correctly.
• Fill in your personal information on the answer sheet correctly.
• Note how the text is organised (e.g., with sub-headings, tables/diagrams).
• Write on the texts if it helps you (e.g., underlining key words and phrases) but don’t make it more difficult for you to read by
adding too many marks.
Checking at the end

• Don’t make any last-minute changes unless you are sure.
• Don’t leave any blanks.
• Check you have put an answer against all the question numbers in the Answer column.
READING SECTION 3
Test takers’ guide to Part B of the

Reading sub-test
Part B
In Part B, test-takers are required to read two passages (600-800 words each) on general medical topics and answer 8-10 multiple choice
questions for each text (a total of 16-20 questions) within a time limit of 45 minutes.
The two texts are on health-related topics and are similar to texts found in academic or professional journals. After each of the texts you
will find 8-10 questions or unfinished statements about the text, each with four suggested answers or ways of finishing (multiple-choice
questions). You must choose the one response which you think fits best.
The texts appear in the Text Booklet and there is a separate answer sheet to complete. You must indicate your chosen response (A, B, C or D)
to each question by shading the appropriate oval on the answer sheet. You must do this with a soft (2B) pencil.
Before you attempt Part B of the Practice test, consider some important tips below.
Do
• Answer every question. If you get to the end of Part B and are still not sure about a particular question, make an educated estimation.
Record your answers accurately on the Answer sheet before the 45 minutes is over.
• Take the sample test under test conditions beforehand so you know what it feels like. Set your timer for 45 minutes and aim to spend
approximately 22-23 minutes on each text in Part B.
• Bring and use a soft (2B) pencil. Remember you cannot use a pen to fill in the Answer sheet for Part B. It is a good idea to bring one or
two extra 2B pencils as spares or a small pencil sharpener.
Don’t
• Get stuck on one question – keep going and come back to it at the end when you have answered all other questions. Marks are not
deducted for incorrect answers.
• Cross out mistakes when you are filling out the Answer sheet for Part B. Unlike for Part A, in Part B you need to erase wrong answers
completely then fill in the correct answer fully. There are clear instructions on the Answer sheet about how to fill in your answers.
• Fill in more than one box on the Answer sheet as the scanner will not be able to recognise your answer and you will not receive any
marks for that question.
READING SECTION 4
How can I further prepare for Part B of the

Reading sub-test?
• You should answer all questions. You don’t lose marks for incorrect answers.
• You must complete the answer sheet within the 45 minutes allowed for the test. If your responses are not on the answer sheet, you
will receive a score of zero.
• Start by getting an overview of the two texts and the number of questions for each.
• There are usually two types of multiple-choice questions to answer. There are statement completion questions where the question
stem is unfinished and you need to choose the correct completion of the stem from information in the text.
• There are also closed question types where the stem is a fully complete question and you need to choose from four alternative
answer options.
• Usually the paragraph that is relevant to the question is mentioned in the question stem. Occasionally you may be asked to
look at a particular line number in the text. The line numbers will be written on the outside left of the text in these cases.
• Take each question in turn and make sure you look in the right place for the answer (e.g., ‘according to paragraph 2’ means the
question refers to information given in paragraph 2).
• Read each question carefully, looking out for key words, e.g., which statement is TRUE, which statement is FALSE, which of the
following is NOT appropriate.
• Consider the options in turn and try to explain to yourself exactly what makes each one right or wrong.
• Write on the text and questions if it helps you (e.g., underlining key words and phrases) but don’t make it more difficult for
you to read by adding too many marks.
General
• Have a spare pencil ready just in case.
• Fill in the Answer sheet correctly.
• Fill in your personal information on the Answer sheet correctly.
• Note how the text is organised (e.g., with paragraph headings and (sometimes) individual line numbers).
• Write on the texts if it helps you (e.g., underlining key words and phrases).
Checking at the end

• Don’t make any last-minute changes unless you are sure.
• Make sure you have one answer marked on the Answer sheet for each of the questions.
• Check you have put your answer against the correct question number.
• Don’t leave any blank boxes on the Answer sheet.
• Check you have put an answer against all the question numbers on the Answer sheet.
READING SECTION 5
Reading sub-test
Part A – Text booklet
You must record your answers for Part A in the

Part A – Answer booklet using pen or pencil.
Please print in BLOCK LETTERS
Candidate number – –
Family name
Other name(s)
City
Date of test
Candidate’s signature
YOU MUST NOT REMOVE OET MATERIAL FROM THE TEST ROOM
The OET Centre

GPO Box 372 Telephone: +613 8656 4000
Melbourne VIC 3001 Facsimile: +613 8656 4020
Australia www.occupationalenglishtest.org
© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment ABN 51 988 559 414
Reading: Part A – Text Booklet
Instructions
TIME LIMIT: 15 MINUTES
• Complete the summary on pages 1 and 2 of Part A - Answer booklet using the information in the four texts
(A1-A4) below.
• You do not need to read each text from beginning to end to complete the task. You should scan the texts to
find the information you need.
• Gaps may require 1, 2 or 3 words. Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
• You should write your answers next to the appropriate number in the right-hand column.
• Please use correct spelling in your responses. Do not use abbreviations unless they appear in the texts.
Text A1 Junior Sports Injuries: Texts

Title: Patterns of injury in US high school sports: A review.
Authors: Field and O’Brien (2007)
OBJECTIVE: To characterize the risk of injury associated with 10 popular high school sports by
comparing the relative frequency of injury and selected injury rates among sports, as well as the
participation conditions of each sport. DESIGN AND SETTING: A cohort observational study of high
school athletes using a surveillance protocol whereby certified athletic trainers recorded data during
the 2005-2007 academic years. SUBJECTS: Players listed on the school’s team rosters for football,
wrestling, baseball, field hockey, softball, girls’ volleyball, boys’ or girls’ basketball, and boys’ or girls’
soccer. MEASUREMENTS: Injuries and opportunities for injury (exposures) were recorded daily. The
definition of reportable injury used in the study required that certified athletic trainers evaluate the injured
players and subsequently restrict them from participation. RESULTS: Football had the highest injury rate
per 1000 athlete-exposures at 8.1, and girls’ volleyball had the lowest rate at 1.7. Only boys’ (59.3%)
and girls’ (57.0%) soccer showed a larger proportion of reported injuries for games than practices, while
volleyball was the only sport to demonstrate a higher injury rate per 1000 athlete-exposures for practices
than for games. More than 73% of the injuries restricted players for fewer than 8 days. The proportion of
knee injuries was highest for girls’ soccer (19.4%) and lowest for baseball (10.5%). Among the studied
sports, sprains and strains accounted for more than 50% of the injuries. Of the injuries requiring surgery,
60.3% were to the knee. CONCLUSIONS: An inherent risk of injury is associated with participation in
high school sports based on the nature of the game and the activities of the players. Therefore, injury
prevention programs should be in place for both practices and games. Preventing reinjury through daily
injury management is a critical component of an injury prevention program. Although sports injuries cannot
be entirely eliminated, consistent and professional evaluation of yearly injury patterns can provide focus for
the development and evaluation of injury prevention strategies.
Text A2
Literature review extract: Prevention of sports injuries.
… Langran and Selvaraj conducted a study in Scotland to identify risk factors for snow sports injuries.
They found that persons under 16 years of age most frequently sustained injury, which may be attributed
to inexperience.
They conclude that protective wrist guards and safety release binding systems for skiboards help
prevent injury to young or inexperienced skiers and snowboarders.
Ranalli and Rye provide an awareness of the oral health care needs of the female athlete. They report
that a properly fitted, custom-fabricated or mouth-formed mouthguard is essential in preventing intraoral
soft tissue lacerations, tooth and jaw fractures and dislocations, and indirect concussions in sports.
Although custom-fabricated mouthguards are expensive, they have been shown to be the most effective
and most comfortable for athletes to wear.
Pettersen conducted a study to determine the attitudes of Canadian rugby players and coaches
regarding the use of protective headgear. Although he found that few actually wear headgear, the
equipment is known to prevent lacerations and abrasions to the scalp and may minimize the risk of
concussion.
Text A3
Best practice guidelines for junior sports injury management and return to play
When coaches, officials, sports first aiders, other safety personnel, parents and participants follow the safety
guidelines, the risk of serious injury is minimal.
If an injury does occur, the golden rule in managing it is “do no further damage”. It is important that the injured
participant is assessed and managed by an appropriately qualified person such as a sports first aider or sports
trainer.
Immediate management approaches include DRABCD (checking Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing,
Compression and Defibrillation) and RICER NO HARM (when an injury is sustained apply Rest, Ice, Compression,
Elevation, Referral and NO Heat, Alcohol, Running or Massage).
Young participants returning to activity too early after an injury are more susceptible to further injury. Before
returning to participation the participant should be able to answer yes to the following questions:
• Is the injured area pain free?
• Can you move the injured part easily through a full range of movement?
• Has the injured area fully regained its strength?
Whilst serious head injuries are uncommon in children and young peoples’ sport, participants who have lost
consciousness or who are suspected of being concussed must be removed from the activity.
Prior to returning to sport or physical activity, any child who has sustained an injury should have medical clearance.
Text A4
Research briefs on sports injuries in Canada
- Approximately 3 million children and adolescents aged 14 and under get hurt annually
playing sports or participating in recreational activities.
- Although death from a sports injury is rare, the leading cause of death from a sports-related
injury is a brain injury.
- Sports and recreational activities contribute to approximately 18 percent of all traumatic

brain injuries among Canadian children and adolescents.
- The majority of head injuries sustained in sports or recreational activities occur during
cycling, skateboarding, or skating incidents.
END OF PART A
THIS TEXT BOOKLET WILL BE COLLECTED
READING SECTION 5
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
ASSESSOR NO.
ASSESSOR NO.
Reading sub-test
Part A – Answer booklet

Family name
Other name(s)
City
Date of test
The OET Centre

Reading: Part A – Answer Booklet
Instructions
• Complete the following summary using the information in the four texts, A1-A4, provided on pages 1 and 2 of
the Text booklet.
• You do not need to read each text from beginning to end to complete the task. You should scan the texts to
find the information you need.
• Gaps may require 1, 2 or 3 words. You will not receive any marks if you write more than 3 words.
Marker’s
Summary Answers use only
Junior Sports Injuries

1.
Guidelines for junior sports injury

2.
management suggest that there is only
a small risk of being .... (1).... . However
statistics show that injury of some kind 3.
is reasonably common. In Canada, for
example, around .... (2).... children under 15 4.
are injured every .... (3).... . While it is very
unusual for these injuries to .... (4).... they
5.
do make up just under one fifth of .... (5)....
among children and adolescents in Canada.
6.
A US study which investigated the .... (6).... of

injuries across a range of sports found that 7.
the safest sport was .... (7).... , whereas .... (8)....
was the most likely to cause injury. Of the 8.
injuries observed, more than half were
.... (9).... , and knee injuries accounted for
9.
60.3% of those that .... (10).... . The scope of
the US study was limited, however, with
10.
.... (11).... being the only non-ball game
studied.
[Continued on next page]
11.
Marker’s
Canadian data, on the other hand, revealed 12.

that cycling, skateboarding and
.... (12).... were the cause of most .... (13).... 13.
associated with sporting activities.
14.
For those adults and children involved in
junior sports, it is best practice to ensure 15.
that .... (14).... is done if an injury does occur.
In the first instance, the injury should be 16.
evaluated by a .... (15).... . Two management
plans which should be followed are RICER 17.
NO HARM and .... (16).... ; a key feature of the
former is that the child should be prevented 18.
from doing any further .... (17).... . It is advised
that any child who has been injured should 19.
have .... (18).... before returning to play.
20.
Head injuries are considered very serious,
and children who have lost consciousness 21.
should be . Ideally, children involved
.... (19)....
in sports such as rugby should wear 22.
.... (20).... , because according to recent
research such preventative measures can 23.
.... (21).... of concussion and also stop
. Other preemptive measures that
.... (22).... 24.
might be considered are .... (23).... to prevent
intraoral .... (24).... and fractures of the 25.
.... (25).... , as well as .... (26).... and .... (27)....
systems to help prevent snow sports 26.
injuries.
27.
END OF PART A
THIS ANSWER BOOKLET WILL BE COLLECTED
READING SECTION 5
Reading sub-test
Part B – Text booklet
You must record your answers for Part B on the

multiple-choice Answer Sheet using 2B pencil.
Family name
Other name(s)
City
Date of test
The OET Centre

Instructions
There are TWO reading texts in Part B. After each of the texts you will find a number of questions or unfinished
statements about the text, each with four suggested answers or ways of finishing.
You must choose the ONE which you think fits best. For each question, 1-18, indicate on your answer sheet
the letter A, B, C or D against the number of the question. Only your answers on the Answer Sheet will be marked.
Answers recorded in this Text booklet will not be marked.
Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
NOTE: You must complete your Answer Sheet for Part B within the 45 minutes allowed for this part of the sub-test.
NOW TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE FOR TEXTS AND QUESTIONS
Text B1
Going blind in Australia
Paragraph 1
Australians are living longer and so face increasing levels of visual impairment. When we look at the problem
of visual impairment and the elderly, there are three main issues. First, most impaired people retire with
relatively “normal” eyesight, with no more than presbyopia, which is common in most people over 45 years
of age. Second, those with visual impairment do have eye disease and are not merely suffering from “old
age”. Third, almost all the major ocular disorders affecting the older population, such as cataract, glaucoma
and age-related macular degeneration (AMD), are progressive and if untreated will cause visual impairment
and eventual blindness.
Paragraph 2
Cataract accounts for nearly half of all blindness and remains the most prevalent cause of blindness
worldwide. In Australia, we do not know how prevalent cataract is, but it was estimated in 1979 to affect the
vision of 43 persons per thousand over the age of 64 years. Although some risk factors for cataract have
been identified, such as ultraviolet radiation, cigarette smoking and alcohol consumption, there is no proven
means of preventing the development of most age-related or senile cataract. However cataract blindness
can be delayed or cured if diagnosis is early and therapy, including surgery, is accessible.
Paragraph 3
AMD is the leading cause of new cases of blindness in those over 65. In the United States, it affects
8–11% of those aged 65–74, and 20% of those over 75 years. In Australia, the prevalence of AMD is
presently unknown but could be similar to that in the USA. Unlike cataract, the treatment possibilities for
AMD are limited. Glaucoma is the third major cause of vision loss in the elderly. This insidious disease is often
undetected until optic nerve damage is far advanced. While risk factors for glaucoma, such as ethnicity and
family history, are known, these associations are poorly understood. With early detection, glaucoma can be
controlled medically or surgically.
Paragraph 4
While older people use a large percentage of eye services, many more may not have access to, or may
underutilise, these services. In the United States, 33% of the elderly in Baltimore had ocular pathology
requiring further investigation or intervention. In the UK, only half the visually impaired in London were known
by their doctors to have visual problems, and 40% of those visually impaired in the city of Canterbury had
never visited an ophthalmologist. The reasons for people underutilising eye care services are, first, that many
elderly people believe that poor vision is inevitable or untreatable. Second, many of the visually impaired
have other chronic disease and may neglect their eyesight. Third, hospital resources and rehabilitation
centres in the community are limited and, finally, social factors play a role.
Paragraph 5
People in lower socioeconomic groups are more likely to delay seeking treatment; they also use fewer
preventive, early intervention and screening services, and fewer rehabilitation and after-care services. The
poor use more health services, but their use is episodic, and often involves hospital casualty departments
or general medical services, where eyes are not routinely examined. In addition, the costs of services are
a great deterrent for those with lower incomes, who are less likely to have private health insurance. For
example, surgery is the most effective means of treatment for cataract, and timely medical care is required
for glaucoma and AMD. However, in December 1991, the proportion of the Australian population covered
by private health insurance was 42%. Less than 38% had supplementary insurance cover. With 46% of
category 1 (urgent) patients waiting for more than 30 days for elective eye surgery in the public system, and
54% of category 2 (semi-urgent) patients waiting for more than three months, cost appears to be a barrier
to appropriate and adequate care.
Paragraph 6
With the proportion of Australians aged 65 years and older expected to double from the present 11% to
21% by 2031, the cost to individuals and to society of poor sight will increase significantly if people do not
have access to, or do not use, eye services. To help contain these costs, general practitioners can actively
investigate the vision of all their older patients, refer them earlier, and teach them self-care practices. In
addition, the government, which is responsible to the taxpayer, must provide everyone with equal access
to eye health care services. This may not be achieved merely by increasing expenditure – funds need to be
directed towards prevention and health promotion, as well as treatment. Such strategies will make good
economic sense if they stop older people going blind.
Part B - Text B1: Questions 1–10

1 In paragraph 1, the author suggests that ……
A many people have poor eyesight at retirement age.
B sight problems of the aged are often treatable.
C cataract and glaucoma are the inevitable results of growing older.
D few sight problems of the elderly are potentially damaging.
2 According to paragraph 2, cataracts ……

A may affect about half the population of Australians aged over 64.
B may occur in about 4–5% of Australians aged over 64.
C are directly related to smoking and alcohol consumption in old age.
D are the cause of more than 50% of visual impairments.
3 According to paragraph 3, age-related macular degeneration (AMD) ……

A responds well to early treatment.
B affects 1 in 5 of people aged 65–74.
C is a new disease which originated in the USA.
D causes a significant amount of sight loss in the elderly.
QUESTIONS
4 According to paragraph 3, the detection of glaucoma ……

A generally occurs too late for treatment to be effective.
B is strongly associated with ethnic and genetic factors.
C must occur early to enable effective treatment.
D generally occurs before optic nerve damage is very advanced.
5 Statistics in paragraph 4 indicate that ……

A existing eye care services are not fully utilised by the elderly.
B GPs are generally aware of their patients’ sight difficulties.
C most of the elderly in the USA receive adequate eye treatment.
D only 40% of the visually impaired visit an ophthalmologist.
6 According to paragraph 4, which one of the following statements is NOT true?

A Many elderly people believe that eyesight problems cannot be treated effectively.
B Elderly people with chronic diseases are more likely to have poor eyesight.
C The facilities for eye treatments are not always readily available.
D Many elderly people think that deterioration of eyesight is a product of ageing.
7 In discussing social factors affecting the use of health services in paragraph 5, the author points
out that ……
A wealthier people use health services more often than poorer people.
B poorer people use health services more regularly than wealthier people.
C poorer people deliberately avoid having their eye sight examined.
D poorer people have less access to the range of available eye care services.
8 According to paragraph 6, in Australia in the year 2031 ……

A about one tenth of the country’s population will be elderly.
B about one third of the country’s population will be elderly.
C the proportion of people over 65 will be twice the present proportion.
D the number of visually impaired will be twice the present number.
9 According to paragraph 6, the author believes that general practitioners ……

A should be more active in investigating patients’ possible sight difficulties.
B should not be required to deal with sight deterioration.
C should not refer patients to specialists until the problems are advanced.
D should seek assistance from eye specialists in detection of problems.
QUESTIONS
10 In paragraph 6, the author suggests that ……

A increased government funding will solve the country’s eye care problems.
B government services should include prevention and health promotion.
C general practitioners should reduce the cost of treating sight problems in the elderly.
D general practitioners should take full responsibility for treating sight problems.
END OF PART B - TEXT 1

TURN OVER FOR PART B - TEXT 2
Text B2
Exercise, fitness and health
Paragraph 1
Physical inactivity is a substantial risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Exercise probably works by increasing
physical fitness and by modifying other risk factors. Among other benefits, it lessens the risk of stroke and
osteoporosis and is associated with a lower all-cause mortality. Moreover, it has psychological effects that
are surely underexploited. A pervasive benefit is the gain in everyday reserve capacity – that is, the ability
to do more without fatigue. Nevertheless, there is much debate about how intense the exercise should be.
Some studies show a dose-response relation between activity and reduction of risk, with a threshold of
effect; some suggest that vigorous aerobic activity is needed and others that frequent moderate exercise
is adequate – and indeed safer if ischaemic heart disease might be present. A few surveys have found a
slightly increased risk of heart attack with extreme activity, though further analysis in one study suggested
this applied only to men with hypertension.
Paragraph 2
A commonly recommended minimum regimen for cardiovascular benefit is thrice weekly exercise for 20
minutes, brisk enough to produce sweating or hard breathing (or a heart rate 60–80% of maximum). Indeed,
this is what the Allied Dunbar national survey of fitness among adults in the UK recommends. It conveys a
simple popular message of broad minimum targets for different age groups expressed in terms of activities
of different intensity. The aim is to produce a training effect through exercise beyond what is customary for
an individual.
Paragraph 3
The main reason why people fail to take exercise is lack of time. Thus an important message is that exercise
can be part of the daily routine – walking or cycling to work or the shops, for instance. Relatively few people
in the national fitness survey had walked continuously for even 1–25 km in the previous month (11–30%
depending on age and sex), and other surveys have also found little walking. Cycling is also beneficial,
however many are put off cycling to work by the danger. Certainly more cycle routes are needed, but even
now life years lost through accidents are outweighed by the estimated life years gained through better health.
Employers could encourage people to make exercise part of the working day by providing showers and
changing rooms, flexible working hours, individual counselling by occupational health or personnel staff, and
sometimes exercise facilities – or at least encouragement for exercise groups.
Paragraph 4
In the promotion of exercise, children, women, middle aged men, and older people need special thought.
Lifelong exercise is most likely to be started in childhood, but children may have little vigorous exercise.
Women tend to be much less active than men and are less fit at all ages. The proportion judged on a treadmill
test to be unable to keep walking at 5km/h up a slight slope rose with age from 34% to 92% – and over half
of those aged over 54 would not be able to do so even on the level. Women have particular constraints:
young children may prevent even brisk walking. Thus they need sensitive help from health professionals and
women’s and children’s groups as well as the media.
Paragraph 5
A high proportion of men aged 45–54, who have a high risk of coronary heart disease, were not considered
active enough for their health. Promotion of exercise and individual counselling at work could help. Forty
percent of 65–74 year olds had done no “moderate” activity for even 20 minutes in a month. Yet older people
especially need exercise to help them make the most of their reduced physical capacity and counteract the
natural deterioration of age. They respond to endurance training much the same as do younger people.
Doctors particularly should take this challenge more seriously.
Paragraph 6
People need to be better informed, and much can be done through the media. For instance, many in the
survey were mistaken in thinking that they were active and fit. Moreover, many gave “not enough energy”
and “too old” as reasons for not exercising. Precautions also need publicity – for example, warming up
and cooling down gradually, avoiding vigorous exercise during infections, and (for older people) having a
medical check before starting vigorous activity. Doctors are in a key position. Some general practitioners
have diplomas in sports medicine, and a few are setting up exercise programmes. As the Royal College of
Physicians says, however, all doctors should ask about exercise when they see patients, especially during
routine health checks, and advise on suitable exercise and local facilities. Their frequent contact with women
and children provides a valuable opportunity. Excluding ischaemic heart disease and also checking blood
pressure before vigorous activity is started are important precautions. But above all doctors could help to
create a cultural change whereby the habit of exercise becomes integral to daily life.
Part B - Text B2: Questions 11–18

11 All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 1 as benefits of exercise EXCEPT ……
A increase in the capacity to withstand strenuous activity.
B significant decrease in the risk of osteoporosis.
C reduction of the risk of heart disease.
D weight control and decrease in levels of body fat.
12 According to paragraph 2, the recommendations of the report on the national fitness survey included
……
A long, vigorous aerobic sessions for all men, women and children.
B no more than three, 20 minute exercise sessions per week.
C avoiding any exercise that brought on hard breathing.
D different levels of exercise intensity for different age groups.
13 According to paragraph 3, one reason many people do not exercise is ……

A they are unaware of its importance.
B difficulty in fitting it into their daily routine.
C they are unaware of its long-term health benefits.
D they live too far from work to walk or cycle.
14 Which one of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a way in which employers can help
improve the physical fitness and health of their staff?
A Making it mandatory for employees to exercise during lunch breaks.
B Providing encouragement and advice from staff within the organisation.
C Hiring trained sports educators to counsel members of staff about exercise.
D Setting an example, as individuals, by regularly exercising themselves.
QUESTIONS
15 According to paragraphs 4 and 5, older men and women need to remain physically active and fit
because ……
A they need to counteract the risk of coronary disease.
B fitness levels decrease rapidly over the age of 54.
C they need to guard against poor health and inactivity.
D exercise works against the physical effects of ageing.
16 Which one of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 6 as a precaution to be taken when
considering exercise?
A The need to balance aerobic activity with stretching.
B The need to warm up before and cool down after exercise.
C The need to eliminate the risk of ischaemic heart disease before starting.
D The need to exclude strenuous exercise from the routine during infection.
17 Which one of the following needs in relation to the improvement of national fitness is NOT mentioned
in the article?
A The need for people to make exercise a regular daily habit.
B The need to provide information on health and fitness to the community.
C The need for doctors themselves to improve their own fitness levels.
D The need to consult a doctor before starting an exercise program.
18 According to the article, which one of the following is FALSE?

A It is unsafe for people with high blood pressure to do regular moderate exercise.
B Experts agree on the importance of both type and intensity of exercise.
C Men are generally fitter and more active than women.
D Cycling, though unsafe, is a beneficial form of exercise.
END OF PART B - TEXT 2

END OF READING TEST
READING SECTION 6
Reading sub-test
Part A – Answer key
Junior Sports Injuries
The following conventions have been followed in preparing the key:
/ indicates an acceptable alternative within an answer
OR indicates an acceptable (complete) alternative answer
( ) words, figures, or ideas in brackets are not essential to the answer – they are also not a sufficient
substitute on their own for the main idea
NOT indicates an unacceptable answer or part of an answer
No other answers except those included in the key will be considered acceptable. Responses that have been
incorrectly spelt will not be awarded any marks, neither will answers that contain more than three words.
The OET Centre

Reading Sub-test
Part A: Junior Sports Injuries
Answer Key
Total of 27 questions
1 seriously/badly injured
2 three/3 million OR 3,000,000
3 year
4 result in/cause death/fatality OR kill OR be fatal/deadly/lethal OR lead to death
5 traumatic brain injuries
6 relative frequency OR pattern(s) OR risk(s) OR rate(s)
7 girls’ volleyball
8 football
9 sprains and strains
10 required/needed surgery/needed an operation
11 wrestling
12 skating accidents/incidents
13 head injuries
14 no further damage
15 sports first aider OR sports trainer OR (suitably) qualified person
16 DRABCD
17 running
18 (a) medical clearance
19 removed/withdrawn (from play/activity)
20 (protective) headgear
21 minimise/reduce the risk OR reduce rates
22 lacerations and abrasions
23 custom-fabricated mouthguard OR mouth-formed mouthguard
24 soft tissue laceration(s)
25 tooth and jaw OR teeth OR jaw
26 (protective) wrist guards
27 safety release binding
END OF KEY
READING SECTION 6
Reading sub-test
Part B – Answer key
Going blind in Australia
The OET Centre

Reading Sub-test
Part B - Text 1: Going blind in Australia
Answer Key
1 B sight problems of the aged are often treatable.
2 B may occur in about 4–5% of Australians aged over 64.
3 D causes a significant amount of sight loss in the elderly.
4 C must occur early to enable effective treatment.
5 A existing eye care services are not fully utilised by the elderly.
6 B Elderly people with chronic diseases are more likely to have poor eyesight.
7 D poorer people have less access to the range of available eye care services.
8 C the proportion of people over 65 will be twice the present proportion.
9 A should be more active in investigating patients’ possible sight difficulties.
10 B government services should include prevention and health promotion.
END OF KEY
READING SECTION 6
Reading sub-test
Part B – Answer key
Exercise, fitness and health
The OET Centre

Reading Sub-test
Part B - Text 2: Exercise, fitness and health
Answer Key
11 D weight control and decrease in levels of body fat.
12 D different levels of exercise intensity for different age groups.
13 B difficulty in fitting it into their daily routine.
14 B Providing encouragement and advice from staff within the organisation.
15 D exercise works against the physical effects of ageing.
16 A The need to balance aerobic activity with stretching.
17 C The need for doctors themselves to improve their own fitness levels.
18 B Experts agree on the importance of both type and intensity of exercise.
END OF KEY
READING SECTION 7
Part A - Study guide

• Remember Part A of the Reading sub-test requires you to complete a summary by writing the missing word or several words (but only
up to three words) within a strict time limit of 15 minutes. It is therefore important that you do not begin Part A by immediately reading
all of the passages in great detail before attempting the summary task. This will take up valuable time and may result in an incomplete
summary at the end of the 15 minute period.
• Instead, it is highly recommended that you begin by reading the summary passage which contains the numbered ‘gaps’ (in the
‘summary’ column of the ‘Part A - Answer Booklet’). This will direct your attention to the topic and focus of the first paragraph so
that you can quickly select which text matches the first part of the summary passage. In other words, reading the summary
passage first will help you to know which one of the texts in the ‘Text Booklet’ contains the relevant information to choose the
missing words for the first part of the summary passage.
• Remember, Part A of the Reading sub-test is a test of your ability to skim read and scan quickly across different texts to choose selected
information in order to summarise. It is not a test of detailed reading for comprehension purposes - that particular skill is tested in Part
B of the reading sub-test.
• Remember also that the first paragraph of the summary passage may not necessarily always directly relate to the first text (A1) of the
Text booklet. Information for the first two or three ‘gaps’ in the summary passage might only be located by reading another text. That is
why it is very important to quickly establish a sense of the topic and focus of the first paragraph; to direct your reading straight away to
the appropriate text therefore making efficient use of the time available.
Using the headings of the four texts

As a general rule, in the first sentence of the first paragraph of the summary passage (in the ‘Part A - Answer Booklet’) there is usually a
‘clue’ word or ‘signal’ word that will help direct your reading, i.e. help you find which text to scan first. Often this ‘signal’ word relates directly
to the heading of the text in the Text Booklet that indicates the topic of the text.
Consider the example below of headings from the Practice test Text booklet:
The headings of texts A1–A4 are:
Text A1: Patterns of injury in US high school sports: A review.
Text A2: Literature review extract: Prevention of sports injuries.
Text A3: Best practice guidelines for junior sports injury management and return to play
Text A4: Research briefs on sports injuries in Canada
The first sentence of the summary passage is highlighted below:
Guidelines for junior sports injury management suggest that there is only a small risk of being (1).... However
statistics show that injury ... (continued)
The ‘signal’ word that would direct the reader to the appropriate text is ‘Guidelines’. Although ‘sports injuries’ are mentioned in both the
opening sentence of the summary passage and in all four of the text headings; the word ‘guidelines’ is mentioned only in the heading for
Text A3. The reader’s focus will be directed to Text 3 after reading the first sentence of the summary passage. The heading acts as a ‘hook’ to
focus the reader on Text A3, where it is likely that information needed to complete the first gap(s) in the summary will be found.
Using signal words in the summary passage
Sometimes missing information for each paragraph of the summary passage will be found from multiple sources i.e., from more than one
of the texts in the Text booklet. You need to know when to direct your attention from one text to another. Again, it is a good idea to look for
‘signal’ words that tell you that the next missing word(s) comes from a different text than the previous one. Often this might be a direct
signal in the form of a key word that is repeated in the heading for each text or; a referent word that directs the reader back to something that
has already been mentioned in the passage.
Consider the example summary passage from the sample test posted on the OET website below:
Concerning interventions, the US report found that most migraine sufferers in the survey (7) ..... medical advice.
Of the patients surveyed by Spark, Vale and Mills, just over eight per cent were taking (8) ..... at the time of the
study. By contrast, the study found that a large proportion of migraine sufferers used (9) ..... . Given these findings,
the authors note that general practitioners do not utilise (10)..... effectively, and tend to choose from a (11) ..... of
available therapies.
Now consider the headings of the four texts below informing the summary passage above:
Text A1: Title: Management of migraine in New Zealand General Practice Authors: Spark, Vale & Mills (2006)
Text A2: Table 1: Economic burden of migraine in the USA
Text A3: Case studies: migraine sufferers and work
Text A4: Research brief on migraines in the US
There are a few key words in the summary passage that direct the reader as to which text to focus on, highlighted below:
Concerning interventions, the US report found that most migraine sufferers in the survey (7) ..... medical advice.
Of the patients surveyed by Spark, Vale and Mills, just over eight per cent were taking (8) ..... at the time of
the study. By contrast, the study found that a large proportion of migraine sufferers used (9) ..... . Given these
findings, the authors note that general practitioners do not utilise (10) ..... effectively, and tend to choose from a
(11) ..... of available therapies.
By recognising these signal words, the successful reader will realise that information for item 7 is likely to come from either Text A2 or A4
(mentioning the ‘US report’). Items 8-11 will probably stem from information in Text A1. The summary passage mentions ‘Spark, Vale
and Mills’ (the authors of the text) and this provides the clue that item 8 directly relates to the title of Text A1 whereas the mention of
‘the study’ and ‘the authors’ later in the summary passage highlights these as referents; signalling to the reader that all of the missing
information (items 9-11) is probably from the same source text (A1). ‘The study’ refers back to ‘the patients surveyed by Spark,
Vale and Mills’ (a survey is a type of study) while ‘the authors’ refers back to Spark, Vale and Mills (the names of the people who wrote
the study).
Using prediction techniques to anticipate the missing word(s)
It is useful to consider looking at the words around the ‘gaps’ in the summary passage to try and predict what the missing word or words
might be. Doing this before skim reading the relevant text can save time because you will already have a sense of the type of information
you are looking for. You will know what to expect to read for.
Consider the examples below from the Practice test of how to use prediction:
1. Prediction based on lists

Canadian data, on the other hand, revealed that cycling, skateboarding and (12) ..... were the cause of most
(13) ..... associated with sporting activities.
It is useful to consider that for item 12, it would seem that the missing word may be a similar type of word to the words that appear before
it. Cycling and skateboarding are the names given to two kinds of vigorous sports. The use of the word ‘and’, after ‘skateboarding’,
would suggest that the missing word(s) will most likely mean another example of a vigorous sport. Having a sense of what the reader needs
to look for in the text will make it easier to scan for words, e.g., for the names of similar types of sport.
The part of the text that is relevant is highlighted below:
The majority of head injuries sustained in sports or recreational activities occur during cycling, skateboarding, or
skating incidents.
The missing word (skating), clearly belongs to the group of words (examples of vigorous sports) in the preceding list.
2. Prediction based on context

Ideally, children involved in sports such as rugby should wear (20) ..... , because according to recent research such
preventative measures can (21)..... of concussion and also stop (22)..... .
It is useful to consider that for item 20, the missing word(s) is/are both connected to the overall meaning of the sentence, and relates
directly to the meaning of the word immediately before the ‘gap’. The verb ‘to wear’, in the example above, is an important clue – meaning
‘the placement of an item of clothing or equipment on a person’s body’.
The overall meaning of the sentence is highlighted below:
Children playing rough physical sports need to wear something to avoid (signalled by words such as preventative
and stop) getting hurt.
As a result, the reader can predict that the missing information is likely to signify an item of clothing or equipment that is used to protect the
body during sport.
A careful reader will notice the word concussion (meaning: ‘shock to the head that can damage the brain’) in the summary passage. This
will enable the reader to narrow down the meaning of the missing word(s) to that of protective clothing or equipment specifically designed
to protect a person’s head while playing sport.
The reader may, from their knowledge of vocabulary, think of words such as ‘helmet’ or ‘head gear’ as vocabulary items with the more
specific meaning of head protection than, for example, other items worn on the head - e.g., hat or cap.
The text that is relevant is highlighted below:
Pettersen [14] conducted a study to determine the attitudes of Canadian rugby players and coaches regarding the
use of protective headgear. Although he found that few actually wear headgear, the equipment is known to prevent
lacerations and abrasions to the scalp and may minimize the risk of concussion.
The missing word (headgear) is directly mentioned in the text. A reader who might not be familiar with the word ‘headgear’ can probably
establish the meaning of the missing word from a careful reading of the surrounding text and link the summary passage to the relevant
part of the original text.
3. Prediction based on grammatical awareness

Remember the summary passage is not a direct copy of any of the texts. A summary is a shortened outline of a longer text(s) and
accordingly, uses paraphrasing and other writing techniques to present information in shortened form. The way the summary passage is
written is often quite different grammatically to the original texts, as well as in tone or style.
Do not therefore simply copy words directly from the texts into your summary as there is a greater chance of making a grammatical error if
you do. Even though you might correctly spell the word you choose, if you don’t choose the correct form of the word which has grammatical
agreement with the summary passage, you will not receive any marks.
You need to consider the overall grammatical appropriateness of the word(s) you decide to write down, i.e., how the words you choose fit
into the way the summary passage is written and whether you need to alter the word(s) slightly from the way they appear in the original
longer text. You might like to consider, for example, such things as the word-ending for a particular verb (e.g., according to verb tense) or
whether the sentence in the summary passage is written in active or passive voice.
4. Prediction based on changing verb forms

Part of the summary passage with a ‘gap’ (specifically item 10) is highlighted below:
Of the injuries observed, more than half were (9) ....., and knee injuries accounted for 60.3% of those that (10) .....
The part of the longer text that contains the missing information for item 10 is highlighted below:
Among the studied sports, sprains and strains accounted for more than 50% of the injuries. Of the injuries requiring
surgery, 60.3% were to the knee.
A careless reader might simply write ‘requiring surgery’ as their response to item 10 (directly copying from the text) because there is
some similarity between the wordings of the text and the summary passage. However, a closer reading of the summary passage shows
that the sentence is written in the simple past tense - shown clearly by the use of ‘ed-ending’ verbs (observed, and accounted) and
the past tense marker ‘were’.
A reader who responds by using the ‘ing’ form ‘requiring surgery’ (as copied directly from the text), would not receive any marks as
‘requiring surgery’ does not conform correctly to the grammatical style of the summary passage (✗ = ‘ing’ form following a relative
pronoun ‘that’). The more correct response would be:
Of the injuries observed, more than half were strains and sprains and knee injuries accounted for 60.3% of those
that required surgery.
Note that the meaning here is kept. The correct vocabulary items required for the response are found in the longer text but the form of the
words needed to be altered to make sure the summary text remained grammatically consistent. The skill for the reader is to recognise
the important meaning of the text and then carry that meaning through to the shortened summary passage making any grammatical
changes as needed.
5. Prediction based on word form phrases
Part of the summary passage and a ‘gap’ (item 4) is highlighted below:
While it is very unusual for these injuries to (4) ......, they do make up just under one fifth of (5) ...... among children
and adolescents in Canada.
The part of the original text that contains the missing information for item 4 is highlighted below:
Although death from a sports injury is rare, the leading cause of death from a sports-related injury is a brain injury.
Again, a careless reader might simply copy the noun phrase ‘cause of death’ as their response to item 4 from the text as there are some
similarities between the two texts.
However a careful reading of the summary passage shows that the commonly found structure in English; ‘subject + ‘to’ + infinitive (form
of the verb)’ is used in the summary passage; therefore the correct response is:
While it is very unusual for these injuries to cause death, they do make up just under one fifth of traumatic brain
injuries among children and adolescents in Canada.
Here it is important for the reader to recognise the use of ‘to’ before the gap to predict the likely use of the infinitive verb form and then to
change the verb construction accordingly from source text to summary.
6. Prediction based on Negatives vs. Positives

Part of a summary passage with a ‘gap’ (item 7) is shown below:
Note: this example is taken from the sample test posted on the OET website: www.occupationalenglishtest.org
Concerning interventions, the US report found that most migraine sufferers in the survey (7).... medical advice.
The part of the original text that contains the missing information for item 7 is shown below:
Only about 1 in 5 sufferers seek help from a doctor.
Again a careless reader might simply write the verb ‘seek’ as their response to item 7 as a direct copy from the text. A careful reader will
note that the focus in the original text is on the smaller proportion of sufferers seeking help from a doctor, the proportion represented by
the ‘1’ in ‘1 in 5 sufferers’.
However; the summary passage requires the reader to recognise that the focus in the summary sentence is the ‘larger proportion of
sufferers, marked by the quantifier ‘most’ (sufferers). To accurately complete the summary passage, the reader is required to recognise
that most sufferers in fact do not seek help from a doctor (medical advice). The wording is reversed although the meaning has stayed
the same. To ensure grammatical and logical accuracy therefore, the correct response is:
‘Concerning interventions, the US report found that most migraine sufferers in the survey’ did not seek’ (or ‘do
not seek’) medical advice.
In order for the summary passage to make sense, the reader needed to use a negative construction to ensure the meaning is maintained
between the text and the differently worded summary passage. It is important to recognise that the same information in the text might be
written in a slightly different way in the summary passage.
7. Prediction based on passive vs. active voice
An example from the summary passage from another test with a ‘gap’ (item 21) is highlighted below:
In 2006, around 22% of all injuries responded to by the emergency department (21).... car accidents - but this
figure has declined in recent years.
The part of the reading text that contains the missing information (item 21) is shown below:
Car accidents caused approximately 22% of all injuries responded to by the hospital’s emergency department in
2006 although this figure has reduced in recent years.
A careful reader will note that the focus in the original text is on ‘car accidents’ (at the beginning of the statement) as the ‘agent’ or
subject of the sentence. As the agent of the action (to cause) the active voice of the past simple verb form (caused) is used with the object
of the sentence being ‘22% of all injuries’. In the summary passage, the construction is reversed, with 22% of all injuries the main
focus of the sentence (with the action being ‘done’ by ‘car accidents’).
The reader will recognise that the summary passage requires the use of passive voice (verb ‘to be’ + past participle) to convey the same
meaning as the text. Thus the correct response below:
In 2006, around 22% of all injuries responded to by the emergency department were caused by / resulted from car
accidents - but this figure has declined in recent years.
Recognising where the subject or focus of the sentence has changed between the wording of the text and the wording of the summary
passage (with the meaning staying the same) will help the reader to predict whether active or passive voice is needed in the response.
Using abbreviated words

Always use the correctly spelt full form of the words. If you wrote inst., for example, to mean the word institution, you would not receive
any marks. Other wrong examples might include ‘yr’ for year, ‘No’ for numbers and ‘tel’ for telephone.
The exception to this is when an abbreviation is included in the text and is necessary for your response.
Consider the example below from the Practice test:
Two management plans which should be followed are RICER NO HARM and (16) .... ;
The original text is below:
Immediate management approaches include DRABCD (checking Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing,
Compression and Defibrillation) and RICER NO HARM (when an injury is sustained apply Rest, Ice, Compression,
Elevation, Referral and NO Heat, Alcohol, Running or Massage).
Clearly, ‘DRABCD’ can be considered a correct response for item 16 as writing down each word individually would go over the three word
limit. In the example above, the abbreviated response is allowed.
Using synonyms
Use words with similar meaning to words in the texts if you can’t find a word (s) directly from the texts. These words are known as
synonyms. The person who is marking your paper has a list of allowable answers. In some but not all instances, responses can be
accepted that get across the same meaning as words in the original texts and grammatically conform to the summary passage. There will
though usually be only one clearly acceptable response.
Consider the example summary passage from the sample test posted on the OET website below:
Migraine incidence was different across genders, with a (4).... proportion of men diagnosed compared with women.
The following words: lower/smaller/lesser/low/small/minor would all be considered acceptable as a response to item 4.
The original text below allows the reader to determine what the missing word (s) might be:
191 GPs reported that 649 of 5663 patients (11.5%) had been diagnosed with migraine. Prevalence was 14.9% in
females and 6.1% in males.
The overall meaning of the statement from the text is that more women were diagnosed with migraines than men. To successfully complete
the summary, the reader is required to use a word or expression that compares a smaller quantity to a larger quantity (i.e., men to
women) – when men are mentioned first in the passage.
Using contractions
In some cases, the use of the contracted form is acceptable. For example, either ‘couldn’t’ or ‘could not’ and ‘did not’ or ‘didn’t’ are
acceptable. If you choose to use the contracted form, this will be considered by the person marking your paper as one-word.
Similarly, hyphenated words are acceptable and will be considered by the person marking your paper as one-word. For example, ‘low-
budget fares’ would be considered a two-word response.
In general it will be clear from a reading of the original texts when a contracted or hyphenated word is required. However, if you write a
contracted or hyphenated word that accurately reflects the original texts and is grammatically appropriate for the summary passage, even
though it may not appear in that form in the original text, you will receive marks.
READING SECTION 8
Reading sub-test
Part A – Text booklet

Family name
Other name(s)
City
Date of test
The OET Centre

Reading: Part A – Text Booklet
Instructions
• Complete the summary on pages 1 and 2 of Part A - Answer booklet using the information in the four
texts (A1-A4) below.
• You do not need to read each text from beginning to end to complete the task. You should scan the texts
to find the information you need.
• Gaps may require 1, 2 or 3 words. Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect
answers.
Text A1 Migraines: Texts

Title: Management of migraine in New Zealand General Practice
Authors: Spark, Vale & Mills (2006)
OBJECTIVES: To determine the proportion of patients who have a diagnosis of migraine in a sample of
New Zealand general practice patients, and to review the prophylactic and acute drug treatments used by
these patients.
DESIGN, SETTING AND PARTICIPANTS: A cohort of general practitioners collected data from about
30 consecutive patients each as part of the BEACH (Bettering the Evaluation and Care of Health) program;
this is a continuous national study of general practice activity in New Zealand. The migraine substudy was
conducted in June-July 2005 and December 2005-January 2006.
MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Proportion of patients with a current diagnosis of migraine; frequency of
migraine attacks; current and previous drug treatments; and appropriateness of treatment assessed using
published guidelines.
RESULTS: 191 GPs reported that 649 of 5663 patients (11.5%) had been diagnosed with migraine.
Prevalence was 14.9% in females and 6.1% in males. Migraine frequency in these patients was one or
fewer attacks per month in 77.1% (476/617), two per month in 10.5% (65/617), and three or more per
month in 12.3% (76/617) (missing data excluded). Only 8.3% (54/648) of migraine patients were currently
taking prophylactic medication. Patients reporting three or more migraines or two migraines per month
were significantly more likely to be taking prophylactic medication (19.7% and 25.0%, respectively) than
those with less frequent migraine attacks (3.8%) (P < 0.0001). Prophylactic medication had been used
previously by 15.0% (96/640). The most common prophylactic agents used currently or previously were
pizotifen and propranolol; other appropriate agents were rarely used, and inappropriate use of acute
medications accounted for 9% of “prophylactic treatments”. Four in five migraine patients were currently
using acute medication as required for migraine, and 60.6% of these medications conformed with
recommendations of the National Prescribing Service. However, non-recommended drugs were also used,
including opioids (38% of acute medications).
CONCLUSIONS: Migraine is recognised frequently in New Zealand general practice. Use of acute
medication often follows published guidelines. Prophylactic medication appears to be underutilised,
especially in patients with frequent migraine. GPs appear to select from a limited range of therapeutic
options for migraine prophylaxis, despite the availability of several other well documented efficacious
agents, and some use inappropriate drugs for migraine prevention.
Text A2
Table 1: Economic burden of migraine in the USA
US$ million
Cost element Men Women Total

Medical 193 1,033 1,226
Missed workdays 1,240 6,662 7,902
Lost productivity 1,420 4,026 5,446
TOTAL 14,574
Text A3
Case studies: migraine sufferers and work
Case 1:
“Jane” experienced pressure from employers due to her migraine absences. She had three days off
work in the first quarter of the year, and this was deemed unacceptable and unsustainable by her
employers; therefore she has just resigned from her job and hopes that her future employers will be
more understanding.
Case 2:
“Sally’s” employers and colleagues are aware of her migraine symptoms and are alert to any behaviour
changes which might indicate an impending attack. In addition, colleagues have supporters’ contact
numbers, should she need to be escorted during a migraine. As her employers are part of the
government ‘Workstep Programme’, she has accessed a number of allowances and initiatives: her
migraines have been classified as a long-term health condition rather than sickness absence, which
permits her a higher absence threshold. She now works flexible hours and has received funding for eye
examinations, prescription glasses, and a laptop to enable her to work from home.
Text A4
Research brief on migraines in the US
• Migraine prevalence is about 7% in men and 20% in women over the ages 20 to 64.
• The average number of migraine attacks per year was 34 for men and 37 for women.
• Men will need nearly four days in bed every year. Women will need six.
• The average length of bed rest is five to six hours.
• Only about 1 in 5 sufferers seek help from a doctor.
END OF PART A
THIS TEXT BOOKLET WILL BE COLLECTED
READING SECTION 8
FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
ASSESSOR NO.
ASSESSOR NO.
Reading sub-test
Part A – Answer booklet

Family name
Other name(s)
City
Date of test
The OET Centre

Reading: Part A – Answer Booklet
Instructions
• Complete the following summary using the information in the four texts, A1-A4, provided on pages 1 and 2
of the Text booklet.
• You do not need to read each text from beginning to end to complete the task. You should scan the texts
to find the information you need.
• Gaps may require 1, 2 or 3 words. You will not receive any marks if you write more than 3 words.
Marker’s
Migraines
1.
In a recent study by Spark, Vale and Mills,
which investigated the prevalence of
migraines among .... (1).... patients in New 2.
Zealand, it was found that .... (2).... out of
.... (3).... patients had been diagnosed with
migraine. Migraine incidence was different 3.
across genders, with a .... (4).... proportion
of men diagnosed compared with women.
Similarly, a US report found migraines 4.
occurring in around .... (5).... of men and

.... (6).... of women within a restricted age
5.
range.
Concerning interventions, the US report 6.

found that most migraine sufferers in
the survey .... (7).... medical advice. Of the
patients surveyed by Spark, Vale and Mills, 7.
just over eight per cent were taking .... (8)....
at the time of the study. By contrast, the
8.
study found that a large proportion of
migraine sufferers used .... (9).... .
[Continued on next page] 9.
Marker’s
Given these findings, the authors note that

10.
general practitioners do not utilise .... (10)....
effectively, and tend to choose from a
11.
.... (11).... of available therapies.
12.
With respect to gender, an economic
analysis suggests that the economic .... (12).... 13.
of migraines in the US cost $7,902,000,000
in .... (13).... and $5,446,000,000 in .... (14).... ,
14.
with women accounting for a .... (15)....
proportion of costs compared to men. This
is reflected in research from the US which 15.
has found that female migraine sufferers
spend an average of six days .... (16).... each
16.
year, compared with .... (17).... for men.
17.
The case of .... (18).... demonstrates that
employers may not tolerate .... (19).... . 18.
However the case of .... (20).... illustrates a
“best practice” approach to dealing with
19.
migraines in the workplace. This case
shows that, ideally, .... (21).... and .... (22)....
should be aware of migraine symptoms, 20.
and be able to notice any .... (23).... which
might signal that an attack is about to occur. 21.
It is also useful if co-workers have a list of
.... (24).... . Being able to work .... (25).... hours
22.
and having the capacity to work .... (26)....
also make working life more manageable for
the migraine sufferer. 23.
24.
25.
26.
END OF PART A
THIS ANSWER BOOKLET WILL BE COLLECTED
READING SECTION 8
Reading sub-test
Part A – Answer key
Migraines
The following conventions have been followed in preparing the key:
/ indicates an acceptable alternative within an answer
OR indicates an acceptable (complete) alternative answer
( ) words, figures, or ideas in brackets are not essential to the answer – they are also not a sufficient
substitute on their own for the main idea
NOT indicates an unacceptable answer or part of an answer
No other answers except those included in the key will be considered acceptable. Responses that have been
incorrectly spelt will not be awarded any marks, neither will answers that contain more than three words.
The OET Centre

Reading Sub-test
Part A: Migraines
Answer Key
1 general practice/GP
2 649
3 5663
4 lower/smaller/lesser/low/small/minor
5 7%
6 20%
7 did not seek/do not seek (or contractions)
8 prophylactic medication/preventative medication
9 acute medication
10 prophylactic medication/preventative medication
11 limited range/narrow range
12 burden/impact
13 (total) missed workdays
14 (total) lost productivity/productivity loss
15 greater/higher/bigger/larger/high/big/large/major
16 in bed OR off (work/sick)
17 four (days)
18 Jane
19 (migraine) absences
20 Sally
21 employers OR colleagues
22 employers OR colleagues
23 behaviour change(s) OR changes in behaviour
24 (supporters’) contact numbers
25 flexible
26 from home/at home
END OF KEY
READING SECTION 9
Further Practice
Information on new developments in medical science is often published in journals written in English. High-level reading skills in
English are therefore important to maintain professional standards and ensure knowledge and skills are up to date.
Part A of the reading sub-test tests a reader’s ability to:
• Locate specific information in a range of source texts

• Understand the relationship between different types of information
• Understand the conventions of different text types
• Draw logical inferences
• Synthesize information from different sources
• Differentiate main ideas and supporting information
• Understand the presentation of textual and numerical data
• Recognise paraphrase
Part B of the reading sub-test assesses a reader’s ability to:
• Understand main ideas

• Locate specific information
• Differentiate main ideas from supporting information
• Identify underlying concepts
• Draw logical conclusions
• Understand a range of general and medical vocabulary
• Use contextual clues to determine the meaning of lexical items
• Recognise paraphrase
You need to understand how the writer constructs the text to communicate his/her message. This may involve using words and
phrases to show, for example,
• the order of events (e.g., firstly, secondly; initially, subsequently, in the end)
• consequences (e.g., due to, therefore, as a result)
• contrasting or alternative ideas (e.g., however, on the other hand, despite)
• the extension of an idea (e.g., in addition, furthermore)
It may involve understanding how an academic or professional text ‘works’ (is built and holds together) using, for example,
• text references (e.g., this, the other study, as noted above)

• nominalisation (choosing nouns rather than verbs or adjectives, e.g., explanation [from explain], detoxification, assessment)
• more complex comparative structures (e.g., The study found that women over 60 benefited from the therapy almost twice as
much as those aged between 20 and 35 did.)
• long noun phrases (e.g., The four-year study into the uptake and continuing use of the drug-based treatment administered with
appropriate medical supervision discovered that...)
• groups of words with ‘shades of meaning’ (e.g., states, concludes, implies, suggests, proposes, assumes, supposes, believes,
considers, presumes)
Reading widely on health-related issues in English is great preparation for the OET. You may have access to journals and
professional association websites with reading material relevant to your own profession.
The OET Centre
PO Box 16136
Collins St West
VIC 8007 Australia
Tel: +61 3 8656 4000
The Occupational English Test (OET) is designed to meet the specific English language needs of the healthcare
sector. It assesses the language proficiency of healthcare professionals who wish to register and practise in an
English-speaking environment.
OET is owned by Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment Trust (CBLA), a venture between Cambridge
English and Box Hill Institute. Cambridge English Language Assessment is a not-for-profit department of the
University of Cambridge with over 100 years of experience in assessing the English language. Box Hill Institute
is a leading Australian vocational and higher education provider, active both in Australia and overseas.
The OET Centre
PO Box 16136
Collins St West
VIC 8007 Australia
Tel: +61 3 8656 4000
The Occupational English Test (OET) is designed to meet the specific English language needs of the healthcare
sector. It assesses the language proficiency of healthcare professionals who wish to register and practise in an
English-speaking environment.
OET is owned by Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment Trust (CBLA), a venture between Cambridge
English and Box Hill Institute. Cambridge English Language Assessment is a not-for-profit department of the
University of Cambridge with over 100 years of experience in assessing the English language. Box Hill Institute
is a leading Australian vocational and higher education provider, active both in Australia and overseas.
READING SECTION 10
Resources
ABC Australia Health
www.abc.net.au/health Health Matters – index with links to programs and features
BBC World Service Health

www.bbc.co.uk/worldservice/sci_tech/features/health/index.shtml Health index
BBC Health
www.bbc.co.uk/health
New England Journal of Medicine

http://content.nejm.org (registration gives access to articles six months old or order)
Science Magazine for the American Association for the Advancement of Science
www.sciencemag.org/archive/ (registration gives access to articles more than one year old)
Nature
www.nature.com
British Medical Journal

www.bmj.com
Journal of the American Medical Association
http://jama.ama-assn.org/
Medical Journal of Australia

www.mja.com.au
The Free Medical Journals Site

www.freemedicaljournals.com (links to journals)
Newsletters
Subscribe to these regular health-related newsletters:
www.abc.net.au/health/subscribe/default.htm
Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment is not responsible for the content of external websites.

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OFFICIAL OET PREPARATION MATERIALS

Practice Book Set 1

How to use the Reading Practice Booklet 01

An overview of OET (Occupational English Test) 03

History of the test 05

How the test is scored 08

Reading Section 1: What is the Reading sub-test? 09

Reading Section 2: Test-takers’ guide to Part A of the Reading sub-test 10

Reading Section 3: Test-takers’ guide to Part B of the Reading sub-test 12

Reading Section 5: Full Practice Test: Part A and Part B 15

Reading Section 6: Practice Test: Part A and B - Answer Keys 33

Reading Section 7: Part A - Study guide 39

Reading Section 8: Sample Test: Part A - Text Booklet 47

Reading Section 9: Further Practice 57

Reading Section 10: Resources 59

Do the Part A and B - Full Practice Test page 15 - 32

Do the Part A - Additional Sample Test page 47 - 54

Do the Practice Test (Part A) page 15 - 21

Read the Test-takers’ guide to Part B of the Reading sub-test page 12 - 13

Do the Practice Test (Part B) page 23 - 32

Check your answers page 35 - 38

Do the Part A - Additional Sample Test page 47 - 54

Sub-test (duration) Content Shows candidates can:

All sub-tests are assessed at the OET Centre by trained expert

Each of the four sub-tests is assessed in a specific way. Read more

Stages of Test Development (presentation by Prof Tim McNamara, August 2007)2

1. McNamara, T. [1996] Measuring Second Language Performance. London: Longman.

Writing and Speaking Listening and Reading

What is the Reading sub-test?

What will you do on test day?

Test takers’ guide to Part A of the

Checking at the end

Test takers’ guide to Part B of the

How can I further prepare for Part B of the

Checking at the end

You must record your answers for Part A in the

Please print in BLOCK LETTERS

The OET Centre

© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment ABN 51 988 559 414

Text A1 Junior Sports Injuries: Texts

- Sports and recreational activities contribute to approximately 18 percent of all traumatic

You must record your answers for Part A in the

Please print in BLOCK LETTERS

The OET Centre

© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment ABN 51 988 559 414

Junior Sports Injuries

Guidelines for junior sports injury

A US study which investigated the .... (6).... of

Canadian data, on the other hand, revealed 12.

You must record your answers for Part B on the

Please print in BLOCK LETTERS

The OET Centre

© Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment ABN 51 988 559 414

NOW TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE FOR TEXTS AND QUESTIONS

Going blind in Australia

Part B - Text B1: Questions 1–10

2 According to paragraph 2, cataracts ……

3 According to paragraph 3, age-related macular degeneration (AMD) ……

4 According to paragraph 3, the detection of glaucoma ……

5 Statistics in paragraph 4 indicate that ……

6 According to paragraph 4, which one of the following statements is NOT true?

8 According to paragraph 6, in Australia in the year 2031 ……

9 According to paragraph 6, the author believes that general practitioners ……