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Fiitjee: Big Bang Edge Test - 2018
Fiitjee: Big Bang Edge Test - 2018
Fiitjee: Big Bang Edge Test - 2018
Class 9
Paper 1
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) Maximum Marks: 210
Code 9000
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 114 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
FIITJEE Ltd. ICES House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -1100 16, Ph : 26569493, 26515949 Fax : 26513942
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Directions (Q. 1 to 6): In each of the following questions, a number/letter series is given with one term
missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in
the given series.
4. 5, 11, 19, ?, 41
(A) 28 (B) 29
(C) 30 (D) 35
5. 120, ?, 24, 6, 0.
(A) 100 (B) 70
(C) 60 (D) 20
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-2
1 1
6. 729, 81, 9, 1, , ?, .
9 729
1 1
(A) (B)
27 81
1 1
(C) (D)
243 486
7. If in a coded language the word ‘REKHA’ is written as ‘AHKER’ then in the same code language
‘HEMA’ will be written as
(A) AMEH (B) EMAH
(C) MAHE (D) EAMH
8. If in a coded language the word CHILDREN is written as EJKNFTGP then TEACHER will be written
as
(A) VGCEJTG (B) VGCEJGT
(C) VGCJEGT (D) VGCGEJT
9. A is paternal uncle of B, B is daughter of C, C is the wife of D’s son. Then how is A related to D?
(A) Son (B) Brother
(C) Father (D) Maternal uncle
10. Ram travels 8 km to south, then moves to right and travels 6 km and at the end he again moves right
and travels 8 km. Then finally how much shortest distance of Ram from initial point is
(A) 6 km (B) 8 km
(C) 10 km (D) 14 km
12. If ‘A3P’ means ‘A is the mother of P’, ‘A4P’ means ‘A is the brother of P’, ‘A9P’ means ‘A is the
husband of P’ and ‘A5P’ means ‘A is the daughter of P’, then which of the following means that K is
the mother-in-law of M?
(A) M9N3K4J (B) M9N5K3J
(C) K5J9M3N (D) K3J9N4M
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-3
Directions (Q. 13 to 14): In the following diagram rectangle represents men, triangle represents educated,
circle represents urban and square represents government employees.
8
10 7
12 6 13
4
9 14
11
5
13. Which one of the following number represents the educated men but not urban?
(A) 9 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 11
14. Which one of the following represents men who are urban as well as government employees?
(A) 7 (B) 13
(C) 10 (D) 6
15. Pointing to a lady, a man said “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife”. How is the lady
related to the man?
(A) Mother’s sister (B) Grandmother
(C) Sister of father-in-law (D) Maternal aunt
16. When the following figure is folded to form a cube, which number is opposite to the face 3?
1
3 2
4
5 6
(A) 1 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-4
17. Sara is older than Mala. Gopal is older than Mala but younger than Sara. Kapil is younger than Ram
and Mala. Mala is older than Ram. Who is the eldest?
(A) Sara (B) Mala
(C) Kapil (D) Gopal
18. In a coded language ‘RUSTY’ is written as 96872. Then in the same coded language ‘ZXWV’ will be
written as
(A) 1354 (B) 1543
(C) 1345 (D) 1534
19. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the
correct sequence.
1. Spruce 2. Spume 3. Spree 4. Spurt 5. Sprawl
(A) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 (D) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
Directions (Q. 20 to 21): Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer the questions
given below:
FJMPOWRNBEYCKAVLDGXUHQISZT
20. Which letter is tenth to the right of the letter which is exactly the middle letter between F and D?
(A) D (B) G
(C) H (D) X
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511 3
255 7
127 15
63 ?
(A) 30 (B) 31
(C) 32 (D) 33
23. If every letter of English Alphabets beginning from ‘B’ is replaced by consecutive odd number
beginning with 3, which number will be 3rd to the right of the 10th letter counting from the right end?
(A) 17 (B) 33
(C) 23 (D) 39
24. If ‘–‘ stands for addition, ‘+’ stands for subtraction, ‘’ stands for multiplication and ‘×’ stands for
division, then which one of the following equations is correct?
(A) 25 × 5 20 – 27 + 7 = 120 (B) 25 + 5 × 20 – 27 7 = 128
(C) 25 + 5 – 20 27 × 7 = 95 (D) 25 – 5 + 20 × 27 7 = 100
Directions (Q. 25 to 27): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, not necessarily in
the same order. C is third to the left of E, B is not an immediate neighbour of either E or C. H is not an
immediate neighbour of E. D is third to the right of B, H is second to the left of A. F is not immediate
neighbour of H.
26. Which of the following pairs of people correctly represents the pair of people who are immediate
neighbour of H?
(A) DG (B) GA
(C) AD (D) BG
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-6
Directions (Q. 28 to 30): In each question below is given a group of letter followed by found combination of
digits/symbol numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the four combination correct
represents combination as your answers.
Letter R E A U M D F P Q I O H N W Z B
Symbol 7 # $ 6 % 8 5 * 4 9 @ 3 1 2
(i) If first letter is a consonant and the third letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the fourth letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as the code for
the vowel.
(iii) If the second and the third letters are consonant both are to be coded as the code for the third letter.
28. NABAQE
(A) 2$3$4# (B) 32$$4#
(C) 3$2$4# (D) 3$2$3#
29. FWZERA
(A) 5#7$ (B) 5#7$
(C) 17#$ (D) 511#7$
30. EMIRDP
(A) #%978* (B) #%9#8*
(C) 7%9#8* (D) #9%78*
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-7
Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
34. Find the force applied by block A on block B. (All the surfaces A B
10 N 5N
are smooth) 3 kg 2 kg
(A) 10 N (B) 5 N
(C) 7 N (D) 15 N
36. If a resultant force of 30 N acts on a body of mass 6 kg. What is the acceleration of the body?
(A) 20 m / sec 2 (B) 12 m / sec 2
(C) 5 m / sec 2 (D) 8 m / sec 2
37. Gravitational force between two spherical bodies is directly proportional to which of the following
quantity?
(A) Distance between the bodies (B) Velocities of the bodies
(C) Speed of the bodies (D) Masses of the bodies
38. If a planet moves around the star in circular orbit then which quantity does not change with time?
(A) Speed (B) Momentum
(C) Velocity (D) None of these
39. What is the value of gravitational acceleration at the center of the earth?
(A) 10 m / sec 2 (B) 0 m / sec 2
(C) Infinite (D) 5 m / sec 2
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-8
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 40 to 48. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
43. At what temperature, does ice and water co-exist together at 1 atmospheric pressure?
(A) 298 K (B) 273 K
(C) 300 K (D) All of these
48. At 100°C steam has more heat energy than the energy of boiling water because
(A) Steam has lesser kinetic energy than boiling water
(B) Steam has latent heat of vapourization
(C) Steam has lesser potential energy than boiling water
(D) All of the above
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-9
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 49 to 57. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
52. The continued product of (1 – x), (1 + x), (1 + x2), (1 + x4) and (1 + x8) is
(A) (1 – x8 + x16) (B) (x8 + x16)
16
(C) (1 – x ) (D) (x16 – 1)
Space for Rough Work
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53. Determine the ratio in which y – x + 2 = 0 divides the line joining (3, – 1) and (8, 9)
(A) 3 : 5 (B) 4 : 3
(C) 2 : 3 (D) none of these
54. Find the value of k, if the points (– 2, 5), (– 5, – 10) and (k, – 13) are collinear
5 28
(A) (B) –
28 5
(C) 28 (D) 5
56. The sides of a triangle are 25m, 39m and 56m respectively. Find the length of the altitude on the side
56m.
(A) 15 m (B) 16.5 m
(C) 18.6 m (D) 21 m
x
3
3
x2
57. If x x 2 , then the value of x can be
3 9
(A) (B)
2 4
16 8
(C) (D)
25 27
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-11
BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 58 to 66. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
59. Red Sindhi, Sahiwal, Jersey and Brown Swiss are breeds of
(A) Goat (B) Buffalo
(C) Cow (D) Poultry
60. When fluoride concentration in water exceeds 1.5 mg/lit, the disease that may be caused is:
(A) Itai-Itai (B) Polio
(C) Blue baby syndrome (D) Fluorosis
(A) (I) and (II) only (B) (II) and (III) only
(C) (III) only (D) None of the above
62. Phagocytosed food is digested with the help of enzymes which are present in
(A) Ribosomes (B) Lysosomes
(C) Mitochondria (D) Golgi complex
64. A plant tissue whose cells are capable of dividing and redividing is called
(A) Complex tissue (B) Connective tissue
(C) Permanent tissue (D) Meristematic tissue
66. Statement I: The cells of parenchyma are dead and have thick deposition of lignin on their walls.
Statement II: Lignin makes the walls of cork impervious to gases and water.
(A) If both statement I and II are true
(B) If both statement I and II are false
(C) If statement I is true, statement II is false
(D) If statement I is false, statement II is true
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-12
Section – III
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 78. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
67. A body starts from rest with an acceleration of 2 m / sec 2 . Find the displacement of the body in 5
second from the start.
(A) 25 meter (B) 50 meter
(C) 10 meter (D) 10 meter
68. A body is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 20 m/sec from the ground. Find the
speed of the ball when it reaches half of the maximum height. Take g 10 m / sec 2 .
(A) 2 m/s (B) 200 m/s
(C) 10 2 m/s (D) 30 m/s
70. If a body is just released from a height 80 meter above the ground. What time it will take to reach the
ground. Take g 10 m / sec 2
(A) 2 2 seconds (B) 8 seconds
(C) 2 seconds (D) 4 seconds
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-13
71. A resultant force of 40 N acts for 4 seconds on a body of mass 2 kg initially at rest. What is the
momentum of the body at 4 seconds?
(A) 80 kg m/sec (B) 20 kg m/sec
(C) 160 kg m/sec (D) 22 kg m/sec
72. According to Newton’s second law, rate of change of momentum is equal to which physical quantity?
(A) Acceleration (B) Force
(C) Velocity (D) Mass
73. If a body is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 90 m/sec from the ground. The momentum of
the body when it reaches its maximum height is.
(A) Zero (B) 90 kg m/sec
(C) 9 kg m/sec (D) 100 kg m/sec
74. Two forces of 4 N and 3 N are acting perpendicular to each other on a body. What is the resultant
force acting on the body?
(A) 7 N (B) 1 N
(C) 12 N (D) 5 N
75. Value of gravitational acceleration on the earth surface depends on which factor?
(A) Mass of earth (B) Friction on the earth surface
(C) Time on the earth surface (D) None of these
76. Value of gravitational acceleration at a depth equal to half of the radius of the earth will be :–
( Take g 10 m / s 2 at the surface of the earth).
(A) 9.8 m / sec 2 (B) 5 m / sec 2
(C) 10 m / sec 2 (D) 2 m / sec 2
77. As we move above the surface of the earth. How the value of g varies with height?
(A) It remain same (B) It increases
(C) It decreases (D) None of these
78. A body starts from rest and moves with an acceleration of 6 m / sec 2 . Find the displacement of the
body in 6th second of its motion.
(A) 30 meter (B) 36 meter
(C) 22 meter (D) 33 meter
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-14
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 79 to 90. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
84. At 20°C the solubility of salt X is 34.7 g in 100 g of water. If the density of saturated solution is 1.3
g/ml, the weight/volume (w/v) percentage of solution is
(A) 25.76 (B) 32.98
(C) 33.49 (D) 22.56
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-15
86. The process which is responsible for the formation of delta at a place where river meets the sea is :
(A) Coagulation (B) Colloid formation
(C) Emulsification (D) All of these
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-16
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 91 to 102. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
91. The ratio of two numbers is 15 : 11. If their HCF be 13 then these numbers will be
(A) 15, 11 (B) 75, 55
(C) 105, 77 (D) 195, 143
92. If two angles are complementary to each other, then each angle is
(A) a right angle (B) a supplementary angle
(C) an obtuse angle (D) an acute angle
93. A (– 3, 2) and B(5, 4) are the end points of a line segment. Find the co-ordinates of the mid point of
the line segment.
(A) (1, 3) (B) (2, 3)
(C) (3, 2) (D) (4, 3)
94. In a triangle ABC, if AB, BC and AC are the three sides of the triangle, then which of the following
statements is necessarily true?
(A) AB + BC < AC (B) AB + BC > AC
(C) AB + BC = AC (D) AB2 + BC2 = AC2
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98. Find the number of numbers lying between 1 and 1000 which are divisible by each of 6, 7 and 15.
(A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 3
100. The unit digit of every prime number(other than 2 and 5) must be necessarily.
(A) 1, 3 or 5 (B) 1, 3, 7 or 9
(C) 7 or 9 (D) 1 or 7
2
1 1
101. The value of is
5 2 5 2
(A) 10 5 (B) 2 5
(C) 10 (D) 20
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-18
BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 103 to 114. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
105. Which of the following will be harmed most in a food chain due to the presence of harmful pesticide in
water?
(A) Phytoplankton (B) Zooplankton
(C) Small fishes (D) Kingfisher
108. The tissue that helps in the movement of our body are
(A) Muscular tissue (B) Skeletal tissue
(C) Nervous tissue (D) All of the above
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-19
110. To solve the food problem of the country, which among the following is not completely necessary?
(A) To improve the variety of crops
(B) To increase the production of crops
(C) To protect the crops from diseases and pests
(D) To adapt organic farming
111. The pollutant ‘A’ can contaminate the water bodies making the fishes, shrimps and crabs highly
poisonous. The accumulated pollutant in the sea food intoxicates people who feed upon these sea
foods. It causes severe neurological problems. Identify the pollutant ‘A’.
(A) Fluorine (B) Mercury
(C) Nitrates (D) Cadmium
112. Pancreatic cells help in the secretion of proteinaceous hormones. Which of the following should be
higher in number in pancreatic cells?
(A) RER (B) SER
(C) Lysosome (D) Centrosome
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-20
CLASS – IX (PAPER – 1)
ANSWERS
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. B
5. C 6. B 7. A 8. B
9. A 10. A 11. A 12. B
13. D 14. D 15. C 16. D
17. A 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. B 22. B 23. D 24. A
25. A 26. D 27. C 28. C
29. D 30. B 31. D 32. D
33. A 34. C 35. B 36. C
37. D 38. A 39. B 40. D
41. B 42. C 43. B 44. C
45. C 46. B 47. C 48. B
49. C 50. C 51. B 52. C
53. C 54. B 55. B 56. A
57. B 58. D 59. C 60. D
61. D 62. B 63. C 64. D
65. C 66. B 67. A 68. C
69. B 70. D 71. C 72. B
73. A 74. D 75. A 76. B
77. C 78. D 79. C 80. D
81. A 82. C 83. C 84. C
85. B 86. A 87. C 88. A
89. C 90. A 91. D 92. D
93. A 94. B 95. B 96. A
97. A 98. C 99. D 100. B
101. D 102. A 103. D 104. B
105. D 106. A 107. C 108. D
109. A 110. D 111. B 112. A
113. A 114. A
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-21
Class 9
Paper 2
Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm – 4:45 pm) Maximum Marks: 240
Code 9009
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
2. This Question paper consists of 4 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
PHYSICS (PART-A) 1 to 6 +1 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 7 to 12 +1 0
SECTION – I MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 13 to 18 +1 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 19 to 24 +1 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 25 to 32 +3 –1
SECTION – II CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 33 to 40 +3 –1
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 41 to 48 +3 –1
PHYSICS (PART-A) 49 to 54 +3 –1
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 55 to 60 +3 –1
SECTION – III MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 61 to 66 +3 –1
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 67 to 72 +3 –1
PHYSICS (PART-A) 73 to 77 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 78 to 82 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 83 to 87 +3 0
SECTION – IV PHYSICS (PART-D) 88 to 90 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-E) 91 to 93 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-F) 94 to 96 +3 0
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
6. See method of marking of bubbles at the back of cover page for question no. 88 to 96.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 96 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-22
For questions 88 to 96
Numerical based questions single digit answer 0 to 9
Example 1:
If answer is 6.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Example 2:
If answer is 2.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
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1. A body is moving with an initial velocity of 5 m/sec accelerates at 1m / s2 . Its velocity after 5 sec
will be
(A) 20 m/s (B) 10 m/s
(C) 5 m/s (D) zero
2. A body starts from rest with a uniform acceleration of 4 m / s2 and is moving in a horizontal
direction. Distance travelled by it in 5 sec is :–
(A) 50 m (B) 20 m
(C) 8 m (D) 10 m
5. If me is the mass of a body on the surface of the earth and mm is the mass of the same body on
the surface of moon then
(A) me 6 mm (B) me mm
(C) me mm (D) me mm
6. How does the force of gravitation between two objects change when the distance between them
is reduced to half?
(A) it becomes half (B) it becomes two times
(C) it becomes four times (D) it becomes eight times
Space for Rough Work
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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 7 to 12. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
11. In milk :
(A) Water is dispersed in fat (B) Fat is dispersed in water
(C) Water is dispersed in protein (D) Homogeneous mixture of several substance
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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 13 to 18. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
14. In right angled triangle ABC, ACB = 90°. If EFB = 45°, CBF = 30° B
and also AD = DF and DE = EF, then equal to
(A) 60° (B) 75° E
30°
(C) 100° (D) 25° D 45°
A F C
9
15. If one of the interior angle of a regular polygon is found to be times of one of the interior angle
8
of a regular hexagon, then the number of sides of the polygon is
(A) 8 (B) 14
(C) 12 (D) 10
16. When a polynomial p(x) = x 2 – 3x + 5 is divided by (x – 1), then the remainder is R1 and when
other polynomial q(x) = x3 – 3x2 + 3x + 5 is divided by (x – 2), then the remainder is R2. Find the
10R1R 2
value of .
7 R1 R 2
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 10 (D) none of these
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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 19 to 24. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
23. The ability to distinguish between two close points in a light microscope is known as
(A) Magnification (B) Resolution
(C) Contrast (D) All of the above
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Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions number 25 to 32. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
25. Two masses m and M are kept at a distance r. The ratio of the force exerted on m due to M and
that on M due to m is equal to
m M
(A) (B)
M m
mr
(C) (D) 1 : 1
M
26. What will be the magnitude of change in momentum imparted by the floor to a ball of mass 1 kg if
it falls from the height of 100 cm on the floor and rebound vertically upward with same speed?
g 10 m / s2
(A) 2 5 kgm / s (B) 5 kgm / s
(C) 4 5 kgm / s (D) zero
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28. An object is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 20 m/s. Maximum height attained by
the object from the point of projection is :– Take g 10 m / s2
(A) 10 m (B) 20 m
(C) 40 m (D) 5 m
29. A bus moving along straight line increases its speed from 36 km/h to 72 km/h in 5 sec,
acceleration of the bus is :–
(A) 7.2 m / s2 (B) 1m / s2
(C) 2 m / s2 (D) 4 m / s2
30. If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and remaining 3/5th distance with speed v 2
then the average speed is
1 v v2
(A) v1v 2 (B) 1
2 2
2v1v 2 5v 1v 2
(C) (D)
v1 v 2 3v1 2v 2
31. A body is dropped from some height and it falls through a distance d in a certain time on the
earth, then if the same body is dropped on another planet having mass and radius twice as that of
the earth, the distance through which it falls in the same time is (considering acceleration due to
gravity to be constant over small altitude)
d
(A) (B) 2 d
2
(C) 4 d (D) d
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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions number 33 to 40. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
36. Which property of colloid is NOT dependent on the charge of colloidal particles?
(A) Coagulation (B) Electrophoresis
(C) Tyndall effect (D) All of the above
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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions number 41 to 48. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
41. If one root of the polynomial p(x) = 3x 2 – 8x – (2k + 1) is seven times the other, then value of k is
5 5
(A) (B)
3 3
2 2
(C) (D)
3 3
42. The points (2, 2), (6, 3) and (4, 11) are the vertices of
(A) an equilateral triangle (B) an isosceles triangle
(C) a right angled triangle (D) a scalene triangle
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1 1 1 1
45. Value of 1 2 1 2 1 2 .......... 1 2
2 3 4 85
33 45
(A) (B)
85 85
55
(C) (D) none of these
85
48. If P = 533 + 533 + 533 + 533 + 533 and Q = 333 + 333 + 333 and PQ = 15x, then x equal to
(A) 32 (B) 30
(C) 34 (D) 35
Space for Rough Work
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49. A body is thrown vertically upwards and rises to a height of 10 m. The velocity with which the
body was thrown upwards is (g = 9.8 m/sec2)
(A) 16 m/sec (B) 15 m/sec
(C) 14 m/sec (D) 12 m/sec
50. The radius of earth is about 6400 km and that of mars is 3200 km and the mass of the earth is
about 10 times the mass of mars. An object weighs 200 N on the surface of earth. Then its weight
on surface of mars will be
(A) 80 N (B) 40 N
(C) 20 N (D) 8 N
51. A body of mass 2 kg is initially moving with a velocity of 4 m/sec. Now a force of 1.25 N acts on it
in the direction of initial motion for 8 sec. Final velocity of the body is
(A) 12.5 m/sec (B) 17 m/sec
(C) 9 m/sec (D) 25 m/sec
52. A car accelerates from rest at 5 m/s2 and then retards to rest at 3 m/s2. The maximum velocity of
the car is 30 m/s. What is the distance covered by the car over the entire journey?
(A) 150 m (B) 240 m
(C) 300 m (D) 360 m
53. When a ball is thrown up vertically with velocity v0, it reaches a maximum height of h. If one
wishes to triple the maximum height then the ball should be thrown with velocity.
(A) 3 v0 (B) 3 v0
(C) v0 (D) 3 v0/2
54. If the weight of a body on the surface of earth is W, then its weight at a height (measured from
earth’s surface) equal to double the radius of earth is
(A) W (B) W/2
(C) W/3 (D) W/9
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-33
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 55 to 60. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-34
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 61 to 66. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1 2 1
61. If 2x
3x
y , then the value of 9x 2 in terms of y is
4x
4 4 4
(A) y 2 (B) y 2
3 9 3
9 2 4 2 2 4
(C) y (D) y
4 3 3 3
62. If the two sides of a triangle are 9 cm and 15 cm, then which of the following lengths cannot be
the length of third side of the triangle?
(A) 12 cm (B) 19 cm
(C) 21 cm (D) 24 cm
63. A number N has three digits. If the digits of N is reversed to make another three digits number M,
if N > M, (N – M) is divisible by
(A) 5 (B) 9
(C) 6 (D) 7
64. If and are the roots of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = 2x 2 – 4x + 1, then the value of
1 1
is equal to
2 2
12 17
(A) (B)
17 12
11 13
(C) (D)
17 17
65. If the mid-points of the sides of a triangle are (1, 5), (2, 6) and (3, 2), the co-ordinates of the
centroid of the triangle is
13
(A) 2, (B) (3, 6)
3
(C) (6.5, 3) (D) (3.5, 6)
66. There are four prime numbers written in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and the
product of last three is 1001. The last number is
(A) 11 (B) 13
(C) 17 (D) 19
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-35
BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 72. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
67. Natural aging of lakes and ponds causes eutrophication due to excess of nutrients in the water
bodies. Which of the following occurs as a result?
(A) BOD decreases (B) BOD increases
(C) DO increases (D) Both (A) and (C)
68. Kalyan Sona and Sonalika became very popular and were fore-runners of Green Revolution in
India. These were varieties of
(A) Rice (B) Wheat
(C) Sugarcane (D) Maize
69. A prokaryotic organism ‘X’ is very small in size. Although a bacteria it does not have a cell wall.
Identify ‘X’.
(A) Mycoplasma (B) Mycobacterium
(C) Lactobacillus (D) All of the above
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Section – IV
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 73 to 77. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
73. The masses of two planets A and B are in the ratio 1 : 2 and their radius are in the ratio 1 : 2
respectively. Then the ratio of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet A to the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet B will be
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 3 : 5 (D) 5 : 3
74. Two particles of equal mass ‘m’ go round a circle of radius ‘R’ on diametrically opposite ends
under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is
1 1 Gm
(A) v (B) v
2R Gm 2R
1 Gm 4Gm
(C) v (D) v
2 R R
75. The time period of a satellite moving around a planet in a circular orbit of radius R is T, the time
period of another satellite moving around the same planet in a circular orbit of radius 4R is
(A) 4 T (B) T/4
(C) 8 T (D) T/8
76. A hammer of mass 500 g, moving at 20 m/s, strikes a nail. The nail stops the hammer in a very
short time of 0.01 sec. What is the magnitude of the force due to nail on the hammer?
(A) 10,000 N (B) 1000 N
(C) 100 N (D) 1 N
77. An aeroplane is moving with constant horizontal velocity u at height h. The velocity of a packet
dropped from aeroplane, when it reaches on the earth’s surface will be (g is acceleration due to
gravity)
(A) u2 2gh (B) 2gh
(C) 2 gh (D) u2 2gh
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-37
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 78 to 82. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
78. Which technique is used in diagnostic laboratories for blood and urine tests?
(A) Filtration (B) Distillation
(C) Sublimation (D) Centrifugation
80. 18 carat gold contains 18 parts gold and 6 parts of copper by mass. The concentration of Au
and Cu in 18 carat gold in % (m/m) respectively is :
(A) 65%, 35 % (B) 40%, 60%
(C) 75%, 25% (D) 80%, 20%
82. Read the given statement and select the correct option :
Statement I : During fractional distillation of petroleum, the temperature increases inside the
fractionating column on going from bottom to the top.
Statement II : The fraction with the lower boiling point condenses first.
(A) Both statement I and II are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
(B) Both statement I and II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(D) Both statement I and II are false
Space for Rough Work
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-38
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 83 to 87. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
84. A number N = ABCD is a four digit number where (A, B, C, D) are digits, in which A + D = 7 and B
+ C = 7. Another number M = DCBA is also a four digit where D, C, B and A are digits. The sum
(N + M) is not divisible by
(A) 7 (B) 11
(C) 101 (D) 111
85. If A is the area of a right angled triangle and b is one of the sides containing the right angle, then
the length of altitude on the hypotenuse is
2Ab 2A 2b
(A) (B)
b4 4A 2 b4 4A 2
2Ab2 2A 2b2
(C) (D)
b4 4A 2 b4 A 2
86. ‘a’ is the smallest odd prime number. If N is smallest two digit number by which a(a2 – 1) is
divisible, then find the sum of digits of N.
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 3 (D) 0
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-39
PHYSICS – (PART – D)
This part contains 3 Numerical Based Questions number 88 to 90. Each question has Single
Digit Answer 0 to 9.
88. A constant retarding force of 20 N is applied on a body of mass 2 kg moving with a speed of 10
m/s. Time taken by the body to stop is x sec. What is the value of x?
89. Two bodies are released from the same height at an interval of 1 sec. t second after the first body
begins to fall, the two bodies are 5 m apart. The value of t in second is :– g 10 m / s2
90. At a height h km above the earth surface the value of acceleration due to gravity g is same as in a
mine d = 10 km deep, find the value of h in km. Given that h and d both are very small as
compared to the radius(R) of the earth.
Space for Rough Work
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CHEMISTRY – (PART – E)
This part contains 3 Numerical Based Questions number 91 to 93. Each question has Single
Digit Answer 0 to 9.
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-41
MATHEMATICS – (PART – F)
This part contains 3 Numerical Based Questions number 94 to 96. Each question has Single
Digit Answer 0 to 9.
94. Let A(0, 0), B(3, 4), C(6, 0) be the co-ordinate of ABC. A point R inside the triangle is such that
RAB, RBC and RAC are of equal area. Find the product of the co-ordinates of R.
95. A triangle is formed by the points A(2, 5) B(3, 8) and C(x, y). If the centroid of ABC is (3, 5) then
1 1
find the value of 8 .
x y
96. In a triangle ABC, if AB = 5 cm, BC = x cm and AC = 4 cm, then find the number of such possible
triangles for which x is an integer?
Space for Rough Work
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CLASS – IX (PAPER – 2)
ANSWERS
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D
5. D 6. C 7. A 8. D
9. A 10. A 11. B 12. A
13. B 14. C 15. A 16. A
17. A 18. C 19. D 20. A
21. D 22. A 23. B 24. C
25. D 26. C 27. C 28. B
29. C 30. D 31. A 32. A
33. B 34. B 35. B 36. C
37. B 38. A 39. B 40. A
41. B 42. C 43. B 44. B
45. D 46. D 47. C 48. C
49. C 50. A 51. C 52. B
53. A 54. D 55. B 56. A
57. D 58. D 59. B 60. D
61. C 62. D 63. B 64. A
65. A 66. B 67. B 68. B
69. A 70. A 71. D 72. C
73. B 74. C 75. C 76. B
77. A 78. D 79. B 80. C
81. D 82. D 83. A 84. D
85. A 86. C 87. A 88. 1
89. 1 90. 5 91. 4 92. 2
93. 4 94. 4 95. 6 96. 7
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